QUIZ COMPILATIONS – FEB PART 1 - Goaltide IAS

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QUIZ COMPILATIONS – FEB PART 1

GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY 1


Q1. Consider the following statements.

1. India is the second largest producer of silk in the world after China.

2. Among all silk verities produced in India, Mulberry accounts for more than 70

percent of total silk production.

3. More than two third of silk production is from southern states of India.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: d

Explanation:

News is:

The Textiles Minister of India, Smriti Irani, inaugurated the 8th India International

Silk Fair on the Virtual Portal. Highlights This fair is the biggest silk fair of India.

The explanation has been taken from Annual Report of Ministry of Textiles, 2019-20.

See link in the end.

Silk is an insect fibre, with lustre, drape and strength. Because of these unique features, silk

is known as the “Queen of Textiles”, the world over. India has been the land of ancient

civilization and has contributed many things to the world, silk being one of them. India is

the second largest producer of silk in the world and also the largest consumer.

Nevertheless, India is the only country, which is producing all the five commercial varieties of silk, namely Mulberry, Tropical Tasar, Oak Tasar, Muga and Eri.



Third statement is correct:

Karnataka is the largest producer of silk in India, accounting for more than a third of

the country’s production. Other silk producing states are Andhra Pradesh, Tamil

Nadu, West Bengal and Bihar.

Also see Central Silk Board,



Link: http://texmin.nic.in/sites/default/files/AR_MoT_2019-20_English.pdf

Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups

(PVTGs):

1. The Dheobar Commission created Primitive Tribal Groups (PTGs) as a separate

category in 1970s, which was later renamed as PVTGs.

2. PVTGs resides in more than 50 percent of total number of Indian states.

3. 50 Percent of PVTGs are found in North Eastern part of India.

Select the correct code.

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3 Solution: a

Explanation:

In 1973, the Dhebar Commission created Primitive Tribal Groups (PTGs) as a separate

category, who are less developed among the tribal groups. In 2006, the Government of

India renamed the PTGs as Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs).

How they are identified?

Government of India designed a procedure to identify PVTGs. According to the procedure,

the state governments or UT governments submit proposals to the Central Ministry of

Tribal Welfare for identification of PVTGs. After ensuring the criteria is fulfilled, the Central

Ministry selects those groups as PVTGs.

Currently, 75 tribal groups have been categorized as Particularly Vulnerable Tribal

Groups (PVTG)s. PVTGs reside in 18 States and UT of A&N Islands. Second statement is

correct.

The Ministry of Tribal Affairs implements the Scheme of “Development of Particularly

Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs)” exclusively for them. Now, you will go through the

entire table given below once. North East covers only a small portion of PVTGs. Go through this table.

Q3. Which of the following is geographically closest to Great Nicobar?

a. Sumatra

b. Borneo

c. Java

d. Lakshadweep

Solution: a

http://texmin.nic.in/sites/default/files/AR_MoT_2019-20_English.pdf

https://tribal.nic.in/DivisionsFiles/ListofPVTGs191212.pdf



Explanation:

Very easy, if you have printed the map in your mind.

Q4. Which of the following is/are defined under Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional

Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006?

1. Critical Wildlife Habitat

2. Critical Tiger Habitat

3. Minor Forest Produce

4. Community Forest Resource


a. 1 and 4 only

b. 1, 3 and 4 only

c. 2, 3 and 4 only

d. 1 and 3 only

Solution: b

Explanation:

Explanation is very simple. Except Critical Wildlife Habitat, everything is defined under this

Act as you can see below. But here, we have already mentioned in previous quizzes, but

now also will teach difference between “Critical Wildlife Habitat” and “Critical Tiger

Habitat”. No one will teach you this. Learn today.



Difference between “Critical Wildlife Habitat” and “Critical Tiger Habitat”

Critical 'tiger' habitats (CTHs), also known as core areas of tiger reserves—are identified

under the Wild Life Protection Act (WLPA), 1972 based on scientific evidence that "such

areas are required to be kept as inviolate for the purpose of tiger conservation, without

affecting the rights of the Scheduled Tribes or such other forest dwellers". The notification

of CTH is done by the state government in consultation with the expert committee constituted for the purpose.

Critical 'wildlife’ habitats (CWLHs), on the other hand, are defined only in the Forest

Rights Act, 2006. CWLHs are meant to be areas of national parks and wildlife sanctuaries

that are required to be kept as inviolate for the purpose of wildlife conservation (not just

tigers). Similar to CTH, the identification of CWLH is done based on scientific and objective

criteria, but it mandatorily requires settlement of forest rights under FRA. Unlike



CTHs, the notification of CWLHs can only be done with the consent of the Gram

Sabhas.

Q5. Consider the following statements regarding International Solar Alliance (ISA).

1. The alliance was jointly was announced by India and France, both lying between

Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn.

2. ISA will replicate the efforts of the other renewable organizations and follow the

guidelines of its parent organization, International Renewable Energy Agency

(IRENA).

3. ISA will enter into force from January 2021. Select the correct code.

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. None

Solution: d

Explanation:

One thing I am going to change now, I will try not give questions with all statements correct. Result is you don’t try to learn then, even it is guessing work.

The initiative was launched by France and India during the Climate Conference in Paris

in December 2015, COP 21, with the aim of removing the obstacles standing in the way of

solar energy and accelerating its deployment. The ISA is the first intergovernmental

organization to be based in India.

First statement is incorrect.

France is not between Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn.

Second statement is incorrect. It is taken directly from website, that what UPSC does.

ISA will not duplicate or replicate the efforts that others (like International Renewable

Energy Agency (IRENA), Renewable Energy and Energy Efficiency Partnership (REEEP),

International Energy Agency (IEA), Renewable Energy Policy Network for the 21st Century

(REN21), United Nations bodies, bilateral organizations etc.) are currently engaged in, but

will establish networks and develop synergies with them and supplement their efforts in a sustainable and focused manner.



The International Solar Alliance (ISA), a group of 121 solar resource rich countries, has

formally entered into force and acquired the status of an international organization.

Third statement is incorrect.

Q6. In the context of India, ‘Right to know’ about the assets and qualifications of contesting

candidates is a:

a. Fundamental Right

b. Constitutional Right

c. Legal Right

d. Doesn’t confer any right

Solution: a

Explanation:

The court in its judgment in Union of India v. Association for Democratic Reforms &

Another (2002) held that every voter had a fundamental right to know, under Article

19(1)(a), the assets and qualifications of candidates because it was only on receipt of

such information that they could express themselves by exercising their vote for the best candidate.


1. There should not be a gap of more than six months between two sessions of

Parliament.

2. A notice of the motion to remove SC Judge shall be accepted by Speaker after it is

signed by 100 members of Lok Sabha.

Which of the following provisions are mentioned in the Constitution?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a

Explanation:

By convention, Parliament meets for three sessions in a year. The Constitution does not

specify when or for how many days Parliament should meet.



Article 85 only requires that there should not be a gap of more than six months

between two sessions of Parliament. This is part of Constitution.

Parliament enacted The Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968. There it is mentioned that it should

be signed by 100 members of Lok Sabha. Read below. It is not mentioned in the Constitution.

Q8. Which of the following temples is dedicated to Lord Shiva?

1. Venkateshwara Temple, Tirupati



2. Mahakaleshwar Temple, Ujjain

3. Jagannath Temple, Puri

4. Ekambareswarar Temple, Tamil Nadu


a. 1, 2 and 3 only

b. 1 and 4 only

c. 2 and 4 only

d. 2, 3 and 4 only

Solution: c

Explanation:

Venkateswara Temple is an important Vaishnavite temple situated in the hill town of

Tirumala in Chittoor district of Andhra Pradesh, India. The Temple is dedicated to Lord Venkateswara, an incarnation of Vishnu.

Ekambareswarar Temple is a Hindu temple dedicated to the deity Shiva, located in the

town of Kanchipuram in Tamil Nadu, India.

About Mahakaleshwar Temple: Situated on the banks of the holy river Shipra in Ujjain,

the Mahakaleshwar Temple dedicated to Lord Shiva is one of the most famous shrines in

the country.


1. When the Vice-President acts as President or discharges the functions of the

President, he continues to perform the duties of the office of Chairman of the

Council of States.

2. All doubts and disputes arising out of or in connection with the election of a Vice-

President shall be decided by the Supreme Court.

3. A procedure to remove Vice President is not provided in the Constitution.


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 2 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: c



Explanation:

First Statement: incorrect

Second Statement: correct

Third Statement: incorrect

Removal Procedure is provided by Article 67 (2)


1. A non-citizen cannot be a contesting candidate in the elections

2. For contesting an election as a candidate, a person must be registered as a voter.

3. If you are a registered voter in Delhi, you cannot contest an election to Lok Sabha

from any other constituency in the country.


a. 1 only



b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 2 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: c

Explanation:

Statement 1: correct

A non-citizen cannot be a contesting candidate in the elections. Article 84 (a) of the

Constitution of India envisages that a person shall not be qualified to be chosen to fill up a

seat in the Parliament unless he is a citizen of India. Similar provision exists for State

Legislative Assemblies in Article 173 (a) of the Constitution.

Statement 2: correct

For contesting an election as a candidate, a person must be registered as a voter. Sec

4 (d) of Representation People Act, 1951 precludes a person from contesting unless he is

an elector in any parliamentary constituency. Section 5 (c) of R. P. Act, 1951 has a similar

provision for Assembly Constituencies.

Statement 2: wrong

If you are a registered voter in Delhi, you can contest an election to Lok Sabha from any

constituency in the country except Assam, Lakshadweep and Sikkim, as per Section 4 (c), 4 (cc) and 4 (ccc) of the R. P. Act, 1951.

https://eci.gov.in/faqs/elections/contesting-for-elections/faqs-contesting-for-elections-r4/



Q11. With reference to 15th Commission Report, consider the following statements.

1. Forest and Ecology

2. higher tax collection efficiency.

3. Demographic performance

4. Fiscal Deficit

5. Income Distance

Which of the above criteria were used first time in 15th Commission Report to determine

each state’s share in central taxes?

a. 3, 4 and 5 only

b. 2, 3 and 4 only

c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3 only

Solution: d

Explanation:

Income Distance criteria is not new. It was used before also.

Fiscal Deficit is not any criteria.



Income distance: Income distance is the distance of the state’s income from the state with

the highest income. The income of a state has been computed as average per capita GSDP

during the three-year period between 2015-16 and 2017-18. States with lower per capita

income would be given a higher share to maintain equity among states.

Tax effort: This criterion has been used to reward states with higher tax collection

efficiency. It has been computed as the ratio of the average per capita own tax revenue and

the average per capita state GDP during the three-year period between 2014-15 and 2016-17.

