PHYSICS - aakashonline.inaakashonline.in/ASPNET_Pages/solution/TSNEETP22016T12_Solution.pdf · (1) MM : 720 Test Series : Test – 12 Time : 3 Hrs. [NEET (Phase-2)-2016] Topics Covered

(1)

MM : 720 Test Series : Test – 12 Time : 3 Hrs.

[NEET (Phase-2)-2016]

Topics Covered :

Physics : Magnetic Effects of Current

Chemistry : Electrochemistry, Chemical Kinetics, Surface Chemistry

Botany : Molecular Basis of Inheritance

Zoology : Evolution-I: Origin of Life; Biological Evolution and Evidences for Biological Evolution from Paleontology,Comparative Anatomy, Embryology and Molecular Evidence

24/06/2016

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Answer sheet.(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

CODE

A

PHYSICS

1. A charged particle is projected in a magnetic field

(2 3 ) T ��

� �B i j . If the acceleration of charged

particle in this field is found to be 2ˆ ˆ(2 ) m/si xj ,

then value of x

(1)23

(2)43

(3)13

(4) 3

2. A non-conducting charged ring of charge q and massm rotates with some angular speed. In this case theratio of magnetic moment to angular moment is

(1)qm

(2)2qm

(3) 2qm (4)

4qm

3. Magnetic field at centre of square frame as shown infigure is (side of square = l)

(1) 0 84

I

l

A D I

CB

O

l

I

(2) 0 6 24

I

l

(3) Zero

(4) 0 24

I

l

4. When a current carrying coil is placed in a uniformmagnetic field with its magnetic moment antiparallelto the field, then incorrect statement

(1) Torque on it is maximum

(2) Torque on it is zero

(3) Potential energy is maximum

(4) Dipole is in unstable equilibrium

Choose the correct answer :

(2)

Test-12 (Code A) Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016

5. A closed loop carrying current I is placed in y-zplane. The loop experiences zero torque in uniformmagnetic field, then magnetic field directed along

(1) x-axis (2) y-axis

(3) z-axis (4) Along(–z)-axis

6. A charge particle of mass ‘m’ and charge ‘q’ entersin a perpendicular magnetic field ‘B’. Its angularspeed in this field is

(1)B

mq (2) 2Bq

(3) Bmq (4)Bqm

7. Two wires of same length are shaped into a squareand a circle. If they carry same current, then ratio ofthe magnetic moments is

(1) 2 : (2) : 2

(3) : 4 (4) 4 :

8. Magnetic field at O due to current segments shownin figure (BCD is semicircle)

C

A

D

a

B

E

I

I

I

a

aO

(1) 0

4

I

a(2)

0 21

4

⎡ ⎤ ⎢ ⎥⎣ ⎦

I

a

(3) 0

2

I

a(4) Zero

9. Two infinite long wires having equal currents are keptsuch that wire A is directed along +y direction andwire B along –z direction, the separation betweenthem is 2d. If magnetic field at distance d due toeach wire is B0, then magnetic field at C is

I

A

BC

2d

d d

(1) 0 0ˆ ˆB B k B j

�

(2) 0 0ˆ ˆ( )B B k B j

�

(3) 0 0ˆ ˆ( ) ( )B B k B j

�

(4) 0 0ˆ ˆ( ) ( )B B k B j

�

10. A square loop of side � and current I in anticlockwisedirection is kept in x-y plane and magnetic field ofmagnitude B is directed by making an angle 30° withz-axis, then magnitude of torque on loop

(1) I�2B (2)2

2I B�

(3) 2I�2B (4) Zero

11. PQ is a straight wire having current 2I, and ABDEcoplanar with PQ is the combination of wires and

circular arc having current I. If BC is 2R

and C is at

distance R from PQ, then magnetic field at C is

R2 30°D

E

I BC

A

RP

2I

Q

(1)0 1 4

3

⎡ ⎤⎢ ⎥⎣ ⎦�

I

R (2)0

4

�

I

R

(3)0 4

14

⎡ ⎤⎢ ⎥⎣ ⎦�

I

R (4)0 1 4

4 3

⎡ ⎤⎢ ⎥⎣ ⎦�

I

R

12. A wire of length � having current I is kept insidecurrent carrying solenoid parallel to its axis, ifmagnetic field inside solenoid is B0. Then force onthe conductor

(1) I�B0 (2) 0

2

I B�

(3) Zero (4) 2I�B0

13. Two identical current carrying circular coils are keptperpendicular to each other such that their centrescoincide. If magnetic field due to each coil is B0,then magnetic field at their centre is

(1) B0 (2) 2B0

(3) 02 B (4)0

2

B

14. Two infinite long current carrying wires (5 A reach)are kept at the positions (4, 0) m and (0, 3) m. Forceper unit length between these two wires is

(1) 10–6 N (2) 10–7 N

(3) 10–8 N (4) 10–5 N

15. A charged particle of charge q and mass m entersperpendicularly to the battery of transverse magneticfield B. If length of region in which magnetic field is

acted is 2mvqB

, then deflection of charge when it

comes out from field is

(1) 0° (2) 90°

(3) 45° (4) 180°

(3)

Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016 Test-12 (Code A)

16. A long solenoid having n turns per unit length andcurrent I. If radius of each turn is R, then magneticmoment per unit length

(1) IR2 (2) IR2

(3) Zero (4) nIR2

17. A thin walled cylinder is carrying current along itslength. Inside the cylinder magnetic field at distancer from axis is

(1) Zero (2) Proportional to 1r

(3) Proportional to 2

1

r(4) Proportional to r

18. A particle of mass m and charge q is released fromorigin in a region occupied by electric field E directedalong x-axis and magnetic field directed alongnegative x-axis, speed of particle at position x is

(1)2qEx

m(2)

qExm

(3) 2qEx

m (4) Zero

19. A proton and an -particle enter in uniform magneticfield perpendicularly with the same speed. If theproton takes 25 s to make 5 revolutions, then theperiodic time for the -particle would be

(1) 50 s (2) 25 s

(3) 10 s (4) 5 s

20. A charged particle is whirled in a horizontal circle ona frictionless table by attaching it to a string fixed atone end. If a magnetic field is switched on in thevertical direction, the tension in the string

(1) Will increase

(2) Will decrease

(3) Remains same

(4) May increase or decrease

21. Two independent circular conductors are carryingcurrents I1 and I2. If the ratio of their radii is 1 : 2and ratio of magnetic field at their centres B1 : B2 is1 : 3, then ratio of their currents I1 : I2 is

(1) 1 : 6 (2) 1 : 4

(3) 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 3

22. A square conducting loop of side length L carriescurrent I. Magnetic field at the centre of loop is

(1) Independent of L

(2) Proportional to L2

(3) Inversely proportional to L

(4) Linearly proportional to L

23. The magnetic field due to a current carrying circularloop of radius 3 cm at a point on the axis at adistance of 4 cm from the centre is 54 T. Its valueat centre of loop is nearly

(1) 250 T (2) 150 T

(3) 125 T (4) 75 T

24. A loop of flexible conducting wire of length ‘ � ’ liesin magnetic field B which is normal to the plane ofloop. A current ‘I’ is passed through the loop. Thetension developed in the wire of loop

