Practice Final Exam – PCB3233 w/Professor Weigel

Disclaimer: Hello everyone! Please note that these questions are only for you to test your knowledge for your

upcoming final exam. I have no knowledge as to what questions will appear in your exam, & Dr. Weigel has not

reviewed these questions. Do NOT use this as your only source for studying. Please continue to use the

PowerPoints, book, & any other resource you might find helpful. I wish you the best of luck & happy studying

1. Which of the following is a not a characteristic of inflammation?

a. Increased vascular permeability and edema b. Vasodilation c. Pain d. Inactivation of macrophages

2. Cells that are produced from the myeloid progenitor include a. Neutrophils, Basophils, and Eosinophils b. Neutrophils, Monocytes, and NK Cells c. T-Cells, B-Cells, and Neutrophils d. NK Cells, Macrophages, Eosinophils

3. Which lymphoid organ is responsible for filtering blood? a. Spleen b. Tonsils c. Peyer’s patch d. Thyroid

4. What is a major difference between the three pathways of complement? a. How they are activated b. Opsonization c. MAC d. Local inflammation

5. Which of the following statement is true regarding Neutrophils? a. Secrete cytokines which prevent viral replication and helps activate T cell-

mediated immunity

b. Process and present peptide antigens to T cells c. Are phagocytic cells that contain toxic substances in their intracellular granules d. Secrete antibodies

6. Which of the following leukocyte has granules that stain dark blue/purple, secretes IgM

and is involved with phagocytosis? a. Neutrophil b. B cell c. Basophil d. None of the above

7. Which of the following choices are in the correct order in regards to which pathway is

activated first, second, and third? a. Alternative- Classical- Lectin b. Classical- Lectin- Alternative c. Alternative- Lectin- Classical d. Lectin- Alternative- Classical

8. Which of the following is the main opsonin deposited onto a pathogen surface from

complement? a. C3b b. C2b c. C3b2a d. C3a

9. All leukocytes are lymphocytes. a. True b. False

10. Inactivation of C3b occurs by which factors? a. Factor H b. Factor I c. DAF d. A & B

11. Which of the following is true regarding DAF and MCP? a. Inactivate C3b on a pathogen surface b. Stabilizes C3 convertase on a pathogen surface c. Disrupts the C3 convertase on a human cell surface by cleaving it making it

inactive

d. Is not involved in complement

12. Which of the following is incorrect? a. CR1 recognizes C3b b. CR2 recognizes C3d c. CR3 recognizes iC3b d. None of the above

13. Which of the following is the C3 convertase of the classical and lectin pathway? a. C3bBb b. C3b2Bb c. C4b2a d. C4b2a3b

14. Macrophages use which of the following receptors for cytokine secretion. a. Scavenger

b. Mannose c. Toll Like Receptor d. A & B

15. Identify the mismatched pair. a. IL-1b: increase permeability b. NFkD: leads to the expression of 5 inflammatory cytokines c. IL-6: increases temperature in infected tissue d. CXCL8: recruits neutrophils

16. The function of IL-8 is to: a. Activate macrophages b. Attract neutrophils to site of infection c. Recruit NK Cells d. To produce heat.

17. What extracellular proteins does TLR need to be able to start the cytokine

producing protein cascade a. MD2 b. CD14 c. LBP d. All of the above

18. RAG-1 and RAG-2 enzymes would be present in which cells? a. Maturing B ells b. Maturing T cells c. Dendritic cells to rearrange their MHC molecules d. A & B

19. The antigen binding site of an immunoglobulin is formed from:

a. The V regions of the light chain

b. The C regions of the heavy chain

c. Both V regions from the heavy and light chains

d. Both C regions from the heavy and light chains

20. Random addition of nucleotides in the spaces between gene segments

of germline DNA is known as: a. Gene diversity. b. Light chain variability c. Junctional diversity. d. None of the above

21. Allelic exclusion ensures that B cells: a. Express only one heavy and light chain b. Does not proliferate c. Does not undergo isotype switching d. None of the above

22. Whether an Ig is secreted or membrane bound is determined during: a. Somatic Recombination b. Somatic Hypermutation c. RNA Splicing d. DNA Splicing

23. One TCR can bind to different antigens a. True b. False

24. Primary difference between how B cells and T cells recognize antigen is

a. T Cell receptors can bind to antigen only after secretion of the T cell receptor

b. T cell receptors can directly bind to only carbohydrate groups or clusters of

amino acids

c. B cells recognize peptide bound to MHC

d. T cells recognize peptide bound to MHC

25. MHC genes are diverse because:

a. They are polymorphic within the individual.

b. They are polymorphic within the population. c. They are monomorphic within the population. d. None of the above

26. Which statement is true regarding SCID?

a. T cells are functional because with SCID, TCR recombination is not affected.

b. T cells are not functional because with SCID, TCR recombination is affected.

c. One of the RAG genes is affected, which does not influence the TCR

recombination.

d. B&C.