Forest and ecology: This criterion have been arrived at by calculating the share of dense

forest of each state in the aggregate dense forest of all the states.

Q12. Neptune Declaration was recently seen in news is related to:

a. Gender Equality and women empowerment

b. Tariff free movement of goods to countries hardly hit due to COVID-19 pandemic

mostly developing countries

c. Seafarers Wellbeing & Crew Change

d. International Space Station

Solution: c

Explanation:



Maritime body MUI urged the government to take cognizance of 'Neptune Declaration on

Seafarer Wellbeing and Crew Change' in the formulation of Maritime India Vision 2030.

The Neptune declaration primarily focuses on recognizing seafarers as key workers by all

governments worldwide.

The Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways of India will be formulating 'Maritime India Vision'.

Neptune Declaration

The Neptune Declaration was signed by more than 450 organizations. The declaration

highlights the main actions that are required to be taken in order to resolve the crew

change crisis.

The daily lives and wellbeing of seafarers was highly impacted due to COVID-19 pandemic.

It led to a humanitarian crisis at sea.

This declaration has mentioned four main actions that is needful to address the crew change crisis:

A. To recognize the seafarers as the key workers and provide them priority access to

Covid-19 vaccines.

B. To establish and implement the gold standard health protocols which are based on

the existing best practice.

C. To increase the collaboration between the ship operators and charterers so as to

facilitate the crew changes. D. To ensure the air connectivity between the key maritime hubs for seafarers

Link: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/politics-and-nation/maritime-body-

mui-urges-indian-shipping-ministry-to-take-cognisance-of-neptune-

declaration/articleshow/80610526.cms

Q13. Consider the following statements regarding Green India Mission.

1. GIM is one of the eight missions launched under the National Action Plan on Climate

Change (NAPCC).

2. GIM aims to both increasing the forest and tree cover as well as increasing the quality

of the existing forest cover.

3. To increase forest/tree cover to the extent of 5 million hectares is the objective of

Mission.


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3

https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/politics-and-nation/maritime-body-mui-urges-indian-shipping-ministry-to-take-cognisance-of-neptune-declaration/articleshow/80610526.cms





Solution: d

Explanation:

The central government’s afforestation scheme, Green India Mission (GIM), was able to only achieve 2.8 per cent of its plantation target, according to the Economic Survey released by the Ministry of Finance on January 29, 2021. The target of the 10-year scheme flagged off in 2015 is to increase forest/tree cover on 5 million hectares (m ha) of forest/non-forest land and improve the quality of forest cover on another 5 m ha area.

The National Mission for a Green India or Green India Mission (GIM) is one of the eight Missions outlined under NAPCC.



As per the note furnished by MoEF&CC, GIM aims to both increasing the forest and tree

cover as well as increasing the quality of the existing forest cover. The Scheme was proposed for a period of 10 years.

Link: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/governance/only-2-8-plantation-target-

achieved-under-green-india-mission-economic-survey-75267

Q14. Which of the following officer has the power to disqualify a Member of the Legislature

for occupying an ‘Office of Profit’?

a. The Chief Election Commissioner

b. The President

c. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha

d. The Leader of the House concerned whose Member is to be disqualified

Solution: b

Explanation:

Article 102(1)(a) of the Constitution of India recognizes “holding any Office of Profit under

the government” a ground for disqualification from being a Member of Parliament (MP) as

well as contesting parliamentary elections to be chosen as an MP.

https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/governance/only-2-8-plantation-target-achieved-under-green-india-mission-economic-survey-75267

https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/governance/only-2-8-plantation-target-achieved-under-green-india-mission-economic-survey-75267



The objective of Article 102(1)(a) is to ensure that the representatives of the people

discharge their assigned functions without fear or favour from the Executive. To avoid a

conflict between the primary duties of an elected member and the Parliament, the

provisions of the Article stipulate that Members of Parliament who hold an “Office of Profit”

must be disqualified.

This decision of disqualification is taken by the President, and his decision is

uncontested and final. The decision-making process is supplemented by the opinions of

the Election Commission, which the President is bound to follow. The advice of the Council

of Ministers is not taken into consideration to this effect. Therefore, the correct answer is

(b).

Q15. In the context of the location of industries, the supply of raw material is the most

important factor for which of the following industries?

a. Automobile Industry

b. Electronic Goods Industry

c. Sugar Industry

d. Cotton Textile Industry

Solution: c



Explanation:

Industries using weight-losing raw materials are located in the regions, where raw

materials are located. Thus, sugar mills in India are located in sugarcane growing areas.

Sugarcane needs to be supplied to mills within 24 hours of cutting to ensure better

recovery of sugar. Hence, the location of Sugar mills is near the sugarcane producing areas.

Similarly, the pulp industry, copper smelting and pig iron industries are located near their

raw materials. Options (a) and (b) are examples of weight gaining industry, and they

require more diverse ancillary material. Hence, these are generally located near the

market. Cotton textile is not a weight losing industry. The raw material is not the most

dominant factor, but a humid climate, cheap labour and transport and most importantly, a

market for trade determine the location of the cotton textile industry. Therefore, the

correct answer is (c).

Q16. Consider the following countries of South America.

1. Bolivia

2. Ecuador

3. Paraguay

4. Uruguay

Which of the above countries doesn’t share boundaries with Ocean?

a. 1, 3 and 4 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 4 only

Solution: c

Explanation:

Except Bolivia and Paraguay, all other countries share boundaries with Oceans.



Q17. "Hindola Raga"-A famous paintings belongs to:

a. Pala School of Paintings

b. Mughal School of Paintings

c. Western Indian School of Paintings

d. Deccan School of Paintings

Solution: d

Explanation:

It Belongs to Ahmednagar.

Link: http://ccrtindia.gov.in/miniaturepainting.php

Q18. Consider the following bodies.

1. President

2. Vice- President

3. Speaker of Lok Sabha

4. Deputy Chairman of Legislative Council

5. Governor

Second schedule of Indian Constitution lists the emoluments of which of the following

Bodies?

http://ccrtindia.gov.in/miniaturepainting.php



a. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only

b. 1, 3 and 4 only

c. 1, 3, 4 and 5 only

d. All of the above

Solution: c

Explanation:

This question needs your bit attention. If you look at second schedule. It lists emoluments

for the:

President, Governors of States, Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the House of the

People and the Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Council of States and the Speaker

and the Deputy Speaker of the Legislative Assembly and the Chairman and the Deputy

Chairman of the Legislative Council of a State, the Judges of the Supreme Court and of the

High Courts and the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India.

It doesn’t contain for Vice President. This body is already covered under Chairman of

Rajya Sabha (Vice-President is ex-officio chairman of Rajya Sabha).

Q19. In the context of temple architectures, Keralantakam, Rasarasan and Tiruanukkam

represents:

a. Separate kitchen areas for different group of people inside Virupaksha Temple

b. different religious places in the temple to perform different religious activities

during Guptas

c. Places dedicated for waste management of Temple during the reign of Vijayanagar

d. Three Main entrances to the shrine in Brihadisvara Temple

Solution: d

Explanation:

Brihadisvara Temple: some important features of temple.





Q20. Consider The following pairs.

traditions Belongs to

1. Kalaripayattu Martial Art

Kerala

2. Silambam Martial Art Tamil Nadu

3. Kambala Race Karnataka

Which of the above pairs is/are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: d

Explanation:

traditions Belongs to

1. Kalaripayattu Martial Art

Kerala

2. Silambam Martial Art Tamil Nadu

3. Kambala Race Karnataka




1. Rajasthan is the major source of sandstone in India. 2. Reserves of copper are found in Rajasthan and Jharkhand. 3. The State of Rajasthan is also endowed with the largest share of resources of nickel

ore in the country.


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only c. 1 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: a

Explanation:

News was Rajasthan Denotifies Forest Area to Mine Pink Sandstone for Ram Temple.

So, we took sandstone and framed question. Such questions have appeared before in exam. So be prepared for it.

Explanation has been taken from Indian Bureau of Mines Report 2020.

First statement is correct:

Second statement is correct.




: https://science.thewire.in/environment/rajasthan-denotifies-forest-area-to-mine-pink-sandstone-for-r

Link: https://science.thewire.in/environment/rajasthan-denotifies-forest-area-to-mine-

pink-sandstone-for-ram-temple/

Q22. Which of the following criterion is correct for designating any wetland as of International Importance?

1. A wetland should be considered internationally important if it supports plant or animal species at a critical stage in their life cycles.

2. A wetland should be considered internationally important if it supports populations of plant or animal species important for maintaining the biological diversity of a particular biogeographic region.

https://science.thewire.in/environment/rajasthan-denotifies-forest-area-to-mine-pink-sandstone-for-ram-temple/

https://science.thewire.in/environment/rajasthan-denotifies-forest-area-to-mine-pink-sandstone-for-ram-temple/



3. A wetland should be considered internationally important if it regularly supports

20,000 or more waterbirds.


a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: d

Explanation:

What convention says,

Article 2.2 states: ‘Wetlands should be selected for the List on account of their international

significance in terms of ecology, botany, zoology, limnology or hydrology.’

Accordingly, any wetland which meets at least one of the Criteria for Identifying

Wetlands of International Importance can be designated by the appropriate national authority to be added to the Ramsar List.

Ab what all criteria, it has provided: There are total nine criteria:



Q23. “Sustainable Development of Little Andaman Island Vision Document” has been recently released by:

a. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change b. NITI Aayog c. Ministry of Home Affairs

d. Food and Agricultural organization

Solution: b

Explanation:

The ‘Sustainable Development of Little Andaman Island - Vision Document’, is the

NITI Aayog’s proposal to leverage the strategic location and natural features of the island.



This, the vision says, will be done by building a new greenfield coastal city there, that will

be developed as a free trade zone and will compete with Singapore and Hong Kong.

In next question, we will solve one question on Andaman and Nicobar map.

Link: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/financial-tourist-complex-on-little-andaman-a-bullet-through-an-islands-heart/article33710255.ece

Q24. Consider the following.

1. Little Andaman 2. South Andaman

3. Port Blair

4. Duncan Passage

Arrange the above places from North to South.

a. 1-3-4-2 b. 1-4-3-2 c. 3-1-2-4

d. 2-3-4-1

Solution: d

Explanation:

Map ko dimag main print kr lijye. Please don’t forget.

Just two years with full dedication. Exam ho jaata h clear. Jo weak students h unko ek saal

jada lagta, par exam ho jaayga. Believe in yourself.