(1)2

BI

� (2)2

BI�

(3)2BI�

(4) BI�

25. The voltage sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometercannot be increased by (symbols have usualmeaning)

(1) Increasing B

(2) Increasing A

(3) Increasing N

(4) Increasing restoring couple constant (K)

26. A charge moves in a circle perpendicular to amagnetic field. The time period of revolution isindependent of (symbols have usual meaning)

(1) B (2) q

(3) m (4) v

27. Given B = magnetic field, R = radius of path, theenergy of charged particle coming out of cyclotron isgiven by (q = charge, m = mass)

(1)2 2

2qB R

m (2)2 2

2q BR

m

(3)2

2q BR

m (4)2 2 2

2q B R

m

28. A charged particle is released from rest in a regionof steady uniform electric and magnetic fields whichare parallel to each other, the particle will move in

(1) Straight line (2) Circle

(3) Helix (4) Cycloid

29. If beam of electrons is moving directly towardsobserver facing east, where magnetic field acts fromsouth to north, then electrons will deflect towards

(1) East

(2) West

(3) Upward

(4) Downward

30. A charged particle entering in a magnetic field fromoutside in a direction perpendicular to the field

(1) Will always complete exactly half of a rotationbefore leaving the field

(2) Can never complete one rotation inside the field

(3) May or may not complete one rotation in thefield depending on its angle of entry into the field

(4) All of these

(4)


31. When some particles projected with the samevelocity perpendicular to a magnetic field, then whichparticle have minimum frequency of revolution?

(1) Li+ (2) He+

(3) Proton (4) Electron

32. The magnetic field produced by a moving charge qis given by [v is velocity of charge and v << c]

(1) 03

( ).

4q v r

Br

��

(2) 03

( )4

q v rB

r

��

��

(3) 02

( ).

4q v r

Br

� ��(4) Both (2) & (3)

33. If a charged particle is moving with constant velocity

( )v�

in a region where both electric field ( )E�

and

magnetic field ( )B�

are present, then which of the

following condition is possible?

(1) ||E B� �

(2) ||�

�

v B

(3) E B� �

(4) ||�

�

v E

34. Two wires are lying parallel to a square loopsymmetrically as shown in the given figure. Somecurrent is flowing in wire and loop, then loop will

I I I

(1) Remain in equilibrium

(2) Shift towards left wire

(3) Shift towards right wire

(4) Will rotate at own axis

35. What is the ratio of magnetic field at one end of along solenoid and at the centre?

(1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 1

(3) 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 4

36. A circular coil of radius R having n turns carried acurrent of I ampere It is kept with its planeperpendicular to a uniform magnetic field B tesla,then torque acting on coil is

(1) Zero (2) R2nIB

(3) 2RnIB (4) 2 2 RnIB37. The ratio of magnitudes of magnetic moment to the

angular momentum of a particle having charge 3eand mass m revolving in a circular orbit is

(1)em

(2)2em

(3)32

em

(4)23

em

38. The correct relation between andB M� �

for a smallcurrent carrying coil is

(1) 032

MB

x

(2) 0

3

MB

x

(3) 03

MB

x

(4) 032

MB

x

39. On increasing the number of turns in the coil of a

moving coil galvanometer, which of the followingremains the same?

(1) Only torque of the conductor

(2) Only current sensitivity

(3) Only voltage sensitivity

(4) All of these

40. Cyclotron is used to accelerate

(1) 1H1 (2) –1e

0

(3) +1e0 (4) 0n

1

41. Bohr’s magnetron is (m = mass of electron)

(1)ehm (2)

4eh

m

(3)3eh

m (4)4eh

m42. For a rectangular current carrying loop in uniform

magnetic field, the graph between torque () anddeflection () can be represented as

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43. At the resonance condition of cyclotron(fa = frequency of applied voltage, fc = cyclotronfrequency)

(1) fa > fc (2) fa < fc(3) fa = fc (4) fa fc

44. A particle of charge q with velocity v� enters in a

region having magnetic field ,B�

then path of theparticle is

(1) Circular if 0B v �

�

(2) Circular if . 0B v �

�

(3) Always circular (4) Helix if 0B v �

�

45. Helmholtz coils are used to produce

(1) Uniform magnetic field

(2) Non-uniform magnetic field

(3) Weak magnetic field

(4) Strong magnetic field

(5)


46. The specific conductance of 0.02 M K2SO4 solutionis 0.001 S cm–1. If the resistance of the cell is100 , then cell constant is

(1) 0.1 cm–1 (2) 0.2 cm–1

(3) 0.3 cm–1 (4) 0.5 cm–1

47. If E° for –2

1Cl 1 e Cl

2 is x volt, then E° for

Cl2 + 2e– Cl2 is

(1) 2x volt (2) x volt

(3)x2

volt (4) –2x volt

48. Select the correct statement

(1) If salt bridge is removed, potential of the cell fallsto zero

(2) Lithium is the strongest reducing agent

(3) F– ion does not show reducing property when itreacts with metal ion

(4) All of these

49. When dilute HNO3 is electrolysed using Pt-electrodes

(1) O2 is formed at anode

(2) N2 is formed at anode

(3) H2(g) is formed at anode

(4) NO2 is formed at anode

50. The electrolysis of aqueous solution of NaCl iscarried out using mercury as cathode. Which of thefollowing ions is discharged at cathode?

(1) H+ (2) Na+

(3) Cl– (4) OH–

51. EMF of cell 2 3(1.0 M) (1.0 M)Ni Ni Au Au is

(if E° for Ni+2 | Ni is –0.25 volt and E° for Au+3 | Au

is 1.50 volt)

(1) –1.75 V (2) +1.75 V

(3) –1.25 V (4) +1.25 V

52. Corrosion can be prevented by

(1) Using anti-rust solution

(2) Cathodic protection

(3) Sacrificial protection

(4) All of these

53. Which of the following solution have highest specificconductance?

(1) 0.01 M C6H5COOH (2) 0.01 M NH4OH

(3) 0.01 M KCl (4) 0.01 M Na2SO4

54. The Arrhenius equation k = Ae–Ea/RT shows thedependence of rate constant on temperature.In which condition the rate constant k is largest fora reaction?

