Question Set No 3

PMP Mock Examination- Wishing You Success!!!

PMP Mock Examination-

Set III Version 1.0

PDF processed with CutePDF evaluation edition www.CutePDF.comPDF processed with CutePDF evaluation edition www.CutePDF.com

1. It is important to identify and document the specific activities that must be

performed to produce the deliverables and sub-deliverables identified in the Work

Breakdown Structure. This is done as part of:

A. Define Activities

B. Decomposition

C. Define Scope

D. Sequence Activities

2. Plan Procurements is the process of identifying which project needs can be best

met by procuring products or services outside the project organization. All the

following are tools and techniques for Plan Procurements EXCEPT:

A. Make-or-buy analysis

B. Expert Judgment

C. Standard forms

D. Contract type selection

3. As a PMP Certified project manager, you are responsible to comply with all

organizational rules and policies. In this context, you have the responsibility to do

all the following EXCEPT:

A. Provide accurate and truthful representations concerning all information

directly or indirectly related to all aspects of the PMI Certification Program

B. Report possible violations of the PMP Code of Professional Conduct by

individuals in the field of project management.

C. Cooperate with PMI concerning ethics violations and the collection of

related information

D. Disclose to PMI about significant circumstances that could be construed as

a conflict of interest or an appearance of impropriety

4. Perform Quality Assurance involves evaluating project performance on a regular

basis to provide confidence that the project will satisfy the relevant quality

standards. Which of the following is an output from Perform Quality Assurance

Process?

A. Plan Quality

B. Operational Definitions

C. Change Requests

D. Quality Metrics

5. Plan Communications is used for determining the information and

communications needs of the stakeholders: who needs what information, when

they will need it, and how it will be given. Which of the following is an output from

Plan Communications?

A. Communication Management Plan

B. Project Records

C. Project Reports

D. Report Performance

6. Conduct Procurements comprises of obtaining responses to bids and proposals

from potential vendors, selecting a vendor and awarding contract. All the following

is not an output from Conduct Procurements EXCEPT:

A. Selected Sellers

B. Make or Buy Decisions

C. Change Requests

D. Resource Calendars

7. One of your team-member was late to a critical bidder conference, which caused

a lot of confusion. In this context,

A. You should talk with the team member to understand why he was late and

how to prevent similar situations in the future

B. You should raise this issue to your manager, and ask for ways to mitigate

similar problems in the future

C. You should raise this issue to the team-member`s manager and ensure that

the team-member makes himself available for future meetings

D. You should raise a risk-memo highlighting the problems caused because of

non-availability of the team member

8. All the following are tools and techniques for Plan Quality EXCEPT:

A. Flow charting

B. Benefit/Cost Analysis

C. Design of Experiments

D. Quality Audits

9. Close Project or Phase is used for generating, gathering, and disseminating

information to formalize a phase or project completion. All the following are

outputs for Close Project or Phase EXCEPT:

A. Final product

B. Change Requests

C. Organizational process assets updates

D. Final Service

10. Conduct Procurements involves the receipt of bids or proposals and the

application of the evaluation criteria to select a provider. Which of the following is

an input for Conduct Procurements :

A. Qualified Seller List

B. Claims Administration

C. Bidder Conferences

D. Audits

11. As a PMP Certified project manager, you are responsible for all the following

EXCEPT:

A. Confidentiality of sensitive information which you have access to

B. Managing conflict of interest situations in your project

C. Integrity of your team-members

D. Refraining from offering and accepting inappropriate payments, gifts and

other forms of communication

12. Perform Quality Control involves monitoring specific project results to

determine if they comply with relevant quality standards, and identifying ways to

eliminate causes of unsatisfactory results. It should be performed throughout the

project. All the following can be inputs to Perform Quality Control EXCEPT

A. Metrics

B. Checklists

C. Results of quality control measurements

D. Deliverables

13. Which of the following is an output from Report Performance process?

A. Performance Reports

B. Project Records

C. Communications Management Plan

D. Lessons Learned

14. The process of ensuring that the seller`s performance meets contractual

requirements is done as part of :

A. Close Procurements

B. Source Selection

C. Plan Procurement

D. Administer Procurements

15. You are the project manager of a manufacturing firm that produces machine

parts required in automobiles. While doing a review, you discover some design

requirements that had earlier been missed. What should you do?

A. Communicate to your team that they should incorporate the requirement,

and do an analysis to figure out the potential impact

B. Inform your project sponsor that the project may be delayed because of the

missed requirement

C. Go forward with production because incorporating the requirement may

delay the schedule

D. Communicate this issue to your senior management

16. Planned and Systematic activities performed throughout the project, and

implemented within the quality system to provide confidence that the project will

satisfy the relevant quality standards is also referred to as:

A. Perform Quality Control

B. Perform Quality Assurances

C. Plan Quality

D. Project Quality Management

17. As part of Project Communications Management, you are collecting and

disseminating information to provide stakeholders with information about how

resources are being used to achieve project objectives. This is done as part of:

A. Plan Communications

B. Distribute Information

C. Report Performance

D. Administer Procurements

18. Plan Risk Management is the process of deciding how to approach and plan the

risk management activities for a project. It is important to plan for the risk

management processes that follow to ensure that the level, type, and visibility of

risk management are commensurate with both the risk and importance of the

project to the organization. The output of Plan Risk Management is:

A. Identify Risks

B. Risk Management Plan

C. Project Risk Management

D. Plan Meetings and risk analysis

19. Project procurement management includes the processes required to acquire

goods and services, to attain project scope, from outside the performing

organization. Which of the following statements related to buyer-seller

relationships in Project Procurement Management is not correct?

A. Seller manages the work as a project; buyer becomes the customer and is

thus a key stakeholder for the seller.

B. Seller`s project management team must be concerned with all the

processes of project management

C. Terms and conditions of the contract become a key input to many of the

seller`s processes.

D. All the statements above are correct

20. One of the techniques used to both integrate the various process groups and

measure the performance of the project as it moves from initiation through to

completion is Earned Value Management (EVM). It is used in all the following

processes EXCEPT:

A. Coordinating changes across the entire project

B. Formalizing acceptance to project scope

C. Controlling changes to project schedule

D. Controlling changes to project budget

21. You are the project manager for a manufacturing company involved with making

components for Internal Combustion Engines required for the automobile industry.

