Embed Size (px)
DESCRIPTION
TQM
Citation preview
Question Excerpt From TQM Test 2
Q.1) ISO 9000 and total quality are interchangeable.
A. True
B. False
Q.2) ISO 9000 is compatible with, and can be a subset of total quality.
A. True
B. False
Q.3) ISO 9000 is never implemented in a non-total quality environment.
A. True
B. False
Q.4) ISO 9000 can improve operations in a traditional environment.
A. True
B. False
Q.5) ISO 9000 may be redundant in a mature total quality environment.
A. True
B. False
Q.6) All of the following are Quality Management Principles of ISO 9000:2000 EXCEPT:
A. customer focus
B. process approach
C. quality system
D. continual improvement
Q.7) All of the following are Quality Management Principles of ISO 9000:2000 EXCEPT:
A. customer focus
B. process approach
C. quality system
D. continual improvement
Q.8) The largest adopter of ISO 9000:2000 is
A. government
B. manufacturing
C. retail.
D. service
Q.9) ISO 9000:2000 recertification is required every:
A. 3 years.
B. 5 years.
C. 7 years.
D. 8 years.
Q.10) The following statements reflect features of ISO 9000:2000 except one. Identify the
exception.
A. It requires organizations to have a planned process for improvement.
B. Its focus is on “document what you do” requirements.
C. It stresses evaluation of training effectiveness
D. It is based on the premise that certain generic characteristics of management practices can
be standardized
Q.11) Appropriate motives for adopting ISO 9000 include which of the following?
A. To create a quality management system
B. To improve operations
C. To conform to the requirements of customers
D. All of the above
Q.12) Which of the following documentation are included in the quality system?
A. A quality policy
B. Customer focus
C. Commitment
D. Teamwork
Q.13) Which of the following statements outline the relationship factor?
A. ISO 9000 and total quality are not in competition
B. ISO 9000 and total quality are not interchangeable
C. ISO 9000 is compatible with total quality
D. All of the above
Q.14) The characteristics of total quality are:
A. Scientific approach to problem solving and decision making
B. Concerned only with quality management procedures
C. Unity of purpose—all employees, all levels
D. Both A & C
Q.15) Which of the following statements are true concerning ISO 9000?
A. The aim of ISO 9000 is to transform organizations into competitive players in the global
marketplace
B. The aim of ISO 9000 was to create a universally recognized family of standards
Q.16) List six statements that summarize the competitive scope of ISO 9000 and total quality.
Q.17) Explain the origins of ISO 9000 and total quality. How are they different?
Q.18) Contrast the aims of ISO 9000 and total quality.
Q.19) List three appropriate reasons for implementing ISO 9000.
Q.20) What is the most appropriate rationale for implementing total quality?
Q.21) Describe how you would use ISO 9000 as an entry into total quality?
Q.22) An organization must address certain key practices to achieve a strategic focus on
performance excellence. Which of the following is not one of them?
A. Gather and analyze relevant data and information pertaining to such factors as the
organizations strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats.
B. Develop and refine a systematic approach for conducting strategic planning and setting
strategic objectives
C. Understand the competitive environment, the principal factors that determine success, the
organization’s core competencies, and strategic challenges.
D. Execute mergers and acquisitions, with an aim to expand business globally and to form
coalitions and cartels to achieve the same.
Q.23) The Top key competencies critical for leadership effectiveness are all of the following
EXCEPT:
A. “articulate a tangible vision, values, and strategy.”
B. “be people-friendly—approachable but assertive.”
C. “be a catalyst/manager of strategic change.”
D. “get results— manage strategy to action.”
Q.24)
“A person’s ability to anticipate, envision, maintain flexibility, think strategically, and
work with others to initiate changes that will create a viable future for the organization,
and its competitive advantage to the organization in this way.” This definition applies to:
A. Organizational leadership
B. Strategic planning
C. Strategic leadership
D. Long-term planning
Q.25) Effective strategic leaders also have the capability to create and maintain the ability for an
organization to learn, which is termed:
A. absorptive capacity
B. daptive capacity.
C. proactive capacity
D. strategic learning capacity.
Q.26) The ability of an organization to change in order to deal with increasingly hyper-turbulent
environments is referred to as:
A. proactive capacity.
B. pliability and malleability.
C. adaptive capacity.
D. absorptive capacity
Q.27) Strategic leadership can be viewed from three levels. Which of the following is NOT one
of them?
A. Senior
B. Entry-level
C. Mid-level
D. Supervisory
Q.28) Characteristics of effective strategic leadership include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. serving as both leaders and team members
B. demonstrating the importance of integrity through actions rather than simply articulating
it.
