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1. In hypocalemia

A. Plasma Ca++ decreases and nervous system becomes hyper excitableB. Plasma Ca++ increases and nervous system becomes hyper excitable

C. Plasma Ca++ decreases and nervous system becomes hypo excitable

D. Plasma Ca++ increases and nervous system becomes hypo excitable

2. Insulin increase the movement of which of the following glucose transporters into the cell membranes of skeletal muscle cells?

A. GLUT 1 C. GLUT3

B. GLUT2 D. GLUT43. The release of follicle stimulating hormone by the male anterior pituitary is inhibited by the direct action of which of the following hormones?

A. Gonadotrophin releasing hormone C. InhibinB.Testosterone

D. Nitric oxide

4. Testosterone has all of the following actions except:

A. Stimulating growth of facial, axillary and pubic hair B. Stimulating gonadotrophin releasing hormone release C. Stimulating bone growth and then epiphyseal closure D. Causing hair loss in genetically susceptible men

5. The surge in plasma luteinizing hormone concentration seen in the late follicular phase is the consequence of:

A. Insensitivity of the pituitary to negative feedback of plasma estrogens B. Positive feedback of high levels of plasma estrogens on the pituitary C. Falling levels of plasma estrogens caused by degenerating follicles D. Positive feedback of high levels of plasma progesterone on the pituitary

6. In the nonpregnant woman the most important source of progesterone is:

A. The ovum B. Follicular theca cells C. Follicular granulosa cells D. Corpus luteum7. Which of the following processes causes the endometrium to slough off at the time of menstruation?

A. The endometrium has an inherent life span of about 10 days and then degenerates B. A reduction of the plasma concentration of luteinizing hormone C. An increase in the plasma concentration of inhibin D. A reduction of the plasma concentrations on estrogens and progesterone8. The events associated with ovulation are initiated by:

A. An inherent timing mechanism in the developing follicle B. The surge of the plasma concentration of estrogens C. The surge of the plasma concentration of luteinizing hormoneD. Sexual stimulation of the woman

9. Estrogens have all of the following actions except:

A. Stimulate bone growth and epiphyseal closure

B. Stimulate breast growth

C. Cause the endometrium to stop growing and start secreting

D. Stimulates "female pattern" fat distributionl

10. If a female has a menstrual period of 32 days ovulation occurs on which day?

A. Day 15 C. Day17

B. Day 16 D. Day1811. Cessation of reproductive cycling at menopause is due primarily to

A. Hypothalamic refractoriness

B. Pituitary exhaustion of FSH

C. Pituitary exhaustion of LH

D. Ovarian unresponsivenss due to senescence

E. Uterine insensitivity to steroids

12. A normal, healthy, 24-year-old woman has regular menstrual cycles, each lasting about 28 days. Daily serum samples from the woman reveal decreasing progesterone and 17- -estradiol levels. Serum LH and FSH levels are low, and begin rising. Basal body temperature begins falling. Within three days, which of the following events would be expected to occur?

A. Markedly increased inhibin levels

B. MenstruationC. Ovulation

D. Rapidly decreased LH levels

E. Significantly increased basal body temperature

13. Plasma concentration of C peptide in the fasting subject is .. than the plasma concentration of C peptide in the well fed state

A. Greater

B. Less than

C. same as

D. cannot compare14. A patient presents with a blood pressure of 165/95 mm Hg, and complaints of tiredness and muscle weakness. A blood workup reveals that plasma sodium is slightly increased and plasma potassium is significantly decreased compared to normal. Hematocrit is also low. Plasma renin activity is markedly decreased, and serum Aldosterone is increased. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Addison's disease

B. Conn's syndrome

C. Cushing's syndrome

D. 21-Hydroxylase deficiency

E. Pheochromocytoma

15. Which substance is responsible for male external genitalia development

A. Mullerian inhibiting substance

B. Dihydrotestosterone

C. Testosterone

D. Tetraiodothyronine (T4)

16. The predominant androgen from the adrenal cortex is

A. Testosterone

B. Dihydrotestosterone

C. Androsterone

D. Dehydroepindrosterone17. In which of the following conditions is it least likely that the TSH response to TRH will be greater than normal?