In the past couple of days, there have been too many defects, and you would like to

find out whether unusual events are occurring in your manufacturing process whose

causes must be identified and corrected? For this purpose, you should use:

A. Inspection

B. Pareto Charts

C. Control Charts

D. Statistical Sampling

22. Comparing actual project results to planned or expected results is a part of:

A. Performance review

B. Variance Analysis

C. Trend Analysis

D. Earned Value Analysis

23. Identify Risks helps in determining which risks might affect the project and

documenting their characteristics. All the following are tools and techniques for

Identify Risks EXCEPT:

A. Documentation Reviews

B. Checklists Analysis

C. Risk Probability and Impact

D. Assumptions Analysis

24. You are in the process of determining what types of contracts will be used,

whether standardized procurement documents will be needed and how multiple

providers will be managed. You should record this information in the:

A. Develop Project Management Plan

B. Administer Procurements

C. Procurement Management Plan

D. Procurement Documents

25. In a project management context, all the following are Constructive Roles

EXCEPT:

A. Information Seeker

B. Recognition Seeker

C. Consensus Taker

D. Information Giver

26. All the following are inputs to Direct and Manage Project Execution Except:

A. Project Management Plan

B. Report Performance

C. Enterprise Environmental Factors

D. Organization Process Assets

27. All the following statements related to Perform Quality Control are correct

EXCEPT:

A. Preventions refers to keeping errors out of the process; Inspection refers to

keeping errors out of hands of the customer

B.

Attribute Sampling determines if the result confirms or not; in variable

sampling the result is rated on a continuous scale that measures degree of

conformity

C. Random causes are unusual events; special causes are normal process

variations

D.

Using tolerance, the result is acceptable if it lies within range specified by

tolerance; using control limits, the process is in control if the result falls

within control limits

28. You are the project manager of an IT company. You are in the process of

creating a collection and filing structure that details what methods will be used to

gather and store various types of information. Procedures should also cover

collecting and disseminating updates and corrections to previously distributed

material. Where will you include this information?

A. Information Retrieval System

B. Information Distribution tools

C. Communication Management Plan

D. Project Records

29. Plan Risk Responses helps in developing procedures and techniques to enhance

opportunities and reduce threats to the project`s objectives. All the following tools

help in Plan Risk Responses EXCEPT:

A. Strategies for negative risks

B. Work breakdown structure(WBS)

C. Expert Judgement

D. Strategies for positive risks

30. Which of the following statements related to managing different types of

Procurement contracts is not accurate?

A. In Fixed Price Incentive Fee, there is no incentive for the seller to decrease

costs.

B. In Fixed Price or Lumpsum contract, there is highest risk to seller and lowest

risk to buyer

C. In fixed price with redetermination, retroactive contracts allow for adjusting

of contract price after performance has been completed.

D. Fixed price with economic price adjustment allows for price increases if the

contract is for multiple years

31. In a project management context, which of the following is a Destructive Roles :

A. Withdrawer

B. Information Seeker

C. Gate Keeper

D. Initiator

32. Which process is not an output from Monitor and Control Project Work?

A. Change Requests

B. Project Management Plan Updates

C. Project Documents Update

D. Project Plan

33. Quality improvement involves taking action to increase the effectiveness and

efficiency of the project to provide added benefits to stakeholders. In most cases,

implementing quality improvements will require preparation of change requests or

taking of corrective action, and will be handled according to procedures for :

A. Quality Management Plan

B. Integrated Change Control

C. Quality Control Measurements

D. Plan Quality and Perform Quality

34. Organizational planning deals with identifying, documenting, and assigning

project roles, responsibilities and reporting relationships. All the following are tools

and techniques for Organizational Planning EXCEPT:

A. Templates

B. Organization Theory

C. Reward and Recognition Systems

D. Stakeholder Analysis

35. As part of Distribute Information, you are involved with creation of an

information retrieval systems which helps in sharing information by team members

and stakeholders. What will you be doing next?

A. Create a communications management plan

B. Do stakeholder analysis to develop a methodical and logical view of

information needs

C. Determine methods for accessing information between scheduled

communications

D. Conduct performance reviews to assess project status and/or progress

36. The process of keeping track of identified risks, ensuring the execution of risk

plans, and evaluating their effectiveness in reducing risk is done as part of which

process?

A. Monitor and Control Risks

B. Risk Management Plan

C. Plan Risk Responses

D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

37. You are a project manager in an Information Technology (software) company,

but you recently got an offer as a project manager in a construction company with

25% salary hike. You have excellent technical knowledge in software field, but do

not have much exposure to the Construction Industry. In this context,

A. You should attend training classes related to construction industry to get

more technical expertise in the field

B. You should not take up the assignment because you will lose out on the

experience and skills gained in Information Technology field

C.

You should take up the assignment because similar project management

skills will be required in the Construction company, as was required in the

software company

D.

You should try to get more information about project management in the

Construction Industry and then make an informed decision about whether

to take up the new opportunity

38. All the following statements related to Fixed Price, Cost Reimbursable and Time

and Material contract are correct EXCEPT:

A. In a Fixed Price contract, the product is well defined

B. In a Cost reimbursable contract, the risk of seller is low

C. In a time and material contract, the risk of buyer is low

D.

In a time and material contract, the type of payment is unit rates for work

done. The unit rate for work done is fixed but the total cost increases with

time

39. A conflict resolution technique that emphasizes areas of agreement is also

called:

A. Confrontation

B. Problem Solving

C. Compromising

D. Smoothing

40. Which of the following are Tools and Techniques to Perform Integrated Change

Control :

A. Work Authorization System

B. Accepted Deliverables

C. Project Management Information System

D. Expert Judgements

41. You recently joined as a project manager for an existing project which is being

implemented (the previous project manager had to take 2 months personal time-

off). You are happy that the project is under budget and ahead of schedule. You also

notice that some features have been included which are not explicitly mentioned in

the project scope. While discussing with team-members, you were informed that

they thought the added features would be appreciated by the customer and were

hence included as part of the project. In this situation, you are:

A. concerned because the project team is gold-plating

B. happy because the project will "Exceed Customer Expectations"

C. going to increase the sizing for the project, because it is delivering more

than what the customer had asked for

D. increase the quality metrics for the project, since you are delivering better

quality

42. Which of the following is an output from Staff Acquisition process?

A. Project Staff Assigned

B. Performance Measurement

C. Staffing Management plan

D. Role and Responsibility Assignments

43. You are the project manager for a project where there are 7 team-

members. One more team member will be joining after 1 week. What is

the number of communication channels once the new person joins your

team?

A. 28

B. 21

C. 18

D. 36

44. As a project manager, you understand that risk ratings and prioritization may

change during the life of the project. So, you make project risk an agenda at all team

meetings and schedule regular:

A. Project risk response audits

B. Project risk reviews

C. Earned value analysis

D. Additional risk response planning

45. All the following statements related to Progressive Elaboration of projects are

true except:

A.

Scope of the project can change when product characteristics are

progressively elaborated, and project manager must plan for such scope

changes.

B. Because the product of each project is unique, characteristics that

distinguish the product or service must be progressively elaborated.

C. Requirements are made more explicit as the project team develops a better

and more complete understanding of the project

D. Progressive Elaboration is a characteristic of projects that integrates the

concept of temporary and unique.

46. In your company, you are in the process of deciding whether to buy a product or

make it in-house. All the following statements related to make-or-buy analysis are

correct EXCEPT:

A.

Make-or-buy analysis is part of initial scope planning process that can be

used to determine whether a particular product can be produced cost

effectively by the performing organization.

B. Make-or-buy analysis must take in account the perspective of the

performing organization, as well as immediate needs of the project.