C. thinking in terms of processes rather than outcomes.
D. viewing employees as resources.
Q.29) _____ leaders ensure that action plans are deployed throughout the organization so that
essential tasks and projects may be accomplished in support of the strategic vision.
A. Strategic
B. Senior
C. Mid-level
D. Supervisory
Q.30)
The first set of questions in the Organizational Profile helps to provide a clear
understanding of the essence of the organization, why it exists, and where senior leaders
want to take the organization in the future. This comes under the heading:
A. Why-Where Map
B. Leadership Vision
C. Mission and Values
D. Organizational Environment
Q.31)
A _____ might include a definition of products and services the organization provides,
technologies used to provide these products and services, types of markets, important
customer needs, and distinctive competencies or the expertise that sets the firm apart from
others.
A. mission statement
B. strategy roadmap
C. value statement
D. leadership statement
Q.32)
A firm’s _____ guides the development of strategies by different groups within the firm,
establishes the context within which daily operating decisions are made, and sets limits on
available strategic options.
A. values
B. mission
C. vision
D. operating directions
Q.33) The _____ statement articulates the basic characteristics that shape the organization’s
view of the future and its strategy.
A. value
B. mission
C. vision
D. Leadership
Q.34) _____ set an organization’s longer-term directions and guide resource allocation
decisions.
A. Management values
B. Strategic objectives
C. Core competencies
D. Workforce management principles
Q.35)
Under which heading in the Organizational Profile do the following questions appear?
What is your competitive position? What is your relative size and growth in your industry
or markets served? What are the numbers and types of competitors for your organization?
A. Organizational Description
B. Organizational Situation
C. Organizational Relationships
D. Organizational Environment
Q.36) Which of the following is NOT a question that appears under the heading of
Organizational Environment in the Organizational Profile?
A. What are your organization’s main product offerings?
B. What are the key characteristics of your organizational culture?
C. What is your workforce profile?
D. What are your organizational structure and governance system?
Q.37)
Strategy development requires an environmental assessment of key factors which typically
include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. career development paths of maturing workforce.
B. early indications of major shifts in technology, markets, customer preferences.
C. competition, or the regulatory environment.
D. long-term organizational sustainability.
Q.38) Effective implementation of a strategy is achieved through action plans. This is called:
A. proactive implementation.
B. installation
C. deployment
D. strategic implementation
Q.39)
Action plans may include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. description of the competitive position of the firm vis-à-vis competitors.
b. details of resource commitments and time horizons for accomplishment.
c. the design of efficient processes.
d. creation of an accounting system that tracks activity-level costs.
A. description of the competitive position of the firm vis-à-vis competitors.
B. details of resource commitments and time horizons for accomplishment.
C. the design of efficient processes.
D. creation of an accounting system that tracks activity-level costs.
Q.40)
Essentially, strategy deployment links the _____, who focus on “doing the right thing”,
with the _____, whose focus is on “doing things right”.
a. management; employees
b. leadership; supervisors
c. thinkers; actors
d. planners; doers
A.
management; employees
a.management; employees
B. leadership; supervisors
C. thinkers; actors
D. planners; doers
Q.41) ____ represents the critical stage in planning when strategic objectives and goals are made
specific so that effective, organization-wide understanding and deployment are possible.
A. Mission statement development
B. Vision statement development
C. Action plan development
D. Operations planning and scheduling
Q.42) Poor deployment of action plans often results from any of the following reasons EXCEPT:
A. improperly defined organizational objectives.
B. lack of alignment across the organization.
C. misallocation of resources.
D. insufficient operational measures
Q.43) Poor deployment of action plans often results from any of the following reasons EXCEPT:
A. improperly defined organizational objectives.
B. lack of alignment across the organization.
C. misallocation of resources.
D. insufficient operational measures
Q.44) One of the reasons for poor deployment of action plans is insufficient operational
measures. Which of the following does NOT feature under this aspect?
A. Projections into the future based on accomplishment of action plans.
B. Dedicating resources to make improvements or changes in those areas that are critical.
C. Changes resulting from new ventures.
D. Comparisons with competitors, benchmarks, and past performance
Q.45)
_____ is essentially a quality-based approach to executing a strategy by ensuring that all
employees understand the business direction and are working according to a plan to make
the vision a reality.
a. Mis
A. Mission deployment
B. Policy deployment
C. Value development
D. Quality orientation
Q.46) With _____, top management is responsible for developing and communicating a vision,
then building organization-wide commitment to its achievement.
A. policy deployment
B. value development
C. mission development
D. quality deployment
Q.47)
Which of the following is NOT part of the policy deployment process?
A. All levels of employees actively participate in generating strategy and action plans to
attain the vision.
B. At each level, progressively more detailed and concrete means to accomplish the
objectives are determined.