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/financial-tourist-complex-on-little-andaman-a-bullet-through-an-islands-heart/article33710255.ece

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/financial-tourist-complex-on-little-andaman-a-bullet-through-an-islands-heart/article33710255.ece



Q25. Consider the following statements regarding Agricultural and Processed Food

Products Export Development Authority (APEDA)

1. It is an organization under Ministry of Agriculture and farmers welfare.

2. It is a statutory body chaired by Union Minister.

3. It is responsible for promoting exports of Agriculture and Processed Food Products

from India.


a. 1 and 3 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: c

Explanation:



APEDA is an organization under Ministry of Commerce & Industry, Government of

India.

It is responsible for promoting exports of Agriculture and Processed Food Products from

India. It was established under the Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export

Development Authority Act passed by the Parliament in 1985.

Union Minister is not the Chairperson of APEDA.



It is responsible for promoting exports of Agriculture and Processed Food Products

from India.

Q26. The appointment of District judges in a State are made by

a. The governor in consultation with the High Court of the State

b. Chief Minister in consultation with the High Court of the State

c. Chief Minister in consultation with the Chief Justice of India

d. Governor in consultation with the President

Solution: a

Explanation:

Article 233 of the Constitution states that:

Appointments and promotion of district judges in any state shall be made by the Governor of

the state in consultation with the high court exercising jurisdiction in relation to such state.

So, option (a) is correct.

Q27. Which of the following are the transnational rivers between India and Bangladesh?

1. Teesta

2. Feni

3. Gomti

4. Mahananda

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a. 1, 2 and 3 only

b. 1 and 2 only

c. 1, 2 and 4 only

d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: d

Explanation:



Teesta River is a 315 km (196 mi) long river that rises in the eastern Himalayas, flows

through the Indian States of West Bengal and Sikkim through Bangladesh and enters

the Bay of Bengal.

Feni River is a river in the Indian State of Tripura and southeastern Bangladesh. It is a

trans-boundary river with an ongoing dispute about water rights. The Feni River originates

in South Tripura district and flows through Sabroom town and then enters Bangladesh.

Gomati is a river flowing through the north-eastern Indian state of Tripura and

Bangladesh.

The Mahananda River is a trans-boundary river that flows through the Indian States of

West Bengal and Bihar, and Bangladesh.

Q28. Which of the following provisions regarding Finance Commission is/are correct?

1. The President shall lay down recommendation made by the Finance Commission before each House of Parliament.

2. The Commission shall have all the powers of a civil court under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.

3. Members of Finance Commission are eligible for reappointment.


a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: d

Explanation:

All statements are correct.

First statement is a part of Indian Constitution.

Third statement is correct. But it is part of below mentioned Act. Not Constitution.



Second statement is correct. It is mentioned in Act, not Constitution. Remember this.

Q29. With respect to the members of Legislative Council, consider the following

statements.

1. If a person elected as a member of Legislative Council declared as of unsound mind,

the final decision to disqualify him remains with Governor.

2. Every member of the Legislative Council of a State shall, before taking his seat, make

and subscribe before the Governor or person appointed by him.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c

Explanation:

Both statements are correct. Read three articles given below:

Second Statement is correct.



First statement is correct.

Q30. Consider the following Pairs.

Bhakti saints Started Bhakti Movement in

1. Purandaradasa and Kanakadasa

Karnataka

2. Jnaneswara Maharashtra

3. Narasimha Mehta Gujarat


a. 1 and 2 only



b. 1 and 3 only

c. 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: d

Explanation:

Bhakti saints Started Bhakti Movement in

1. Purandaradasa and Kanakadasa

Karnataka

2. Jnaneswara Maharashtra

3. Narasimha Mehta Gujarat


1. It is added to glasses and ceramics for resistance to temperature fluctuation

2. China is the largest producer of Lithium in world.

3. India has recently discovered Lithium reserves in Arunachal Pradesh.

4. It is used in heat-resistant greases and lubricants.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

a. 1 and 4 only

b. 1, 3 and 4 only

c. 1, 2 and 4 only d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: a

Explanation:


The Department of Atomic Energy, Government of India has discovered 1600kg Lithium

in Mandla district of Karnataka. India has been dependent on Lithium imports for a long time, which makes this discovery more significant.

First and Fourth statements are correct.

Lithium has widespread uses across domains.

a. It is added to glasses and ceramics for resistance to temperature fluctuation

b. it is used in heat-resistant greases and lubricants

c. and it is alloyed with Aluminium and copper for light weight aerial components



d. Lithium is also used in psychiatric medications and in dental imprints.

e. The lighter of two lithium isotopes is used in the production of Tritium, a key component of nuclear weapons.

The most widespread and well-known use of Lithium is in the Lithium-ion (Li-ion) battery.

With increasing focus on renewable energy, sustainable batteries are a gaining traction as a viable alternative to conventional, fuel run batteries.

Second statement is incorrect:

While we have discovered 1600kg Lithium reserves, other countries are far ahead in

Lithium discovery and export. Bolivia is the leading producer with 2.10 crore tonnes

lithium reserves, and Argentina has 1.70 crore tonnes of Lithium.

Must read the news from given link. Lot of information hidden.

Link: http://www.businessworld.in/article/Lithium-Discovered-In-India-What-Does-It-Mean-For-Renewables-/19-01-2021-367321/

Q32. Democracy Index 2020 released by:

a. Transparency International

b. Amnesty International

c. Economist Intelligence Unit

http://www.businessworld.in/article/Lithium-Discovered-In-India-What-Does-It-Mean-For-Renewables-/19-01-2021-367321/

http://www.businessworld.in/article/Lithium-Discovered-In-India-What-Does-It-Mean-For-Renewables-/19-01-2021-367321/



d. World Economic Forum

Solution: c

Explanation:

The Economist Intelligence Unit’s Democracy Index provides a snapshot of the state of

democracy worldwide in 165 independent states and two territories. This covers almost

the entire population of the world and the vast majority of the world’s states (microstates are excluded).

The Democracy Index is based on five categories: electoral process and pluralism, the

functioning of government, political participation, political culture, and civil liberties.

Q33. Consider the following statements regarding National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR).

1. It is a statutory body under the administrative control of the Ministry of Women &

Child Development.

2. The Commission's Mandate is to ensure that all Laws, Policies are in consonance

with the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child.

3. The Child as per the commission is defined as a person in the 0 to 18 years age

group.


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: d

Explanation:

News:



Recently, the National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) has identified 50

religious places to carry the interventions in order to ensure zero tolerance towards child labour.

The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) was set up in March 2007

under the Commissions for Protection of Child Rights (CPCR) Act, 2005, an Act of Parliament (December 2005).

National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) is a statutory body under

the Commissions for Protection of Child Rights (CPCR) Act, 2005 under the

administrative control of the Ministry of Women & Child Development, Government of

India.

The Commission's Mandate is to ensure that all Laws, Policies, Programmes, and

Administrative Mechanisms are in consonance with the Child Rights perspective as

enshrined in the Constitution of India and also the UN Convention on the Rights of the

Child.

The Child is defined as a person in the 0 to 18 years age group.

It aims for:

The Commission visualizes a rights-based perspective flowing into National Policies and

Programmes, along with nuanced responses at the State, District and Block levels,

taking care of specificity and strengths of each region. In order to touch every child, it seeks

a deeper penetration to communities and households and expects that the ground

experiences gathered at the field are taken into consideration by all the authorities at the

higher level. Thus, the Commission sees an indispensable role for the State, sound

institution-building processes, respect for decentralization at the local bodies and

community level and larger societal concern for children and their well-being.

Link: https://ncpcr.gov.in/

Q34. Consider the following Pairs.

Places in news Location 1. Kaliveli wetlands Tamil Nadu 2. Uruzgan Province Afghanistan 3. Dal Lake Largest lake Ladakh


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. 1 and 3 only d. 1 and 2 only

https://ncpcr.gov.in/



Solution: d

Explanation:

Recently, the Villupuram district administration in Tamil Nadu has issued the first

declaration under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. The declaration was issued in a bid to declare Kaliveli wetlands as a bird sanctuary.

Degeneration of Dal Lake is happening.

Attacks in Uruzgan Province in Afghanistan.

Places in news Location Kaliveli wetlands Tamil Nadu Uruzgan Province Afghanistan Dal Lake second largest lake of the

Jammu and Kashmir after the Wular Lake.

Q35. Consider the following National Parks.

1. Nokrek National Park

2. Murlen National Park

3. Namdapha National Park

Arrange the above National Parks from North to South.

a. 2-1-3

b. 3-1-2

c. 3-2-1

d. 1-3-2

Solution: b

Explanation:

If you know the name of states, it belongs to, you can easily correct this question.

Nokrek National Park (Meghalaya)

Murlen National Park (Mizoram)

Namdapha National Park (Arunachal Pradesh)

Now see the map of all above three states:




1. The Constitution provides for the term of Rajya Sabha Member is 6 years.

2. It is mandatory to nominate 12 persons in Rajya Sabha having special knowledge or

practical experience in Literature, science, art and social service.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b

Explanation:

The constitution has not fixed the term of Rajya Sabha members and left it to the

Parliament. Therefore, Parliament enacted Representation of the people Act (1951). So,

according to Representation of the people Act (1951), term of office of a member

shall be six years. It is not mentioned in the Constitution.



Second statement is correct. As per the Article 80, it is mandatory to nominate 12

persons in Rajya Sabha having special knowledge or practical experience in Literature,

science, art and social service.

Q37. Consider the following statements with respect to a Joint Sitting in the Parliament:

1. The first joint sitting was held in 1961 following a disagreement between the two

Houses over Dowry Prohibition Bill, 1959.

2. It is governed by the Rules of Procedures of the Lok Sabha and not of the Rajya

Sabha.

3. A joint sitting of both Houses is convened by the Speaker of the House.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 1 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. 1 and 3 only

Solution: a

Explanation:



The joint sitting is governed by the Rules of Procedure of Lok Sabha and not of Rajya

Sabha.

Q38. Consider the following statements regarding Missile Technology Control Regime.

1. It is a multilateral export control regime formed by the G-7 industrialized

countries.

2. It aims to destabilizing delivery system of weapons of mass destruction including

chemical and biological weapons.

3. MTCR does not impose any legally binding obligations on members.

4. India is a member of MTCR. Select the correct codes.

a. 3 and 4 only

b. 1, 3 and 4 only

c. 1 and 2 only

d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: d



Explanation:

What we will do is go to MTCR website.

The Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR) is an informal political understanding

among states that seek to limit the proliferation of missiles and missile technology.

The regime was formed in 1987 by the G-7 industrialized countries (Canada, France,

Germany, Italy, Japan, the UK, and the United States). First is correct.

What is the purpose of the MTCR? Second statement is correct.