A. Hypothyroidism due to tissue resistance to thyroid hormone

B. Hypothyroidism due to disease destroying the thyroid glands

C. Hyperthyroidism due to circulating antithyroid antibodies with TSH activity

D. Iodine deficiency

18. Which substance is responsible for normal brain maturation

A. Mullerian inhibiting substance

B. Dihydrotestosterone

C. Testosterone

D. Tetraiodothyronine (T4)

19. Which of the following problems would you anticipate in a giraffe that had hyperparathyroidism (excessive production of parathyroid hormone)?

A. Extreme lethargy

B. A massive goiter

C. Inability to regulate body temperature

D. Spontaneous" bone fractures

E. A very high concentration of glucose in blood

20. A young women has puffy skin and a hoarse voice. Her plasma TSH concentration is low but increases markedly when she is given TRH .She probably has

A .Hyperthyroidism due to a thyroid tumor

B. Hypothyroidism due to a primary abnormality in the thyroid gland

C. Hypothyroidism due to a primary abnormality in the pituitary gland

D. Hypothyroidism due to a primary abnormality in the hypothalamus

E. Hyperthyroidism due to a primary abnormality in the hypothalamus

21. An uncorrected deficiency in which of the following hormones would lead to lethal imbalances in sodium and potassium:

A. Norepinephrine

B. Epinephrine

C. Cortisol

D. Aldosterone

22. Adrenocorticotropic hormone, or ACTH, was named because it stimulates the cortex of the adrenal gland. Which adrenal hormone causes negative feedback to shut off ACTH secretion?

A. Epinephrine

B. Cortisol and aldosterone

C. Cortisol

D. Epinephrine and cortisol

E. Aldosterone

F. aldosterone and epinephrine

23. Calcium absorption is increased by

A. Hypercalcimia

B. Oxalates in the diet

C. Iron overload

D. 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol

E. Increased Na absorption

24. The lifespan of the corpus luteum can be prolonged by

A. Exogenous estrogen/treatment

B. Deep relaxation

C. Endogenous chorionic gonadotropin

D. Prostaglandin treatment

E. All of the above (A-D)

25. Which of the following are incorrectly paired?

A. Epinephrine : increase glycogenolysis in skeletal muscle

B. Insulin: increased protein synthesis

C. Glucagon: increased gluconeogenesis

D. Progesterone: Increased plasma glucose level

E. Growth hormone: Increased plasma glucose level

26. Each of the following hormones is an amino acid derivative EXCEPT: A. Epinephrine B. Melatonin C. Thyroxine (T4) D. Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) E. Norepinephrine

27. Which one of the following hormones exerts least effect on growth?

A. Growth hormone

B. Testosterone

C. T4

D. Insulin

E. Vasopressin

28. Glucagon increases glycogenolysis in liver cells but ACTH does not because

A. Cortisol increases the plasma glucose levelB. Liver cells have an adenylcyclase different from that in adrenocortical cells