C. Middle management negotiates with senior management regarding the objectives that will
achieve the strategies.
D. Employees then negotiate the final short-term objectives with the implementation teams.
Q.48) As per the policy deployment process diagram, a catchball situation occurs between the
_____ stage and _____ stage.
A. corporate vision; long-term objectives
B. long-term objectives; mid-term objectives
C. short-term objectives; policy deployment plan
D. policy deployment plan; plan approval
Q.49)
In policy deployment, the _____ process is called catchball.
a. negotiation
b. implementation
c. review
d. communication
A. negotiation
B. implementation
C. review
D. communication
Q.50) Which of the following is a tool for organizing a large number of ideas, opinions, and facts
relating to a broad problem or subject area?
A. Affinity diagram
B. Interrelationship diagraph
C. Matrix diagram
D. Process decision program chart
Q.51)
The major drawback of the matrix-type organization is that it:
A. can be used only for project work.
B. requires split loyalty.
C. decreases the efficiency of personnel use.
D. decreases the coordination in a project work.
Q.52)
_____ coordinate the internal work processes and the external resources necessary to
develop, produce, and deliver products and services to customers and to succeed in
marketplace.
a. Work systems
b. Operations scheduling systems
c. Organizational charts
d. Personnel management systems
A. Work systems
B. Operations scheduling systems
C. Organizational charts
D. Personnel management systems
Q.53) Decisions about work systems are:
A. operational
B. strategic
C. customer-focused.
D. administrative
Q.54) The clarification of authority, responsibility, reporting lines, and performance standards
among individuals at each level of the organization refers to the:
A. unity of command.
B. control chart.
C. organizational structure.
D. job design.
Q.55) Several factors affect how work is organized in the context of the organization. Which of
the following is NOT one of them?
A. Operational and organizational guidelines
B.
Diversity and complexity of product line
C. Financial stability
D. Unionization of personnel
Q.56) An organization chart shows the _____ of the formal organization.
A. business model
B. apparent structure
C. competitive position
D. workforce distribution
Q.57) Which of the following is a proper description of a Tree Diagram?
A.
A tool for organizing a large number of ideas, opinions, and facts relating to a broad
problem or subject area.
B.
A method for mapping out every conceivable event and contingency that can occur when
moving from a problem statement to possible solutions.
C.
A tool to take data and arrange them to display quantitative relationships among variables
to make them more easily understood and analyzed.
D.
A tool to map out the paths and tasks necessary to complete a specific project or reach a
specified goal.
Q.58) Most organizational structures are variations or combinations of three basic types. Which
of the following is NOT a basic type?
A. The functional organization
B.
The functional and staff organization
C. The centralized organization
D. The matrix organization
Q.59) The _____ organization was developed for use in situations where large, complex projects
are designed and carried out, such as defense weapons systems or large construction
projects.
A. functional
B. functional and staff
C. centralized
D. matrix-type
Q.60) _____ is the process by which certain business functions are acquired and consolidated
within a firm.
A. Acquisition
B. Reengineering
C. Collaboration
D. Vertical integration
Q.61) In many organizations there are three levels of strategy: Which of the following is NOT
ONE of them?
A. Corporate
B. Administrative
C. Strategic business unit
D. Competitive
Q.62) A firm purchasing a key supplier to strengthen its value chain is an example of:
A. collaboration.
B. reengineering.
C. vertical integration.
D. unrelated diversification.
Q.63) Activities that strategic leaders perform generally include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. creating and communicating operational plans.
B. sustaining an effective organization culture.
C. developing key competencies and responsibilities.
D. managing multiple constituencies.
Q.64) An organization’s _____ is its plan for enhancing its capacity to deliver value, thus
increasing market share.
A. objective
B. mission statement
C. competitive strategy
D. management plan
Q.65)
Which of the following is TRUE of the advantages of the matrix type of organizations?
A. It is a one-size-fits-all quality organization.
B. It improves the efficiency of personnel use.
C.
The division of loyalty is especially advantageous in a quality assurance area.
D. It is especially suited for small and medium firms.
Q.66) Which of the following is NOT TRUE of how work is organized in the organizational
context?
A. The lack of certain skills may require other personnel, such as supervisors, to assume
duties they ordinarily would not be assigned
B. Stable product lines generate economies of scale.
C. Quality managers are given the discretion to implement quality measures beyond the
overall budget.
D.
Large organizations have the ability to maintain formal systems and records, whereas
smaller ones may not.
Q.67)
In the policy deployment process, the _____ forms the basis for shorter-term planning.
A. operational plan
B. organizational objectives
C. mission statement
D. long-term strategic plan
Q.68) The goal of _____ is to envision the future for purposes of decision making and resource
allocation.