The MTCR was initiated by like-minded countries to address the increasing proliferation of

nuclear weapons by addressing the most destabilizing delivery system for such

weapons. In 1992, the MTCR’s original focus on missiles for nuclear weapons delivery was

extended to a focus on the proliferation of missiles for the delivery of all types of weapons of mass destruction (WMD), i.e., nuclear, chemical and biological weapons.

What is the relationship between the MTCR and the UN?

While there is no formal linkage, the activities of the MTCR are consistent with the UN’s

non-proliferation and export control efforts. For example, applying the MTCR Guidelines

and Annex on a national basis helps countries to meet their export control obligations

under UN Security Council Resolution 1540.

Is the MTCR a treaty? Third statement is correct.

No. The MTCR is not a treaty and does not impose any legally binding obligations on

Partners (members). Rather, it is an informal political understanding among states that seek to limit the proliferation of missiles and missile technology.

India became its member in 2016. Fourth is correct.

Q39. In the context of Indian Polity, consider the following statements regarding Tenth Schedule.

1. A person shall be disqualified for being a member of the Legislative Assembly or

Legislative council of a state, if he is so disqualified under the Tenth schedule.

2. The purpose which the Tenth Schedule seeks to achieve were explained in Kihoto

Hollohan v. Zachillhu and Others case.

3. Tenth schedule was passed during primeministership of Rajiv Gandhi.


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3 Solution: d



Explanation:


Clause (2) of Article 191 states, "A person shall be disqualified for being a member of the

Legislative Assembly or Legislative council of a state, if he is so disqualified under the Tenth schedule".

Second statement is also correct. Just remember, Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu and Others,

1992 case is related to tenth schedule.

The underlying object and the purpose which the Tenth Schedule seeks to achieve were explained as under in Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu and Others, 1992:

“These provisions in the Tenth Schedule give recognition to the role of political parties in the

political process. A political party goes before the electorate with a particular programme

and it sets up candidates at the election on the basis of such programme. A person who gets

elected as a candidate set up by a political party is so elected on the basis of the programme of

that political party. The provisions of Paragraph 2(1)(a) proceed on the premise that political

propriety and morality demand that if such a person, after the election, changes his affiliation

and leaves the political party which had set him up as a candidate at the election, then he

should give up his membership of the legislature and go back before the electorate. The same

yardstick is applied to a person who is elected as an Independent candidate and wishes to join

a political party after the election”.

Rajiv Gandhi was the Prime Minister when 10th schedule was passed.



Q40. Which committee of parliament considers and advises on matters concerning the

affairs of the house, which do not fall within the jurisdiction of any other parliamentary committee.

a. General Purpose Committee

b. Rules Committee of Lok Sabha

c. Business Advisory Committee

d. Committee on Subordinate legislation Solution: a

Explanation:

Q41. Consider the following statements regarding Monetary Policy Committee.

1. The committee sets the policy rates and inflation targets to maintain price stability

while keeping in mind the objective of growth.

2. As per the RBI Act, 1934, Reserve Bank of India is vested with the responsibility of

conducting monetary policy.

3. There is also a provision of quorum for the meeting of the MPC.


a. 2 only

b. 1 and 3 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: c

Explanation:

First statement is incorrect. Inflation targets is not set by Committee.




The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) constituted by the Central Government under

Section 45ZB determines the policy interest rate required to achieve the inflation target.

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is vested with the responsibility of conducting monetary

policy. This responsibility is explicitly mandated under the Reserve Bank of India Act,

1934.

Third statement is correct.



Link: https://www.rbi.org.in/scripts/FS_Overview.aspx?fn=2752


1. Out of the India’s total water export to other countries, China constitutes the highest.

2. Jal Jeevan Mission aims to provide 55 liters of potable water per person per day to

every rural household of the country by 2024.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c

Explanation:

India exported 3,850,431 litres of water between 2015-16 and 2020-21 (April-November),

the Union Minister of State in the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, Hardeep Singh Puri, told the Lok Sabha February 3, 2021.

India exported three categories of water in this period: Mineral water (2,378,227 litres),

aerated water (602,389 litres) and natural and other water (869,815 litres).

Most of this water in 2019-20, went to China. Beijing imported 63,580 litres of

mineral water, 1,000 litres of aerated water and 20,000 litres of natural water.

It imported the highest quantity of mineral and natural water. Other major imports of

Indian water were to the Maldives (38,380 litres), United Arab Emirates (35,510 litres),

https://www.rbi.org.in/scripts/FS_Overview.aspx?fn=2752



Canada (33,620 litres) Singapore (33,460 litres), United States (31,730 litres), Qatar

(25,900 litres) and Saudi Arabia (29,020 litres).

Second statement is correct:

Link: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/india-exported-3-850-431-litres-of-water-since-2015-mostly-to-china-govt-75411

Q43. Which of the following is/are the direct and indirect instruments that are used for implementing monetary policy?

1. Open Market Operations (OMOs)

2. Marginal Standing Facility (MSF)

3. Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) 4. Market Stabilisation Scheme (MSS)


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 1, 3 and 4 only

https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/india-exported-3-850-431-litres-of-water-since-2015-mostly-to-china-govt-75411

https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/india-exported-3-850-431-litres-of-water-since-2015-mostly-to-china-govt-75411



c. 1 and 4 only

d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: d

Explanation:

There are several direct and indirect instruments that are used for implementing monetary

policy.

Repo Rate: The (fixed) interest rate at which the Reserve Bank provides overnight

liquidity to banks against the collateral of government and other approved securities under

the liquidity adjustment facility (LAF).

Reverse Repo Rate: The (fixed) interest rate at which the Reserve Bank absorbs liquidity,

on an overnight basis, from banks against the collateral of eligible government securities under the LAF.

Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF): The LAF consists of overnight as well as term repo

auctions. Progressively, the Reserve Bank has increased the proportion of liquidity injected

under fine-tuning variable rate repo auctions of range of tenors. The aim of term repo is to

help develop the inter-bank term money market, which in turn can set market-based

benchmarks for pricing of loans and deposits, and hence improve transmission of monetary

policy. The Reserve Bank also conducts variable interest rate reverse repo auctions, as necessitated under the market conditions.

Marginal Standing Facility (MSF): A facility under which scheduled commercial banks

can borrow additional amount of overnight money from the Reserve Bank by dipping into

their Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) portfolio up to a limit at a penal rate of interest. This provides a safety valve against unanticipated liquidity shocks to the banking system.

Corridor: The MSF rate and reverse repo rate determine the corridor for the daily

movement in the weighted average call money rate.

Bank Rate: It is the rate at which the Reserve Bank is ready to buy or rediscount bills of

exchange or other commercial papers. The Bank Rate is published under Section 49 of the

Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. This rate has been aligned to the MSF rate and, therefore,

changes automatically as and when the MSF rate changes alongside policy repo rate

changes.

Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR): The average daily balance that a bank is required to maintain

with the Reserve Bank as a share of such per cent of its Net demand and time liabilities (NDTL) that the Reserve Bank may notify from time to time in the Gazette of India.

Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR): The share of NDTL that a bank is required to maintain in

safe and liquid assets, such as, unencumbered government securities, cash and gold.



Changes in SLR often influence the availability of resources in the banking system for

lending to the private sector.

Open Market Operations (OMOs): These include both, outright purchase and sale of government securities, for injection and absorption of durable liquidity, respectively.

Market Stabilisation Scheme (MSS): This instrument for monetary management was

introduced in 2004. Surplus liquidity of a more enduring nature arising from large capital

inflows is absorbed through sale of short-dated government securities and treasury bills.

The cash so mobilized is held in a separate government account with the Reserve Bank.

Q44. Consider the following statements regarding National Payments Corporation of India

(NPCI).

1. It is an initiative of Ministry of Electronics for creating a robust Payment &

Settlement Infrastructure in India.

2. Considering the utility nature of the objects of NPCI, it has been incorporated as a

“Not for Profit” Company under the provisions of Companies Act 2013.

3. Some retail payments products brought about by NPCI are RuPay card scheme, UPI

and Aadhaar-enabled Payments System.


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 3 only

c. 2 only

d. 2 and 3 only

Solution: d

Explanation:


National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), an umbrella organisation for operating

retail payments and settlement systems in India, is an initiative of Reserve Bank of India

(RBI) and Indian Banks’ Association (IBA) under the provisions of the Payment and

Settlement Systems Act, 2007, for creating a robust Payment & Settlement Infrastructure in India.


Considering the utility nature of the objects of NPCI, it has been incorporated as a

“Not for Profit” Company under the provisions of Section 25 of Companies Act 1956

(now Section 8 of Companies Act 2013), with an intention to provide infrastructure to

the entire Banking system in India for physical as well as electronic payment and



settlement systems. The Company is focused on bringing innovations in the retail payment

systems through the use of technology for achieving greater efficiency in operations and widening the reach of payment systems.

Third statement is also correct.

Some retail payments products brought about by NPCI are IMPS, RuPay card scheme,

UPI, NACH, Aadhaar-enabled Payments System (AePS), and BBPS. Even Cheque

Truncation System (CTS) was transferred to NPCI. With NPCI International Payments

Limited, NPCI is also working towards the internationalization of RuPay and UPI.

Link: https://www.npci.org.in/who-we-are/about-us

Q45. Consider the following statements regarding drainage pattern:

1. The Peninsular drainage system is older than the Himalayan Rivers.

2. Rivers like Narmada, Son and Mahanadi originating from Amarkantak Hills are

examples of Dendritic drainage pattern.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a

Explanation:

Like its feature of rivers. The Peninsular drainage system is older than the Himalayan

Rivers.

https://www.npci.org.in/who-we-are/about-us



A dendritic drainage pattern is the most common form and looks like the branching pattern

of tree roots. It develops in regions underlain by homogeneous material. That is, the

subsurface geology has a similar resistance to weathering so there is no apparent control

over the direction the tributaries take. Tributaries joining larger streams at acute angle

(less than 90 degrees). For example, the rivers of northern plain.

Rivers like Narmada, Son and Mahanadi originating from Amarkantak Hills flow in

different directions and are good examples of radial pattern.



Q46. Consider the following statements regarding approaches for human development:

1. In Income approach the income of individual is directly proportional to its human

development.

2. In welfare approach both governments and people participate in development.

3. In Basic need approach the human choices is ignored and emphasis is on the basic

need of defined sections.


a. 1 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: c

Explanation:

Many of you have marked 3 without reading question properly.

Statement 1 is correct: Income Approach: This is one of the oldest approaches to human

development. Human development is seen as being linked to income. The idea is that the

level of income reflects the level of freedom an individual enjoys. Higher the level of

income, the higher is the level of human development.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Welfare Approach: This approach looks at human beings as

beneficiaries or targets of all development activities. The approach argues for higher

government expenditure on education, health, social secondary and amenities. People are

not participants in development but only passive recipients. The government is responsible

for increasing levels of human development by maximizing expenditure on welfare.