C. ACTH cannot enter the nucleus of liver cells

D. The membrane of liver cells contain receptors different from in adrenocortical cells

E. Liver cells contain a protein that inhibits the action of ACTH

29. In humans fertilization usually occurs in the

A. Vagina

B. Cervix

C. Uterine cavity

D. Uterine tubes

E. Abdominal cavity

30. Which of the following is not involved in regulating plasma Ca++ levels?

A. kidney

B. skin

C. liver

D. lungsE. Intestine31. Taste sensation from posterior 1/3 rd of tongue is carried by cranial nerve

A. V C. IX

B. VII D. X

32. Spinothalamic tracts carry which of the following sensation

A. Fine touch and pressure

B. Pain and temperature

C. Proprioceptive sensation

D. None of above

33. Which of the following transmitter substances always or almost always tend to excite the postsynaptic neuron?

A. GABA

B. Dopamine

C. Acetylcholine

D. Glycine

34. Loss of anterior horn cell innervation of a limb will produce which of the

following signs if a lower motor neuron lesion

A. Loss of muscle stretch reflexes

B. Fasciculation of muscle

C. Paralysis

D. Muscular atrophy

E. All of the above

35. Lesion in which of these following nucleus leads to Huntingtons chorea

A. Substantia nigra

B. Globus pallidus

C. Putamen

D. Caudate nucleus

E. Anterior nucleus of thalamus

36. The basal ganglia are primarily concerned with

A. Sensory integration

B. Short term memory

C. Control of movement

D. Neuroendocrine control

37. The circadian periodicity of hormones is dictated through the ___ nucleus in the hypothalamus

A. Supraoptic;

B. Ventromedial;

C. Arcuate;

D. Suprachiasmatic

38. Neurotransmitter in nigrostraiatal pathway is:

A. Dopamine

B. GABA

C. Acetylcholine

D. Norepinephrine

39. CSF is principally secreted by:

A. Choroids plexus

B. Arachnoid granulation

C. Floor of the fourth ventricle

D. Periaqueductal grey

40. Brocas area (area 44) is present in:

A. Superior temporal gyrusB. Pre-central gyrus

C. Post-central gyrus

D. Inferior frontal gyrus41. Primary Motor area of Brodmann is area:

A. 1

B. 4C. 5

D. 7

42. Concerning Addison's disease (primary adrenal insufficiency): which of the following statements is false?

A. There may be hypotension.

B. Plasma renin levels are high

C. There may be metabolic acidosis.

D. There may be hyponatraemia.

E. There may be hypokalaemia.

43. Essential for formation of new memories and learning, Bilateral removal of which causes anterograde amnesia w/ loss of short term memory and loss of ability to learn/store new information

A. Amygdala

B. Hippocampus

C. Mamillary bodies

D. Basal ganglia

44. Psychosis with loss of recent memory and tendency to fabricate false accounts of recent events seen in chronic alcoholics

A. Kluver-Bucy syndrome

B. korsakoffs syndrome

C. brown sequard syndrome

D. Wallenberg syndrome

45. Loss of sensation of taste is called

A. Aphasia,

B. Apraxia

C. Agausia

D. Anosmia

46. Language understanding and formulation occurs here

A. Wernickes area

B. Brocas area

C. Premotor area

D. Primary somatosensory area

47. A patient with a staggering gait, jerky movements of trunk and legs, and who may fall and veer in any direction has a lesion of

A. Midline cerebellum

B. Right lateral cerebellum

C. caudate nucleus

D. Putamen

48. Visual accommodation involves

A. Increased tension on the lens ligaments

B. A decrease in the curvature of the lens

C. Contraction of ciliary muscle

D. Increased intraocular pressure

49. Satiety center is located in the:

A. Dorsomedian nucleus of hypothalamus

B. Ventormedian nucleus of hypothalamus

C. Perifornical region

D. Lateral hypothalamic area

50. Vestibular fibers relay in:

A. Vermis

B. Lateral geniculate body

C. Flocculonodular lobe of cerebellum

D. Auditory cortex

51. The frequency of waves in EEG when the person is awake with eyes closed and relaxing

A. 8-12 cycles/sec

B. 15-25 cyles/sec

C. 2-5 cyles/sec

D. Noneof the above

52. Considering the position of the pituitary gland, which cranial nerve is most likely to be effected in cases of anterior pituitary tumors

A. olfactory nerve

B. optic nerve

C. Trochlear nerve

D. abducens nerve

E. Trigeminal nerve

53. A patient with a lesion of the medial longitudinal fasciculus (MLF) might have difficult

A. Looking upward and outward

B. Convergent eye movements

C. Making conjugate lateral eye movements

D. Walking down stairs

54. The only excitatory cell present in cerebellar cortex

A. Purkingi cell

B. Molecular cell

C. Granular cell

D. None of the above

55. Parkinsonism is due to atrophic degeneration of which part of the basal ganglia

A) Substantia nigra

B) Caudate nucleus

C) Subthalamic nucleus

D) Globus pallidus

For questions 56 - 60, use the following choices to give the most appropriate diagnosis

A. gigantism

B. acromegaly

C. cretinism

D. myxoedema

E. exothalmos

F. cushings syndrome

G. addisons disease

H. hypercalcemia

I. hypocalcemia

J. galctorrhoea

K. dwarfism

L. diabetes mellitus

M. diabetes insipidus

56. A 40 yr old male presents with complaints of fatigue, increasing shoe size, his wedding ring not fitting anymore. On examination, patient is found of large lower jaw, thickened metatarsals and metacarpals and coarse features in his face.-B

57. A mother presents her 4 yr female baby with complaints of mental retardation, thickened tongue, swelling in neck region, history of crying excessively when baby is taken into cold weather.