27. A a:b T Cell is restricted to recognition of antigens through MHC molecules.

a. True b. False

28. All of the following occur after B cells leave the bone marrow except:

a. Production of memory B cells

b. Differentiation into plasma cells

c. Recirculation between lymph, blood and secondary lymphoid tissues

d. Receptor editing

29. Which of the following is incorrect regarding B-1 cells? a. They exhibit polyspecificity

b. Arise during fetal development

c. Express CD25 on their surface

d. The have a lot N nucleotide diversity in VDJ junctions

30. If an immature B cell that is reactive to multivalent self-antigen is not eliminated: a. There is a risk of developing an interimmune disease

b. There is a risk of developing an autoimmune disease

c. No disease will be caused from it.

d. There is no chance that a B cell can recognize self-antigens.

31. VJ rearrangement of the light chain occurs in which stage of B cell development? a. Early Pro- B

b. Late Pro- B

c. Large Pre-B

d. Small Pre-B

32. Receptor editing refers to: a. B cell utilizing its RAG enzymes to produce a new L chain productive

rearrangement after recognizing a multivalent self-antigen.

b. B cell utilizing its RAG enzymes to produce a new H chain productive

rearrangement after recognizing a multivalent self-antigen.

c. B cell utilizing its TdT enzymes to produce a new H chain productive

rearrangement after recognizing a multivalent self-antigen.

d. B cell utilizing TdT enzymes to produce a new L chain productive

rearrangement after recognizing a multivalent self-antigen.

33. Chemokines _____ and _____ attract B cells to the HEV and lymph node respectively. a. CCL29 ; CCL21

b. CCL21 ; CCL19

c. CXCL13 ; CCL19

d. CCL21 ; CXCL13

34. Plasma cells can differentiate directly from: a. Activated B cells

b. Isotype switched B cells

c. Hypermutated centrocytes

d. All of the above.

35. Which of the following describes the locations of the development pathway of T cells? a. Thymus- Bone Marrow- Spleen

b. Bone Marrow- Thymus- Lymph nodes

c. Lymph nodes- Bone Marrow- Thymus

d. Lymph nodes- Thymus- Spleen

36. DiGeorge’s Syndrome: a. Involves a deletion in chromosome 22.

b. The thymus is not affected at all.

c. Affected person is susceptible to a wide range of opportunistic infections, and

resembles SCID.

d. A&C.

37. During positive selection, if the MHC molecule selected is class 1, then a. The thymocyte will become a CD8 T cell

b. The thymocyte will become a CD4 T cell

c. Gene expression of CD8 stops

d. Gene expression of CD4 is enhanced

38. Which of the following surface proteins will an uncommitted progenitor cell that just

entered the thymus have? a. CD4

b. CD8

c. CD34

d. L-7 receptor

39. A double negative progenitor T cell: a. Will never be a double positive Thymocyte

b. Does not have CD4 and CD8 on its surface but has have CD2 and CD5.

c. Needs IL-7 and Notch 1 to receive the signals that drive their maturation.

d. B&C.

40. Which of the following is NOT a signal that originates from a successful rearrangement

of a chain and the pre-T cell receptor? a. Stimulates proliferation b. Stimulates expression of either CD4 or CD8 co-receptors.

c. Stops any additional TCR chain locus rearrangement. d. Signals to become permissive for chain rearrangement.