Statement 3 is correct: Basic Needs Approach: This approach was initially proposed by

the International Labour Organisation (ILO). Six basic needs i.e.: health, education, food,

water supply, sanitation, and housing were identified. The question of human choices is

ignored and the emphasis is on the provision of basic needs of defined sections.

Link: https://ncert.nic.in/ncerts/l/legy104.pdf

Q47. Consider following statements related to geography of India:

1. Except China, all countries with which India shares land border are member of

SAARC.

2. India shares land boundary with 6 countries.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: d

Explanation:

SAARC has eight member countries: Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives,

Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka. Myanmar with which India shares 1643 KM of land

boundary is not a member of SAARC.

India shares the largest land boundary with Bangladesh (4096.7 KM), followed by China

(3488 KM) and Pakistan (3323 KM).

India shares its border with seven countries- Afghanistan and Pakistan to the North-

West, China, Bhutan and Nepal to the north, Myanmar to the far East and Bangladesh to

the east.

https://ncert.nic.in/ncerts/l/legy104.pdf



Q48. Which of the following expenditures are charged on the Consolidated fund of India?

1. Salaries and pensions of the judges of the High Court and Supreme Court.

2. Salary, allowances and pension for the President.

3. Salaries and pensions of Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the House of People.

4. Interest and other debt related charges of the Government.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

a. 1, 2 and 3 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 2, 3 and 4 only

d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: c

Explanation:



Statement 1 is wrong. The Salaries and pensions of the judges of the Supreme Court and pensions (not salaries) of the judges of the High Court are charged expenditure.

Q49. Consider the following statements:

1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a

bill in the Lok Sabha only.



2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the

Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of one-

third of the States of India.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: d

Explanation:

An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated by introduction of a bill in either

house of the Parliament.

If the bill seeks to amends the Federal provisions of the Constitution, it must also be ratified

by the legislatures of half of the states by a simple majority.

Q50. Which of the following is/are among the Fundamental Duties of citizens laid down in the Indian Constitution?

1. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture

2. To provide opportunities for development of child between the zero to six years.

3. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity

4. To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry Select the correct answer using the codes given below:



a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 only

c. 1, 3 and 4 only

d. 1, 2, 3 and 4 Solution: c

Explanation:

Q51. India's first geothermal power project announced today. So, we will solve few questions on Geothermal energy. Let start with first one.

Consider the following statements.

1. As per the latest assessment, all geothermal hotspots are concentrated in southern part of India.



2. More than 100GW of Geothermal energy is installed around the world till now.

3. Geothermal energy is heat derived within the sub-surface of the Earth.


a. 1 and 2 only b. 3 only c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: b

Explanation:


And also, Puga (Ladakh) has been identified as the hotspot of geothermal energy in the country by the scientists. So, we can easily eliminate first statement.


Installed capacity is around 15GW now.




Geothermal energy is heat derived within the sub-surface of the earth. Water and/or

steam carry the geothermal energy to the Earth’s surface. Depending on its characteristics,

geothermal energy can be used for heating and cooling purposes or be harnessed to

generate clean electricity. However, for electricity, generation high or medium temperature

resources are needed, which are usually located close to tectonically active regions.



Q52. Consider the following statements regarding Global Geothermal Alliance (GGA).

1. GGA was launched during COP21, UNFCCC to serve as a global platform in addressing the challenges hindering geothermal power generation.

2. India is a part of this alliance.


a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c

Explanation:


The Global Geothermal Alliance (GGA) was launched during COP21 in December 2015 to

serve as a global platform for improved dialogue, cooperation and coordinated action

between geothermal industry, policy makers and other geothermal stakeholders in

addressing the challenges hindering both geothermal power generation and direct use of geothermal heat.




Link: http://www.globalgeothermalalliance.org/About/About-us

Q53. World Sustainable Development Summit (WSDS) is an annual flagship event of:

a. UNFCCC Secretariat, b. United Nation Environment Programme c. FAO and UNDP.’

d. The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI)

Solution: d

Explanation:

http://www.globalgeothermalalliance.org/About/About-us



The World Sustainable Development Summit (WSDS) is the annual flagship event of The

Energy and Resources Institute (TERI). Instituted in 2001, the Summit series has

marked 20 years in its journey of making ‘sustainable development’ a globally shared goal.

Perhaps the only Summit on global issues, taking place in the developing world, WSDS now

strives to provide long-term solutions for the benefit of global communities by assembling the world’s most enlightened leaders and thinkers on a single platform.

Link: http://newsonair.com/News?title=PM-to-inaugurate-World-Sustainable-

Development-Summit-2021-on-Feb-10&id=409470

Q54. Consider the following statements regarding Biomining.

1. It is the process of using microorganisms (microbes) to extract metals of economic

interest from rock ores or mine waste. 2. The use of this technique is limited to metals which can be oxidized by the microbes.

3. This technique is not suitable for metals like iron and copper, which are dissolved

easily in water, for such minerals other techniques are used.


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 1 and 3 only c. 1 only

d. 2 and 3 only

Solution: c

Explanation:

News is:

http://newsonair.com/News?title=PM-to-inaugurate-World-Sustainable-Development-Summit-2021-on-Feb-10&id=409470

http://newsonair.com/News?title=PM-to-inaugurate-World-Sustainable-Development-Summit-2021-on-Feb-10&id=409470



Read the entire paragraphs given below. Such questions are very important. Hardly anyone

will provide you such sources here. So, don’t miss. Those who have not enrolled for Test

Series till now, do enroll. It’s a must Test Series for all aspirants who are appearing in 2021.

Click here to enroll.

Biomining is the process of using microorganisms (microbes) to extract metals of economic

interest from rock ores or mine waste. Biomining techniques may also be used to clean up

sites that have been polluted with metals.


1. Dehradun

2. Itanagar

3. Gangtok.

https://www.goaltideias.com/test-series-detail



Arrange the above places from North to South.

a. 1-2-3 b. 1-3-2 c. 3-1-2

d. 3-2-1

Solution: b

Explanation:

Given you co-ordinates so that no confusion.

Q56. Consider the following statements regarding Quality Council of India.



1. It is a statutory body set up under Department for promotion of Industry and

Internal Trade.

2. More than 75 percent of the council consists of government representatives.

3. Currently, QCI is responsible for undertaking Open Defecation Free (ODF)

assessments.


a. 1 and 3 only

b. 1 and 2 only

c. 3 only

d. 2 and 3

Solution: c

Explanation:

Quality Council of India is an autonomous body of Department for promotion of

Industry and Internal Trade which has been created jointly with Indian industry

represented by Confederation of Indian Industry (CII), Federation of Indian Chambers of

Commerce and Industry (FICCI) & Associated Chambers of Commerce and Industry

(ASSOCHAM). It is not a statutory body.

The main objectives of QCI are (a) to establish and operate national accreditation structure

(b) to monitor and administer the National Quality Campaign.



QCI is governed by a Council comprising of 38 members including the Chairman and

Secretary General. The Council has an equal representation of Government, Industry and

other Stakeholders. The chairman of the council is nominated by the Prime Minister of

India.

Q57. Which of the following provisions of Indian Constitution is/are correct?

a. The Supreme Court shall have power to review any judgment pronounced or order

made by it.

b. Supreme Court cannot grant special leave to appeal from any judgment relating to

Armed Forces.

c. The Governor should immediately step down from its post after the expiration of his

term.


a. 1 only

b. 1 and 2 only



c. 2 and 3 only

d. 2 only

Solution: b

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct:

Second Statement is correct.

Third Statement is incorrect.

Q58. Consider the following Committees of the Lok Sabha.

1. Committee on Private Members’ Bills and Resolutions.

2. Rules Committee

3. General Purposes Committee

Which of the above committees does Speaker has its ex-officio chairman?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: c



Explanation:

Q59. Proper design and effective implementation of UN-REDD+ Programme can

significantly contribute to:

1. protection of biodiversity

2. resilience of forest ecosystems

3. poverty reduction

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 3 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: d



Explanation:

First two statements, you should have no doubt.

Poverty reduction is nowhere mentioned in the REDD+. But the question is not asking

for specific details. It is like, “UN-REDD+ Programme can significantly contribute to?”

Conservation, sustainable management of forests and enhancement of forest carbon stocks

in developing countries will certainly contribute to employment opportunities and help in poverty reduction.

FAO also says the same “REDD+ can also contribute to achieving other SDGs –

including those which address poverty reduction, health and well-being, hunger alleviation, and improving institutions”.

Q60. Bandipur National Park is in:

a. Odisha

b. Karnataka

c. Andhra Pradesh

d. Maharashtra

Solution: b

Explanation:



It is In Karnataka.

Do enroll Test Series soon. Registrations will end up soon. You decide whether you should join

or not. We are working hard to help you clear this exam. You should definitely join Test Series.

You will earn lot, more than what you will pay.

Q61. Which of the following factors goes as an input in determination of MSP in India?

1. demand and supply

2. cost of production

3. price trends in the market, both domestic and international 4. inter-crop price parity


a. 1, 2 and 3 only

b. 2, 3 and 4 only

c. 1 and 2 only d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: d

Explanation:


1. MSP is determined for the country as a whole and not region or state-specific.

2. The implied cost of family labour is included in the calculation of cost of production

while determining MSP.

3. If MSP for paddy is fix at 1000 per quintal, the profit will be same for the farmer in Punjab and Maharashtra.



Which of the above statement sis/are correct?

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: a

Explanation:


How are Minimum Support Prices determined?

The Commission for Agricultural Costs & Prices (CACP) considers various factors such as

the cost of cultivation and production, productivity of crops, and market prices for the

determination of MSPs. The National Commission on Farmers (Chair: Prof. M. S.

Swaminathan) in 2006 had recommended that MSPs must be at least 50% more than the

cost of production. It was implemented by the government.

The CACP calculates cost of production at three levels: (i) A2, which includes cost of inputs

such as seeds, fertilizer, labour; (ii) A2+FL, which includes the implied cost of family

labour (FL); and (iii) C2, which includes the implied rent on land and interest on capital assets over and above A2+FL.


MSP is determined for the country as a whole and not region or state-specific. The MSP fixed for each crop is uniform for the entire country.


However, the production cost of crops varies across states.

For example, production cost for paddy at the A2+FL level is Rs 702/quintal in Punjab and

Rs 2,102/quintal in Maharashtra. Due to this differentiation, while the MSP of Rs

1,750/quintal of paddy will result in a profit of 149% to a farmer in Punjab, it will

result in a loss of 17% to a farmer in Maharashtra. Similarly, at the C2 level, the

production cost for paddy is Rs 1,174/quintal in Punjab and Rs 2,481/quintal in

Maharashtra. In this scenario, a farmer in Punjab may get 49% return, while his

counterpart in Maharashtra may make a loss of 29%.