(1) Small Ea and low T

(2) Small Ea and high T

(3) Large Ea and low T

(4) Large Ea and high T

55. Decomposition of NH3 on the surface of tungsten atvery high pressure is a reaction of

(1) Zero order (2) First order

(3) Second order (4) Fractional order

56. For a reaction, A + B C + D, the activationenergies of forward and reverse reactions are equalthen

(1) It is zero order reaction

(2) There is no catalyst

(3) Its enthalpy of reaction is zero

(4) Its entropy increases

57. Which of the following is correct w.r.t. decreasingtemperature?

(1) Rate constant increases for exothermic reactionand decreases for endothermic reaction

(2) Rate constant increases for both exothermic andendothermic reaction

(3) Rate constant increases for endothermic anddecreases for exothermic reaction

(4) Rate constant decreases for both exothermicand endothermic reaction

58. The value of rate constant does not depend upon

(1) Temperature (2) Concentration

(3) Catalyst (4) Both (1) & (3)

59. Temperature coefficient of a certain reaction is foundto be three. If temperature changes from 35°C to65°C, the new rate of reaction will be

(1) 3 times (2) 9 times

(3) 18 times (4) 27 times

60. When concentration of reactant was made 4 times,rate of reaction becomes 8 times. The order ofreaction w.r.t. that reactant is

(1) 1 (2) 2

(3) 1.5 (4) 3

CHEMISTRY

(6)


61. For the elementary reaction, 2

A B Products3

The unit of rate constant ‘k’ is

(1) mol2/3 litre–2/3 time–1

(2) mol5/3 litre–5/3 time–1

(3) mol–2/3 litre+2/3 time–1

(4) mol–5/3 litre+5/3 time–1

62. Which of the following is a shape selective catalyst?

(1) Acetanilide (2) Cu | ZnO – Cr2O3

(3) ZSM - 5 (4) Platinised asbestose

63. Tyndall effect is more effectively shown by

(1) Lyophilic colloids (2) Lyophobic colloids

(3) Suspensions (4) True solutions

64. When SO2 gas is bubbled in H2S gas

(1) Lyophilic sol of sulphur is formed

(2) Lyophobic sol of sulphur is formed

(3) Suspension of water and sulphur is formed

(4) A true solution of sulphur in water is formed

65. When dilute aqueous solution of AgNO3 (excess) isadded to KI solution, positively charged sol particlesof AgI are formed due to adsorption of ion

(1) K+ (2) Ag+

(3) I– (4) 3NO

66. 0.25 g lyophilic colloid is added to 100 ml gold solsolution to prevent the coagulation by addition of1 ml 10% NaCl solution. What will be ‘gold number’of lyophilic collide?

(1) 250 (2) 125

(3) 25 (4) 0.25

67. Colloidion is obtained

(1) When high electric current is passed betweenmetal electrodes

(2) Aqueous solution of NaOH is added to cellulosenitrate

(3) When cellulose nitrate is peptised by organicsolvents like mixture of ethanol and ether

(4) SO2(g) added to H2S(g)

68. A current of 2.0 ampere is passed for 5 hoursthrough a molten tin salt to deposit 22.2 g tin. Theoxidation state of tin in its salt is

(At. wt. of tin = 119)

(1) Zero (2) 1

(3) 2 (4) 3

69. From the following values of half cells

(i) A A+ + e– E° = 1.5 V

(ii) B– B + e– E° = –3.2 V

(iii) C C+2 + 2e– E° = –0.4 V

(iv) D2– D– + e– E° = 0.7 V

Which combination of two half cells would results ina cell with maximum cell potential?

(1) (i) & (ii) (2) (ii) & (iii)

(3) (iii) & (iv) (4) (ii) & (iv)

70. The factor which affect corrosion are

(1) Presence of impurity in metal

(2) Presence of CO2 in water

(3) Reactivity of metal

(4) All of these

71. Cell representation

1 22 (C ) (C ) 2Pt H (1 atm) H H H (1 atm) Pt

then

(1) ocellE 0.00 V

(2) Ecell is positive only when C1 > C2

(3) Ecell is positive only when C2 > C1

(4) Both (1) & (3)

72. Which solution will show highest resistance duringthe passage of current?

(1) 1 N KCl (2) 0.1 N KCl

(3) 2 N KCl (4) 0.05 N KCl

73. The activation energy of a reaction is zero. The rateconstant of the reaction

(1) Increases with increase in temperature

(2) Decreases with decrease in temperature

(3) Decreases with increase in temperature

(4) Independent of temperature

74. Unit of frequency factor ‘A’ in K = Ae–Ea/RT is

(1) time–1

(2) mole litre–1 time–1

(3) litre mole–1 time–1

(4) Dependent on order of reaction

75. If activation energy of a backward reaction is–20 kJ/mol and that of forward reaction is 40 kJ/mol,then enthalpy change for the reaction is

(1) 20 kJ/mol (2) 60 kJ/mol

(3) – 20 kJ/mol (4) – 60 kJ/mol

(7)


76. For a certain reaction of order ‘n’ the time for half

change t1/2 is given by 1/21/2 0

2 2t C

k , where k

is rate constant and C0 is initial concentration. Thevalue of n is

(1) 1 (2) 2

(3) 0.5 (4) Zero

77. The time for half life of a first order reaction is1.5 hrs. What is the time taken for 87.5% completionof reaction?

(1) 1.5 hrs (2) 3.0 hrs

(3) 4.5 hrs (4) 6.0 hrs

78. K for a zero order reaction is 2 × 10–2 mol L–1 s–1. Ifthe concentration of a reactant after 25 second is0.5 M. The initial concentration must have been

(1) 1.0 M (2) 0.5 M

(3) 1.25 M (4) 2.5 M

79. Consider the reaction, 2A + B Products.

When concentration of B alone was doubled, the halflife did not change, when the concentration of A alonewas doubled the rate becomes two times. The unitof rate constant for this reaction is

(1) s–1 (2) mol L–1 s–1

(3) L mol–1 s–1 (4) No units

80. Flocculation value is expressed in terms of

(1) Millimoles per litre (2) Mole per litre

(3) Gram per litre (4) Mole per millilitre

81. Gold number of protective colloids A, B, C and D are0.50, 0.01, 0.10 and 0.005 respectively. The correctorder of their protective powers is

(1) D < A < C < B (2) C < B < D < A

(3) A < C < B < D (4) B < D < A < C

82. Select the correct statement

(i) Butter is water dispersed in fat.

(ii) Milk is fat dispersed in water.

(iii) Surfactants lower the surface tension of liquid

(iv) Indigo dye will impact blue colour to wholebutter.

(1) (i), (ii), (iii) (2) (i), (ii), (iv)

(3) (ii), (iii), (iv) (4) (ii) & (iv)

83. The value of eq (cm2 –1 eq–1) of Al3+ is x and Cl–

is y then, the value of m (cm2 –1 mole–1) of AlCl3

will be

(1)x

y3 (2) 3x + 3y

(3)x y3 3 (4)

y3x

3

84. For a weak electrolyte AB2 the value of van't Hofffactor i = 2 and m is 100 cm2 –1 mole–1. The valueof °m will be

(1) 200 (2) 100

(3) 400 (4) 50

85. For an electrochemical cell Ag/Ag+(0.1 M) || Ag+/Ag(1M), which of the following electrolyte cannot beused in salt bridge?

(1) NaNO3 (2) KCl

(3) KNO3 (4) Both (2) & (3)

86. The value of instantaneous rate at 20th second forthe reaction A B having graph

(Con

c.)

10 20 30 40 50O

54321

60Time (s)

t

(1) 6.67 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1

(2) 6.67 × 10–2 mol L–1 s–1

(3) 6.67 mol L–1 s–1

(4) 6.67 × 10–5 mol L–1s–1

87. Which of the following graph is correct for zero order?

(1) (Con

c.)

Time

(2) Rat

e

Time

(3) Rat

e

(Conc.)