A. environmental assessment
B. strategy development
C. work systems
D. core competencies
Q.69) The term _____ refers to those pressures that exert a decisive influence on an
organization’s likelihood of future success.
A. strategic challenges
B. core competencies
C. work systems
D. strategic inertia
Q.70) Which of the following issues is NOT addressed under the second group of questions in
the Organizational Profile?
A. organizational structure
B. governance system
C. differences among customer and stakeholder groups
D. where senior leaders want to take the organization in the future
Q.71) Which of the following is NOT TRUE of strategic planning?
A. Provides a framework for improvement and organizational learning.
B. Aligns work processes and learning initiatives with an organization’s strategic directions.
C. Recommends succession plans and career paths for managers and supervisors.
D. Requires a strong future orientation and a willingness to make long-term commitments to
key stakeholders.
Q.72) All of the following are key factors included in an environmental assessment EXCEPT:
A. the organization’s (SWOT) profile
B. the workforce profile and future requirements
C. competition, or the regulatory environment
D. long-term organizational sustainability
Q.73) If a competitor’s product offers the same benefits at a lower price, then the competitor’s
product provides:
A. higher value.
B. lower quality.
C. lower value
D. higher quality
Q.74) _____ is the product quality dimension which relates to the degree to which a product’s
physical and performance characteristics match pre-established standards.
A. Features
B. Performance
C. Conformance
D. Serviceability
Q.75) Maintaining a clean, well-lighted waiting room in a doctor’s office is an example of which
service quality dimension?
A. Competence
B. Courtesy
C. Assurance
D. Tangibles
Q.76)
According to Kano’s classification of customer requirements, a cup of coffee that is served
hot and fresh at a restaurant specializing in breakfasts fits which class of customer
requirements?
A. Dissatisfier
B. Satisfier
C. Exciter
D. Delighter
Q.77)
Leading customer-oriented practices of successful companies include all of the following
EXCEPT:
A. recognize that all customers should to be treated in the same manner.
B. understand the linkages between customer needs and business processes
C. make commitments to customers that build trust and confidence.
D. compare customer satisfaction results to those of their competitors
Q.78) Employees’ ability to convey trust and confidence pertains to which service quality
dimension?
A. Empathy
B. Responsiveness
C. Assurance
D. Reliability
Q.79)
Suppose an advertisement for an automobile stresses that the car does not need a tune-up
for 100,000 miles. It can be best described that this advertisement is focusing on which
product quality dimension?
A. Reliability
B. Features
C. Tangibles
D. Assurance
Q.80)
Dave noticed that where he gets his haircut at Hair Town, there is an employee who (every
15 minutes) sweeps up the hair that has fallen on the floor. By doing this, the
management at Hair Town is trying to affect which quality dimension?
A. Reliability
B. Tangibles
C. Competence
D. Empathy
Q.81)
Bill designs and maintains the inventory management software that his coworker John
uses when customers call the company to place an order for merchandise. Bill is John’s
____________.
A. internal customer
B. external customer
C. internal supplier
D. external supplier
Q.82) Leading practices of customer focused organizations include all of the following
EXCEPT:
A. defining and segmenting customer groups
B. having effective complaint management processes
C. ensuring that every contact with a customer results in a sale
D. employing systematic processes for listening to customers
Q.83) Measurable performance levels that define the quality of customer contact with an
organization’s representatives are known as:
A. customer contact requirements.
B. quality function deployments.
C. indexed service standards.
D. consumer benefits packages
Q.84) ________ quality is what the customer assumes will be received from the product.
A. Actual
B. Expected
C. Design
D. Perceived
Q.85) Which one of the following is least likely to occur?
A. Actual quality exceeds design quality
B. Expected quality exceeds actual quality
C. Actual quality exceeds perceived quality
D. Design quality exceeds expected quality
Q.86) The Kano classification scheme segments customer requirements into:
A. responders, non-responders, and no opinions.
B. internalists, externalists, and quasi-receptors
C. dissatisfiers, satisfiers, and exciters
D. non-necessities, necessities, and luxuries
Q.87) he physical facility and equipment of a resort hotel represent which dimension of service
quality?
A. Responsiveness
B. Tangibles
C. Reliability
D. Assurance
Q.88)
The willingness to schedule deliveries at the customer’s convenience, explaining technical
jargon in a layperson’s language, and recognizing regular customers by name are all
examples of the _____ dimension of service quality.
A. reliability
B. assurance
C. responsiveness
D. empathy
Q.89) The ability to accurately and dependably provide a customer with what was promised
illustrates the service quality dimension of:
A. reliability
B. assurance
C. responsiveness
D. empathy
Q.90)
Which of the following is a critical question to ask when developing a customer
satisfaction measurement program?