Q63. Consider the following statements regarding Sub Mission on Agricultural

Mechanization (SMAM).

1. It is a mission under Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana (RKVY).

2. Farm mechanization for marginal and small land holdings is the major objective of

this Mission.



3. If implemented well, there will be increase in ratio of farm power (kW/ha) to

cultivable unit area.


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 3 only


Solution: c

Explanation:

In the Union Budget 2021, Rs. 1050 crore budget has been allocated for Sub Mission

on Agricultural Mechanization (SMAM) for the financial year 2021-2022.

Introduction:

First statement is incorrect. Second statement is correct.

About 85 % of the total land holdings are small and marginal in size, and hence

require appropriately designed machinery, tools and implements. Recognizing the special

needs of mechanizing marginal and small land holdings, and with a view to making

farm mechanization affordable by small and marginal farmers, a Sub Mission on

Agricultural Mechanization (SMAM) has been launched by Government of India in the

year 2014-15.

Major components of SMAM are promotion of agriculture mechanization through training,

testing and demonstration; dissemination of Post-Harvest Technology and Management

(PHTM); establishment of Farm Machinery and Equipment banks for custom hiring; and financial assistance for promotion of mechanized operations.


The scheme will be implemented in all the states, to promote the usage of farm

mechanization and increase the ratio of farm power to cultivable unit area up to 2.5

kW/ha.



Link: https://agrimachinery.nic.in/Files/Guidelines/smam1819.pdf

Q64. In the context of India, consider the following statements regarding Rajya Sabha.

1. Government of India Act, 1919 provided that the Indian Legislature shall consist of

two chambers, namely the Council of State and the House of Assembly.

2. One-third of the members of Rajya Sabha shall retire on the expiration of every year.

Which of the above statements is/are not correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b

Explanation:

First Statement is correct:

In India, a Second Chamber was envisaged for the first time under the Montague

Chelmsford Reforms proposals. The Government of India Act, 1919 accordingly,

provided that the Indian Legislature shall consist of the Governor-General and the two

chambers, namely the Council of State and the House of Assembly.

Second statement is incorrect.

Q65. Consider the following India states.

1. Nagaland

2. Meghalaya

3. Goa

https://agrimachinery.nic.in/Files/Guidelines/smam1819.pdf



Arrange the above states in order of number of states they share boundaries with, in

ascending order?

a. 3-1-2

b. 3-2-1

c. 2-3-1

d. 1-3-2

Solution: c

Explanation:

Indian Map needs to be printed in your heart mind, soul everywhere. If you are not able to

do so, don’t worry. We are trying to do our best. Just follow regularly.

Meghalaya shares boundary only with Assam.

Goa shares boundary with Karnataka and Maharashtra

Nagaland shares boundary with Assam, Arunachal Pradesh and Manipur.

Q66. With reference to Ancient India, the term "Ghatika" refers to:

a. Education centre

b. Underground water storage

c. Lower class peasants

d. Woman slave

Solution: a



Explanation:

The Ghatika was Education center during the reign of the Pallava kings.

Q67. In the context of provisions of Indian Constitution, consider the following statements.

1. Parliament by law decides about the number of Judges in Supreme Court and High

Court.

2. Both Supreme Court and High Court Judges resigns from office by writing under

his/her hand addressed to President


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b

Explanation:

Number of SC Judges are decided by Parliament by law and HC Judges are decided by

President. See below both the cases:



For High Court:

From above images, first statement is wrong, and second statement is correct.

In Supreme Court, Parliament by law decides about number of Judges but in High Court

President decides.


1. President can promulgate an ordinance only when both the Houses of Parliament

are not in session.

2. Maximum life of an ordinance can be 6 months.

3. Ordinance can modify or repeal any act of parliament.

Which of the following statement is/are correct regarding ordinance making power of

President?

a. 1 only

b. 1 and 3 only

c. 3 only

d. 2 and 3 only

Solution: c

Explanations:



First statement is wrong.

Article 123 of the constitution empowers the President to promulgate ordinances.

He can promulgate an ordinance only when both the houses are not in session or when

either of the two houses is not in session. Here in statement 1, “only” word is creating

problem. President can promulgate ordinance when even single house is not in session.

Without being approved by the Parliament an ordinance can last for a maximum period of

six months and six weeks. Second statement is wrong.


An ordinance, like any other legislation, can be retrospective, can modify or repeal any

act of Parliament. However, it cannot amend the constitution.

Q69. Consider the following statements about the Parliamentary privileges in India:

1. President of India, who is integral part of the Indian Parliament, also enjoys these

privileges.

2. Normally, a Member of Parliament can raise a question involving a breach of

privilege in the Houses of Parliament even without the consent of the Presiding

Officer of that House.

3. The Parliament of India has not codified its privileges.


a. 3 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 2 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: a

Explanation:



Parliamentary privilege refers to rights and immunities enjoyed by Parliament as an

institution and MPs in their individual capacity, without which they cannot discharge their

functions as entrusted upon them by the Constitution.

President, though an integral part of the parliament, does not enjoy parliamentary

privileges. These rights are mainly from the members of both the Houses of Parliament.

Apart from this, these rights are also given to those individuals who speak and participate

in any committee of the Parliament, which includes the Attorney General of India and the

Union Ministers. So, statement 1 is not correct.

A member can raise a question involving a breach of privilege only with the consent of the

Speaker or the Chairperson. So, statement 2 is not correct.

The Parliament has not yet codified its privileges. According to the Constitution, the

powers, privileges and immunities of Parliament and MP's are to be defined by Parliament.

No law has so far been enacted in this respect. So, statement 3 is correct.

Q70. In the context of Ancient Indian sculptures, The Ardhaparyanka asana and Achamana

Mudra are associated with which of these popular Indian deities?

a. Krishna

b. Shiva

c. Vishnu

d. Brahma Solution: b

Explanation:

The bronze casting technique and making of bronze images of traditional icons reached a high stage of development in south India during the medieval period.

Among the Pallava period bronze of the 8th century, the best one is the icon of Shiva

seated in Ardhaparyanka asana (one leg kept dangling). The right hand is in the

Achamana Mudra gesture, suggesting that he is about to drink poison.



Q71. Consider the following statements regarding New Development Bank.

1. The Bank was initiated with the goal of prosperity and economic development for

Asia but members from around the world.

2. More the shareholding, higher will be the voting rights of countries in this Bank. 3. All members are from Asia-Pacific region.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 3 only


Solution: d

Explanation:

Now, here you will definitely fail. Most of you be fail to correct. Dimag khol ke padhai ni ki h. Actually, its not your mistake, sikhaya hi ni kisi ne. Learn now.

First statement is incorrect: The objective of this bank was never the development of Asia.

Objective was simple: to mobilize resources for infrastructure and sustainable development projects in BRICS and other emerging economies, as well as in developing countries.



So, development of Asia is objective of? Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB)

Learn this way. Things will change. Or else join Test Series. You will learn there most

of the things.


Third statement is also correct. See members in above image.

News was: The New Development Bank (NDB) has announced to invest $100 million

into the NIIF Fund of Funds (FoF).

Q72.Consider the following statements.

1. More than 90% of India's trading by volume is done through maritime transport.

2. All major and Minor ports are under administrative control of Ministry of Shipping. 3. Kolkata Port is the only riverine major port in India.


a. 1 and 2 only



b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 only d. 1 and 3 only

Solution: d

Explanation:

For solution part, we went to Annual Report 2019-20 of Ministry of Shipping.

First statement is correct:

According to the Ministry of Shipping, around 95% of India's trading by volume and 70% by value is done through maritime transport.

Major Ports of India:




While the Major Ports are under the administrative control of Ministry of Shipping, the

non-major ports are under the jurisdiction of respective State Maritime Boards/

State Government.




Q73. “Formation and Promotion of 10,000 Farmer Produce Organizations (FPOs)", a

scheme has been recently formed. Which of the following statements is/are correct

regarding this scheme?

1. It aims for Providing small and marginal farmers with access to improved

technology, credit, better input and more markets to incentivize them to produce

better quality commodity.

2. NABARD is one of the implementing agencies.

3. It is a central sector scheme.


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: d

Explanation:

Learn the scheme.

Read introduction:

Agriculture sector plays a very important role in both economic development and Nation

building. India is globally in the forefront of development of agriculture. The goal is to

achieve doubling of export by 2022. However, more than 86% of farmers in the country are

small and marginal. There is a need to facilitate our farmers with access to improved



technology, credit, better input and more markets to incentivize them to produce

better quality commodity.

For this, Aggregation of small, marginal and landless farmers into FPOs will help

enhance economic strength & market linkages of farmers for enhancing their

income. Keeping this in mind, Government of India has launched a new Central Sector

Scheme titled "Formation and Promotion of 10,000 Farmer Produce Organizations

(FPOs)" with a clear strategy and committed resources to form and promote 10,000 new FPOs in the country with budgetary provision of Rs 6865 crore.

Under this Central Sector Scheme with funding from Government of India, formation &

Promotion of FPOs are to be done through the Implementing Agencies (IAs). NABARD is

one of the implementing agencies.

Formation & promotion of FPOs is the first step for converting Krishi into

AtmanirbharKrishi. This will enhance cost effective production and productivity and higher

net incomes to the member of the FPO. Also improve rural economy and create job

opportunities for rural youths in villages itself. This was the major step towards improving

farmers’ income substantially.

Link: https://pib.gov.in/Pressreleaseshare.aspx?PRID=1696547

Q74. India has signed a deal to build Sahtoot dam, located in:

a. Malaysia

b. Afghanistan

c. Bangladesh

d. Sri Lanka

Solution: b

Explanation:

India and Afghanistan have inked the deal to build a dam, called Sahtoot dam, in order to

supply water to the Kabul City.

Link: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/india-afghanistan-ink-deal-for-new-

dam-pm-modi-calls-for-immediate-ceasefire-101612870741697.html

Q75. Consider the following pairs.

Seas between

1. Dead Sea Israel and Lebanon

2. Aral Sea Kazakhstan and

Uzbekistan

3. Sea of Azov Russia and Turkey

https://pib.gov.in/Pressreleaseshare.aspx?PRID=1696547

https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/india-afghanistan-ink-deal-for-new-dam-pm-modi-calls-for-immediate-ceasefire-101612870741697.html

https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/india-afghanistan-ink-deal-for-new-dam-pm-modi-calls-for-immediate-ceasefire-101612870741697.html




a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 2 and 3 only

Solution: b

Explanation:

Seas between

Dead Sea Israel and Jordan

Aral Sea Kazakhstan and

Uzbekistan

Sea of Azov Russia and Ukraine



Q76. Consider the following statements:

1. The oath of the Speaker of Lok Sabha is provided in the Third Schedule to the

Constitution.