(4) All of these

88. A gas will adsorb most easily on charcoal, if thevalue of their Boyle’s temperatures are

(1) Gas A: 28.5 °C (2) Gas B: 62.3 °C

(3) Gas C: 58.1 °C (4) Gas D: 15.5 °C

89. Which of the following is negative sol?

(1) Fe(OH)3 (2) Argyrol

(3) TiO2 (4) Haemoglobin

90. Colloidal solution of Ag and Au are generally preparedby using

(1) Peptisaton

(2) Bredig’s arc method

(3) Exchange of solvent

(4) Oxidation method

(8)


91. Find out correct statement w.r.t DNA structure.

(1) It is made up of two polynucleotide chains,where the backbone is constituted by nitrogenbases

(2) The two chains are coiled in a left handedfashion in B-DNA

(3) The plane of one base pair stacks over the otherin double helix. This, in addition to H-bonds,confirms stability of the helical structure

(4) It is made up of four type of nucleotides, theseare deoxyadenosine, deoxyguanosine,deoxycytidine and deoxythymidine

92. How many nucleosomes are present in Escherichiacoli if its DNA has 4.6 × 106 bp?

(1) 2.3 × 104 (2) 4.6 × 104

(3) 1.2 × 106 (4) Zero

93. Who gave biochemical characterisation oftransforming principle?

(1) Frederick Griffith

(2) Frederick Sanger

(3) MacLeod and McCarty

(4) Hershey and Chase

94. Reverse central dogma is different from centraldogma, due to presence of __________ enzyme.

(1) DNA dependent RNA polymerase

(2) RNA dependent RNA polymerase

(3) RNA dependent DNA polymerase

(4) DNA dependent DNA polymerase

95. How many statements are correct from the list givenbelow?

A. DNA is the first genetic material.

B. RNA used to act as a genetic material as wellas a catalyst in some organisms.

C. DNA has evolved from RNA with chemicalmodifications that make it more stable.

D. The essential life process such as metabolism,translation and splicing, evolved around RNA.

(1) Four (2) Three

(3) Two (4) One

96. The adapter molecule shows following features,except

(1) It can read the code and also to link it to theamino acids because amino acids have nostructural specialities to read the code uniquely.

(2) Purine at 5 and 3 end

(3) It is a compact molecule which looks likeinverted L in three dimensional structure

(4) There are three specific adapter molecules forstop codons.

97. In eukaryotes, the regulation of gene expressionoccurs at all the given below level, except

(1) Transcription level

(2) Processing level

(3) Transport of ribosomal subunits from nucleus tothe cytoplasm

(4) Translation level

98. The process of polymerisation of amino acid to forma polypeptide, is known as

(1) Replication (2) Transcription

(3) Transduction (4) Translation

99. The lac operator is present only in lac operon and itinteracts specifically with _______.

A. lac repressor

B. Val operon

C. Trp repressor

D. lac inducer

E. Co-repressor inducer complex

Choose the correct fill in the blank given above.

(1) A & B (2) A, D & E

(3) Only A (4) A, B & C

100. Mark the mis-matched pair :

(1) 5-methyl uracil – RNA

(2) AUG – Dual functions

(3) Cytidine – Nucleoside

(4) Peptidyl transferase – Ribozyme

101. A heavy DNA is made to replicate for twogenerations in 14N containing NH4Cl. How manydsDNA molecules shall possess 15N?

(1) Two (2) Four

(3) Zero (4) One

102. Consider the following organisms.

A. Saccharomyces B. Wheat

C. Rhizobium D. Arabidopsis

Find the correct option in which DNA sequencing isachieved along with completion of HGP.

(1) A and B (2) B and C

(3) C and D (4) A and D

103. Which human chromosome has maximum genesand minimum genes respectively?

(1) Chromosome-X and chromosome-Y

(2) Chromosome-1 and chromosome-Y

(3) Chromosome-22 and chromosome-X

(4) Chromosome-11 and chromosome-X

BOTANY

(9)


104. Polynucleotide phosphorylase enzyme is involved in

(1) Template dependent RNA synthesis

(2) Template independent RNA synthesis

(3) Template independent DNA synthesis

(4) Template dependent DNA synthesis

105. Choose the correct match.

Column I Column II

a. AUG (i) Tyrosine

b. UAG (ii) Start codon

c. UAU (iii) Stop codon

d. UGG (iv) Tryptophan

(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

(2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)

(3) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)

(4) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)

106. If the sequence of nucleotides in mRNA is 5AUGUUU AGG UUC GUG3, predict the sequence ofamino acid coded by it.

(1) Met-Phe-Arg-Phe-Val

(2) Met-Phe-Trp-Glu-Met

(3) Met-Trp-His-Phe-Val

(4) Val-Trp-His-Phe-Met

107. Identify the correct labelling from given belowdiagram.

(C)

(D) (A) (B)

(E)

3’5’ 3’

5’

(1) A – Initiation factor

(2) B – Terminator

(3) C – Untranslated regions

(4) D – Coding strand

108. How many amino acids will be coded by the mRNAsequences –5AUGCCCUCAUGAUCAAUG3 if 14thnucleotide is replaced by adenylic acid residue?

(1) Two (2) Three

(3) Four (4) One

109. How many different types of RNA polymerases areinvolved in synthesis of all rRNA of 80S ribosome?

(1) Four (2) Three

(3) Two (4) One

110. Study the given below diagram. Find out theincorrect statement.

35

53

53

(B)

(A)

(1) DNA dependent DNA polymerases catalyse thegiven process

(2) At (A) template strand, the replication isdiscontinuous

(3) At (B) template strand, the replication iscontinuous

(4) The discontinuously synthesised fragments arelater joined by the enzyme helicase

111. Choose incorrect statement w.r.t DNA fingerprinting.

(1) In DNA fingerprinting micro-satellite DNA is usedas probe that shows very low degree ofpolymorphism.

(2) DNA polymorphism plays very important role inevolution and speciation.

(3) It is a very quick way to compare the DNAsequences of any two individuals.

(4) The size of Variable Number Tandem Repeats(VNTR) varies in size from 0.1 to 20 kb.

112. Which of the following step of translation does notconsume a high energy phosphate bonds?

(1) Initiation

(2) Elongation

(3) Translocation

(4) Peptide bond formation through Peptidyltransferase enzyme

113. Cistron is defined as a segment of DNA coding fora polypeptide. Eukaryotes are identified having

(1) Polycistronic m-RNA

(2) Monocistronic m-RNA

(3) Introns or intervening sequences do not appearin processed RNA

(4) More than one option is correct

114. Which one is common between RNA and DNA?

(1) Presence of hydrogen bonds and phosphodiesterbonds

(2) Presence of N-glycosidic bond andphosphodiester bond

(3) Presence of similar purines and pyrimidines

(4) Presence of double stranded structures always

(10)


115. Which enzyme is responsible for transcription ofadapter molecule in eukaryotes?

(1) RNA polymerase-I

(2) RNA polymerase-II

(3) RNA polymerase-III

(4) Polynucleotide phosphorylase

116. The given below central dogma was proposed by

Replication DNA

Trans-cription

mRNA

Trans-lation

protein

(1) Francis Crick (2) Temin and Baltimore

(3) Friedrich Meischer (4) Beadle and Tatum

117. The unequivocal proof that DNA is the geneticmaterial came from the experiment of

(1) C. MacLeod and M. McCarty

(2) J. Watson and F. Crick

(3) A. Hershey and M. Chase

(4) F. Jacob and J. Monod

118. Read the following statements

a. The coding sequences or expressed sequencesare defined as exons.

b. Introns or intervening sequences do not appearin mature or processed mRNA.