A. What is the cost of the program?
B. Who is the customer?
C. Why is the program needed?
D. Which level of management has responsibility for the program?
Q.91) The easiest way to identify customers is to think in terms of:
A. communication channels.
B. service-delivery models
C. customer–supplier relationships
D. stakeholders in the service delivery system
Q.92) Actionable results are achieved if survey responses are:
A. skewed toward the pain points in the system
B. tied directly to key business processes
C. similar to key problems identified by the management
D. collected from an even mix of internal and external customers
Q.93) Questions in a satisfaction survey must be properly designed in order to:
A. be short
B. cover all facets of the market
C. achieve actionable results
D. address more than one issue per question
Q.94) _____ allows the company to align its internal processes according to the most important
customer expectations or their impact on shareholder value.
A. Market value
B. Segmentation
C. Penetration strategy
D. Relation analysis
Q.95) _____ refers to a product’s primary operating characteristics.
A. Performance
B. Features
C. Conformance
D. Aesthetics
Q.96) A car’s fit and finish and freedom from noises and squeaks can reflect this dimension.
A. Performance
B. Features
C. Conformance
D. Aesthetics
Q.97) Research identified five principal dimensions that contribute to customer perceptions of
service quality. Which of the following is NOT one of them?
A. Reliability
B. Assurance
C. Fringe benefits
D. Responsiveness
Q.98) _____ refer to the requirements that are expected in a product or service.
A. Dissatisfiers
B. Satisfiers
C. Exciters
D. Delighters
Q.99) Providing _____ is often considered the minimum required to stay in business.
A. dissatisfiers
B. satisfiers
C. exciters
D. delighters
Q.100) Customer requirements, as expressed in the customer’s own terms, is called the:
A. appreciative inquiry
B. market intelligence
C. customer’s meaning
D. voice of the customer
Q.101) Some of the key approaches to gathering customer information include all of the
following EXCEPT:
A. direct customer contact
B. focus groups
C. external consultant information
D. monitor the Internet
Q.102) Any employee who comes in direct contact with customers can obtain useful information
simply by engaging in conversation and listening to customers. This is an example of:
A. focus groups
B. direct customer contact
C. field intelligence
D. study complaints
Q.103) Because _____ quality drives consumer behavior, producers should make every effort to
ensure that ____ quality conforms to _____ quality.
A. perceived; actual; expected
B. expected; perceived; actual
C. expected; actual; perceived
D. actual; perceived; expected
Q.104) Customer-focused organizations consider complaints as:
A. outcomes of public relations failure
B. opportunities for improvement
C. a symptom of systemic defects
D. the rationale for customer service
Q.105) Which of the following is NOT TRUE of complaints?
A. Organizations involved in customer relationship management train customer contact
personnel to deal with complaints
B. The objective of customer service is to convert complaints into chargeable service
opportunities.
C. Complaints provide a source of product and process improvement ideas.
D. The complaint process itself needs to be monitored, evaluated, and improved.
Q.106) Benefits of customer–supplier partnerships include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. access to technology or distribution channels not available internally
B. shared risks in new investments and product development.
C. improved products through early design recommendations based on supplier capabilities
D. increased operations costs through better communications
Q.107) A product-based definition of quality implies no relationship between the perceived quality of a product and the quantity of some product attribute
A. True
B. False
Q.108) A value-based perspective on quality implies a relationship of usefulness to price
A. True
B. False
Q.109) Assessment of quality is affected by one’s position in the value chain.
A. True
B. False
Q.110) Improved quality of design leads to lower costs and improved quality of conformance
leads to higher prices.
A. True
B. False
Q.111) In general, employee empowerment has been viewed as an effective practice for customer-driven organizations that embrace total quality
A. True
B. False
Q.112) In any organization, the people who best understand how to improve the product and process are the ones who design them
A. True
B. False
Q.113) A cross-functional team is an example of horizontal coordination between organizational units
A. True
B. False
Q.114) In total quality, vertical functional relationships are stressed more than horizontal, cross-functional relationships
A. True
B. False
Q.115) In managing for quality, it is better to analyze systems by looking at their individual parts than to analyze the interaction between parts of the system
A. True
B. False
Q.116) Low-cost procurement is the primary responsibility of the purchasing agent
A. True
B. False
Q.117) The primary objective of inspection is to remove defective items
A. True
B. False
Q.118) Many companies now require that their suppliers provide proof that their processes can consistently turn out products of specified quality
A. True
B. False
Q.119) Customers are commonly involved in the delivery of the service process by being present when the service is being performed
A. True
B. False
Q.120) The production of services typically requires a lesser degree of customization than does manufacturing
A. True
B. False
Q.121) Continuous improvement is evaluated using four processes. Which of the following is
NOT one of them?