C.

If the performing organization has an ongoing need for the item, the

portion of the purchase cost allocated to the project may be less than the

cost of the rental.

D.

Buy side of make-or-buy analysis should include both the actual out-of-

pocket cost to purchase the product as well as the indirect costs of

managing the purchasing process

47. In your organization, you are the project manager of the engineering

department. But if questions related to manufacturing arise, they are passed up to

the engineering department head, who consults with the head of the manufacturing

department. Once the manufacturing head gets the answers, he passes it the

engineering department head, who in turn passes answer back down to you. The

organization structure you are working on is

A. Weak Matrix

B. Matrix

C. Strong Matrix

D. Functional

48. A customer informed you that it is preferable to make a change to a certain

aspect of the project. What should you do first?

A. Talk with team members to understand implication of the change

B. Communicate the change to Management to get their inputs

C. Open up a Change Control

D. Do sizing for the change and communicate to customer

49. According to Maslow`s hierarchy of needs, Economic security is a:

A. Physiological Need

B. Safety Need

C. Social Need

D. Esteem Need

50. As a project manager, you realize the importance of developing project team for

Project human resource management. Develop Project Team helps in developing

individual and group competencies to enhance project performance. All the

following are inputs to Develop Project Team EXCEPT:

A. Project plan

B. Project staff Assignments

C. Project interfaces

D. Resource Calendars

51. Email and notes are examples are which type of communication?

A. Written Formal

B. Written Informal

C. Oral Formal

D. Oral Informal

52. In your project, you did extensive risk planning to ensure that all issues were

taken care of. But, some technical problems related to networking problems have

recently emerged as potential risks which could delay your project substantially.

You had not anticipated this in your risk response plan. What should you do?

A. Do additional risk response planning

B. Conduct a project risk response audit

C. Do a technical performance measurement to determine how to solve the

technical problem

D. Issue a change request

53. Selection of an organization to prosecute a project depends upon three key

items - degree of advanced technology in the project, percentage of project

personnel in the professional category, and the ________ for the project."

A. Size of the budget

B. Level of uncertainty

C. Location of implementation

D. Type of scheduling system

54. All the following are examples of projects EXCEPT:

A. Developing a new product or service

B. Running a campaign for political office

C. Changing the password of one user used for logging into a bank

web-site

D. Running a marketing campaign for product launch

55. You are in the process of preparing a document with "sufficient detail" which

allows prospective sellers to determine if they are capable of providing an item. This

is an example of a(an) :

A. Plan Procurements

B. Statement of Work

C. Evaluation Criteria

D. Proposals

56. Managing conflicts is essential for successful implementation of the project. The

conflict resolution techniques most used in projects are:

A. Withdrawal, Forcing, Compromising

B. Withdrawal, Authoritative, Forcing

C. Confrontation, Directing, Smoothing

D. Withdrawal, Confronting, Legitimate

57. You are the project manager for a project which is being done under contract.

You are informed by the buyer that government regulations will necessitate some

changes in the project. What should you do first?

A. Talk with team members to understand implication of the change

B. Communicate the change to Management to get their inputs

C. Open up a Change Control

D. Do sizing for the change and communicate to customer

58. Immediate corrective or preventive action as a result of quality control

measurements is also referred to as:

A. Process Adjustments

B. Rework

C. Rebaselining

D. Quality Improvement

59. Amongst the conflict resolution modes (Confrontation, Compromise,

Withdrawal, Forcing and Smoothing), which conflict resolution mode is Most

Preferred and Least Preferred by Project Managers?

(answer format: Most Preferred, Least Preferred)

A. Compromise, Withdrawal

B. Confrontation, Withdrawal

C. Confrontation, Forcing

D. Smoothing, Withdrawal

60. A conflict resolution technique that results in a win-lose situation i.e. one party

wins at the expense of another is :

A. Confronting

B. Compromising

C. Forcing

D. Accomodating

61. In your new project, you objective is to develop a new pharmaceutical drug.

After doing a financial analysis, your finance manager provided you with these

statistics:

30% probability of success with benefits of $ 700,000

70% probability of failure with loss of $ 300,000

Based on this information, you :

A. Suggest that the project to proceed ahead

B. Suggest that the project to be stopped

C. Communicate to your senior management that you cannot make a decision

about whether to proceed with the project

D. Start working on the project and ask your finance manager for additional

information.

62. Some planning processes have dependencies that require them to be performed

in the same order and iterated several times during any phase of the project. These

processes are also called:

A. Project Management Processes

B. Process Groups

C. Facilitating Processes

D. Core Processes

63. In a bidder conference that you just attended, you tried to provide a clear,

common understanding of the procurement (technical requirements, contract

requirements etc.) Responses to questions posed by sellers were incorporated into

the procurement documents as amendments. What will you do next?

A. Use Standard forms required for solicitation planning

B. Use a make-or-buy analysis to determine whether the product can be

produced cost-effectively by performing organization

C. Determine what type of contract should be used (i.e. fixed price, cost

reimbursable or time and material contract)

D. Use a screening system to determine minimum requirements of

performance for one or more of the evaluation criteria

64. Amongst the conflict resolution techniques, which of the following is a lose-lose

situation?

A. Smoothing

B. Forcing

C. Compromising

D. Confronting

Correct Choice: 3

65. As a project manager, you must coordinate and direct the various technical and

organizational interfaces that exist in the project. For this, it will be beneficial if you

have as an input:


B. Change Results

C. Project Charter

D. Performance Reports

66. Your project has been selected for a Quality Audit. Several of your team

members are nervous because they do not have exposure to audits and do not

understand what is expected from them. You explain to your team members that

the primary objective of a quality audit is to:

A. Identify how well the project compares with other projects in the

organization

B. Determine if the project is following all the requirements of the quality

management plan

C. Identify lessons learned that can improve performance of this project or of

other projects within the performing organization

D. Record quality control testing and measurements in a format for

comparison and analysis

67. As a project manager, you are involved in launching a new software product

across several markets around the world and interacting with different units in your

company. This requires a thorough knowledge of:

A. Technical interfaces

B. Organizational interfaces

C. Interpersonal interfaces

D. Staffing requirements

68. Performance reports organize and summarize the information gathered and

present the results of any analysis. All the following are common formats of

Performance reports EXCEPT:

A. S-curves

B. Gantt Charts

C. Earned Value Charts

D. Tables

69. As a project manager, you put a lot of emphasis on Risk Management. You just

completed risk categorization. What could be a next step?

A. Perform a structured review of project plans and assumptions, both at the

total project and detailed scope levels

B. Develop checklists for identifying risks based on historical information and

knowledge that has been accumulated from previous similar projects

C. Conduct planning meetings to develop the risk management plan

D. Update Risk Registers

70. As a project manager, you understand the importance of socio-economical

influences on your organization. Some categories of socio-economic influences

which you should be aware of include all the following EXCEPT:

A. Standards and Regulations

B. Organization Structure

C. Cultural Influences

D. Internationalization

71. A procurement audit is a structured review of the procurement process from

plan procurements through administer procurements. What is the primary objective

of a procurement audit?

