Pharmacology Mock Test Q paper

05 Pharmacology

Q world NEET PG TEST SERIES

www.qworld.co.in FACEBOOK.COM/QWORLD.CO.IN

Facebook.com/qworld.co.in

1

1. The following is the ADR is caused by which

antiretroviral drugs? a) Protease inhibitors b) NRTI c) NNRTI d) Fusion inhibitors

2. Which antihypertensive drug causes this side

effect a) Beta-blockers b) Amlodipine c) Enalapril d) Clonidine

3.Discontinuation rate of the route shown in the picture

is? a) 2-7% b) 9-15% c) 0.1-2% d) 16-20%

4. Skeletal muscle relaxant of choice in the following case is

a) d-TC b) Diazepam c) Mivacurium d) Suxamethonium

5. Drug of choice for the following parasitic CNS

infection after eating pork is

a) Albendazole b) Praziquantel c) Prednisolone d) Phenytoin

6. The following is an ADR caused by which drug

a) Hydroxychloroquine


2

b) Digoxin c) Vigabatrin d) Ethambutol

7.Identify the drug X with mechanism as shown in the diagram

a)Clopidogrel b) Aspirin c) Streptokinase d) abciximab

8. Drug causing this effect a) Corticosteriods b) Thalidomide c) Lenalidomide d) Tetracycline

9. He is considered as father of Indian Pharmacology

who is he a) Ram Nath Chopra b) Mohan N Ghosh c) Kishan N Ghosh d) Manju Nath Chopra

10. The following is the device meant to be used in

asthma patient what it is??

a) Spacer b) Rotahaler c) Spinhaler d) Nebulizer

11. Nesiritide cause vasodilatation through - a) cAMP b) cGMP c) ATP d) K+ ions 12. Daltroban is antagonist of - a) Angiotensin b) Nitric oxide c) Thromboxane A2 d) Oxytocin


3

13. Which of the following is renin inhibitor - a) Losartan b) Benazepril c) Remikiren d) Imidapril 14. Which of the following is used for prostatic carcinoma- a) Danazole b) Clomiphene c) Finasteride d) None 15. Which anaesthetic agent has maximum MAC - a) Ether b) Methoxyfluorane c) N20 d) Halothane 16. Long acting barbiurate is - a) Thiopentone b) Secobarbitone c) Phenobarbitone d) Pentobarbitone 17. Active metabolite of azathioprine - a) 6-thioguanine b) 6-thiouracil c) 6-mercaptopurine d) 6-mercaptoguanine 18. Which antibiotic decreases absorption of iron - a) Sulfonamide b) Tetracyclines c) Erythromycin d) Ciprofloxacin 19. Ergot alkaloids are used in all except - a) Migraine b) Acromegaly c) Hypertension d) Parkinsonism

20. Treatment of choice for prinzmetal’s angina - a) Nitroglycerine b) CCBs c) Beta-blockers d) Prazosin 21. Drug of choice for pheochromocytoma - a) Propranolol b) Phenoxybenzamine c) Prazosin d) Nitroprosside 22. ACEI should not be used along with- a) Amiloride b) Spirinolactone c) CCB d) Thiazides 23. Which of the following is second generation beta blocker- a) Propronolol b) Timolol c) Nodalol d) Atenolol 24. Which of the following drug used in asthma is not a branchodilator - a) Salbutamol b) Beclomethasone c) Theophylline d) Ipratropium 25. Which of the following reduces the efficacy of oral contraceptives - a) Erythromycin b) Griseofulvin c) Cimetidine d) Disulfiram 26. Dosage of drug is determined by following except- a) Volume of distribution b) Half life c) Lipid solubility