2. The oath of the President of India is provided in the third Schedule to the

Constitution. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: c

Explanation:

Not Correct, so be careful.

The Lok Sabha Speaker is one of the Members of the Parliament. He/she takes the oath

along with the other Members in the presence of the pro-tem Speaker. No separate oath of affirmation is administered to him. So, statement 1 is not correct.

Oath of President is not in third schedule.




1. Blood donation camps

2. Vaccination camps

3. Solid Waste under Municipal Solid Waste Rules, 2000

4. First Aid rooms of Schools Which of the above fall/s under Biomedical Waste Rules, 2016?

a. 2, 3 and 4 only

b. 1, 2 and 4 only

c. 1 and 2 only

d. 1 only

Solution: b

Explanation:

First Biomedical Waste Management Rules came in 1998, then in 2011 and finally 2016.

Biomedical Waste Management Rules 2016.

While in 2011, the 1998 rules were amended to include all persons who generate, collect,

receive, store and transport biomedical waste, the 2016 rules bring more clarity by

specifying that vaccination camps, blood donation camps, surgical camps and all other

HCFs have been included.

a. These Rules shall not apply to:



Q78. Who among the following has the power to request a retired Supreme Court Judge to

act as a Judge of the Supreme Court for a temporary period?

a. President of India with the previous consent of the Chief Justice of India.

b. Chief Justice of India with the previous consent of the President.

c. It is the power of the collegium to suggest a name to the President.

d. There is no such provision in the Constitution of India

Solution: b

Explanation:

As per provisions of the Article 128, Chief Justice of India, with the previous consent of the

President, request a retired Judge of the Supreme Court High Court, who is duly qualified

for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court, to sit and act as a Judge of the Supreme

Court.



Q79. Which among the following represents the effective monetary policy transmission?

a. Banks increasing the lending rate, when RBI reduces the Repo rate.

b. Banks reducing the lending rate, when RBI reduces the Repo rate.

c. Banks increasing lending rate, when RBI reduces the Reverse Repo rate.

d. Banks increasing the lending rate and deposit rates, when RBI reduces both Repo

and Reverse Repo rate

Solution: b

Explanation:

Effective or complete monetary policy transmission implies banks passing on the

benefits of RBI’s policy to the borrowers/public.

It means that if RBI reduces the Repo rate, this will increase the money supply or banks can

borrow from the RBI at lesser rates. This benefit of reduced Repo rate is transmitted to

public by reducing the lending rates to borrowers. Hence, only statement b is correct.

Q80. The first sanitation programme for rural India was introduced in which Five Year

Plan?

a. First Five- Year Plan

b. Second Five- Year Plan

c. Third Five- Year Plan

d. Fourth Five- Year Plan

Solution: a

Explanation:






1. Total receipts from disinvestments have consistently increased in last 5 years. 2. Under Strategic Disinvestment, management control retains with the government.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: d

Explanation:







In the strategic sale of a company, the transaction has two elements:

a. Transfer of a block of shares to a Strategic Partner and b. Transfer of management control to the Strategic Partner

The Strategic Partner, after the transaction, may hold less percentage of shares than

the Government but the control of management would be with him.


1. Currently in India, all villages are covered under 3G/4G mobile internet Coverage.

2. BharatNet is an initiative of Government of India to provide broadband services at 100 Mbps to around 2.5 lakh gram panchayats of the country.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

Explanation:

Internet is currently accessed through mobile wireless 3G/4G technologies and fixed

wireline broadband in the country. As per data collected from the Telecom Service

Providers (TSPs) in 2020, it is estimated that 37,439 inhabited villages (as per Census 2011) in the country do not have 3G/ 4G mobile internet coverage.






BharatNet is an initiative of Government of India to provide broadband services at

100 Mbps to around 2.5 lakh gram panchayats of the country. It aims to provide

around 2 to 20 Mbps broadband connectivity to all the households of India especially in

rural areas. It is the world’s largest rural connectivity scheme to be connected by the

Optical Fibre network. BharatNet forms the main pillar behind the union governments

Digital India initiative.


1. Oak are major Himalayan species in India.

2. The conversion of oak wood into charcoal for cooking is a major threat to oak

species.

3. Oak species are not only used as a timber, but it has medicinal properties also.

Which of the above statement is correct?

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: d

Explanation:



Explanation:

There are 16 species of oaks growing in India, ten in eastern Himalayas and six in the

western Himalayas.

The Eastern Himalayan broadleaf forests are diverse and species-rich, with a great

diversity (of oaks and rhododendrons in particular).

The eco-region has two broad forest types: evergreen and deciduous. Evergreen forests are

characterized by oaks (Quercus spp.), chiefly Quercus lamellosa together with

Rhododendron arboreum, Rhododendron falconeri, etc.

Whereas, Western Himalayas are endowed with diverse vegetation types, ranging from

tropical moist deciduous to temperate and sub-alpine forests, grasslands, alpine scrub and

meadows. The Western Himalayan broadleaf forests divided into two types: evergreen and

deciduous broadleaved forests. The evergreen broadleaf forest is dominated by oaks.

Where all it is found?

Uses:



Globally, agriculture poses the biggest threat to oaks. As land is cleared to make way for

farms and cattle pasture, forests are lost as collateral damage. Acorns, the seeds of oaks, are

valued for their high nutrition and sometimes used for cattle and pig feed, leaving few to

regenerate into trees. Urban development, climate change, invasive species, plant diseases, and human disturbance have also strained oaks globally.

The conversion of oak wood into charcoal for cooking is also a major threat to oak

species.

It has medicinal properties too. It is used as a timber.

Q84. Consider the following statements regarding Wholesale Price Index.

1. WPI basket does not cover services.

2. The weightage of Fuel and Power is more than manufactured products in WPI

basket.

3. Currently, Indirect taxes are not part of WPI calculation in India.


a. 1 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: c

Explanation:

So, we will go to WPI original website and gather all information about it.








We are pasting link of all WPI information. You can refer it for any other information.

Link: https://eaindustry.nic.in/uploaded_files/FAQs_on_WPI.pdf


1. The post is deputy Prime Minister is not mentioned in the Constitution or any Act

enacted by Parliament.

2. The first deputy prime minister of India was Sardar Vallabhai Patel

3. Description of any Minister in the Council of Ministers as Deputy Chief Minister

confers the person with powers of the Chief Minister.

https://eaindustry.nic.in/uploaded_files/FAQs_on_WPI.pdf




a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 2 only

d. 3 only Solution: A

Explanation:


The post of Deputy Prime Minister is not mentioned in the Constitution.

Article 74 (1) lays down, “There shall be a council of ministers, with the prime minister at

the head, to aid and advise the President.”

The Salaries and Allowances of Ministers Act, 1952, makes a mention of the prime

minister, cabinet minister, minister of state and deputy minister, NOT DEPUTY

PRIME MINISTER OR CHEIF MINISTER.

At the state level, ‘prime minister’ is substituted with ‘chief minister’. Thus, nowhere in

the Constitution or any other Act, do the terms ‘deputy prime minister’ or ‘deputy

chief minister’ find mention.

Second statement is correct:

The first deputy PM of India was Sardar Vallabhai Patel, followed by Morarji Desai,

Charan Singh, Jagjivan Ram and Yashwantrao Chavan. All of them were administered the

oath of office and secrecy as ministers and later designated as deputy PM through a presidential order.

Third statement is incorrect:

The judiciary has reiterated in many verdicts:



Description of any Minister in the Council of Ministers as Deputy Chief Minister does not

confer the person concerned with any powers of the Chief Minister and does not result in any unconstitutionality.’

Q86. Consider the following Indian states.

1. Meghalaya

2. Mizoram

3. Manipur

4. Arunachal Pradesh

Which of the above Indian states share boundaries with only two countries?

a. 3 and 4 only

b. 1 and 2 only

c. 2 and 4 only

d. 2 only

Solution: d

Explanation:

Arunachal Pradesh shares boundary with- Bhutan, China and Myanmar

Meghalaya shares boundary only with Bangladesh.

Manipur shares boundary with only Myanmar.

Mizoram shares boundary with Bangladesh and Myanmar. This is only correct option.



Q87. With reference to Rajya Sabha, consider the following statements:

1. The representatives of states in the Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected as well as

the nominated members of state legislative assemblies.

2. The Fourth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the allocation of seats in the

Rajya Sabha to the states and union territories.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2 Solution: b

Explanation:

The representatives of states in the Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected members

of state legislative assemblies. NOT NOMINATED.

The election is held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by

means of the single transferable vote. The seats are allotted to the states in the Rajya

Sabha on the basis of population. Hence, the number of representatives varies from state

to state. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.



The Fourth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the allocation of seats in the Rajya

Sabha to the states and union territories. Hence, statement 2 is correct.


1. Article 30 of the Constitution provides for the protection of citizens having distinct

language.

2. There are currently 24 official languages to be listed in the Eight schedule of Indian

Constitution.

3. As per the provision mentioned in the Constitution, all proceedings in the Supreme

Court and in every High Court shall be in English Language.


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 only

c. 3 only

d. None.

Solution: c

Explanation:

Its Article 29, NOT 30. Those who have done wrong in this statement, today don’t sleep

unless you take Constitution of India and read from Article 19 to 30.



There are currently 22 official languages to be listed in the sixth schedule of Indian

Constitution.

YES, it is mentioned in Constitution, all proceedings in the Supreme Court and in every

High Court shall be in English Language.

Q89. In the context of India History, “Tabernacle of New Dispensation” founded by:

a. Raja Ram Mohan Roy

b. Rabindra Nath Tagore

c. Keshub Chandra Sen

d. Birendra “Thomas” Roy.

Solution: c

Explanation:

“Tabernacle of New Dispensation” already has been asked by UPSC indirectly in

options. You should know if appearing for October 4 exam. We have also covered in our Test Series.

In 1868, Keshub laid the foundation stone of his new church, the Tabernacle of New

Dispensation.

Q90. Consider the following pairs.

Organizations Positions held

1. Hind Mazdoor Sabha R.S. Ruikar, first President

2. Constituent Assembly Suresh Chandra Majumdar,

Member

3. Ghadar Party Sohan Singh Bhakna, President




a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Solution: d

Explanation:

Hind Mazdoor Sabha was asked in UPSC PRELIMS 2018.

Hind Mazdoor Sabha: R.S. Ruikar as the first President, Com. Ashok Mehta as the

General Secretary and Com. G.G. Mehta and V.S. Mathur as Secretaries. Ms. Maniben Kara

and Com. T.S. Ramanujam were elected as Vice-Presidents of HMS and Com. R.A. Khedgikar

as the Treasurer

S C Majumdar was the member of Constituent Assembly.