A.

Identify successes and failures that warrant transfer to other procurement

items on this project or to other projects within the performing

organization

B. Determine the issues with your present contract so that the contract terms

can be modified or improved

C. To ensure that the seller is following all the terms listed in the contract

D. To ensure that the buyer is following all the terms listed in the contract

Correct Choice: 1

72. Quality Audits, Reward and Recognition Systems and Information Retrieval

Systems are tools for :

A. Project Execution

B. Project Control

C. Project Initiation

D. Project Planning

73. As a Project Manager, Project Plan Development is an important element for

managing projects. Which phase of the project management life-cycle does Project

Plan Development belong to?

A. Facilitating Planning Process

B. Initiation Process

C. Core Planning Process

D. Execution Process

74. All the following are tools and techniques of Control Costs Except:

A. Forecasting

B. Earned Value Management

C. Computerized tools

D. Expert Judgment

75. Cost of quality is the total cost of all efforts to achieve product/service quality,

and includes all work to ensure conformance to requirements. All the following are

costs that are incurred EXCEPT:

A. Internal Failure costs

B. Prevention costs

C. Opportunity Costs

D. Appraisal Costs

76. Identifying, documenting, and assigning project roles, responsibilities, and

reporting relationships is done as part of:

A. Staff Acquisition

B. Organizational Planning

C. Team Development

D. Project interfaces

77. Plan Communications involves determining the information and

communications needs of the stakeholders: who needs what information, when

they will need it, and how it will be given. For this, you will need all the following

inputs EXCEPT:

A. Stakeholders Register

B. Factors that will limit the project management team`s options

C. Methods used to transfer information back and forth among project

stakeholders

D. Tools for distributing information between stakeholders

78. You are evaluating the probabilities of risks and costs or rewards of each logical

path of events and future decisions. You create a diagram that describes a decision

under consideration and implications of choosing one or another of the available

alternatives. The diagram you are creating can also be referred to as:

A. Simulation Diagram

B. Decision tree

C. Fishbone Diagram

D. Probability/Impact risk rating matrix

79. In a Balanced Matrix Organization,

A. Project Manager reports to Functional Manager

B. Project Manager position does not exist

C. Project Manager reports to Manager of Project Managers

D. Project Manager reports to Program Manager

80. You just signed the contract with a seller, and are ready to start Contract

Administration. But because of funding issues, your management decides to

terminate the contract. What should you do?

A. Go back to procurement planning to determine what to procure and when

B. Choose from other potential sellers

C. Follow procedures as listed in close procurements

D. Initiate procedures listed in contract change control system to define the

process by which the contract may be identified.

81. Two fundamental objectives of project control are to

A. Ensure that the required input of material, personnel, and equipment is available

when needed and that budgeting is adequate

B. Eliminate unexpected technical problems and technical difficulties that require

more resources

C. Ensure that resources are available when needed and that the scope of work does

not increase

D. Ensure that the required input of material, personnel, and equipment is available

when needed and that budgeting is adequate Achieve results by altering activities and

managing organizational assets

82. The causes of variances and the reasoning behind the corrective action chosen

should be documented so that they become part of the historical database of the

performing organization. This is documented as part of:

A. Project plan updates

B. Corrective Action

C. Lessons Learned

D. Performance Measurement

83. Determine Budget involves allocating the overall cost estimate to individual

work activities or work packages. One output from Determine Budget process is:

A. Cost Performance Baseline

B. Basis of Estimates

C. Resource Calendars

D. Budget Forecasts

84. You are trying to determine what cost and schedule trade-off will be most

appropriate for your project. You have the option to select either a more

experienced person at $ 120 per hour who can do the task in 45 days or a less

experienced person at $ 80 per hour who can do the same task in 65 days. A tool

you can use to facilitate making the decision is:

A. Cost of Quality

B. Cause-and-effect diagram

C. Design of Experiments

D. Network diagrams

85. You are the project manager in a Matrix organization. So, all your team

members report to you and the functional manager of their respective

departments. Managing this dual relationship is always a challenge and should

generally be the responsibility of :

A. Project Manager

B. Functional Manager

C. Project Manager and Functional Manager

D. Program Manager

86. In your project, you are presently involved with collecting project records;

ensuring that they reflect final specifications; analyzing project success,

effectiveness, and lessons learned; and archiving such information for future use.

This is done as part of :

A. Close Project or Phase

B. Administer Procurements

C. Contract

D. Project Document Updates

87. You are identifying risk owners and assigned responsibilities; results from

qualitative and quantitative risk analysis processes; level of residual risk;

contingency plans and fallback plans. You will write down all this information in the:

A. Risk Management Plan

B. Risk Register Updates

C. Data Gathering and Representation Techniques

D. Plan Projects

88. All the following are features of projectized organization EXCEPT:

A. Team members are often collocated

B. There is a "home" for project team members after a project is completed

C. Project managers have great deal of authority and independence

D. Organizational units (or departments) either report directly to the project

manager or provide support services to the various projects

89. You are in the process of documenting project requirements and identifying

potential sources for Plan Procurements. You understand the benefits of PMP

Certification, and as part of Plan Procurements, you specify having a "PMP

Certified" project manager will be an advantage for the seller. This is an example of

:

A. Procurement Documentation

B. Subjective Evaluation Criteria

C. Objective Evaluation Criteria

D. Statement of Work

90. As a project manager, achieving customer satisfaction is an important objective

for you. Which of the following will best help you in getting customer satisfaction?

A. Defining Requirements

B. Providing more features than what customer has asked for

C. Identifying project related risks

D. Providing project justification

91. You are managing a small project with 5 team-members working part-time. In

the beginning of every week, you verbally allocate work to all the team-members.

This is an example of:

A. Verbal Work Authorization System

B. Improper Planning because team-members do not know what needs to be

done at appropriate times.

C. Project Plan Execution

D. Project Plan Development

92. The cost of corrective action taken by the purchaser and chargeable to the

supplier under the terms of the contract is

A. Payment authorization

B. Bid cost considerations

C. Back Charge

D. Release payment

93. All the following statements about "Quality" and "Grade" are true EXCEPT:

A. Grade is a rank given to entities having the same functional use but

different technical characteristics

B. Low quality project may be having a high grade

C. Low Grade product may be having high quality

D. It is a problem if either the product is low grade or low quality

94. As part of your project, you were involved in negotiating with functional

managers and other project management teams for staff assignments. What should

you be doing next?