(1) Both a & b are correct

(2) Only a is correct

(3) Only b is correct

(4) Both a & b are incorrect

119. Select incorrect pair

(1) × 174 virus – dsDNA

(2) phage – 48502 bp

(3) Escherichia coli – Circular DNA

(4) Haploid human cell – 3.3 × 109 bp

120. Removal of RNA polymerase II from nucleoplasm willaffect the synthesis of

(1) hnRNA (2) t-RNA

(3) sc-RNA (4) r-RNA

121. Read the following statements.

a. The UTRs are present at both 5-end (after startcodon) and at 3-end (before stop codon).

b. In translation, the ribosome moves from codon tocodon along the mRNA.

(1) Both a & b are correct

(2) Only a is correct

(3) Only b is correct

(4) Both a & b are incorrect

122. Which stage of transcription is occurring in givenbelow diagram?

5

3

3

5

RNA

(1) Initiation (2) Elongation

(3) Termination (4) Splicing

123. _______ of nucleotide bases are exactly the samein all people

(1) 0.01% (2) 99.9%

(3) 89.9% (4) 1.09%

124. Choose correct statement w.r.t. salient features ofHGP.

(1) Largest human gene is TDF that is made up of2.4 million bases.

(2) The functions are unknown for >50% ofdiscovered genes.

(3) >2% genome code for proteins.

(4) Y-chromosome has most genes (2968) andchromosome 1 has the fewest genes (231).

125. Find out the order in which following steps (A to E)of DNA fingerprinting are carried out.

A. Hybridisation using labelled VNTR probe.

B. Digestion of DNA by restriction enzyme.

C. Isolation of DNA.

D. Separation of DNA fragments by electrophoresis.

E. Detection of hybridised DNA fragments byautoradiography.

(1) A B C D E

(2) C B D A E

(3) C E B D A

(4) B C D A E

126. Which is a constitutive gene in lac-operon?

(1) lac i (2) lac z

(3) lac a (4) lac y

127. During translation, amino acids are activated in thepresence of ATP and linked to

(1) 5 end of tRNA

(2) 3 end of tRNA

(3) TC arm of tRNA

(4) Anticodon loop of tRNA

(11)


ZOOLOGY

128. Following non-human genome model weresequenced at the time of Human Genome Project,except

(1) Caenorhabditis (2) Saccharomyces

(3) Drosophila (4) Penicillium

129. Which of the following codon codes for methionineand it also acts as initiator codon?

(1) GUU (2) AUG

(3) UAA (4) GGG

130. In eubacteria, which of the following is thepredominant site for control of gene expression?

(1) Translational initiation

(2) Processing level

(3) Transcriptional initiation

(4) Transport of mRNA

131. Which of the following is not a criteria for geneticmaterial?

(1) Replication

(2) Slow mutation

(3) Structurally unstable

(4) Express itself in the form of Mendelian character

132. Sequence of nucleotides in mRNA is similar to whichstrand of DNA, except uracil in place of thymine?

(1) Coding strand

(2) Template strand

(3) Non-template strand


133. Mark the mis-matched pair

(1) Soluble RNA – Smallest RNA with 73-93deoxyribonucleotides

(2) Frankia – Polyamines

(3) lac operon – Inducible system

(4) Eukaryotic DNA – Presence of repeatedsequences

134. Read the given below statements

A. DNA dependent RNA polymerase catalyse thepolymerisation in only one direction, that is,5 3.

B. In eukaryotes, the replication of DNA takes placeat M-phase of the cell cycle.

C. The DNA dependent DNA polymerases caninitiate the process of replication.

D. Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates serve dualpurposes. In addition to acting as substrates,they provide energy for polymerisation reactionduring DNA replication.

Choose the incorrect statements

(1) A and B (2) B and D

(3) B and C (4) C and D

135. Which one of the following is not related to HGP?

(1) ESTs = Expressed Sequence Tags

(2) BAC = Bacterial Artificial Chromosome

(3) SNPs = Single Nucleotide Polymorphism

(4) ELISA = Enzyme Linked Immunosorbent Assay

136. Which of the following is not a connotation of theoryof special creation?

(1) All living organisms that we see today werecreated as such

(2) Diversity was always the same since creationand will be the same in future also

(3) Earth is about 4000 million years old

(4) Father Suarez was the greatest supporter ofspecial creation

137. Who concluded that existing living forms sharesimilarities to varying degrees not only amongthemselves but also with life forms that existedmillions of years ago?

(1) Louis Pasteur

(2) Charles Darwin

(3) Hugo de Vries

(4) Lamarck

138. Theory of spontaneous generation was finallydisproved by

(1) Redi

(2) Spallanzani

(3) Louis Pasteur

(4) Aristotle

139. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. Oparin-Haldane theory of origin of life?

(1) First form of life could have come from pre-existing non-living organic molecules

(2) Formation of life was preceded by chemicalevolution

(3) The conditions on primitive earth werehightemperature, volcanic eruptions, reducingatmosphere containing CH4, NH3 etc

(4) Ozone was present on primitive earth whichprevented the entry of UV into atmosphere

(12)


140. In the Miller’s experiment the temperature in thespark chamber was

(1) 500° C (2) 800° C

(3) 1500° C (4) 2000° C

141. The most probable explanation regarding appearanceof free oxygen on earth is

(1) Breakdown of ozone by UV rays

(2) Through volcanic eruptions

(3) Activity of early prokaryotes

(4) Byproduct of photosynthesis by cyanobacteria

142. The fitness according to Darwin, refer ultimately andonly to

(1) Reproductive fitness (2) Physical fitness

(3) Mental fitness (4) All of these

143. The following illustration exhibits

(1) Homologous organs (2) Analogous organs

(3) Common ancestry (4) Both (1) & (3)

144. Sting of honey bee and scorpion are

(1) Homologous organs

(2) Analogous organs

(3) Vestigial organs


145. According to the geological time scale, the durationof which era was dominated by giant gymnosperms,dinosaurs and toothed birds?