4

d) Excretion of drug 27. Longest acting glucocorticoids is - a) Prednisone b) Prednisolone c) Cortisone d) Dexamethasone 28. Which of the following Transdermal patches are not available in India? a) Fentanyl b) NTG c) Hyoscine d) Nicotine 29. Parenteral direct thrombin inhibitor is

a) Ximelagatran b) Dabigatran c) Argotraban d) Heparin

30. Which of the following is a topical sulfonamide - a) Sulfadoxine b) Mafenide c) Sulfamethopyrazine d) None 31. Which of the following inhibits the rate limiting step in synthesis of epinephrine - a) Guanehidine b) Bretylium c) Metyrosine d) Reserpine 32. Mechanism of action of beta blockers in glaucoma- a) Increased aqueous outflow b) Decreased aqueous production c) Opening of trabecular meshwork d) All of the above 33. Antidepressant causing Tardive dyskinesia is - a) MAO inhibitors b) Mianserin

c) Imipramine d) Amoxapine 34. Morphine - a) Stimulates CTZ zone of medulla b) Stimulates respiratory centre of medulla c) Depresses CTZ zone of medulla d) None of the above 35. Which is not used in status epilepticus? a) Lorazepam b) Phenytoin c) Phenobarbitone d) Valproate 36. Which second generation antihistaminic does not produce an active metabolite - a) Loratidine b) Terfenadine c) Cetrizine d) None 37. When two different chemical act on two different receptors and their responses is opposite to each other on the same cell is called as - a) Physiological antagonism b) Chemical antagonism c) Reversible antagonism d) Competitive antagonism 38. Which of the following drugs used to treat type- II diabetes mellitus causes weight loss - a) Metformin b) Glimepiride c) Repaglinide d) Gliclazide 39. Octreotide is given in all the following conditions except- a) Bleeding esophageal varices b) Secretory diarrhea c) Infective diarrhea d) Acromegaly


5

40. Anti cancer drug causing nephrotoxicity - a) Cyclophosphamide b) Busulfan c) Cisplatin d) Procarbazine 41.Type E adverse reaction is - a) Toxicity b) Augmented effect c) Teratogenesis d) Withdrawal reaction 42. All are used for Bier’s block except - a) Lidocaine b) Prilocaine c) Dibucaine d) Chlorprocaine 43. Side effect of salbutamol is

a) Tremor b) Seizure c) Hypertension d) Hyperkalemia

44. Shortest acting benzodiazepine is - a) Flurazepam b) Alprazolam c) Triazolam d) Diazepam 45. Which of the following is not used in acute attack of severe pain due to gout - a) Indomethacin b) Colchicine c) Febuxostat d) Corticosteroids 46. Which of the following develop first during dependence of a substance - a) Tolerance b) Physical dependence c) Psychological dependence

d) Withdrawal symptoms 47. Which of the following is safe drug for nursing mother- a) Chloramphenicol b) Digoxin c) Lithium d) Amphetamines 48. Which of the antithyroid drug inhibit iodine trapping- a) Radioactive iodine b) Iodides c) Methimozole d) Thiocyanides 49. Drug of choice for toxoplasmosis in pregnancy - a) Cotrimoxazole b) Erythromycin c) Tetracycline d) Spiramycin 50. Hofmann elimination is - a) Inactivation of drug by metabolizing enzyme b) Unchanged excretion by kidney c) Excretion in feces d) Inactivation by molecular rearrangement 51. Most of the drugs are excreted in - a) Faeces b) Urine c) Saliva d) None 52. Lugol’s Iodine contains? a) 5 % iodine & 10 % KI b) 10 % iodine & 20 % KI c) 10 % iodine & 15 % KI d) 5 % iodine & 15 % KI 53. Ketamine produces - a) Emergence delirium b) Hypotension


6

c) Bronchoconstriction d) Depression of cardiovascular system 54. Effective ulcer treatment that works by inhibitory action on gastric acid secretion is - a) Lactulose b) Aluminium hydroxide c) Sucralfate d) Ranitidine 55. Which of the following is an inhibitor of dihydrofolate reductase - a) Phenytoin b) Alcohol c) Methotrexate d) Yeast 56. Peripheral neuropathy as a side effect is caused by which of the following anticancer drugs - a) Vincristine b) Cyclophosphamide c) Etoposide d) Irinotecan 57. Drug useful in breast cancer is - a) Tamoxifen b) Cyproterone c) Testosterone d) Chlorambucil 58. Which of the following drug can cause thyroid dysfunction? a) Amiodarone b) Ampicillin c) Ibutilide d) Acyclovir 59. All drugs have recently been withdrawn from India except - a) Gatifloxacin b) Rafecoxib c) Pioglitazone d) Phenformin