A. Using role and responsibility definitions or reporting relationships of a

similar project to expedite organizational planning

B. Identifying all stakeholders and their needs so that their needs are satisfied

C. Creating Roles and Responsibility Assignment Matrix

D. Deciding on which team building activities will help in improving team

performance

95. As part of Close Procurements, you document project results to formalize

acceptance of the:

A. Project

B. Product of the project

C. Contract

D. Product of the contract

96. Risk Acceptance is a strategy that indicates that the project team has decided

not to change the project plan to deal with a risk or is unable to identify any other

suitable response strategy. The most usual risk acceptance response is to :

A. Establish a contingency reserve

B. Create a fallback plan

C. Develop alternative options

D. Change project scope

97. You are working as a Project Manager in an organization where your

responsibility is to coordinate activities, but decisions are primarily made by

Management. The organization structure you are working in is:

A. Weak Matrix

B. Balanced Matrix

C. Functional

D. Strong Matrix

98. Conduct Procurements involves obtaining responses(bids and proposals) from

prospective sellers on how project needs can be met. Most of the cost for the

Conduct Procurements is usually paid for by the:

A. Project

B. performing organization

C. Buyer

D. Seller

99. Your previous project manager made most decisions by himself without

consulting subordinates. So, he believed in a leadership style that was:

A. Laissez Faire

B. Assertive

C. Autocratic

D. Coaching

100. You are the project manager for a pharmaceutical company, which will be

launching a new product in the market. It is essential that you follow Integrated

change control to ensure that all changes are properly coordinated across the entire

project. In this context, you should do all the following EXCEPT:

A. Influence the factors that create changes

B. Determine that a change has occurred

C. Make changes to the integrated performance baseline to reflect the

changes

D. Manage actual changes as and when they occur

101. You are the project manager for a software company, and are in the process of

developing an approximation of the costs of the resources needed to complete

project activities. In approximating the cost, you are considering the causes of

variation of the final estimate for purpose of better managing the project. This is

done as part of:

A. Administer Procurements

B. Estimate Costs

C. Determine Budget

D. Control Costs

102. As a quality-conscious project manager, you realize that it is not just enough to

say that meeting the planned schedule dates is a measure of management quality;

the project management team must also indicate whether every activity must start

on time or only finish on time; whether individual activities will be measure or only

certain deliverables, and if so which ones. These definitions, in very specific terms,

what something is and how it is measured in the perform quality control process are

also called:

A. Checklists

B. Benchmarks

C. Quality Policies

D. Quality Metrics

103. In your project, you have designated a "war room" where your team

congregates and posts schedules, updates etc. This is an example of:

A. Collocation

B. Team-building activity

C. Training

D. Solving critical problems

104. Analysis of project performance often generates a request for a change to

some aspect of the project. Such change requests, which are an output of Report

Performance, are managed through which of the following process/processes

(Select the Best Answer):

A. Integrated Change Control

B. Control Scope

C. Control Schedule

D. All of the above

105. Workarounds are unplanned responses to emerging risks that were previously

unidentified or accepted. If you have to perform a workaround during Monitor and

Control Risks, it will be done through:

A. Project change requests

B. Updates to risk response plan

C. Corrective Action

D. Project risk response audits

106. Two technical resources in your team have been arguing consistently, and you

would like to ensure that personality clashes do not endanger your project. To

resolve this issue, you should use:

A. Leading and Influencing Skills

B. Communication Skills

C. Negotiation Skills

D. Problem Solving skills

107. Conduct Procurements involves the receipt of bids or proposals and the

application of the evaluation criteria to select a provider. Which of the following are

tools and techniques can be used for Source Selection:

A. Procurement Negotiation, Screening System, Independent Estimates

B. Procurement Negotiation, Screening System, Bidder Conferences

C. Procurement Negotiation, Make-or-buy analysis, Independent Estimates

D. Bidder Conferences, Expert Judgements, Advertising, Internet search

108. _________ is a written order directing the contractor to make changes according to the

provisions of the contract documents.

A. Change order/purchase order Amendment

B. Contract order Modifications.

C. Contractor claim

D. Owner Directive

109. If you would like to find out who will be approving changes in your project, you

can refer to the:

A. Change Control system

B. Project plan

C. Organization Chart

D. Resource Assignment Matrix

110. In your project, you are using Project files, commercial cost-estimating

databases and project team knowledge to determine the cost of many categories of

resources. This will help you in determining estimate of the costs of the resources

needed to complete project activities. This information is available to you as part of

A. activity duration estimates

B. estimating publications

C. historical information

D. chart of accounts

111. A flow chart is any diagram which shows how various elements of a system

relate and includes techniques like "Cause and Effect Diagrams" and "System or

Process Flowcharts." As a project manager, you find flow-charting as an useful tool

for :

A. Plan Quality

B. Perform Quality Assurance

C. Perform Quality Control

D. A and C

112. What are Maslow's three highest levels of human needs?

A. Physiological, safety, and social

B. Recognition, responsibility, and reward

C. Happiness, health, and prosperity

D. Self-actualization, esteem, and social

113. Project communication management includes the processes required to ensure

timely and appropriate generation, collection, dissemination, storage, and ultimate

disposition of project information. The Major processes for Project Communication

Management are as follows:

A. Communications Planning, Information Distribution and Performance

Reporting

B. Communications Planning, Performance Reporting and Integrated Change

Control

C. Plan Communications, Report Performance, Distribution Information,

Manage Stakeholders Expectations

D. Performance Reporting, Information Distribution, Administrative Closure

114. Risk management plan describes how risk identification, qualitative and

quantitative analysis, response planning, monitoring, and control will be structured

and performed during project life cycle. The risk management plan includes all the

following EXCEPT:

A. Approaches, tools and data sources that may be used to perform risk

management on the project

B. Budget for risk management in the project

C. Risk Triggers to indicate when a risk may occur

D. Scoring and interpretation methods appropriate for the type and timing of

qualitative and quantitative risk analysis

115. Project Monitoring occurs:-

A. On a continual basis throughout the executing process and as needed in the other

processes

B. At the end of each phase of the project life cycle to assess its success in meeting

project objectives

C. At the end of each planning process

D. On a continual basis throughout the project

116. During plan procurements, you identify which project needs can be best met by

procuring products or services outside the project organization. In this context,

which of the statements relating to Product Description and Statement of Work is

correct?

A.

Product Description describes the ultimate end product of the project; a

statement of work describes the portion of the product to be provided by a

seller to the project

B. Product Description is generally broader than a statement of work

C. If the performing organization procures the entire product, Product

Description and Statement of Work refer to the same thing.

D. All Statements above are true

117. You are in the build phase of your project, when you realize that because of a

design error, the product will not meet the performance parameters specified by

the customer. In this context, what should you do first:

A. Decrease the performance parameters so that the product developed will

satisfy those parameters.