(1) Paleozoic (2) Mesozoic

(3) Proterozoic (4) Cenozoic

146. Find the incorrect match

(1) Ordovician – Age of invertebrates

(2) Devonian – Age of fishes

(3) Carboniferous – Age of amphibians

(4) Jurassic – Age of mammals

147. Which of the following ancestor of the modern horsewas without splint bones?

(1) Eohippus (2) Merychippus

(3) Pliohippus (4) Orohippus

148. The most accurate method for dating of fossils is

(1) Potassium – Argon method

(2) Radioactive carbon dating

(3) Electron spin resonance method

(4) Uranium – Lead method

149. Choose the correct statement

(1) The Big Bang theory attempts to explain theorigin of earth

(2) The geological history of earth closely correlateswith the biological history of earth

(3) Maximum fossils are found in metamorphicrocks

(4) Fossils found in the same stratigraphic layer arealways from common ancestor

150. The pouched mammals of Australia survived becauseof lack of competition from any other mammal. Thiswas due to

(1) Continental drift

(2) Geographical barrier

(3) Abundance of food and space in Australia


151. Find the incorrect statement

(1) Stellar distances are measured in kilometres

(2) The universe is very old almost 20 billion yearsold

(3) Earth is supposed to be formed about 4.5 billionyears ago

(4) There was reducing atmosphere on early earth

152. Panspermia is a favourite idea for some astronomers.According to them life came to earth in the form of

(1) Spores when meteorites fell on earth

(2) Junk left by alien starships

(3) Cosmic rays

(4) White dwarfs that struck earth

153. The following illustration exhibits

(1) Homologous organs

(2) Analogous organs

(3) Convergent evolution

(4) Both (2) & (3)

(13)


154. Who experimentally demonstrated that life comesonly from pre-existing life using pre-sterilised flaskand killed yeast?

(1) Redi (2) Spallanzani

(3) Pasteur (4) Miller

155. Oparin of _________ and Haldane of _________proposed that first form of life could have come frompre-existing non-living organic molecules (e.g. RNA,protein etc) and that formation of life was precededby chemical evolution

(1) Russia, Germany (2) England, Russia

(3) Russia, England (4) England, Germany

156. Which of the following statement is incorrect w.r.t.Miller’s experiment?

(1) Miller created electric discharge in a closed flaskcontaining CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapour at800°C

(2) Miller observed formation of amino acids such asalanine, glycine and aspartic acid

(3) The gases CH4, NH3 and H2 were taken in ratio1 : 2 : 1

(4) Electric sparks of 75,000 volts was provided tothe mixture

157. According to theory of special creation, earth isabout

(1) 4000 million years old

(2) 400 million years old

(3) 4000 years old

(4) 4000 billion years old

158. Alfred Wallace, a naturalist came on to the sameconclusions as that of Charles Darwin. He wasworking in

(1) Australia

(2) Malay Archipelago

(3) Galapagos islands

(4) Africa

159. Select the incorrect statement

(1) Any population has variations in characteristics

(2) Those characteristics which enable some tosurvive better in natural conditions wouldoutbreed others that are less-endowed to surviveunder such natural conditions

(3) The fitness, according to Darwin, refersultimately and only to reproductive fitness

(4) All the existing life forms have differentancestors

160. To which realm does India belong to?

(1) Palaearctic (2) Nearctic

(3) Neotropical (4) Oriental

161. All of the following are examples of analogousorgans, except

(1) Eye of an octopus and the eye of a mammal

(2) Wing of insect and wing of Pterodactyl

(3) Sweet potato and potato

(4) Mouth parts of cockroach and butterfly

162. Diverse organisms can be compared and theircommon ancestry chalked out on the basis of

(1) Biochemicals occurring in the body

(2) Molecular record

(3) Mitochondrial DNA

(4) All of these

163. Find the incorrect statement

(1) Before industrialisation there were more white-winged moths on trees than dark-winged moths

(2) After industrialisation there were more dark-winged moths on trees than white-winged moths

(3) During post industrialisation the population ofdark-winged moths increased as they were ableto camouflage themselves with the background

(4) During pre industrialisation period the predatorsused to spot white-winged moths against thecontrasting background

164. According to geological time scale based on thefossil record, which of the following can beconsidered to be the latest on the earth?

(1) Algae (2) Gymnosperms

(3) Dicots (4) Monocots

165. Which of the following do not fall underembryological evidences of evolution?

(1) In the development of frog a fish like tailed larvais formed

(2) Tadpole of Herdmania show presence ofnotochord in its larva

(3) Cycas bear flagellated sperms

(4) Protonema stage in fern shows algal ancestry

166. Which of the following is the missing link betweenbirds and reptiles?

(1) Ichthyostega (2) Seymouria

(3) Archaeopteryx (4) Lycaenops

167. The first one toed horse was

(1) Merychippus (2) Pliohippus

(3) Equus (4) Parahippus

(14)


168. All of the following are vestigial organs in humans,except

(1) Coccyx

(2) Plica semilunaris

(3) Nipples in male

(4) Second molars

169. Short tail in some human babies represent

(1) Embryological evidences of evolution

(2) Evidences from genetics

(3) Vestigial organ

(4) Atavism

170. Duck-billed platypus is connecting link between

(1) Birds and reptiles

(2) Birds and mammals

(3) Reptiles and mammals

(4) Amphibians and mammals

171. Which of the following is not correct match w.r.torgan and its examples?

(1) Homologous organs – Fore limbs of mammals

(2) Analogous organs – Hearts of vertebrates

(3) Vestigeal organ – Ear Pinna in humans

(4) Both (2) & (3)

172. Which of the following statement is incorrect aboutmimicry?

(1) Mimicry is a kind of adaptation

(2) Mimicry is best explained by mutation theory

(3) In Mullerian mimicry two or more organismsshow group mimicry

(4) Monarch and viceroy butterfly show Batesianmimicry

173. Find the correct match w.r.t evolution.

(1) Development of embryo – Phylogeny

(2) Excreta preserved as fossil – Coprolite

(3) Ancestor of modern horse with no splint bones– Mesohippus

(4) Unit of natural selection – Population

174. To study and understand human evolution, in recentyears, DNA sequences of mitochondrial DNA andY-chromosomes were considered as

(1) They are uniparental in origin and do not takepart in recombination

(2) They are small in size and easy to study

(3) They can be obtained from any living or deadanimals

(4) They are only present in animal world

175. If antibodies against species A precipitate much ofthe protein (antigen) in species C but little of theprotein in species B, then it can be presumed that

(1) Species A is closer to B than to C

(2) Species A is closer to C than to B

(3) Species A is closer both B and C

(4) Species B is closer to C

176. Which of the following was not a characteristic ofthe first form of life that originated on primitive earth?

(1) Single celled (2) Aquatic

(3) Chemoautotrophic (4) Prokaryotic

177. Whales, bats, cheetah and human share similaritiesin the

(1) Pattern of bones of vertebral column

(2) Pattern of bones of forelimbs

(3) Number of teeth

(4) Type of ecological niche occupied

178. Angiosperms appeared on the earth for the first time in

(1) Jurassic period (2) Cretaceous period

(3) Tertiary period (4) Quaternary period

179. For origin of life, it was necessary that there musthave been a supply of replicators i.e. self producingmolecules. It is supposed that the first replicatormolecules must have been

(1) Virus (2) RNA

(3) DNA (4) Proteins

180. Which of the following is not a vestigial structure inhumans?

(1) Thymus gland (2) Auricular muscles

(3) Vermiform appendix (4) Wisdom tooth

� � �

(15)


ANSWERS

MM : 720 Test Series : Test – 12 Time : 3 Hrs.