41. Once the chain of the TCR is rearranged and the cell has finished proliferating: a. The RAG genes are turned back on.

b. Rearrangement of the chain locus is induced. c. There is a bigger chance that the rearranging thymocyte will become a : T

cell than a : T cell.

d. A&B

42. The pre-T cell receptor is composed of a. Fully formed TCR (with bothchains). b. chain and a preT . c. CD3 and chains. d. B&C

43. How many tries, per chromosome, does a T cell have to produce a functioning chain?

a. 1 b. 2

c. 4

d. 6

44. The second checkpoint in T cell development: a. Makes sure that the surrogate chain can bind to the chain. b. Makes sure that the chain can bind to the chain. c. Tests whether the newly formed TCR can bind to self-antigens.

d. All the above

45. Homing of effector T cells to inflamed tissue is facilitated by upregulation of ___ on the

surface of the T cell. a. VLA-4

b. L-Selectin

c. CD28

d. VCAM

46. Antigen recognition by T-cells in the absence of co-stimulatory molecules results in a. Upregulation of B7

b. Expression of IL-2

c. T cell anergy

d. T cell apoptosis

47. Circulating naïve T cells will: a. Enter the thymus though HEV thanks to the CCL19 and CCL21 gradient.

b. Enter the secondary lymphoid tissue though HEV thanks to the CCL19 and

CCL21 gradient.

c. Will not be able to pass through the HEV if CCR10 is not present on the T cell

surface.

d. B&C

48. Expression of which co-stimulatory receptor/molecule distinguishes P-APC from other

cells? a. IL2

b. CXCL8

c. CD25

d. B7

49. The types of molecules of that carry out effector functions of T Cells are: a. Cytokines b. Cytotoxins c. Antibodies d. A&B

50. Which of the following are Professional Antigen Presenting Cells (P-APC)? a. B Cells

b. Macrophages

c. Dendritic Cells

d. All of the Above

51. Follicular Dendritic cells secrete ___ which helps B cells proliferate and differentiate

while in the dark zones? a. CD40 Ligand and IL2

b. CCL21 and CCL19

c. BAFF, IL-15, IL-6, and 8D6

d. CD44, CD38, CD77

52. Infants who suffer from DiGeorge’s syndrome: a. Have high levels of IgG compared to IgM

b. Are unable to make antibodies

c. Have low number of B cells

d. Do not mediate effective isotype switching in their B cells

53. Mucosal epithelia of the GI tract, the respiratory, urinary, and genital tracts are

protected by: a. Dimeric IgA

b. IgG

c. IgM

d. Monomeric IgA

54. The poly-Ig receptor on the basolateral surface of epithelial cells binds to ___ by the ___.

a. Dimeric IgA; J chain

b. Monomeric IgA; J chain

c. IgM; J chain

d. A & C

55. Which of following receptors helps transport IgG from blood into extracellular spaces?

a. Brambell Receptor

b. FcRB

c. FcRc

d. A & B

56. Which of the following are examples of passive transfer of immunity? a. Antibody production after vaccination

b. IgA through breast milk

c. Antivenom after being bit by a spider

d. B & C

57. Which of the following diseases is caused by an adaptive immune response to the

protein of gluten? a. Crohn’s disease

b. Celiac disease

c. Cholera

d. None of the above

58. Which of the following is incorrect regarding M-cells? a. They transport pathogens via transcytosis

b. M stands for myefold

c. They are associated with GALT

d. They lack destructive enzymes, defensins and mucus secretions

59. People suffering from Selective IgA deficiency have increased ___ in their secretions. a. IgE

b. IgA

c. IgD

d. IgM

60. Which of the following antibodies does not activate complement or induce

inflammation? a. IgM

b. IgG

c. IgA

d. None of the above

61. Which of the following statement is incorrect in regards to CD4 activation and

differentiation into TH1 and TH2 cells? a. TH2 cells produce IL-5 which recruits eosinophils

b. TH1 cells produce IL-3 and IL-9 which recruits mast cells

c. TH2 cells produce IL-13 which increases production of epithelial cells d. TH1 cells secrete Interferon g and activates macrophages