B. Discuss with your team to try to find out alternatives means to solve the

issue

C. Escalate to your leadership team

D. Ask for additional funding from your business sponsors to accommodate

the new requirement

118. According to the expectancy theory of motivation

A. Poor performance is the natural outcome of poor training

B. Managers should not expect too much of workers

C. Managers should expect that employees who are paid more will work harder

D. Motivation to act is linked to an outcome that is expected to have value

119. Rolling wave planning provides information on the work to be done

A. For successful completion of the current phase and subsequent phases of the

project

B. Throughout all phases of the project

C. For successful completion of the current phase of the project

D. In the next phase of the project

120. Description of how a project management team should implement the overall

intentions and direction of an organization with regards to quality (as expressed by

top management) is available in:

A. Operational Definitions

B. Quality Management Plan

C. Checklists

D. Quality Policy

121. Getting the needed human resources (individuals or groups) assigned to and

working on your project is done as part of:

A. Procurement Management

B. Acquire Project Team

C. Organizational Planning

D. Resource Planning

122. To examine project results over time to determine if performance is improving

or deteriorating, you would use:

A. Performance reviews

B. Trend Analysis

C. Earned Value Analysis

D. Variance Analysis

123. All the following are examples of techniques that can be used for Identify Risks

EXCEPT:

A. Brainstorming

B. SWOT Analysis

C. Checklist Analysis

D. Assumption Analysis

124. A tangible verifiable work product to ensure proper definition of product of the

project is also called:

A. Work Breakdown Structure

B. Work Breakdown Structure Dictionary

C. Deliverable

D. Phase end review

125. The statement of work (SOW) describes the procurement item in sufficient

detail to allow prospective sellers to determine if they are capable of providing the

item. In this case, "sufficient detail"

A. May vary, based on nature of the item or needs of the buyer

B. Should be at the level of Work Breakdown Structures

C. Should be at the activity level

D. Should be at the level required in proposal

126. In your project, you have historical information about costs, and the given

parameters for cost estimating are quantifiable and scalable. Your manager wants

to use project characteristics in a mathematical model to predict project costs. But

you believe that parametric modeling is the best solution. What is the best course

of action for this situation:

A. Agree with your manager`s opinion

B. Make an analysis for your manager`s proposal and create a case for why

your solution is better

C. Ask for Expert Judgment from a Subject Matter Expert in cost estimation

D. None of the above

127. Plan Quality involves identifying which quality standards are relevant to the

project and determining how to satisfy them. For this, you use "cost of quality" as a

tool. In this context, cost of quality refers to:

A. Prevention, appraisal and failure costs

B. Work required to ensure conformance to requirements

C. Work resulting from nonconformance to requirements

D. All the statements above are true

128. Risk management helps in maximizing the probability and consequences of

positive events and minimizing the probability and consequences of adverse events

to project objectives. Plan Risk Responses helps in this context because it:

A. helps in deciding how to approach and plan the risk management activities

B. determines which risks might affect the project and documenting their

characteristics

C. develops procedures and techniques to enhance opportunities and reduce

threats to project objectives

D. monitors residual risks, identifies new risks and executes risk reduction

plans

129. Project Portfolio Management refers to:

A. Selection and support of projects or program investments

B. Group of projects managed in a coordinated way

C. Creating unique product, service or result

D. Progressive Elaboration of projects to ensure customer requirements are

satisfied

130. Your project is in Execution phase. NPV of your project is -200,000 and IRR is

5%. CPI is 1.2 and SPI is 0.8 - what is the recommended action?

A. Cancel the project since NPV is negative

B. Cancel the project since IRR is very low

C. Crash your project

D. Try to improve the NPV by highlighting benefits which were not included in

the CBA

131. All the following statements about Risk Management processes in real-life

project situations are correct EXCEPT:

A. Processes interact with each other

B. Processes always have discrete elements with well-defined interfaces

C. Risk management processes interact with processes in other knowledge

areas

D. Each process generally occurs at least once in every project

132. While managing projects, negotiating helps in conferring with others to come

to terms with them or reach an agreement. A form of Assisted Negotiation is

A. Arbitration

B. Problem Solving

C. Regulation

D. Compromising

133. Project A had an initial investment of $ 3 million, out of which $ 1.5 million has

already been spent. Another competing project, Project B will require $ 1.6 million

now for completion and will meet the same objectives as project A. Which project

should you select?

A. Project A

B. Project B

C. Neither Project A nor Project B

D. Cannot be determined by the information available

134. Graphic display of cumulative costs or labor hours plotted against time is also

called a(an):

A. Histogram

B. S-curve

C. Control Chart

D. Pareto Diagram

135. Factors like Probability of successfully completing the project, Cost of changes,

Cost of error correction etc. are highest:

A. At beginning of the project

B. At end of the project

C. During project implementation

D. Cannot be determined as they are specific to the project

136. All the following are inputs for Control Scope EXCEPT:


B. Work Performance Information

C. Inspection

D. Organizational Process Assets

137. During Sequence Activities, you identify and document interactivity

dependencies. Which of the following is an output from Sequence Activities

Process?

A. Project Network Diagrams

B. Activity Duration Estimates

C. Project Schedule

D. Activity List

138. Please refer to the following diagram:

What is the Earned Value(EV)?

A. $ 5,000

B. $ 10,000

C. $ 11,000

D. $ 12,500

139. Utility function is a commonly used technique to find out the tolerance of a

project manager towards risk. Some project managers are more averse towards risk

than others. All the following are different classifications of tolerance for risk

EXCEPT:

A. Risk Averter

B. Risk Seeker

C. Risk Mitigator

D. Risk Neutral

140. A project manager is responsible for managing project costs and human

resources. Factors like Cost and Staffing level for a project :

A. Increase with duration of the project

B. Decrease with duration of the project

C. Are low at the start, higher toward the end, and decrease rapidly as project

draws to a conclusion.

D. Cannot be determined as they are specific to the project

141. Which of the following is an output of Define Scope Process?

A. Scope Statement

B. Work Breakdown Structure

C. Project Charter

D. Lessons Learned

142. All the following are Tools and Techniques for Develop Schedule EXCEPT:

A. Critical Path Method

B. Duration Compression

C. Analogous Estimating

D. Resource Leveling heuristics


What is the status of the project?

A. Behind Schedule, Under Budget

B. Ahead of Schedule, Under Budget

C. Ahead of Schedule, Over Budget

D. Behind of Schedule, Over Budget

144. You did proper risk management to systematically identify, analyze and discuss

response strategy to minimize probability and consequences of adverse events to

the project objectives. But there were minor risks for which you created a small

contingency budget. These minor risks are examples of:

A. Secondary risks

B. Residual Risks

C. Remaining Risks


145. Planning is of major importance for a project because project involves doing

something that has not been done before. What of the following is the final core

process in Planning phase?

A. Scope Planning

B. Estimate Costs

C. Define Scope

D. Develop Project Management Plan

146. All the following are Inputs to Define Scope EXCEPT:

A. Requirements Documentation

B. Project Charter

C. Organizational process assets

D. Project Deliverables

147. As part of Define Activities, you identify the specific activities that must be

performed to produce the various project deliverables. All the following are inputs

to this process EXCEPT:

A. Enterprise Environmental Factors

B. Organizational Process Assets

C. Scope Baseline

D. Mandatory and Discretionary Dependencies


You know that Current Variances are atypical i.e. similar variances will not occur in the

future. What is the Estimate at Completion(EAC)?