-C

58. The commonest form of overactivity is that seen in Graves disease. In this condition an antibody is formed to TSH, referred to as thyroid stimulating immunoglobulin (TSI). This form of hyperthyroidism is often characterized by

-E59. A patient complains of excessive thirst and urination. Laboratory tests show that serum osmolarity is 310 mOsm/L and urine osmolarity is 90 mOsm/L. Plasma glucose is normal. Water deprivation (12 hours) fails to increase urine osmolarity. -M

60) The child is obese, and multiple small bruises are observed on his arms and legs. The patient has difficulty rising from a crouching position. Measurement of blood pressure demonstrates hypertension

-F

(Question 61 70) Match the following

A. Edinger-Westphal

B. Input via CN V bilaterally to facial nucleus Output via CN VII

C. Input via CN IX to solitary nucleus Output via nucleus ambiguus

D. Frontal Visual field Contra. PPRF ipsi. Nuc. of VI

E. Complete paralysis of ipsilateral face

F. Hoarseness, dysphagia, ipsilateral paralysis of palate, lesion in ___

G. Light touch, proprioception and vibration

H. Shrug ipsilateral shoulder, turn head

I. Vertigo, nausea and nystagmus

J. Solitary nucleus

61) Sensory nucleus of CN X-SOLITARY NUCLEUS

62) Medial lemniscus

-LIGHT TOUCH, PROPRIOCEPTION, AND VIBRATION

63) Gag Reflex-INPUT CN IX, SOLITARY NUCLEUS, OUTPUT NUCLEUS AMBIGUOUS

64) Voluntary control of lateral gaze

-FRONTAL VISUAL FIELD -> CONTRA. PPRF -> IPSILAT. NUCL. OF VI

65) Spinal accessory -SHRUG IPSILAT. SHOULDER, TURN HEAD

66) Nucleus sends out parasympathetic to CN III -EDINGER-WESTPHAL

67) Bells palsy (VII CN palsy)-COMPLETE PARALYSIS OF IPSILATERAL FACE

68) Nucleus ambiguous motor nucleus of CN X-HOARSENESS, DYSPHAGIA, IPSILAT. PARALYSIS OF PALATE,

69) Corneal reflex -INPUT CN V, BILATERALLY TO FACIAL NUCLEUS, OUTPUT CN VIII

70) Vestibular nucleus- VERTIGO, NAUSEA, AND NYSTAGMUSBonjour rese,

Dsole du retard pour les raisons que tu connais. Mais bon voil, la liste des produits et procdure/rgime que jutilise pour lentretien des cheveux des filles. Les 3 premiers produits sont en bref tout ce que jutilise depuis quelques annes maintenant pour leurs cheveux. Jai aussi dans le passe utilise les 4 derniers produits mais depuis que jai trouv bcp de succs avec les premiers utilise de moins en moins. Cest un peu couteux mais le rsultat est trs satisfaisant. Ah joubliais, tu peux les acheter Sephora.

My kids hair regimen

With the use of the following products:

Use a shampoo that has a pH level of 5 to 6.5 and only wash the hair once every week or two. Use a clarifying shampoo once every four weeks to remove build-up in the hair. Avoid shampoos with alcohol and lauryl or laureth sulfate, which can strip the hair of its natural oils and dry it out.WEN Kids Cleansing Conditioner $32

WEN Sweet Almond Mint Re Moist Intensive Hair Treatment $58WEN Sweet Almond Mint Replenishing Treatment Mist $32California Baby Calming Hair Detangler $11.49

The Original Little Sprout Childrens Miracle Detangler $22.49

Mixed Chicks Kids Leave-in Conditioner $12.99

So Cozy Protective Conditioning Mist with Sunscreen $13.95

Mais tout fait. Cheveux gal cheveux cest tout simplement que le cuir chevelu des enfants est plus dlicat, en plus dans la gamme que jutilise (les 3 premiers produits) il ny a quun seul qui est bien spcifique quaux. Malheureusement, je naime pas personnellement les cheveux sur moi, mais quand il marrive de les garder jutilise les mmes produits. Tout ce qui est moins abrasif est toujours prfrable.Corioliss C3 $200

Babybliss Pro Nano Titanium-Plated Straightening Iron, $139.95ghd Gold Professional 1, $225Rusk Professional STR8 Iron Infused with CTC Technology, $145.99

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