A. The Performance Appraisal Review Process
B. The Comprehensive Local Employment Program
C. The Performance Measurement System
D. Surveys and committee evaluations
Q.122) Viewing a McDonald’s restaurant as being composed of order taking/cashier, grilling and
food preparation, drive-through, purchasing, and training processes is an example of:
A. just-in-time control
B. systems thinking
C. resource alignment
D. functional analysis
Q.123)
Systems thinking:
A. has yet to be viewed as an important aspect in the managing for quality
B. has been determined to be an unimportant aspect in the managing for quality
C. is viewed as an important aspect in the managing for quality
D. is viewed as an important aspect in the managing for quality
Q.124) _____ requires that inventories be reduced to the barest minimum.
A. Six Sigma
B. Just-in-time
C. Production scheduling
D. Systems view
Q.125) The two most important drivers of service quality are _____ and _____.
A. time; convenience
B. people; technology
C. satisfaction; feedback
D. expectation; actual delivery
Q.126)
The largest impact of information technology for service has been in:
A. e-commerce
B. automated billing
C. order tracking
D. managing the rewards system
Q.127) Which of the following are considered to be two critical components of quality systems
in service industries?
A. Information systems and technical standards
B. Employees and information systems
C. Production equipment and employees
D. Employees and inspection processes
Q.128)
Which of the following refers to any activity aimed at providing customers with products
of appropriate quality along with the confidence that products meet consumers’
requirements?
A. Quality review
B. Quality control
C. Quality engineering
D. Quality assurance
Q.129) Quality assurance depends on two focal points in business:
A. design of products; control of quality during delivery.
B. adheree to policy; after sales service
C. time and motion guidelines; management policy on quality.
D. global quality time and motion guidelines standards; workforce orientation and
commitment
Q.130) The two U.S. consultants that worked with the Japanese to integrate quality throughout
their organizations in the 1950s were:
A. Juran and Crosby
B. Deming and Crosby
C. Deming and Juran
D. Juran and Crosby
Q.131) In the 1950s, the Japanese integrated quality throughout their organizations and
developed a culture of _____ sometimes referred to by the Japanese term kaizen.
A. consumer orientation
B. internal competition
C. process innovation
D. continuous improvement
Q.132) The notion of quality has evolved into the concept of _____, which can be defined as an
integrated approach to organizational performance management.
A. Six Sigma
B. reengineering
C. performance excellence
D. customer-focused quality
Q.133) Beginning in the ______, many U.S. companies began to focus on improving quality
through more effective management practices.
A. 1950s
B. 1960s
C. 1970s
D. 1980s
Q.134) Until the start of the 1980s, most U.S. companies focused on maintaining quality levels
by utilizing which of the following practices?
A. Process improvement efforts
B. Design quality reviews
C. Mass inspection
D. Team-based initiatives
Q.135) Until the start of the 1980s, most U.S. companies focused on maintaining quality levels
by utilizing which of the following practices?
A. Process improvement efforts
B. Design quality reviews
C. Mass inspection
D. Team-based initiatives
Q.136) Performance excellence results in all of the following EXCEPT:
A. delivery of ever-improving value to customers and stakeholders
B. improvement of overall organizational effectiveness and capabilities
C. organizational and personal learning
D. improved lateral communication
Q.137)
An important implication that arises out of the forces that influence quality is that as the
business world becomes more complex, quality must be approached from a (n) _____
perspective, rather than a (n) _______ perspective.
A. internal; external
B. bottom-up; top-down
C. systems; process
D. futuristic; historical
Q.138) The view that defines quality as the goodness of a product is referred to as the _____
definition of quality.
A. user-based
B. transcendent
C. incidental
D. imminent
Q.139)
Offering products at “everyday” low prices in an attempt to counter the common
consumer practice of buying whatever brand happens to be on special is an example of
competing on the basis of _____.
A. price
B. value
C. volume
D. customer perceptions
Q.140) The person who buys an automobile for personal use or the guest who registers at a hotel
is considered an ultimate purchaser and is more precisely referred to as a (n) _____.
A. beneficiary
B. first contact
C. consumer
D. prosumer
Q.141)
A consumer buys a generic product at $5.00 instead of the branded product for $7.00.
The consumer feels that there is no difference in quality between the generic and brand
name products. This shows which of the following definitions of quality?
A. Manufacturing-based
B. Value-based
C. Product-based
D. User-based
Q.142) Conformance to specifications applies to which quality definition?
A. User-based
B. Product-based
C. Manufacturing-based
D. Value-based
Q.143) The _____ perspective is based on the presumption that quality is determined by what a
customer wants.