60. For complete elimination of the drug from the plasma is achieved after- a) 2 t1/2 b) 3 t1/2 c) 4 t1/2 d) 5 t1/2 61. Ranibizumab is monoclonal antibody against - a) IL-6 b) CD-20 c) VEGF d) EGFR 62. All antiretroviral drugs produce peripheral neuropathy except - a) Stavudine b) Zalcitabine c) Didanosine d) Indinavir 63. Drug of choice for familial hypercholesterolemia - a) Gemfibrogil b) Nicotinic acid c) Lovastatin d) Cholestyramine 64. Which of the following extrapyramidal effect is seen on chronic use of antipsychotic - a) Dystonia b) Akathisia c) Tardive dyskinesia d) Parkinsonism 65. The following insulin can be given intravenously- a) Protamine zinc insulin b) Ultra lente insulin c) Semi lente insulin d) Regular insulin 66. Orally active hormone is - a) TSH


7

b) Thyroxine c) GH d) Prolacin 67. Drug of choice for bleeding oesophageal varices is- a) Ethanolamine oleate b) Octreotide c) Propanolol d) Phytonadione 68. Maximum first pass metabolism is seen by which route - a) Intravenous b) Interaarterial c) Rectal d) Oral 69. Duration of action depends on - a) Clearance b) Rate of elimination c) Bioavailability d) All 70. Thiazides act. on - a) PCT b) DCT c) Glomerulus d) Descending limb of loop of Henle 71. Which of the following decreases thyroid hormone on a long term basis ? a) T4 b) I131 c) Calcitriol d) Fluorouracil 72. Bromocriptine is indicated in the following conditions except - a) Prolactin -secreting aden6mas b) Prolactin deficiency c) Amenorrhea - Galactorrhea d) Acromegaly

73. Due to which side effect felbamate can be discontiuned? a) Aplastic anemia b) Renal impairment c) Gastrointestinal disorder d) Seizures 74. Drug of choice for myoclonic seizures is – a) Valproic acid b) Phenytoin c) Ethosuximide d) Carbamazepine 75. Enalapril when compared to captopril has

a) Shorter action b) More potent c) Faster onset of action d) More adverse drug reaction

76. Sugamadex is used for - a) Organophosphate poisoning b) Reversal of NM blockers c) Treatment of local anaerthetic poisoning d) Treatment of central anticholinergic syndrome 77. All of the following are CNS stimulants except- a) Amphetamines b) Benzodiazepines c) Cocaine d) Methylphenidate 78. Lipoprotein lipase is activated by which drug? a) Atorvastatin b) Clofibrate c) Cholestramine d) Nicotinic acid 79. Dicumarol interferes with

a) Vitamin K b) Antithrombin c) Theophylline d) Morphine


8

80. All are produced by mu receptors except - a) Euphoria b) Sedation c) Dysphoria d) Constipation 81. Cephalosporin with anti pseudomonal activity - a) Cefazoline b) Cefoperazone c) Ceftriaxone d) Cefuroxime 82. Antitussive opioid is – a) Ethylmorphine b) Pethidine c) Methadone d) Buprenorphine 83. Wolff-chaikoff effect is - a) Reduced thyroxine synthesis by radiotherapy b) Reduced thyroxine synthesis by propylthiouracil c) Reduced thyroxine synthesis by iodides d) None of the above 84. Shortest acting calcium channel blocker - a) Verapamil b) Amlodipine c) Nimodipine d) Diltiazam 85. Benzylisoquinoline muscle relaxant is - a) Vecuronium b) Rocuronium c) Doxacurium d) Pancuronium 86 .Lubiprostone is - a) New anticholinergic antidiarrhoeal b) Serotonin agonist c) New drug to treat peptic ulcer d) To treat irritable bowel syndrome