A. $ 15,000

B. $ 20,000

C. $ 20,500

D. $ 22,000

149. Plan Risk Responses helps the project manager develop options and determine

actions to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to the project`s objectives. The

output from plan risk responses is a risk response plan which should be:-

A. At the level of detail of work packages in WBS

B. At the level of detail where actions will be taken

C. Able to identify and document residual risks and secondary risks

D. Used for periodic risk reviews to identify risk ratings and prioritization

150. As part of controlling, project performance must be monitored and measured

regularly to identify variances from the plan. All the following are processes

involved with controlling process group EXCEPT:

A. Verify Scope

B. Monitor and Control Risks

C. Report Performance

D. Perform Quality Assurance

151. Your Management is evaluating a project which requires an investment of $

500,000. The expected inflow is $ 100,000 for 1st year, and $ 300,000 for every year

after that. What is the payback period?

A. 2 years

B. 2 years, 4 months

C. 3 years

D. Cannot be determined because Discount Rate is not specified

152. Please refer to this diagram:

What is the effect on the project if duration of task J is increased to 9 weeks?

A. No effect since task J is not on the critical path

B. Risk of the project will increase

C. The overall time-frame required to complete the project will increase by 1

week



You know that Current Variances are atypical i.e. similar variances will not occur in the

future. What is Cost Performance Index (CPI) for the project?

A. 0.96

B. 1.04

C. 1.00

D. 1.20

154. All the following statements about IRR (Internal Rate of Return) and NPV (Net

Present Value) are correct EXCEPT:

A. Net Present Value is difference between all present value of all inflows and

present value of all outflows

B. The prevailing market rate is used for Net Present Value Calculations

C. Internal Rate of Return is the discount rate when Net Present Value = 0

D. While selecting projects, it is preferable to select projects with a higher IRR


What is the slack of task G?

A. 0 weeks

B. 1 week

C. -1 week

D. Cannot be determined

156. Estimating the cost of individual activities or work packages, then rolling up the

individual estimates to get a project total is done as part of :

A. Bottom up Estimating

B. Analogous Estimating

C. Parametric Modeling

D. Top-down Estimating

157. A project charter has all the following (Select the best option):

A. Project Justification, Product, Deliverables and Objectives

B. Business Need, Product Description

C. Business Need, Project Justification

D. Project Deliverables, Product Description


What is the impact to critical path if management wants you to complete the project in

20 weeks ?

A. Duration of Critical path increases by 3 weeks

B. Duration of Critical path decreases by 3 weeks

C. Duration of Critical path remains same

D. Duration of Critical path cannot be determined

159. Your project is being cancelled, and you are following the Statement of

Position (developed by American Institute of Certified Public Accountants - AICPA)

which requires that all the costs for failed information technology project should be

written off in the quarter that the project is cancelled. These processes are part of:

A. Lessons Learned

B. Revised Cost Estimates

C. Close Project

D. Earned Value Management

160. A well-constructed Scope Statement can provide all the following benefits

EXCEPT:

A. Provide a documented basis for making future project decisions

B. Develop common understanding of project scope among stakeholders

C. Provide knowledge of project justification, deliverables and objectives

D. Provide a basis for time and cost estimates

161. In your project, you realize the importance of determining the start and finish

dates for project activities. If the project start or end dates are not realistic, then the

project may not be completed on time. This is done as part of :

A. Sequence Activities

B. Estimate Activity Durations

C. Develop Schedule

D. Define Activities

162. According to Herzberg's motivator-hygiene Theory of Motivation, if

achievement, recognition, responsibility, advance or promotion, and positive

supervisor attitude are not present, employees will:-

A. Become alienated with the organization and leave

B. Lack motivation and become dissatisfied with their work

C. Lack motivation but will not be dissatisfied with their work

D. Become dissatisfied only if they do not receive salary increases

163. A work authorization system is a:-

A. Work breakdown structure showing individual work elements

B. Formal procedures for sanctioning work so that it is done at the right time and in

the proper sequence

C. Method to ensure that each person on the project team knows the work elements

that are his or her responsibility

D. System to help measure performance in terms of work completed versus work

planned

164. Measuring project performance regularly is necessary to identify variances

from the project plan. A variance is considered to be significant if it:-

A. Is considered a project risk

B. Becomes a lesson learned as a result of the corrective action selected

C. Jeopardizes project objectives

D. Requires corrective action

165. You are the project manager responsible for delivering a project which is being

done under contract. From a financial perspective, you know that all the cost

estimates must be assigned to the correct accounting category. For this, you use:

A. Chart of Accounts

B. Project Files

C. Estimating Publications

D. Work Breakdown Structures

166. Change requests occur in all the following forms except

A. Oral or written

B. Formal or Informal

C. Legally mandated or optional

D. Externally or internally initiated

167. Following information is available about a particular task in your project plan:

Early Start(ES) : 25 days

Late Start(LS) : 30 days

Early Finish(EF) : 50 days

Late Finish(LF) : 55 days

Based on this information, you can deduce that:

A. The task is on critical path

B. The project may get delayed

C. Project Float is 5 days


168. Which of the following includes all the processes required for Project Cost

Management? (select the best answer)

A. Estimate Costs, Determine Budget, Control Costs

B. Cost Aggregation , Budget Forecasts, Cost Control

C. Define Cost, Cost Aggregation , Budget Forecasts, Control Costs

D. Resource Calendars , Cost Aggregation , Budget Forecasts

169. You are managing a complicated software development project with several

deliverables. To be effective, and to be alert of potential future problems, you

monitor interim deliverables i.e. which deliverables have been completed and

which have not. This information is available to you through:

A. Revisions to Work Breakdown Structure

B. Project Baseline changes

C. Performance Reports


170. The process of conferring with others to come to terms or reach an agreement

is called

A. Win-win

B. Negotiation

C. Getting to yes

D. Arbitration

171. When communicating with a people-oriented person, a project manager

should

A. Stress the uniqueness of the idea or topic at hand

B. Stress the relationships between his/her proposals and the people concerned

C. Be precise about the value of the ideas to overall organizational goals

D. Focus on personnel performance issues first

172. A work breakdown structure is most useful for ...

A. Identifying individual tasks for a project

B. Scheduling the start of tasks

C. Both A and D

D. Developing a cost estimate

173. Fast-tracking is also known as

A. Overtime and contracting

B. Utilizing additional resources

C. Concurrent Engineering

D. Crashing

174. In dealing with the customer, the project manager should:-

A. Disclose information only at regular intervals to maintain consistency

B. Strive to develop a friendly, honest, and open relationship

C. Be honest to the extent that the project organization is protected from litigation

D. Try to maximize profits by encouraging scope creep

175. Your project is very critical for the company and must be completed within 6

months. The project charter has been signed, but Scope Statement is not yet

prepared. Management asks you to go ahead with the project without the scope

statement being approved. What should you do?