[NEET (Phase-2)-2016]

24/06/2016


1. (2)2. (3)

3. (3)4. (1)5. (1)

6. (4)7. (3)

8. (2)9. (2)10. (2)

11. (4)12. (3)

13. (3)14. (1)

15. (4)16. (4)17. (1)

18. (1)19. (3)

20. (4)21. (1)22. (3)

23. (1)24. (3)

25. (3)26. (4)

27. (4)28. (1)29. (3)

30. (2)31. (1)

32. (4)33. (3)34. (2)

35. (3)36. (1)

CODE

A

37. (3)38. (4)

39. (3)40. (1)41. (2)

42. (4)43. (3)

44. (2)45. (1)46. (1)

47. (2)48. (4)

49. (1)50. (2)

51. (2)52. (4)53. (4)

54. (2)55. (1)

56. (3)57. (4)58. (2)

59. (4)60. (3)

61. (3)62. (3)

63. (2)64. (2)65. (2)

66. (3)67. (3)

68. (3)69. (1)70. (4)

71. (4)72. (3)

73. (4)74. (4)

75. (2)76. (3)77. (3)

78. (1)79. (3)

80. (1)81. (3)82. (1)

83. (2)84. (1)

85. (2)86. (2)

87. (4)88. (2)89. (2)

90. (2)91. (3)

92. (4)93. (3)94. (3)

95. (2)96. (4)

97. (3)98. (4)

99. (3)100. (1)101. (1)

102. (4)103. (2)

104. (2)105. (4)106. (1)

107. (2)108. (2)

109. (3)110. (4)

111. (1)112. (4)113. (4)

114. (2)115. (3)

116. (1)117. (3)118. (1)

119. (1)120. (1)

121. (3)122. (2)

123. (2)124. (2)125. (2)

126. (1)127. (2)

128. (4)129. (2)130. (3)

131. (3)132. (4)

133. (1)134. (3)

135. (4)136. (3)137. (2)

138. (3)139. (4)

140. (2)141. (4)142. (1)

143. (4)144. (2)

145. (2)146. (4)

147. (2)148. (3)149. (2)

150. (4)151. (1)

152. (1)153. (1)154. (3)

155. (3)156. (3)

157. (3)158. (2)

159. (4)160. (4)161. (4)

162. (4)163. (4)

164. (4)165. (4)166. (3)

167. (2)168. (4)

169. (4)170. (3)

171. (4)172. (2)173. (2)

174. (1)175. (2)

176. (3)177. (2)178. (2)

179. (2)180. (1)

(1)

Answers and Hints

MM : 720 Test Series : Test – 12 (Objective) Time : 3 Hrs.

[for NEET (Phase-2)-2016]

24/06/2016


PHYSICS

CODE

A

1. Answer (2)

( )F q v B � �

�

0 � �

F B

0ma B �

� ( )F B� �

0a B �

�

ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ(2 ) (2 3 ) 0i xj i j

43

x

2. Answer (3)

2M qL m

3. Answer (3)

I1R1 = I2R2

i.e., I1 � 1 = I2 � 2

I1(3 � ) = I2 �

0 11

6 2

4

IB

�

0 22

2

4

IB

�

B = B1 – B2 = 0

4. Answer (1)

5. Answer (1)

Force on the loop in perpendicular magnetic field iszero

6. Answer (4)

2mvqvB

r

mvr

qB

v Bqr m

7. Answer (3)

22

1 1 4M IA Ia I ⎛ ⎞ ⎜ ⎟

⎝ ⎠

�

22

2 2 2M IA I r I ⎛ ⎞ ⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠

�

1

2 4

M

M

8. Answer (2)

C

A

D

a

B

E

I

I

I

a

aO

Magnetic field due to straight wires, 01

24

I

Ba

Magnetic field due to BCD, 02 4

�

IB

a

0 21

4

⎡ ⎤ ⎢ ⎥⎣ ⎦B

a

(2)

9. Answer (2)

B�

due to wire ‘A’

1 0ˆ( )B B k

�

B�

due to wire B

2 0ˆB B j

�

0 0ˆ ˆ( )B B k B j

�

10. Answer (2)

= MBsin30°

2

2 12 2

I B I B ��

11. Answer (4)

Magnetic field due to circular section

01

24 6

IB

R

01 12

�

IB

R

Field due to straight wire

02

44

�

IB

R

0 1 44 3

⎡ ⎤ ⎢ ⎥⎣ ⎦�

IB

R

12. Answer (3)

( )F I B � ��

�

F = I �B0sin 0

F = 0

13. Answer (3)

2 20 0B B B

02B B

14. Answer (1)

0 1 22

4

I IF

r

7610 2 5 5

10 N5

15. Answer (4)

sinlr

sin > 1

i.e., = 180°

16. Answer (4)

M = nIA

M = nIR2

17. Answer (1)

According to Ampere’s circuital law

0B dl I ∫��

�

�

B = 0

18. Answer (1)

212

qEx mv

2qExv

m

19. Answer (3)

2 mT

qB

1 1 2

2 1 2

T m q

T q m

T2 = 10 s

20. Answer (4)

When magnetic field switched on the tension T.2

mvT qvB

lT may increase or decrease

21. Answer (1)

1 1 2

2 2 1

B I r

B I r

1

2

16

I

I

22. Answer (3)

0 8 24

I

BL

45°

L

I

1BL

23. Answer (1)2

01 3

2 2 22( )

IRB

R x

…(i)

02 2

IB

R

…(ii)

31

2 2 3/22 ( )

B RB R x

B2 = 250 T

24. Answer (3)

2Tsin = Id � B

I

TT

Tcos Tcos

T = IRB

2I B

T �

(3)

25. Answer (3)

v

NABS

KG

26. Answer (4)

2 mT

qB

27. Answer (4)

212

k mv

2 2 2

2q B R

km

28. Answer (1)

Force on the particle will be due to electric field onlyso motion is straight line

29. Answer (3)

30. Answer (2)

31. Answer (1)

32. Answer (4)

33. Answer (3)

34. Answer (2)

35. Answer (3)

36. Answer (1)

= NiAB sin

= NIAB sin0°

= 0

37. Answer (3)

3

2 2

M Q e

m mL

�

�

38. Answer (4)

39. Answer (3)

40. Answer (1)

41. Answer (2)

42. Answer (4)

43. Answer (3)

44. Answer (2)

45. Answer (1)

CHEMISTRY

46. Answer (1)

Cell constant = Specific conductance × Resistance

= 0.001 × 100

= 0.1 cm–1

47. Answer (2)

E° value is same for these reaction.

48. Answer (4)

All are correct statements.

49. Answer (1)

Dilute HNO3 at anode 2H2O O2 + 4H+ + 4e–.

50. Answer (2)

At mercury cathode Na+ ions reduced preferentially.

51. Answer (2)

2 3o

cell cell 3 2

0.0591 [Ni ]E E log

6 [Au ]

Ecell = +1.75 volt

52. Answer (4)

All methods can use to prevent corrosion.

53. Answer (4)

0.01 M Na2SO4 has highest specific conductance.

54. Answer (2)

Small Ea and high T has highest rate constant.