87. Most important mechanism of drug transport across cell membrane - a) Filtration b) Active transport c) Passive diffusion d) Facilitated diffusion 88. Acidic drugs bind to - a) Globulin b) alpha-1 glycoprotein c) Albumin d) None 89. Besides its properties of decreasing intraocular pressure, timolol is preferred in the treatment of glaucoma because it - a) Produces no miosis b) Possess membrane stabilizing activity c) Increases outflow of aqueous humor d) Is a selective beta-adrenoceptor blocker 90. Advantages of amoxicillin over ampicillin are all except- a) Better bioavailability & faster action b) Spectrum includes H. influenzae & Shigella c) Incidence of diarrhea is lower d) Food does not interfere with its absorption 91. The side effects of digitalis are all except - a) Ventricular tachycardia b) Vasodilatation c) Nausea and vomiting d) Ventricular Bigemini 92. What is the mode of action of Sodium Cromoglycate- a) Mast cell stabilization b) Antihistaminic c) Anticholinergic d) None of the above 93. Calcitonin is not given in which disease - a) Paget’s disease


9

b) Thyrotoxicosis c) Hyperparathyroidism d) Hypervitaminosis D 94. Anabolic steroids may produce the following side effects except - a) Precocious puberty in children b) Cholestatic jaundice c) Delayed closure of epiphysis in children d) Acne in males and females 95. The most potent topical corticosteroid is - a) Betamethasone valerate b) Triamcinolone acetonide c) Hydrocortisone acetate d) Clobetasol propionate 96. Beta2-agonist cause all except - a) Hyperkalemia b) Hyperglycemia c) Tremor d) Palpitaion 97. Mechanism of action of prophylthiouracil - a) Prevents synthesis of thyroglobulin b) Prevents iodine trapping c) Prevents release of T4 & T, d) Inhibits coupling 98. Sibutramine is - a) Antithyroid drug b) Antiobesity drug c) Antimalarial drug d) Antitubercoulous drug 99. Which of the following has major action on mu receptor - a) Endorphines b) Enkephalins c) Dynorphins d) None 100. AMA act by inhibiting call wall synthesis except - a) Aminoglycoside

b) Penicillin c) Cycloserine d) Bacitracin 101. Which antidiabetic drug is used both for type I& II DM - a) Sulphonylureas b) Metformin c) Acarbose d) Pramlinitide 102. Antimalarial drug used for causal prophylaxis act at which stage of developmental cycle - a) Gametogony b) Erythrocytic schizogony c) Pre-erythrocytic schizogony d) Exo-erythrocytic schizogony 103. Not true about aztreonam - a) Beta-lactam b) Monobactam c) Active against pseudomonas d) Shows cross reactivity with other penicillins 104. Drug used to close PDA - a) Protaglandin E2 b) Prostacyclin c) Indomethacin d) Steroids 105. Dobutamine acts on - a) Beta1-receptors b) D1 receptors c) D2 receptors d) M1 receptors 106. All are true about alpha2 agonists except - a) Useful in hypertension b) Cab be used in glaucoma c) Prazosin is an example d) Used as muscle relaxant 107. Pyrolidazone causes -


10

a) Venoocclusive disease b) Heart failure c) Acute tubular necrosis d) ARDS 108. Clinical effect of vitamin D is reduced by a) Simultaneous ingestion of phytates b) Simultaneous ingestion of lactose c) Acidic environment d) None 109. Use of GnRH analogue is - a) Galactogenesis b) PCOD c) Contraception d) None 110. Route of administration of Gn RH analogue - a) Subcutaneous b) Oral c) Intravenous d) Transdermal 111. Lithium causes - a) Hypokalemia b) Hypocalcemia c) Hyperkalemia d) Hypercalcemia 112. Side effect of topiramate is - a) Weight loss b) Visual impairment c) Insomnia d) Hemolysis 113. Non-competitive inhibitor of carbonic anhydrase- a) Allopurinol b) Acetazolamide c) Bimatoprost d) Dipivefrine 114. Prodrug of Cetrizine is - a) Foxefenadone

