Pharmacology Board Exam 2009

Question:Class of 131-iodine is:

A. Beta-lactamase inhibitorsB. Beta blockersC. AntiviralsD. Antithyroid agentsE. Antiarrhythmic agents

The correct answer is: Antithyroid agents Question:Class of 13-cis retinoic acid is:

A. Beta blockersB. Lipid lowering drugsC. Oral hypoglycemicsD. AnticonvulsantsE. Retinoids

The correct answer is: Retinoids

Question:Class of 5-fluorocytosine is:

A. AntimycobacterialB. Substituted pyrimidinesC. PolyenesD. Inotropic agentsE. Antidepressants

The correct answer is: Substituted pyrimidines

Question:Class of 5-fluorouracil is:

A. Alkylating agentsB. VasodilatorsC. AntimetabolitesD. Autonomic nervous system drugsE. Hydantoins

The correct answer is: Antimetabolites Question:Class of acarbose is:

A. AnalgesicsB. CatharticsC. TaxanesD. Oral hypoglycemicsE. Vasodilators

The correct answer is: Oral hypoglycemics

Question:Class of acarbose is:

A. AnalgesicsB. CatharticsC. TaxanesD. Oral hypoglycemicsE. Vasodilators

The correct answer is: Oral hypoglycemics Question:Class of acetaminophen is:

A. H2 antagonistsB. AntidepressantsC. Non-Opioid AnalgesicD. Drugs affecting calcium homeostasisE. Autonomic nervous system drugs

The correct answer is: Non-Opioid Analgesic Question:Class of acetazolamide is:

A. Lipid lowering drugsB. Antiprotozoan agentsC. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitorsD. Inotropic agentsE. Penicillins

The correct answer is: Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

Question:Class of actinomycin D is:

A. Topoisomerase I inhibitorB. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitorsC. SulfonamidesD. PolyenesE. Anti-asthmatic agents

The correct answer is: Topoisomerase I inhibitor Question:Class of albuterol is:

A. Benzodiazepine antagonistB. Inotropic agentsC. Anti-asthmatic agentsD. GlucocorticosteroidsE. Antimycobacterial

The correct answer is: Anti-asthmatic agents

Question:Class of alfentanil is:

A. CephalosporinsB. AnalgesicsC. Lipid lowering drugsD. Loop diureticsE. Cathartics

The correct answer is: Analgesics

Question:Class of amoxicillin is:

A. Antiarrhythmic agentsB. AntimycobacterialC. PenicillinsD. AntiviralsE. Macrolides

The correct answer is: Penicillins Question:Class of amphetamine is:

A. Beta blockersB. Antiprotozoan agentsC. Autonomic nervous system drugsD. BarbituratesE. Antiarrhythmic agents

The correct answer is: Autonomic nervous system drugs

Question:Class of amphotericin B is:

A. Anthelmintic agentsB. Antiarrhythmic agentsC. Autonomic nervous system drugsD. TetracyclinesE. Polyenes

The correct answer is: Polyenes

Question:Class of amyl nitrite is:

A. Thyroid agentsB. AminoglycosidesC. AntidepressantsD. VasodilatorsE. Autonomic nervous system drugs

The correct answer is: Vasodilators

Question:Class of ansamycin is:

A. AnthracyclinesB. AnticoagulantsC. SulfonamidesD. AntimycobacterialE. Aminoglycosides

The correct answer is: Antimycobacterial Question:Class of aspirin is:

A. SalicylateB. TetracyclinesC. Antithyroid agentsD. CatharticsE. Cephalosporins

The correct answer is: Salicylate

Question:Class of atropine is:

A. Beta blockersB. Drugs affecting calcium homeostasisC. Autonomic nervous system drugsD. AnalgesicsE. Antiarrhythmic agents

The correct answer is: Autonomic nervous system drugs Question:Class of bendroflumethiazide is:

A. ACE inhibitorsB. Inotropic agentsC. Ca channel blockersD. ThiazidesE. Autonomic nervous system drugs

The correct answer is: Thiazides Question:Class of bisacodyl is:

A. GlucocorticosteroidsB. AntiviralsC. Drugs affecting calcium homeostasisD. CatharticsE. Antithyroid agents

The correct answer is: Cathartics

Question:Class of bismuth subsalicylate is:

A. Antiarrhythmic agentsB. AntacidsC. Oral hypoglycemicsD. Antidiarrheal agentsE. Sulfonamides + antifolates

The correct answer is: Antidiarrheal agents Question:Class of budesonide is:

A. Lipid lowering drugsB. MacrolidesC. MethylxanthinesD. Anti-asthmatic agentsE. Autonomic nervous system drugs


Question:Class of budesonide is:

A. ACE inhibitorsB. MethylxanthinesC. AntiviralsD. GlucocorticosteroidsE. Autonomic nervous system drugs

The correct answer is: Glucocorticosteroids Question:Class of buspirone is:

A. BenzodiazepinesB. AntiviralsC. SedativesD. AnticonvulsantsE. Drugs affecting calcium homeostasis

The correct answer is: Sedatives Question:Class of calcitonin is:

A. VasodilatorsB. Lipid lowering drugsC. TetracyclinesD. Drugs affecting calcium homeostasisE. Antithyroid agents

The correct answer is: Drugs affecting calcium homeostasis

Question:Class of canrenone is:

A. PenicillinsB. K sparing diureticsC. Antimalarial agentsD. AnalgesicsE. Thiazides

The correct answer is: K sparing diuretics Question:Class of carbachol is:

A. SedativesB. Autonomic nervous system drugsC. Beta blockersD. Anti-asthmatic agentsE. Antimycobacterial

The correct answer is: Autonomic nervous system drugs Question:Class of carbenicillin is:

A. Autonomic nervous system drugsB. AntiviralsC. PenicillinsD. AnalgesicsE. Antimycobacterial

The correct answer is: Penicillins

Question:Class of castor oil is:

A. AnticonvulsantsB. Antimalarial agentsC. CatharticsD. Anti-asthmatic agentsE. Aminoglycosides

The correct answer is: Cathartics Question:Class of cefixime is:

A. ACE inhibitorsB. Anthelmintic agentsC. CephalosporinsD. Autonomic nervous system drugsE. Penicillins

The correct answer is: Cephalosporins

Question:Class of ceftriaxone is:

A. Antimalarial agentsB. AntiviralsC. AntimycobacterialD. CephalosporinsE. K sparing diuretics

The correct answer is: Cephalosporins Question:Class of cefuroxime is:

A. Beta blockersB. QuinolonesC. CephalosporinsD. Antiprotozoan agentsE. Antiarrhythmic agents


Question:Class of cephalexin is:

A. AntiviralsB. Antiarrhythmic agentsC. AnalgesicsD. Lipid lowering drugsE. Cephalosporins


Question:Class of chloroquine is:

A. Antiarrhythmic agentsB. Beta blockersC. Antimalarial agentsD. EpipodophyllotoxinsE. Topoisomerase I inhibitor

The correct answer is: Antimalarial agents

Question:Class of chlorpropamide is:

A. Sulfonamides + antifolatesB. Anti-asthmatic agentsC. Antidiarrheal agentsD. Oral hypoglycemicsE. Antimycobacterial


Question:Class of chlorthalidone is:

A. AntiviralsB. VasodilatorsC. VancomycinD. AntimycobacterialE. Thiazides

The correct answer is: Thiazides Question:Class of cilastin is:

A. Immunosuppressive agentsB. Autonomic nervous system drugsC. SedativesD. Dehydropeptidase I inhibitorsE. Analgesics

The correct answer is: Dehydropeptidase I inhibitors

Question:Class of cimetidine is:

A. AntidepressantsB. Inotropic agentsC. LaxativesD. Prokinetic agentsE. H2 antagonists

The correct answer is: H2 antagonists

Question:Class of cisapride is:

A. QuinolonesB. Lipid lowering drugsC. Osmotic diureticsD. Prokinetic agentsE. Oral hypoglycemics

The correct answer is: Prokinetic agents

Question:Class of cis-platinum is:

A. PenicillinsB. Alkylating agentsC. Antiarrhythmic agentsD. TetracyclinesE. Antithyroid agents

The correct answer is: Alkylating agents

Question:Class of clavulanate is:

A. Antiarrhythmic agentsB. QuinolonesC. Beta-lactamase inhibitorsD. Inotropic agentsE. Lipid lowering drugs

The correct answer is: Beta-lactamase inhibitors

Question:Class of colestipol is:

A. Anti-asthmatic agentsB. Antimalarial agentsC. Lipid lowering drugsD. AzolesE. Analgesics

The correct answer is: Lipid lowering drugs

Question:Class of cyclophosphamide is:

A. AminoglycosidesB. AntimycobacterialC. AnalgesicsD. PenicillinsE. Alkylating agents


Question:Class of cycloserine is:

A. Anti-asthmatic agentsB. SulfonamidesC. AminoglycosidesD. Immunosuppressive agentsE. Antimycobacterial

The correct answer is: Antimycobacterial

Question:Class of cycloserine is:

A. Anti-asthmatic agentsB. SulfonamidesC. AminoglycosidesD. Immunosuppressive agentsE. Antimycobacterial


Question:Class of cyclosporine A is:

A. Inotropic agentsB. Colony stimulating factorsC. Antiprotozoan agentsD. Immunosuppressive agentsE. Procoagulant drugs

The correct answer is: Immunosuppressive agents

Question:Class of cytoxan is:

A. AntiviralsB. CephalosporinsC. Alkylating agentsD. CatharticsE. Iminostilbenes


Question:Class of dapsone is:

A. NonclassifiedB. Antidiarrheal agentsC. AnthracyclinesD. SulfonamidesE. Aminoglycosides

The correct answer is: Sulfonamides

Question:Class of demeclocycline is:

A. Topoisomerase I inhibitorB. AntidepressantsC. Antithyroid agentsD. AquareticsE. Antivirals

The correct answer is: Aquaretics Question:Class of Desyrel is:

A. AntidepressantsB. PolyenesC. Vinca alkaloidsD. Autonomic nervous system drugsE. Cathartics

The correct answer is: Antidepressants

Question:Class of dipyridamole is:

A. TaxanesB. Antiplatelet agentsC. CephalosporinsD. TetracyclinesE. Penicillins

The correct answer is: Antiplatelet agents

Question:Class of doxepin is:

A. Beta blockersB. AnalgesicsC. Autonomic nervous system drugsD. AntidepressantsE. Antithyroid agents


Question:Class of doxorubicin is:

A. Antiarrhythmic agentsB. AntimycobacterialC. AnalgesicsD. AnthracyclinesE. Aminoglycosides

The correct answer is: Anthracyclines Question:Class of doxycycline is:

A. AquareticsB. Antiarrhythmic agentsC. Beta-lactamase inhibitorsD. Lipid lowering drugsE. Tetracyclines

The correct answer is: Tetracyclines

Question:Class of EHDP is:

A. Drugs affecting calcium homeostasisB. AnalgesicsC. LaxativesD. AntidepressantsE. Autonomic nervous system drugs

The correct answer is: Drugs affecting calcium homeostasis

Question:Class of enoxacin is:

A. Antiarrhythmic agentsB. Antidiarrheal agentsC. VasodilatorsD. H2 antagonistsE. Quinolones

The correct answer is: Quinolones

Question:Class of epinephrine is:

A. Anti-asthmatic agentsB. AntidepressantsC. Autonomic nervous system drugsD. Beta blockersE. Antiarrhythmic agents


Question:Class of esmolol is:

A. Autonomic nervous system drugsB. Beta blockersC. Procoagulant drugsD. Antiarrhythmic agentsE. Proton pump inhibitors

The correct answer is: Antiarrhythmic agents

Question:Class of ethacrynic acid is:

A. AnticonvulsantsB. Loop diureticsC. Autonomic nervous system drugsD. AntidepressantsE. Anthracyclines

The correct answer is: Loop diuretics

Question:Class of ethanol is:

A. Antiarrhythmic agentsB. Loop diureticsC. TetracyclinesD. AquareticsE. Antithyroid agents

The correct answer is: Aquaretics

Question:Class of ethosuximide is:

A. SuccinimidesB. HydantoinsC. Antiarrhythmic agentsD. AntiviralsE. Sedatives

The correct answer is: Succinimides Question:Class of ethosuximide is:

A. IminostilbenesB. AntiviralsC. Proton pump inhibitorsD. SuccinimidesE. Benzodiazepines

The correct answer is: Succinimides Question:Class of etoposide is:

A. Autonomic nervous system drugsB. AnalgesicsC. GlucocorticosteroidsD. EpipodophyllotoxinsE. Antivirals

The correct answer is: Epipodophyllotoxins Question:Class of etretinate is:

A. Inotropic agentsB. Drugs affecting calcium homeostasisC. PenicillinsD. RetinoidsE. Aminoglycosides

The correct answer is: Retinoids

Question:Class of famotidine is:

A. Miscellaneous antifungalsB. PenicillinsC. Beta blockersD. Loop diureticsE. H2 antagonists


Question:Class of fansidar is:

A. Anti-asthmatic agentsB. AntidepressantsC. PenicillinsD. Sulfonamides + antifolatesE. Analgesics

The correct answer is: Sulfonamides + antifolates

Question:Class of FK506 is:

A. AquareticsB. K sparing diureticsC. Beta blockersD. Immunosuppressive agentsE. Antithyroid agents


Question:Class of flecainide is:

A. VasodilatorsB. AntiviralsC. Autonomic nervous system drugsD. Beta blockersE. Antiarrhythmic agents


Question:Class of flumazenil is:

A. AnticoagulantsB. Lipid lowering drugsC. QuinolonesD. Benzodiazepine antagonistE. Antimycobacterial

The correct answer is: Benzodiazepine antagonist

Question:Class of flunisolide is:

A. AnticonvulsantsB. Autonomic nervous system drugsC. ImmunoglobulinsD. MethylxanthinesE. Glucocorticosteroids

The correct answer is: Glucocorticosteroids

Question:Class of fluvastatin is:

A. PenicillinsB. AntidepressantsC. Beta blockersD. Lipid lowering drugsE. Antivirals

The correct answer is: Lipid lowering drugs

Question:Class of foscarnet is:

A. SulfonamidesB. AntiviralsC. Proton pump inhibitorsD. CephalosporinsE. Aminoglycosides

The correct answer is: Antivirals

Question:Class of fosinopril is:

A. Loop diureticsB. AntidepressantsC. AnticonvulsantsD. AntimycobacterialE. ACE inhibitors


Question:Class of gemfibrozil is:

A. AquareticsB. RetinoidsC. Drugs affecting calcium homeostasisD. AntiviralsE. Lipid lowering drugs

The correct answer is: Lipid lowering drugs Question:Class of griseofulvin is:

A. GlucocorticosteroidsB. Antiplatelet agentsC. AntidepressantsD. Miscellaneous antifungalsE. Autonomic nervous system drugs

The correct answer is: Miscellaneous antifungals

Question:Class of HPMPC is:

A. VasodilatorsB. K sparing diureticsC. AntidepressantsD. AntiviralsE. Ca channel blockers


Question:Class of hydralazine is:

A. AntidepressantsB. AminoglycosidesC. Anti-asthmatic agentsD. AntiviralsE. Vasodilators


Question:Class of hydroflumethiazide is:

A. ThiazidesB. Beta-lactamase inhibitorsC. Loop diureticsD. Oral hypoglycemicsE. Retinoids

The correct answer is: Thiazides

Question:Class of hydromorphone is:

A. Dehydropeptidase I inhibitorsB. AnalgesicsC. Autonomic nervous system drugsD. K sparing diureticsE. Drugs affecting calcium homeostasis


Question:Class of indacrinone is:

A. AntimycobacterialB. Loop diureticsC. Anti-asthmatic agentsD. Anthelmintic agentsE. Antidepressants


Question:Class of indinavir is:

A. Proton pump inhibitorsB. AntiviralsC. Autonomic nervous system drugsD. RetinoidsE. Alkylating agents


Question:Class of interferon alpha is:

A. Inotropic agentsB. Antiplatelet agentsC. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitorsD. Autonomic nervous system drugsE. Interferons

The correct answer is: Interferons

Question:Class of interferon gamma is:

A. Inotropic agentsB. Antiarrhythmic agentsC. InterferonsD. Anti-asthmatic agentsE. Drugs affecting calcium homeostasis

The correct answer is: Interferons

Question:Class of ipratropium bromide is:

A. AntidepressantsB. Procoagulant drugsC. Anti-asthmatic agentsD. GlucocorticosteroidsE. Autonomic nervous system drugs


Question:Class of isoetharine is:

A. GlucocorticosteroidsB. Anti-asthmatic agentsC. AminoglycosidesD. Oral hypoglycemicsE. Methylxanthines


Question:Class of isoniazid is:

A. Loop diureticsB. SulfonamidesC. Oral hypoglycemicsD. AntimycobacterialE. Aminoglycosides


Question:Class of kaolin is:

A. AntiviralsB. Inotropic agentsC. AntidepressantsD. Antidiarrheal agentsE. Anticonvulsants

The correct answer is: Antidiarrheal agents

Question:Class of lansoprazole is:

A. Antithyroid agentsB. K sparing diureticsC. Proton pump inhibitorsD. AntimycobacterialE. Penicillins

The correct answer is: Proton pump inhibitors

Question:Class of lisinopril is:

A. AminoglycosidesB. ACE inhibitorsC. Prokinetic agentsD. Colony stimulating factorsE. Anticonvulsants

The correct answer is: ACE inhibitors

Question:Class of lithium is:

A. AquareticsB. Beta blockersC. VasodilatorsD. Thyroid agentsE. Antidepressants

The correct answer is: Aquaretics

Question:Class of Ludiomil is:

A. AntidepressantsB. AntimycobacterialC. Osmotic diureticsD. Inotropic agentsE. Ca channel blockers


Question:Class of mebendazole is:

A. HydantoinsB. Immunosuppressive agentsC. Antiplatelet agentsD. BarbituratesE. Anthelmintic agents

The correct answer is: Anthelmintic agents

Question:Class of metformin is:

A. CephalosporinsB. PolyenesC. PenicillinsD. ImmunoglobulinsE. Oral hypoglycemics


Question:Class of methacholine is:

A. Antithyroid agentsB. CephalosporinsC. Anti-asthmatic agentsD. Autonomic nervous system drugsE. Beta blockers

The correct answer is: Autonomic nervous system drugs Question:Class of methadone is:

A. Loop diureticsB. BarbituratesC. AnticonvulsantsD. AnalgesicsE. Anthracyclines


Question:Class of methazolamide is:

A. AnticonvulsantsB. Antiarrhythmic agentsC. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitorsD. AntidepressantsE. Beta blockers

The correct answer is: Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

Question:Class of methylcellulose is:

A. AntidepressantsB. Antiarrhythmic agentsC. AnalgesicsD. LaxativesE. Lipid lowering drugs

The correct answer is: Laxatives

Question:Class of metoprolol is:

A. AntimycobacterialB. Anti-asthmatic agentsC. Beta blockersD. Antithyroid agentsE. Antivirals

The correct answer is: Beta blockers

Question:Class of mexiletine is:

A. Antiarrhythmic agentsB. Autonomic nervous system drugsC. Antithyroid agentsD. AntidepressantsE. Anthelmintic agents

The correct answer is: Antiarrhythmic agents Question:Class of moexipril is:

A. Drugs affecting calcium homeostasisB. QuinolonesC. Loop diureticsD. AntidepressantsE. ACE inhibitors

The correct answer is: ACE inhibitors Question:Class of muscarine is:

A. Anti-asthmatic agentsB. AntiviralsC. Antiarrhythmic agentsD. Inotropic agentsE. Autonomic nervous system drugs


Question:Class of muzolimine is:

A. Inotropic agentsB. QuinolonesC. Autonomic nervous system drugsD. AnalgesicsE. Loop diuretics


Question:Class of nafcillin is:

A. PenicillinsB. Anti-asthmatic agentsC. Oral hypoglycemicsD. VasodilatorsE. Autonomic nervous system drugs

The correct answer is: Penicillins Question:Class of nedocromil is:

A. GlucocorticosteroidsB. Beta-lactamase inhibitorsC. AntiviralsD. Anti-asthmatic agentsE. Methylxanthines


Question:Class of nevirapine is:

A. RetinoidsB. Antiplatelet agentsC. ACE inhibitorsD. AntiviralsE. Chloramphenicol


Question:Class of nitrogen mustard is:

A. Alkylating agentsB. ACE inhibitorsC. Drugs affecting calcium homeostasisD. Inotropic agentsE. Vasodilators


Question:Class of nitroglycerin is:

A. SulfonamidesB. Antiarrhythmic agentsC. VasodilatorsD. Monoclonal antibodiesE. Penicillins


Question:Class of nitrosourea is:

A. ACE inhibitorsB. Lipid lowering drugsC. Thyroid agentsD. AntiviralsE. Alkylating agents


Question:Class of nizatidine is:

A. AntidepressantsB. Antiprotozoan agentsC. AnthracyclinesD. H2 antagonistsE. Antiarrhythmic agents


Question:Class of norfloxacin is:

A. SuccinimidesB. PenicillinsC. H2 antagonistsD. QuinolonesE. Anticonvulsants

The correct answer is: Quinolones

Question:Class of Norpramin is:

A. AntimycobacterialB. AminoglycosidesC. AntidepressantsD. Prokinetic agentsE. Autonomic nervous system drugs


Question:Class of nystatin is:

A. AntidepressantsB. AntiviralsC. ACE inhibitorsD. PolyenesE. Prokinetic agents

The correct answer is: Polyenes

Question:Class of OKT-3 is:

A. Autonomic nervous system drugsB. Antiarrhythmic agentsC. QuinolonesD. Antimalarial agentsE. Monoclonal antibodies

The correct answer is: Monoclonal antibodies

Question:Class of ondansetron is:

A. VancomycinB. MacrolidesC. Inotropic agentsD. Antiemetic agentsE. Colony stimulating factors

The correct answer is: Antiemetic agents

Question:Class of ondansetron is:

A. Topoisomerase I inhibitorB. Antiemetic agentsC. AminoglycosidesD. AntiviralsE. Antimalarial agents

The correct answer is: Antiemetic agents

Question:Class of oxacillin is:

A. Autonomic nervous system drugsB. VasodilatorsC. Anti-asthmatic agentsD. PenicillinsE. Antidiarrheal agents


Question:Class of oxycodone is:

A. SedativesB. AnalgesicsC. Beta blockersD. AnticonvulsantsE. Interferons


Question:Class of ozolinone is:

A. PenicillinsB. Autonomic nervous system drugsC. Inotropic agentsD. ACE inhibitorsE. Loop diuretics

The correct answer is: Loop diuretics Question:Class of ozolinone is:

A. AntimycobacterialB. Anti-asthmatic agentsC. Loop diureticsD. K sparing diureticsE. Sulfonamides


Question:Class of paroxetine is:

A. Osmotic diureticsB. Autonomic nervous system drugsC. TetracyclinesD. AntidepressantsE. Anti-asthmatic agents

The correct answer is: Constipation Question:Class of pectin is:

A. LaxativesB. Autonomic nervous system drugsC. Benzodiazepine antagonistD. Antidiarrheal agentsE. Beta blockers

The correct answer is: Antidiarrheal agents

Question:Class of penicillin V is:

A. ACE inhibitorsB. Antiemetic agentsC. AnalgesicsD. K sparing diureticsE. Penicillins


Question:Class of pentamidine is:

A. AntimycobacterialB. AquareticsC. Antithyroid agentsD. Beta blockersE. Antiprotozoan agents

The correct answer is: Antiprotozoan agents

Question:Class of phenelzine is:

A. Colony stimulating factorsB. PenicillinsC. Monoclonal antibodiesD. Autonomic nervous system drugsE. Antidepressants


Question:Class of phenobarbital is:

A. SedativesB. Oral hypoglycemicsC. BarbituratesD. CatharticsE. Benzodiazepines

The correct answer is: Barbiturates Question:Class of phenolphthalein is:

A. CatharticsB. AntiviralsC. AntidepressantsD. ClindamycinE. Benzodiazepines

The correct answer is: Hydrocephalus

Question:Class of phenoxybenzamine is:

A. Topoisomerase I inhibitorB. Oral hypoglycemicsC. Beta blockersD. Antiarrhythmic agentsE. Autonomic nervous system drugs


Question:Class of phenytoin is:

A. AminoglycosidesB. HydantoinsC. SedativesD. BenzodiazepinesE. Quinolones

The correct answer is: Hydantoins Question:Class of phosphorus is:

A. Procoagulant drugsB. AntiviralsC. Anti-asthmatic agentsD. Drugs affecting calcium homeostasisE. Lipid lowering drugs

The correct answer is: Drugs affecting calcium homeostasis Question:Class of physostigmine is:

A. Autonomic nervous system drugsB. CephalosporinsC. Antiarrhythmic agentsD. QuinolonesE. Anti-asthmatic agents

The correct answer is: Autonomic nervous system drugs Question:Class of pindolol is:

A. Autonomic nervous system drugsB. AnticoagulantsC. Antiarrhythmic agentsD. Beta blockersE. Oral hypoglycemics

The correct answer is: beta blockers

Question:Class of piretanide is:

A. ThiazidesB. SedativesC. Loop diureticsD. QuinolonesE. Antimetabolites


Question:Class of praziquantel is:

A. AquareticsB. Anthelmintic agentsC. Anti-asthmatic agentsD. GlucocorticosteroidsE. Antivirals

The correct answer is: Anthelmintic agents

Question:Class of procainamide is:

A. Oral hypoglycemicsB. Beta blockersC. PenicillinsD. Antiarrhythmic agentsE. Antithyroid agents


Question:Class of procaine penicillin is:

A. ChloramphenicolB. K sparing diureticsC. Anti-asthmatic agentsD. BarbituratesE. Penicillins

The correct answer is: Penicillins Question:Class of propafenone is:

A. AntiviralsB. BenzodiazepinesC. Antithyroid agentsD. Antiarrhythmic agentsE. Autonomic nervous system drugs


Question:Class of propylthiouracil is:

A. Antithyroid agentsB. Thyroid agentsC. AnalgesicsD. Autonomic nervous system drugsE. Drugs affecting calcium homeostasis

The correct answer is: Antithyroid agents

Question:Class of Prozac is:

A. Sulfonamides + antifolatesB. Beta blockersC. AntidepressantsD. ACE inhibitorsE. Vasodilators


Question:Class of psyllium is:

A. AntiviralsB. Proton pump inhibitorsC. LaxativesD. Anti-asthmatic agentsE. Interferons

The correct answer is: Laxatives

Question:Class of pyrimethamine is:

A. NSAIDB. Anti-asthmatic agentsC. Antiarrhythmic agentsD. AntifolatesE. Sedatives

The correct answer is: Antifolates

Question:Class of quinapril is:

A. Antithyroid agentsB. Beta blockersC. BenzodiazepinesD. ThiazidesE. ACE inhibitors


Question:Class of ramapril is:

A. AntimetabolitesB. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitorsC. QuinolonesD. ACE inhibitorsE. Penicillins


Question:Class of ranitidine is:

A. ImmunoglobulinsB. AminoglycosidesC. QuinolonesD. AnalgesicsE. H2 antagonists

The correct answer is: H2 antagonists Question:Class of rapamycin is:

A. ACE inhibitorsB. Antiarrhythmic agentsC. AminoglycosidesD. Loop diureticsE. Immunosuppressive agents


Question:Class of recombinant tissue plasminogen activator is:

A. CatharticsB. VasodilatorsC. PenicillinsD. ThrombolyticsE. Quinolones

The correct answer is: Thrombolytics

Question:Class of ritodrine is:

A. Drugs affecting calcium homeostasisB. Antiarrhythmic agentsC. Autonomic nervous system drugsD. Lipid lowering drugsE. Beta blockers


Question:Class of ritodrine is:

A. Antiarrhythmic agentsB. CatharticsC. Beta blockersD. AminoglycosidesE. Autonomic nervous system drugs


Question:Class of salmeterol is:

A. AntimycobacterialB. Anti-asthmatic agentsC. GlucocorticosteroidsD. HydantoinsE. Autonomic nervous system drugs

The correct answer is: Anti-asthmatic agents Question:Class of sargramostim is:

A. PenicillinsB. Autonomic nervous system drugsC. AntiviralsD. AnticonvulsantsE. Colony stimulating factors

The correct answer is: Colony stimulating factors

Question:Class of scopolamine is:

A. GlucocorticosteroidsB. AzolesC. Autonomic nervous system drugsD. Antiarrhythmic agentsE. Beta blockers

The correct answer is: Autonomic nervous system drugs Question:Class of sodium valproate is:

A. SedativesB. Anti-asthmatic agentsC. SulfonamidesD. AnticonvulsantsE. Succinimides

The correct answer is: Anticonvulsants Question:Class of sotalol is:

A. AntidepressantsB. Beta blockersC. Autonomic nervous system drugsD. Antithyroid agentsE. Antiarrhythmic agents

The correct answer is: Antiarrhythmic agents Question:Class of sufentanil is:

A. Autonomic nervous system drugsB. Antidiarrheal agentsC. AnalgesicsD. Drugs affecting calcium homeostasisE. Antiplatelet agents

The correct answer is: Analgesics Question:Class of sulbactam is:

A. Antidiarrheal agentsB. Beta-lactamase inhibitorsC. Antiarrhythmic agentsD. PenicillinsE. Aminoglycosides


Question:Class of sulfasalazine is:

A. AntimycobacterialB. AntiviralsC. SulfonamidesD. Thyroid agentsE. Retinoids

The correct answer is: Sulfonamides Question:Class of tazobactam is:

A. H2 antagonistsB. CephalosporinsC. Osmotic diureticsD. AntidepressantsE. Beta-lactamase inhibitors


Question:Class of terbutaline is:

A. Beta blockersB. CatharticsC. Antiarrhythmic agentsD. Anti-asthmatic agentsE. Inotropic agents


Question:Class of theophylline is:

A. GlucocorticosteroidsB. Oral hypoglycemicsC. Autonomic nervous system drugsD. Anti-asthmatic agentsE. Anticonvulsants

The correct answer is: Anti-asthmatic agent

Question:Class of tocainide is:

A. Inotropic agentsB. PenicillinsC. Autonomic nervous system drugsD. Beta blockersE. Antiarrhythmic agents

The correct answer is: Antiarrhythmic agents Question:Class of Tofranil is:

A. AnalgesicsB. AntiviralsC. Drugs affecting calcium homeostasisD. AntidepressantsE. Antithyroid agents


Question:Class of tramadol is:

A. Topoisomerase I inhibitorB. Vinca alkaloidsC. Antithyroid agentsD. AnalgesicsE. Anti-asthmatic agents

The correct answer is: Analgesics Question:Class of tranylcypromine is:

A. ThrombolyticsB. AnticonvulsantsC. AntidepressantsD. H2 antagonistsE. Autonomic nervous system drugs

The correct answer is: Antidepressants Question:Class of triamcinolone is:

A. BarbituratesB. Anti-asthmatic agentsC. MethylxanthinesD. Autonomic nervous system drugsE. Antimycobacterial


Question:Class of trimipramine is:

A. MacrolidesB. SedativesC. Oral hypoglycemicsD. AnalgesicsE. Antidepressants

The correct answer is: Antidepressants Question:Class of tubocurarine is:

A. VasodilatorsB. Anti-asthmatic agentsC. Autonomic nervous system drugsD. AnticoagulantsE. Antiarrhythmic agents

The correct answer is: Autonomic nervous system drugs Question:Class of valcyclovir is:

A. PenicillinsB. MacrolidesC. AntiviralsD. Drugs affecting calcium homeostasisE. Sulfonamides


Question:Class of vinblastine is:

A. Antiarrhythmic agentsB. Drugs affecting calcium homeostasisC. AnticonvulsantsD. Autonomic nervous system drugsE. Vinca alkaloids

The correct answer is: Vinca alkaloids

Question:Class of vincristine is:

A. MacrolidesB. Vinca alkaloidsC. NonclassifiedD. Lipid lowering drugsE. Vasodilators

The correct answer is: Vinca alkaloids

Question:Class of warfarin is:

A. GlucocorticosteroidsB. Loop diureticsC. AnticoagulantsD. Drugs affecting calcium homeostasisE. Antifolates

The correct answer is: Anticoagulants

Question:Class of zafirlukast is:

A. Ca channel blockersB. GlucocorticosteroidsC. AnthracyclinesD. Autonomic nervous system drugsE. Anti-asthmatic agents


Question:Class of Zoloft is:

A. EpipodophyllotoxinsB. SulfonamidesC. VasodilatorsD. AntidepressantsE. Thiazides


Question:Contraindication of cinoxacin is:

A. DiabetesB. GoutC. Peptic ulcer diseaseD. Diabetes mellitusE. Pregnancy

The correct answer is: Pregnancy

Question:Contraindication of etretinate is:

A. HyperlipidemiaB. Late pregnancyC. GoutD. Childbearing potentialE. Pregnancy

The correct answer is: Childbearing potential

Question:Contraindication of hydrochlorothiazide is:

A. Decreased seizure thresholdB. Childbearing potentialC. HyperlipidemiaD. Liver diseaseE. Pregnancy

The correct answer is: Hyperlipidemia

Question:Contraindication of hydroflumethiazide is:

A. GoutB. PregnancyC. Peptic ulcer diseaseD. Active GI diseaseE. Hearing impairment

The correct answer is: Gout

Question:Contraindication of isotretinoin is:

A. PregnancyB. Diabetes mellitusC. Late pregnancyD. Childbearing potentialE. Active liver disease


Question:Contraindication of lovastatin is:

A. Active GI diseaseB. Active liver diseaseC. Hearing impairmentD. Peptic ulcer diseaseE. Liver disease

The correct answer is: Acute Liver disease Question:Contraindication of metolozone is:

A. Liver diseaseB. Late pregnancyC. Diabetes mellitusD. Dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase deficiencyE. Childbearing potential

The correct answer is: Diabetes mellitus

Question:Contraindication of norfloxacin is:

A. Late pregnancyB. PregnancyC. GoutD. HyperlipidemiaE. Lactation


Question:Contraindication of pravastatin is:

A. HyperlipidemiaB. Peptic ulcer diseaseC. GoutD. Renal diseaseE. Active liver disease

The correct answer is: Active liver disease

Question:Contraindication of warfarin is:

A. Late pregnancyB. Diabetes mellitusC. GoutD. PregnancyE. Peptic ulcer disease


Question:Effect of albuterol is:

A. Decreases total cholesterol by 20-50%B. Enhances mucociliary clearanceC. Decreases intraocular pressureD. Decreases heart rateE. Decreases LDL cholesterol by 25-30%

The correct answer is: Enhances mucociliary clearance Question:Effect of cascara is:

A. May decrease heart rateB. Decreases total cholesterol by 20-50%C. Increases transit timeD. Increases gut motilityE. Decreases heart contractility

The correct answer is: Increases gut motility

Question:Effect of castor oil is:

A. Decreases total cholesterol by 15-25%B. Inhibits propulsionC. Decreases triglycerides by 10-20%D. Enhances smooth muscle motility of proximal GI tractE. Decreases water absorption

The correct answer is: Decreases water absorption

Question:Effect of cimetidine is:

A. May increase triglyceridesB. Suppresses mediator release from pulmonary inflammatory cellsC. Increases fluid secretionD. Inhibits basal gastric acid secretionE. Heart rate decrease

The correct answer is: Inhibits basal gastric acid secretion Question:Effect of disopyramide is:

A. Increases PR intervalB. Decreases LDL cholesterol by 25-30%C. Prolongs APDD. Increases QRS intervalE. Reduces phase IV automaticity

The correct answer is: Reduces phase IV automaticity

Question:Effect of etretinate is:

A. Decreases water absorptionB. Decreases LDL cholesterol by 20-25%C. Relaxes bronchial smooth muscleD. Inhibits neutrophil chemotaxisE. Decreases sebum production

The correct answer is: Inhibits neutrophil chemotaxis Question:Effect of gemfibrozil is:

A. Decreases total cholesterol by 15-25%B. Increases lower esophageal sphincter toneC. Decreases triglycerides by 25-30%D. Decreases neuromuscular excitabilityE. Decreases total cholesterol by 8-12%

The correct answer is: Decreases total cholesterol by 8-12%

Question:Effect of isotretinoin is:

A. Decreases water absorptionB. Reduces fatigueC. Decreases sebum productionD. Increases PR intervalE. Decreases total cholesterol by 20-50%

The correct answer is: Decreases sebum production

Question:Effect of metaclopramide is:

A. beta antagonistB. Increases HDL cholesterol by 2-4%C. Increases lower esophageal sphincter toneD. Decreases heart rateE. beta-1 antagonist

The correct answer is: Increases lower esophageal sphincter tone Question:Effect of nicotinic acid is:

A. Decreases total cholesterol by 8-12%B. May decrease heart rateC. Decreases LDL cholesterol by 15-20%D. Decreases LDL cholesterol by 20-25%E. Increases PR interval

The correct answer is: Decreases LDL cholesterol by 15-20% Question:Effect of phenolphthalein is:

A. Increases HDL cholesterol by 4-8%B. Decreases sebum productionC. Decreases heart contractilityD. Increases fluid secretionE. Increases PR interval

The correct answer is: Increases fluid secretion Question:Effect of procainamide is:

A. Muscarinic antagonistB. Decreases AV conductionC. Decreases arachidonic acid pathway productsD. Increase HDL cholesterol by 10-20%E. beta antagonist

The correct answer is: Muscarinic antagonist Question:Effect of propafenone is:

A. Decreases LDL cholesterol by 25-30%B. Decreases intraocular pressureC. Decreases heart contractilityD. Decreases triglycerides by 10-20%E. Increases QRS interval

The correct answer is: Increases QRS interval

Question:Effect of propranolol is:

A. Muscarinic antagonistB. Decreases water absorptionC. Relaxes bronchial smooth muscleD. Decreases neuromuscular excitabilityE. Reduces phase IV automaticity

The correct answer is: Decreases neuromuscular excitability Question:Effect of propranolol is:

A. Prolongs repolarizationB. Inhibits neutrophil chemotaxisC. beta antagonistD. Decreases LDL cholesterol by 20-25%E. Relaxes bronchial smooth muscle