A. Refuse to work on the project because management is not following

standard Project Management Practices

B. Since time is of essence, you should start the project with the inputs from

project charter

C. Meet the Management and mention the problems you will face without a

Scope Statement

D. Escalate the issue to the project sponsor and issue a Risk Memo

176. A project manager who wants to create a receptive atmosphere for

communicating should

A. Speak or write as he/she would like to be spoken or written to

B. Ensure that all communication is clear and understood

C. Have the project team prepare a project communication plan

D. Ensure that team members have the information needed to do their work

E. Ensure that team members have the tools available to facilitate communication

177. Earned Value Management is a properly used tool and technique to measure

project performance. In Earned Value Management, BCWP refers to:

A. Physical work actually accomplished, including the estimated value of this

work

B. Physical work scheduled to be performed, including the estimated value of

this work

C. Actual cost incurred to accomplish the earned value


178. You are doing a project under contract, where you are supposed to create an

anti-virus software product for the customer in 10 months. You follow the software

development life-cycle which includes Analysis, high level design, low level design,

coding, testing and rollout, with a deliverable at end of each phase. Your customer

has defined the scope very well, and said that they would review your product after

10 month period. In this case, you should:

A. Insist that the customer verifies the deliverables at end of each phase

B. Ask your Senior Management to review the deliverables at end of each

phase to ensure it satisfies customer requirements

C. Complete building the product as per specifications and provide completed

product to customer as requested.

D. Provide project deliverables to the customer at the end of each phase even

if the customer may not review them

179. Financial compensation is the primary motivational tool for which of the

following management theories or programs?

A. Zero Defects program

B. Theory X management

C. Theory Y management

D. Quality Control Circles

E. A and C

180. A poured concrete footing has been tested to determine the compliance with

applicable requirements. This is an example of

A. Perform Quality control

B. Perform Quality assurance

C. Plan Quality

D. Quality Audit

A. - 0.3 Million

B. - 1 Million

C. 1 Million

D. 0.7 Million

181. Items at the lowest level of a Work Breakdown Structure are also called:

A. Work Components

B. Work Packages

C. WBS Dictionaries

D. WBS, Work Components, Work Packages or WBS Dictionaries - depending

on the context in which the term is used

182. You are using an Arrow Diagramming method to construct a project network

diagram - you use arrows to represent the activities and connect them at nodes to

show their dependencies. You can use all the following as Inputs for this process

EXCEPT:

A. List of All Activities that will be performed on the project

B. Description of the product

C. Mandatory and Discretionary Dependencies

D. Schematic Display of project`s activities and logical relationships

183. Inspection includes activities such as measuring, examining, and testing

undertaken to determine whether results conform to requirements. Inspections can

also be called all the following EXCEPT:

A. Product Reviews

B. Audits

C. Stage-gates

D. Walk-throughs

184. The statistical control chart is a tool used primarily to help:-

A. Monitor process variation over time

B. Measure the degree of conformity

C. Determine whether results conform

D. Analyze how problems occur

E. Determine whether results conform to requirements

185. Project scope management includes the processes required to ensure that the

project includes all the work required, and only the work required, to complete the

project successfully. In this context, project charter plays a very important role

because it:

A. Provides list of project deliverables

B. Authorizes the project

C. Provides deliverable oriented grouping of work components

D. Describes the project objectives i.e. quantifiable criteria that must be met

for the project to be considered successful

186. You are doing a what-if analysis to determine the impact of delaying a major

component delivery, extending specific engineering durations etc. What-if analysis

is an example of :

A. Critical Path Method

B. Simulation

C. Conditional Programming

D. Resource Leveling heuristic

187. The "rule of seven" as applied to statistical process control charts means

that:-

A. Seven rejects typically occur per thousand inspections

B. Seven consecutive points are ascending, descending, or the same

C. At least seven inspectors should be in place for every thousand employees

D. The quality control group should measure the process at least seven times to

validate it

E. A process is not out of control even though seven measurements fall outside the

lower and upper control limits:

188. The quality management plan describes all the following except the

A. Organizational structure, responsibilities, procedures, processes, and resources

needed to implement project quality management

B. Method for implementing the quality policy

C. Quality control, quality assurance, and quality improvement plans for the project

D. Procedures used to conduct trade-off analyses among cost, schedule, and quality:

189. Kaizen is an approach to continuous improvement that emphasizes:-

A. Customer satisfaction over cost

B. Major advances

C. Incremental improvement

D. Zero defects

190. By using Project Risk management techniques project managers can develop

strategies that do all but which of the following:-

A. Significantly reduce project risks

B. Provide a rational basis for better decision making

C. Eliminate project risks

D. Identify risks, their impact(s), and any appropriate responses

191. Risks classified as unknown unknowns (i.e., those which cannot be identified

or evaluated)

A. Should be handled via contingency allowances

B. Should be deflected to the contracting officer

C. Should be ignored since they cannot be identified

D. Should be ignored, since they are not covered in the Project Risk Assessment

192. In the network diagram for a completely unrealistic schedule, you would likely

find:-

A. No slack available for critical tasks

B. Late start dates earlier than early start dates

C. Negative total float

D. All of the above

193. Assumptions generally involve some risk because:-

A. Assumptions are based on lessons learned

B. Assumptions involve factors that are considered true, real, or certain:

C. Assumptions are based on constraints

D. Historical information may not be available

194. Which relationship dependency is indicative of concurrency?

A. Finish-to-finish

B. Start-to-finish

C. Finish-to-start

D. Start-to-start

195. Lessons learned from projects are significant because they

A. Must be collected to meet requirements of organizational policies and procedures

B. Show why certain projects were selected by the organization over others

C. Show the causes of variances and the reasons certain corrective actions were

selected

D. Show why certain people were selected as project manager and team members

over others:

196. Define Activities involves identifying and documenting the specific activities

that must be performed to produce the deliverables and sub-deliverables identified

in the work breakdown structure (WBS). All the following statements about the

activity list produced as an Output from Define Activities are True EXCEPT:

A. Activity list must include ALL activities that will be performed on the project

B. Activity list may include some activities that are not required as part of the

project

C. Activity list should include descriptions of each activity to ensure that the

project team members will understand how the work is to be done.

D. Activity list should be organized as an extension to the WBS to ensure that

it is complete

197. Which of the following is an appropriate management style to use with the

project manager wants to encourage the staff to pool its knowledge to make the

best decision possible?

A. Laissez-faire

B. Autocratic

C. Democratic

D. Directive

198. There is a Subject Matter Expert in your company who specializes in

Information Security. You know that you will need her help for 3 days in your

project. Since her availability is limited, you scheduled her in reverse from the

project ending date. This is an example of:

A. Critical Chain

B. Resource based method

C. Crashing

D. Reverse resource allocation

199. All the following are benefits of fast tracking a project EXCEPT:

A. Facilitates Duration Compression

B. Reduces risk

C. Ensure activities are done in parallel which would normally be done in

sequence

D. Helps shorten the project schedule without changing the project scope

200. Control Schedule process is concerned with influencing the factors that create

schedule changes to ensure that changes are agreed upon, determining that the

schedule has changed, and managing the actual changes when and as they occur.

Which of the following tool is helpful to control schedule?

A. Duration Compression

B. Pareto Diagram

C. Performance reviews

D. Network Diagram