b) Terfenadine c) Hydroxyzine d) Azelastine 115. Maximum plasma protein bound drug is – a) NTG b) Verapamil c) Aspirin d) GTN 116. Which of the following is a tricyclic antidepressant- a) Venalafexine b) Fluoxetine c) Doxepine d) Citalopram 117.Steady state plasma concentration is achieved after- a) 2 t1/2 b) 3 t1/2 c) 4 t12 d) 5 t1/2 118. Tetracycline injection causes palsy of which nerve- a) Ulnar b) Median c) Radial d) Superficial Radial Nerve injury 119. Remission with SSRI or TCA patient again having relapse. There may be deficiency of - a) Pyridoxine b) Cobalamine c) Ascorbate d) Retinol 120. In sweat glands, the sympathetic neurotransmitter- a) Norepinephrine b) Epinephrine c) Dopamine d) Acetylcholine


11

121. Drug of choice for reversal of muscle relaxant after anaesthesia - a) Pralidoxine b) Neostigmine c) Atropine d) None drug causing spasm of 122. Antiglaucomatous accommodation- a) Timolol b) Pilocarpine c) Dorazolamide d) Latanoprost 123. Drug of choice for classical angina attack a) CCBs b) Beta-blocker c) GTN d) Prazosin 124. Dimercaperol is contraindicated in poisoning with- a) Iron b) Mercury c) Gold d) Silver 125. Which drug is to be given in a truck driver for rhinitis - a) Cetrizine b) Hydroxyzine c) Promethazine d) Buclizine 126. Which drug is used in treatment of vertigo - a) Cinnarizine b) Metoclopramide c) Cisapride d) None 127. Calcium channel blockers are used in all, except- a) Angina b) Supraventricular tachycardia c) Sick sinus syndrome

d) Hypertension 128. Erlotinib is used in - a) Colon cancer b) Pancreatic cancer c) Gall bladder cancer d) GIST 129. Metronidazole is used for all except - a) Amoebiasis b) Giardiasis c) Trichomonas vaginitis d) Malaria 130. True about lamotrigine - a) Decreased efficacy in depression b) First choice in absence seizure c) t1/2 is 24 hrs . d) Not metabolised in liver 131. Buspirone is a - a) Antianxiety drug b) Antipsychotic dm; c) Antidepressant drug d) None of the above 132. Methotrexate is an - a) Alkylating agents b) Antimetabolites c) Microtubule damaging agents d) Topoisomerase inhibitors 133. Phase II block is seen with - a) SCh infusion b) Single dose SCh c) Mivacurium d) None of the above 134. Testosterone inhibitor is - a) Spironolactone b) Clomiphene c) Bremelanotide d) Sildenafil


12

135. Testosterone inhibitors are all except - a) Spironolactone b) Flutamide c) Finasteride d) Sildenafil 136. Raloxifene is used in - a) Osteoporosis b) Cervical cancer c) Osteopetrosis d) Fibroadenoma 137. Warfarin acts by - a) Inhibition of Vitamin K epoxide reductase b) Inhibition of gamma glutamyl carboxylase c) Activation of Vitamin K epoxide rcductase d) Activation of gamma glutamyl carboxylase 138. Origin of sympathetic fibres

a) Cranial b) Sacral c) Dorsolumbar d) None

139. Hemorrhagic cystitis is seen with – a) Cyclophosphamide b) Busulfan c) Ketoprofen d) 5FU 140. All are side effects of clomiphene citrate except – a) Ovarian cysts b) Hot flushes c) Breast soreness d) Amenorrhea 141. Metformin is used in treatment & control of - a) Diabetes b) PCOD c) Pregnancy induced hypertension d) Both a and b