A. user-based
B. value-based
C. judgmental-based
D. manufacturing-based
Q.144) Quality is most difficult to measure and analyze under which of the following
definitions?
A. Product-based
B. User-based
C. User-based
D. Value-based
Q.145)
A consumer who measures the quality of a laptop computer by the type of
microprocessor chip present in the computer is using which of the following definitions
of quality?
A. User-based
B. Subjective-based
C. Product-based
D. Manufacturing-based
Q.146) Defining product quality as “fitness for intended use” is the _____ -based definition of
quality.
A. user
B. value
C. judgmental
D. product
Q.147) From a product-based perspective, quality is defined by:
A. conformance to specifications
B. how well the product performs its intended function
C. the quantity of some product attribute
D. the relationship of usefulness or satisfaction to price
Q.148) _____ include a wide variety of tools and statistical methods to plan work activities,
collect data, analyze results, monitor progress, and solve problems.
A. TQ techniques
B. Quality circles
C. Progress schedules
D. Process charts
Q.149) Which of the following is NOT a form of improvement encouraged under total quality?
A. Reducing defects
B. Increasing cycle time
C. Reducing waste
D. Increasing productivity
Q.150) _____ is a people-focused management system that aims at continual increase in
customer satisfaction at continually lower real cost.
A. Kaizen
B. Human resources management
C. Total Quality
Q.151) The transition to a customer-driven organization has caused fundamental changes in
manufacturing practices. Identify which of the following is NOT one of the changes.
A. Suppliers have become partners in product design and manufacturing efforts
B. Product design activities now closely integrate marketing, engineering, and
manufacturing operations
C. Quality control has shifted from the production floor to the quality department
D. Workforce management practices concentrate on empowering employee
Q.152) Graphical and statistical methods to analyze data are referred to as _____ of total quality.
A. practices
B. tools
C. actions
D. processes
Q.153) In the context of total quality, an organization’s stakeholders include all of the following
EXCEPT:
A. society
B. customers
C. suppliers
D. competitors
Q.154)
TQ practices can be classified into basic areas of management that are generic to any
organization. Which of the following is NOT one of them?
A. Strategic planning and design of organizational and work systems
B. Customer engagement and knowledge acquisition
C. Advertising and public relations
D. Process management
Q.155) Deming advocated the use of relatively few suppliers as a means to reduce raw material
variation.
A. True
B. False
Q.156) Juran’s approach to quality improvement is considered easier to fit into existing business
structures than Deming’s.
A. True
B. False
Q.157) Unlike Juran and Deming, Crosby’s program is primarily behavioral.
A. True
B. False
Q.158) Crosby emphasizes using management and organizational processes rather than statistical
techniques to change corporate culture and attitudes.
A. True
B. False
Q.159) The Profound Knowledge system is attributed to:
A. Philip B. Crosby
B. W. Edwards Deming
C. Armand Feigenbaum
D. Joseph M. Juran
Q.160) According to Deming, product or a service possesses quality if it:
A. conforms to standards and provides customer satisfaction
B. helps somebody and enjoys a good and sustainable market.
C. matches or exceeds the standards set by the competition
D. incorporates quality in its design, production, and delivery
Q.161) Which of the following individuals is credited with having the greatest influence on
quality management?
A. Philip B. Crosby
B. W. Edwards Deming
C. Kaoru Ishikawa
D. Joseph M. Juran
Q.162) According to Deming, _____ is the chief culprit of poor quality.
A. standardization
B. variation
C. tolerance
D. lack of innovation
Q.163) According to Deming, _____ should become the common language that every employee
— from top executives to line workers - uses to communicate with one another.
A. graphs and charts
B. slogans
C. acronyms
D. statistics
Q.164) According to Deming, which of the following is part of the new philosophy companies
must learn in order to create a never-ending cycle of improvement?
A. Quota-driven production
B. Work measurement
C. Adversarial work relationships
D. Customer-driven approach
Q.165) Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding numerical quotas and management
by objectives?
A. Standards and quotas are based on long-term perspectives
B. They encourage improvement, particularly if rewards are tied to meeting quotas
C. Workers may short-cut quality to reach the goal
D. Measurement has been, and often still is, motivational.
Q.166) The Deming philosophy focuses on improvements in product and service quality by:
A. inspecting 100% of output.
B. reducing variation
C. reducing customer complaints
D. separating the planning and execution functions
Q.167) Traditional organizations typically manage according to the functions in _____.
A. the power/interest matrix
B. the top-down approach.
C. flat organization charts
D. vertical organization charts
Q.168) The need to “remove barriers to pride in workmanship” is associated with:
A. Crosby
B. Juran
C. Deming
D. Taguchi
Q.169) Meeting quality goals during operations is which of the processes of Juran’s Quality
Trilogy?