55. Answer (1)

It is a zero order reaction.

56. Answer (3)

H for reaction is zero.

57. Answer (4)

On decreasing temperature rate constant decreasesfor both endothermic and exothermic reactions.

58. Answer (2)

Rate constant does not depends upon concentration.

59. Answer (4)

33 = 27 times.

60. Answer (3)

R = k[A]x ... (i)

8R = k[4A]x ... (ii)

From eq. (i) & (ii), we get

x = 1.5

61. Answer (3)

Rate = k(A)1 (B)2/3

Order of reaction = 2 5

13 3

Rate constant = 1 1

1 5/3

mol lit time

(mol L )

= mol–2/3 litre+2/3 time–1

(4)

62. Answer (3)

ZSM-5 is shape selective catalyst.

63. Answer (2)

Tyndall effect shown by lyophobic colloids.

64. Answer (2)

SO2 gas is H2S gas forms lypophobic sol.

65. Answer (2)

Ag+ ion.

66. Answer (3)

Gold no is 25.

67. Answer (3)

Fact

68. Answer (3)

Eq. of tin = i t

96500

22.2 2 5 60 60E 59.5

E 96500 ⇒

Valency of tin = A 119

2E 59.5

Thus 2Sn 2e Sn

69. Answer (1)

(i) and (ii) having maximum Ecell.

70. Answer (4)

All factors affect corrosion.

71. Answer (4)

Both (1) & (3) are correct.

72. Answer (3)

Resistance of electrolytic solution decreases withdilution.

73. Answer (4)

If Ea = 0, K = A independent of temperature.

74. Answer (4)

Unit of A depends on unit of K.

75. Answer (2)

Temperature coefficient 373 363

363 373

K t 3002.5

K t 120

1 K

t⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠

∵

76. Answer (3)

Integrated rate equation for 1/2 order is

1/2 1/22C kt 2Co .

77. Answer (3)

87.5 1/2t % 3 t 3 1.5 4.5 hrs

78. Answer (1)

1.0 M

79. Answer (3)

Rate = k [A]1[B]1 overall order = 1 + 1 = 2

Units = mol–1 L1 s–1.

80. Answer (1)

Millimole per litre.

81. Answer (3)

1Gold number

Protective power

82. Answer (1)

Indigo is water soluble dye in parts colour in waterhot in buffer.

83. Answer (2)

n × eq

= m

m (Al3+) = 3x

m (Cl–) = y

^m AlCl

3 = Al3+ + 3Cl–

= 3x + 3y

84. Answer (1)

22AB A 2B ��⇀↽��

i 1 2 1 10.5

m 1 3 1 2 ⇒

Now, mm

m m

1000.5 200

⇒ ⇒

85. Answer (2)

ppt. of AgCl will form.

86. Answer (2)

Inst. rate = d(A) 4

0.0667dt 60

87. Answer (4)

All are correct.

88. Answer (2)

c bx

T Tm

89. Answer (2)

Silver sol.

90. Answer (2)

(5)

BOTANY

91. Answer (3)

92. Answer (4)

There is no nucleosome in prokaryotes (E.coli)

93. Answer (3)

Transforming principle was given by FrederickGriffith, but biochemical characterisation was givenby Avery, MacLeod and McCarty.

94. Answer (3)

95. Answer (2)

Statement(A) is wrong because RNA is the firstgenetic material.

96. Answer (4)

There is no adapter molecules (t-RNA) for stopcodon.

97. Answer (3)

98. Answer (4)

99. Answer (3)

100. Answer (1)

101. Answer (1)15

N15

N

15N14

N15

N 14N

15N 15

N14N14

N 14N 14

N 14N14

N

102. Answer (4)

103. Answer (2)

104. Answer (2)

105. Answer (4)

AUG Start codon (Methionine)

UAG Stop codon

UAU Tyrosine

UGG Tryptophan

106. Answer (1)

107. Answer (2)

Correct labelling are

A Promoter

B Terminator

C Transcription start site

D Template strand or non-coding strand

E Coding strand

108. Answer (2)

Here 4th codon is stop codon or terminating codonwhich terminates the polypeptide chain. Hence, itcontains only three amino acids in polypeptide chain.

109. Answer (3)

80S ribosome is made up of 28S, 5.8S, 18S (byRNA polymerase I) and 5S rRNA (by RNApolymerase III)

110. Answer (4)

In 4th option discontinuously synthesised fragmentsor okazaki fragments are joined by DNA ligase.

111. Answer (1)

112. Answer (4)

113. Answer (4)

114. Answer (2)

115. Answer (3)

116. Answer (1)

117. Answer (3)

118. Answer (1)

119. Answer (1)

120. Answer (1)

121. Answer (3)

122. Answer (2)

123. Answer (2)

124. Answer (2)

125. Answer (2)

126. Answer (1)

127. Answer (2)

128. Answer (4)

129. Answer (2)

130. Answer (3)

131. Answer (3)

132. Answer (4)

133. Answer (1)

134. Answer (3)

B & C statements are wrong because Replicationtakes place in S phase and DNA polymerase isunable to initiate replication.

135. Answer (4)

(6)

� � �

136. Answer (3)

According to theory of special creation, earth isabout 4000 years old.

137. Answer (2)

138. Answer (3)

Pasteur gave a definite proof of life arising from pre-existing life using microbes and sterilization methods.

139. Answer (4)

Ozone was absent on primitive earth.

140. Answer (2)

141. Answer (4)

142. Answer (1)

143. Answer (4)

The diagram represents forelimbs of man, cheetah,whale and bat.

144. Answer (2)

145. Answer (2)

146. Answer (4)

Jurassic – Age of reptiles.

147. Answer (2)

148. Answer (3)

Electron spin resonance method is the mostaccurate method of dating of fossils.

149. Answer (2)

Its not necessary that fossils in the samestratigraphic layer are related but certainly theyexisted at the same time.

150. Answer (4)

151. Answer (1)

152. Answer (1)

153. Answer (1)

The diagram represents thron of Bougainvillea andtendril of Cucurbita

154. Answer (3)

155. Answer (3)

156. Answer (3)

CH4 : NH3 : H2 = 2 : 1 : 2

157. Answer (3)

158. Answer (2)

159. Answer (4)

All existing life forms share common ancestors.

160. Answer (4)

161 Answer (4)

Mouthparts of different insects are homologousorgans.

162. Answer (4)

163. Answer (4)

164. Answer (4)

165. Answer (4)

This stage is in Bryophytes.

166. Answer (3)

167. Answer (2)

168. Answer (4)

Third molars are vestigial

169. Answer (4)

170. Answer (3)

Duck billed platypus is Ornithorhynchus

171. Answer (4)

Ear pinna is functional structure. Pinna muscles arevestigeal.

172. Answer (2)

Term mimicry was given by- Bateson.

173. Answer (2)

Merychippus had no splint bones.

174. Answer (1)

175. Answer (2)

Antibodies bind to specific antigens. Closer specieshave similar antigens.

176. Answer (3)

First life form was chemoautotrophic.

177. Answer (2)

178. Answer (2)

179. Answer (2)

180. Answer (1)

ZOOLOGY

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