142. Hydroxyethyl starch is a - a) Vasodilator b) Inotrope c) Plasma expander d) Diuretic 143. Ringer lactate contains all except - a) Chloride b) Sodium c) Bicarbonate d) Potassium 144. Which of the following is nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor - a) Indinavir b) Nelfmavir c) Tenofovir d) Lopinavir 145. Drug that binds bile acids in the intestine and prevents their return to liver via the enterohepatic circulation is- a) Niacin b) Fenofibrate c) Cholestyramine d) Gugulipid 146. Sublingual nitroglycerin for treatment of acute chest pain can cause – a) Hypertension b) Headache c) Bradycardia d) Sexual dysfunction 147. First step in cholesterol synthesis is inhibited by – a) Niacin b) Fenofibrate c) Cholestramine d) Lovastatin 148. Aspirin is contraindicated in- a) Fever b) Peptic ulcer


13

c) Unstable angina d) Myalgia 149. Detoxification of drugs is controlled by - a) Cytochrome b) Cytochrome p450 c) Cytochrome C d) Cytochrome A 150.Raltegravir can cause - a) Hypokalemia b) Hypocalcemia c) Hyperkalemia d) Hypercalcemia 151. Type II paralysis in organophosphorous poisoning treatment is - a) Atropine b) Oximes c) Symptomatic treatment d) No treatment 152. Antiandrogen pill contains - a) Cyproterone acetate b) Clomiphene citrate c) Letrozole d) None 153. Which prevents plasminogen activators – a) Streptokinase b) Aminocaproic acid c) Reteplase d) Clopidogrel 154. Which anticancer drug prevents spindle formation- a) Busulfan b) Vinca alkaloids c) 5 - FU d) Methotrexate 155. Which is a GABA transaminase inhibitor – a) TCA b) Sertaline c) Valproate

d) Gabpentin 156. Maintenance dose depends on – a) Clearance b) Volume of distribution c) Metabolism d) Absorption 157. Least mineralocorticoid activity is seen with which steroid - a) Aldosterone b) DOCA c) Methylprednisolone d) Hydrocortisone 158. Drug used in post prandial sugar control is? a) Alfa glucosidase b) Biguinides c) Sulfonylurea d) Repaglinide 159. Which of the following is an antipsychotic drug – a) Flupenthixol b) Rasagiline c) Clobazam d) Divalproex 160. Which of the following is a TCA - a) Amoxapine b) Citalopram c) Venlafaxine d) Bupropion 161. Fenoldopam is an - a) D2 Agonist b) D1 agonist c) D2 Antagonist d) Partial D1 agonist 162. Metaclopramide all are true except - a) Increase gastric emptying b) D2-agonist c) Acts on CTZ


14

d) Long term use can cause parkinsonism, galactorrhoea and gynaecomastia 163. All have high first pass metabolism except - a) Lidocaine b) Propranolol c) Theophylline d) Morphine 164. Drug used for sympathectomy in experimental animals is - a) Guanethidine b) Atropine c) Diazoxide d) Thebaine 165. Gp2b3A inhibitors are all except - a) Abciximab b) Eptifibatide c) Tirofiban d) Prasugrel 166. Site for action for disulfuram is - a) Aldehyde dehydrogenase b) Alcohol dehydrogenase c) G6PD d) Acetate dehydrogenase 167. Mode of excretion of cyclophosphamide is - a) Lung b) Liver c) Kidney d) Skin 168. Ethambutol is avoided in children as it causes - a) Dental maldevelopment b) Visual disturbance c) Renal failure d) Growth retardation 169. Which of the following is not a cardioselective beta blocker - a) Nebivolol

b) Atenolol c) Betaxolol d) Oxprenolol 170. Not a protease inhibitor

a) Nelfinavir b) Saquinavir c) Ritonavir d) Abacavir

171. Beta 2 agonist used in rescue therapy in acute respiratory conditions are all except – a) Terbutaline b) Salbutamol c) Bambuterol d) Ketotifen 172. Beta 1 antagonist used in congestive cardiac failure - a) Atenolol b) Metoprolol c) Salbutamol d) Terbutaline 173. NSAIDS cause gastric ulcer because - a) They inhibit COX - 2 enzyme. b) They inhibit mucus production c) They increase HCl production d) They delay gastric emptying. 174.Drug used in hepatitis B infection is – a) Entecavir b) Astacavir c) Zanamivir d) Abacavir 175. Powerful vasoconstrictor is- a) Amphetamines b) Epinephrine c) Isoprenaline d) Dobutamine 176. Which proton pump inhibitor can be used IV –