A. Quality control
B. Quality design
C. Quality improvement
D. Quality planning
Q.170)
The Deming philosophy focuses on continual improvements in product and service
quality by _____ in design, manufacturing, and service processes, driven by the
leadership of top management.
A. promoting innovations
B. reducing uncertainty and variability
C. outsourcing non-core activities
D. reengineering
Q.171) Deming claimed that higher levels of _____ lead to higher levels of _____.
A. automation, quality
B. quality, productivity
C. inventory, quality
D. inspection, quality
Q.172) Which of the following is the primary reason for Deming’s position that slogans should
be eliminated?
A. Most problems depend on the system and cannot be controlled by workers
B. Slogans benefit the customers more than the workers
C. Not all workers can read the slogans
D. Slogans are costly to maintain and periodically update
Q.173) Deming stressed that the ultimate responsibility for quality improvement lies with:
A. design engineers
B. Inspectors
C. top management
D. material suppliers
Q.174) The quality definition of “fitness for use” is associated with:
A. Shewhart
B. Deming
C. Crosby
D. Juran
Q.175) According to Deming’s Profound Knowledge system, which of the following should be
encouraged?
A. Pitting individuals or departments against each other for resources
B. Using sales quotas or arbitrary cost-reduction goals
C. Applying systems thinking in people management
D. Using performance appraisals to blame individuals
Q.176) Which of the following represents a point of disagreement between Deming and Juran?
A. Upper management requires training and experience in managing for quality
B. Change can be accomplished within the organization’s existing structure
C. Commitment by top management is a necessity
D. Employees need to know who uses their products
Q.177)
_____ begins with identifying customers, both external and internal, determining their
needs, translating customer needs into specifications, developing product features that
respond to those needs, and developing the processes capable of producing the product or
delivering the service.
A. Quality planning
B. Quality control
C. Quality implementation
D. Quality improvement
Q.178) Juran formalized the commonsense order of discovery, organization, diagnosis,
corrective action, and control, as the:
A. process maturity path.
B. process design plan
C. breakthrough sequence
D. quality improvement process
Q.179) Juran’s “Quality Trilogy” consists of three processes. These processes are:
A. quality planning, quality control, and quality improvement
B. quality measurement, quality control, and quality assurance
C. quality improvement, quality management, and quality control
D. quality control, quality management, and quality enhancement
Q.180) Juran believed that to get top management’s attention, quality issues must be translated
into the “language” of:
A. market share
B. dollars
C. shareholders
D. liquidity
Q.181) Which of the following represents an activity classified by Juran under “quality
planning?”
A. Inspection
B. Process design
C. Statistical process control
D. Waste reduction teams
Q.182) Quality is defined as “conformance to requirements” by:
A. Shewhart
B. Deming
C. Crosby
D. Juran
Q.183) According to Crosby’s Absolutes of Quality Management, absence of quality is
attributed to:
A. nonconformance
B. setting requirements
C. improper measurements
D. conformance to requirements
Q.184) Quality originates in _____ departments and therefore the burden of responsibility for
such problems falls on these departments.
A. customer service
B. design
C. quality
D. functional
Q.185)
_____ is defined as “...an effective system for integrating the quality development,
quality maintenance, and quality improvement efforts of the various groups in an
organization so as to enable production and service at the most economical levels which
allow full customer satisfaction.”
A. Total quality control
B. Management control
C. Quality assurance
D. Six Sigma
Q.186) Which of the following is NOT TRUE based on Crosby’s quality philosophy?
A. The only performance measure is the cost of quality
B. There is no such thing as a quality problem
C. Zero defects is an unrealistic goal
D. Quality is free
Q.187) According to Deming and Juran, the majority of quality problems are associated with:
A. uncaring workers
B. the lack of production quotas
C. processes designed by management
D. an unnecessary reliance on statistical tools
Q.188) Crosby’s Basic Elements of Improvement were all of the following EXCEPT:
A. determination
B. education
C. implementation
D. experimentation
Q.189) Crosby’s Absolutes of Quality Management include the following points EXCEPT:.
A. quality means conformance to requirements, not elegance
B. there is no such thing as the statistics of quality
C. the only performance measurement is the cost of quality, which is the expense of non-
conformance
D. the only performance standard is “Zero Defects (ZD).”
Q.190)
The criteria for Performance Excellence for the Malcolm Baldrige award consist of a
hierarchical set of categories, items, and areas to address. Which of the following four is
NOT one of them?
A. Strategic Planning
B. Workforce Focus
C. Process Management
D. Return on Investment