Q91. Consider The following statements.

1. According to the Constitution, the powers, privileges and immunities of Parliament

and MP's are to be defined by Parliament.

2. The Constitution has given power to speaker of either accept or reject the privilege

motion. 3. The Speaker can also refer motion to a parliamentary committee.


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 1 and 3 only

c. 1 only

d. 2 and 3 only



Solution: b

Explanation:

A brief introduction.

Members of Parliament (MPs) enjoy certain parliamentary privileges which are bestowed

on them collectively and individually so that they can discharge their duties and functions

effectively. In the case that any of these immunities or rights are disregarded by any MP,

the act is regarded as a ‘breach of privilege’ and is a punishable offence under Laws of

Parliament.

When a breach of privilege is found, then an MP can move a privilege motion against those

being held guilty of breach. Both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha reserve the right to

punish any action of contempt (not necessarily breach of privilege) which is against its

authority and dignity.


Are these parliamentary privileges defined under law?

According to the Constitution, the powers, privileges and immunities of Parliament and

MP's are to be defined by Parliament. No law has so far been enacted in this respect. In the

absence of any such law, it continues to be governed by British Parliamentary conventions.


Where do these rules find mention?

The rules governing privilege motion are mentioned as Rule 222 in Chapter 20 of the

Lok Sabha Rule Book and as Rule 187 in Chapter 16 of the Rajya Sabha Rule Book. Not

Constitution.

Below, we are pasting riles for the Lok Sabha. Similar is for Rajya Sabha.




In the Lok Sabha, the Speaker nominates a committee of privileges which consists of

15 members proportionate to the strengths of various political parties in the Lower

House of Parliament. They prepare a report which is then presented before the House for

its consideration. The Speaker may allow a half-an-hour debate on the report before she/he

passed the final orders. The Speaker can also direct that the report be tabled before the

House and a resolution may be unanimously passed on the breach of privilege.



Q92. Consider the following statements regarding National e-governance plan in

agriculture (NeGPA).

1. It aims to achieve rapid development of agriculture in India through the use of ICT.

2. NeGPA has been announced recently in 2021-22 budget to Improve access of farmers

to information & services which will help them to receive benefits of all schemes.

3. This plan is implemented as a part of Sub Mission on Agricultural Extension (SMAE) under National Mission on Agricultural Extension & Technology (NMAET).


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only


Solution: c

Explanation:

In news: National e-Governance Plan in Agriculture (NeGPA) has been extended up to 31.03.2021. Second statement is incorrect.

A Centrally sponsored scheme namely National e-Governance Plan in Agriculture (NeGPA) was initially launched in 2010-11 in 7 pilot states, which aims to achieve rapid development in India through use of Information and Communication Technology (ICT) for timely access to agriculture related information to the farmers. In 2014-15, the



scheme was further extended for all the remaining states and two union territories. The scheme has been extended up to March 31, 2021.

Introduction:

NeGP-A is proposed to be implemented across the country and aims at offering

Government to Citizen / Farmer (G2C or G2F), Government to Business (G2B) and

Government to Government (G2G) agricultural services in an integrated manner through

the Central Agriculture Portal (CAP) and State Agriculture Portals (SAPs).

Q93. Consider The following statements.



1. Airports Authority of India (AAI) is statutory body, whereas Directorate General of

Civil Aviation (DGCA) is not a statutory body. 2. DGCA has been empowered to issue license for air traffic controllers.


a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b


The Aircraft (Amendment) Bill, 2020 provides for statutory backing to the DGCA, the

Bureau of Civil Aviation Security (BCAS) and the Aircraft Accident Investigation Bureau

(AAIB).

Authorities: The Bill converts three existing bodies under the Ministry of Civil Aviation

into statutory bodies under the Act. These three authorities are: (i) the Directorate

General of Civil Aviation (DGCA), (ii) the Bureau of Civil Aviation Security (BCAS), and (iii)

the Aircraft Accidents Investigation Bureau (AAIB).

The Airports Authority of India or AAI is a statutory body (created through the Airports

Authority of India Act, 1994) working under the Ministry of Civil Aviation, Government of

India is responsible for creating, upgrading, maintaining and managing civil aviation

infrastructure in India.





1. India was the first country in the world to have been given the Pioneer Area for

exploration of deep-sea mineral.

2. This year budget announced an allocation of over Rs 20,000 crore over the next five

years for the Deep Ocean Mission. 3. It is under the aegis of Ministry of Science and Technology.


a. 1 only

b. 2 and 3 only


Solution: a

Explanation:


India is the first country to have received the status of a Pioneer Investor in August,

1987 and was allocated an area of 1,50,000 sq. km by UN for carrying out various

developmental activities for polymetallic nodules (PMN) in Central Indian Ocean Basin (CIOB) in August, 1987.




The Indian government wants to understand the oceans better, both as a resource and for

the conservation of marine bio diversity — two research areas that could become conflicting in nature.

In her budget speech on February 1, 2021 finance minister Nirmala Sitharaman announced,

“Our oceans are a storehouse of living and non-living resources. To better understand this

realm, we will launch a deep ocean mission with a budget outlay of more than Rs

4,000 crores, over five years. This mission will cover deep ocean survey exploration and

projects for the conservation of deep-sea bio-diversity.”

The second objective is commendable since globally only 11 percent of marine species have been identified.

This is not to say that Indian scientists have not tried to study the Indian Ocean before, both for resources and biodiversity. In fact, there are two ongoing government projects on this subject under the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES).



The first is the Ocean Services, Technology, Observations, Resources, Modelling and Science (O-STORMS) project which does not have any budget estimate for this year. The second ocean-faring endeavour under the MoES is the Ocean Services, Modelling, Application, Resources and Technology (O-SMART) project. For this the budget estimate was Rs 567 crore in 2020-21 which was later revised to Rs 238.5 crore. This Budget, the project was allotted Rs 436 crore.

Third statement is incorrect:

It is Ministry of Earth Sciences.

Q95. Which of the following State has maximum number of Boundaries sharing with other States of India?

a. Tamil Nadu

b. Assam

c. Andhra Pradesh

d. Gujarat

Solution: b

Explanation:

Tamil Nadu shares boundary with three states: Kerala, Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka

(3)

Gujarat shares boundary with Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra (3)

Andhra Pradesh shares boundary with Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Odisha, Chhattisgarh

and Telangana (5)

Assam shares boundary with West Bengal, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram, Manipur,

Nagaland and Arunachal Pradesh (7).



Q96. Consider the following statements with respect to a Joint Sitting in the Parliament:

1. The first joint sitting was held in 1961 following a

disagreement between the two Houses over certain

amendments to the Dowry Prohibition Bill, 1959.

2. It is governed by the Rules of Procedures of the Lok Sabha and

not of the Rajya Sabha.

3. A joint sitting of both Houses is convened by the Speaker of the

House.


a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. 1 and 3 only

Solution: a

Explanation:



The joint sitting is governed by the Rules of Procedure of Lok Sabha and not of Rajya

Sabha.

Q97. Arrange the following events in the order of their occurrence in India:

1. Establishment of first Jute Mill

2. Introduction of Railways

3. Setting up of Tata Iron and Steel Plant in Jamshedpur

4. Start of first Coal Mine


a. 1-2-4-3

b. 4-1-2-3

c. 4-2-1-3

d. 1-4-2-3

Solution: c



Explanation:

Some landmark events were:

• Coal mining started at Raniganj in 1772

• Railways were introduced in 1853

• First Cotton textile mill at Mumbai in 1854

• Jute Industry made its beginning with the first jute mill established in 1855 in

the Hooghly Valley



Tata Iron and Steel Plant was set up at Jamshedpur in 1907.

Q98. Which of the following provisions are instrumental in safeguarding the independence

and impartial functioning of the Supreme Court?

1. Security of tenure to the Judges

2. Fixed service conditions of the Judges

3. Power to punish for its contempt

4. The Parliament cannot curtail its jurisdiction


a. 1, 2 and 3 only

b. 2, 3 and 4 only

c. 1, 3 and 4 only

d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: d

Explanation:

The Supreme Court is a federal court, the highest court of appeal, the guarantor of the

Fundamental Rights of the citizens and guardian of the Constitution. Therefore, its

independence becomes very essential for the effective discharge of its duty.



The Constitution has made the following provisions to safeguard and ensure the

independent and impartial functioning of the Supreme Court:

1. Appointment by the President in consultation with the Judiciary itself to curtail the

absolute discretion of the Executive as well as to ensure that the judicial

appointments are not based on any political or practical considerations.

2. Security of tenure ensuring independence in functioning. So, statement (1) is

correct.

3. Fixed service conditions which cannot be changed to their disadvantage after their

appointment except during a Financial Emergency. So, statement (2) is correct.

4. Expenses are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.

5. Conduct of the Judges cannot be discussed except when an impeachment motion is

under consideration of the Parliament.

6. Ban on practice after retirement to ensure that they do not favour anyone in the

hope of future favours.

7. Power to punish for its contempt to maintain its authority, dignity and honour. So,

statement (3) is correct.

8. Freedom to appoint its own staff.

9. The Parliament cannot curtail its jurisdiction. So, statement (4) is correct.

10. Separation from the Executive.

Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

Q99. The Panchayati Raj Institutions in India strengthen

a. procedural democracy

b. representative democracy

c. participative democracy

d. consensus democracy

Solution: c

Explanation:

Procedural democracy is a democracy that emphasizes the minimal standards of

democracy. It is the opposite of substantive democracy and gives a narrow perspective to

democracy Ensuring freedom of the press, competitive party system, independent judiciary

etc. can be procedural democracy. Hence option (a) is not correct.

In an indirect democracy, the representatives elected by the people exercise the supreme

power and thus carry on the government and make the laws. This type of democracy is

also known as representative democracy.



The 73rd Constitution Amendment Act is a significant landmark in the evolution of grass

root democratic institutions in the country. It transforms the representative democracy

into participatory democracy. The objective of the Act is to have village governance with

participatory democracy as is visible through the gram Sabha. Hence option (b) is not

correct and option (c) is correct.

Consensus democracy is one in which decision making occurs through consensus thus

taking into full consideration the opinion of the minorities, it is quite the opposite of

majoritarian democracy. Hence option (d) is not correct.

Q100. Panna National park is in:

a. Madhya Pradesh

b. Odisha

c. Maharashtra

d. Uttar Pradesh

Solution: a

Explanation:

It is in Madhya Pradesh.

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QUIZ COMPILATIONS – FEB PART 1 - Goaltide IAS