15

a) Omeprazole b) Rabeprazole c) Pantoprazole d) Fomeprazole 177. What is false regarding DEC - a) DEC is excreted in urine b) DEC is microfllaristatic c) DEC is metabolised in liver d) Most important action of DEC appears to alteration of organelle membrane of Mf promoting cell death 178. Which of the following is recombinant PTH a) Teriparatide b) Cinacalcet c) Carisoprodol d) Oxethazaine 179. Anandamide is - a) Opioid b) CK 1 antagonist c) D2 blocker d) Cannabinoid neurotransmitter 180. All of the following act through GABA except - a) Phenobarbitone b) Carbamazepine c) Zopiclone d) Muscimol 181. Which of the following causes minimum bone marrow suppression - a) Bleomycin b) 5FU c) Cytarabine d) Topotecan 182. Interferon gamma is used for treatment of - a) HBV b) HCV c) Osteopetrosis d) Both HBV and HCV

183. All drugs have recently been withdrawn from India except- a) Gatifloxacin b) Rafecoxib c) Cotrimoxazole d) Phenformin 184. Fomepizole is used in which poisoning - a) Diazepam b) Ethyl alcohol c) Methyl alcohol d) Lead 185. Benzodiazepine without anticonvulsant property is - a) Nitrazepam b) Diazepam c) Clonazepam d) Temazepam 186. Which drug can be given subdermally - a) Nicotine b) Fentanyl c) GTN d) Progesterone 187. Botulinum toxin mimics - a) Cholinergics b) Anticholinergics c) Adrenergics d) Antiadrenergic 188. Difference between rantidine & cimetidine is - a) Ranitidine is 5 times more potent than cimetidine b) Cimetidine is 5 times more potent than ranitidine. c) Ranitidine has androgenic action d) Ranitidine more markedly inhibits hepatic metabolism 189. Which antidiabetic drug is used both for type I & II DM - a) Sulphonylureas b) Metformin


16

c) Acarbose d) Pramlinitide 190. Dopamine receptor with inhibitory action a) D1 b) D5 c) D2 d) None 191. Thiazolidinedione is associated with increased risk of- a) Heart failure b) Pulmonary fibrosis c) Myocarditis d) renal dysfunction 192. Methotrexate is what class of anti-cancer drug - a) Alk ylating agents b) Antimetabolites c) Microtubule damaging agents d) Topoisomerase inhibitors 193. True about lamotrigene - a) Decreased efficacy in depression b) First choice in atonic seizure c) tl/2 is 24 hrs d) Not metabolised in liver 194. Which of the following drug increase activity of warfarin- a) OCP b) Cimetidine c) Griseofulvin d) Phenytoin 195. Half -life of Alteplase is - a) 4-8 min b) 15-20 min c) 60 - 90 min d) 120 - 150 min 196. Aminoglycoside affects - a) Outer hair cells in basal area

b) Inner hair cells in basal area c) Outer hair cells in apical area d) Inner hair cells in apical area 197. Mechanism of Action of clofibrate ? a) They increase lipoprotein lipase activity through PPAR alpha and cause increased lipolysis of triglycerides b) Inhibits lipolysis in adipose tissue c) Inhibits HMG CoA reductase d) Bind bile acids and bile salts in small intestine 198. Which is true about calcium channel blockers - a) Verapamil causes reflex tachycardia b) Diltiazam causes reflex tachycardia c) Nifedipine causes reflex tachycardia d) Nifedipine has longer t1/2 than felodipine 199. Which of the following is a mineralocorticoid antagonist - a) Spironolactone b) Inamrinone c) Nicorandil d) Ketorolac 200. Not a hepatotoxic drug - a) Chlorpropamide b) Allopurinol c) Streptomycin d) Halothane

Documents

Pharmacology Mock Test Q paper