62. After an infection has been cleared antibodies will not be present from the plasma cells

that were created during the primary immune response a. True

b. False

63. Which of the following statement is false regarding activation of memory cells? a. More sensitive to the pathogen

b. Higher number of pathogen specific lymphocytes than naïve B cells

c. More easily activated

d. Slow immune response when infected with the same pathogen again

64. Which of the following B cells don’t have surface Ig (BCR)? a. Naïve B cells

b. Plasma cells

c. Memory B cells

d. None of the above

65. The second immune response is mediated by which B cells? a. Naïve B cells

b. Plasma cells

c. Memory B cells

d. None of the above

66. ____ Memory T cells retain the ability to circulate though secondary lymphoid tissues

and respond quicker compared to naïve T cells. a. Central

b. Effector

c. Peripheral

d. Tolerant

67. Which of the following statement is true regarding the primary immune response? a. Large number of pathogen specific cells respond immediately

b. Antibodies are isotype switched and have high affinity for the pathogen

c. Delay before pathogen specific antibodies are produced

d. Close cooperation between innate and adaptive immunity from the start

68. What is the principal protective immunity to influenza? a. Antibodies

b. Cytotoxins

c. NK cells

d. None of the above

69. Which of the following is false regarding what antiretrovirals drugs do for a patient with

HIV? a. Decrease viral load

b. Prevent transmission

c. Slow spread of HIV in the body

d. Delay onset of opportunistic infections

Match the following: a. Toxic Shock Syndrome

b. Herpes c. Varicella-zoster

d. Treponema pallidum

70. ___ Causes syphilis: coats itself with human protein 71. ___ Causes chicken pox: lies dormant within the dorsal root ganglia

72. ___ Causes a massive cytokine release of IL-1, IL-2, TNF-a 73. ___ Goes unrecognized by the immune system; nerve cells have little MHC reducing

CD8 T cell participation

74. Identify the mismatched pair: a. Type I: Sensitized T cells are responsible for symptoms not antibodies

b. Type II: Free antibodies bind to surface antigens

c. Type III: Free antibodies bind to soluble antigens to create immune complexes

d. Type IV: Inflammation

75. Systemic anaphylaxis is caused by the presence of allergen in: a. the GI tract

b. the circulation

c. the respiratory tract

d. the skin

76. Anaphylaxis can be most likely be treated using which of the following? a. Antihistamines

b. Corticosteroids

c. Epinephrine

d. Antimicrobial

77. Poison Ivy, TB Test, and Graft rejections are examples of which type of

hypersensitivity? a. Type I

b. Type II

c. Type III

d. Type IV

78. Type O patients lack which antigens (100%) on their surface? a. A

b. B

c. Rh

d. A & B

79. Type IV hypersensitivity reactions are coordinated by the cytokines produced by which

T cells? a. TH1

b. TH2

c. TH4

d. TH17

80. The ____ law states that you have antibodies in your serum against the antigens you

lack. a. Landsteiner

b. Boyles

c. Bohr

d. Jenner

81. ___ are universal recipients that can receive blood from any donor but can only donate

to those who have the same blood type. a. AB RhD-

b. AB RhD +

c. O RhD-

d. A RhD+

Matching Match each of the following terms to the correct statement (combined from all chapters)

1. Dendritic Cell a. Produced by TH2 cells which helps

recruit and activate eosinophils

2. Monocyte b. Chemokine that attracts neutrophils 3. Eosinophil c. The only immunoglobulin that can

cross the placenta

4. NK Cell d. Activates transcription of genes for

5 inflammatory cytokines

5. C3 convertase of the alternative e. Expressed on a mature B cell

pathway

6. C3 convertase of the classical/ f. Has the highest avidity

lectin pathways

7. C5 convertase of the alternative g. Most abundant immunoglobulin

pathway present in external secretions

8. C5 convertase of the h. Makes temperature rise in infected

classical/lectin pathway tissue

9. MAC i. Recruits and activates NK cells

10. TNF-a j. C3bBb

11. NFkB k. IL-17 and IL-6

12. CXCL8 l. TGF-b and IL10

13. IL-6 m. C3b2Bb

14. IgA n. C4b2a

15. IgG o. IL-4, IL5

16. IgD p. Expressed on interdigitating

reticular cells

17. IgM q. Present antigen to T-cells

18. IL-12 r. Inflammatory cytokine that induces expression of adhesive proteins on

the luminal side of the endothelial

cell increasing permeability of blood

vessels

19. Cytotoxic T cell s. INF-γ, GM-CSF, TNFα, IL-2

20. TH1 t. Differentiates into macrophages

21. TH2 u. C5b-C9

22. T-Reg v. Perforin, Granulysin, IL2, INF-g 23. TH17 w. Releases toxins that kill bacteria and

parasites

24. IL 3 and IL 9 x. Kills tumor cells and virus-infected

cells

25. IL 5 y. Recruit mast cells to infected tissues

26. DC- SIGN z. C4b2a3b