The correct answer is: beta antagonist

Question:Effect of simvastatin is:

A. Reduces phase IV automaticityB. Decreases total cholesterol by 15-25%C. Increase HDL cholesterol by 10-20%D. Decreases total cholesterol by 8-12%E. Decreases triglycerides by 10-20%

The correct answer is: Decreases triglycerides by 10-20% Question:Effect of terbutaline is:

A. Promotes normal differentiationB. Decreases vascular permeabilityC. May increase triglyceridesD. beta-1 antagonistE. Decreases neuromuscular excitability

The correct answer is: Decreases vascular permeability

Question:Effect of triamcinolone is:

A. Increases HDL cholesterol by 4-8%B. Increases gut motilityC. Suppresses mediator release from pulmonary inflammatory cellsD. Reduces drowsinessE. Relaxes bronchial smooth muscle

The correct answer is: Suppresses mediator release from pulmonary inflammatory cells

Question:Half-life of carbamazepine is:

A. 1.5 daysB. 10 minutesC. 4-20 hoursD. 8 hoursE. 6-12 hours

The correct answer is: 4-20 hours

Question:Half-life of chloroquine is:

A. 7-14 daysB. 7 hoursC. 3 hoursD. 4 hoursE. 7 days

The correct answer is: 7 days

Question:Half-life of clofazimine is:

A. 3 hoursB. 70 daysC. 3-4 hoursD. 16 hoursE. 150 hours

The correct answer is: 70 days

Question:Half-life of etretinate is:

A. 1 minuteB. 24 hoursC. 3-36 hoursD. 60-170 daysE. 150 hours

The correct answer is: 60-170 days

Question:Half-life of furosemide is:

A. 25-35 minutesB. 6-7 hoursC. 6 hoursD. 7-20 hoursE. 1 hour

The correct answer is: 1 hour

Question:Half-life of interferon gamma is:

A. 7 daysB. 1.1 hoursC. 1 hourD. 25-35 minutesE. 4 - 16 hours

The correct answer is: 25-35 minutes Question:Half-life of phenobarbital is:

A. 21 daysB. 24 hoursC. 6-12 hoursD. 2-4 daysE. 40 hours

The correct answer is: 2-4 days Question:Half-life of phenytoin is:

A. 4-20 hoursB. 13-103 days.C. 19 hoursD. 24 hoursE. 6-12 hours

The correct answer is: 24 hours Question:Half-life of vancomycin is:

A. 11 hoursB. 16 hoursC. 2-4 hoursD. 6 hoursE. 100 hours

The correct answer is: 6 hours

Question:Half-life of warfarin is:

A. 1 hourB. 40 hoursC. 60-170 daysD. Variable, depending on the dosageE. 16 hours

The correct answer is: 40 hours

Question:Indication of 131-iodine is:

A. Myoclonic seizuresB. Graves diseaseC. Hypertensive crisisD. GlaucomaE. Endemic goiter

The correct answer is: Graves Disease

Question:Indication of 5-fluorocytosine is:

A. InsomniaB. GlaucomaC. Cryptococcosis (disseminated and meningitis)D. Primary hyperaldosteronism (diagnosis)E. Major depression

The correct answer is: Cryptococcosis (disseminated and meningitis)

Question:Indication of acetaminophen is:

A. HyperaldosteronismB. InflammationC. Cancer chemopreventionD. FeverE. Severe thyrotoxicosis (thyroid crisis)

The correct answer is: Fever

Question:Indication of acetaminophen is:

A. Congestive heart failureB. PainC. InflammationD. Broad spectrum antibacterial agentE. Rheumatic fever

The correct answer is: Pain Question:Indication of adenosine is:

A. Generalized motor seizuresB. Vitamin D deficiency in dietC. Ventricular tachyarrythmias provoked by exerciseD. GlaucomaE. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachyarrhythmias

The correct answer is: Paroxysmal supraventricular tachyarrhythmias

Question:Indication of amoxicillin is:

A. Legionella pneumophilaB. Haemophilus influenzaeC. TuberculosisD. Congestive heart failureE. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

The correct answer is: Haemophilus influenzae

Question:Indication of antacids is:

A. Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)B. Paget's diseaseC. HypertriglyceridemiaD. Major depressionE. Streptococcus pneumoniae

The correct answer is: GERD

Question:Indication of Ascendin is:

A. Major depressionB. Severe heart failureC. Primary hyperparathyroidismD. BabesiaE. Hypercholesterolemia

The correct answer is: Major depression

Question:Indication of atropine is:

A. DecongestantB. Bartter's diseaseC. Topical hair growth stimulationD. Sinus tachycardiaE. Gastric ulcer

The correct answer is: Gastric ulcer Question:Indication of budesonide is:

A. Allergic rhinitisB. Candidiasis (oral, cutaneous, vulvovaginal)C. Myoclonic seizuresD. Neisseria gonorrheaeE. Asthma

The correct answer is: Asthma Question:Indication of calcium is:

A. Defect in vitamin D metabolism/activationB. HypercalcemiaC. HypophosphatemiaD. Vitamin D resistanceE. Vitamin D deficiency in diet

The correct answer is: Vitamin D resistance Question:Indication of camptothecin is:

A. ToxoplasmosisB. Ewing's sarcomaC. Embryonal rhabdomyosarcomaD. Primary hyperaldosteronism (diagnosis)E. Neoplasm

The correct answer is: Neoplasm

Question:Indication of carbachol is:

A. Defect in vitamin D metabolism/activationB. ToxoplasmosisC. Eye surgeryD. Acute hypertensionE. Spasticity in denervation syndromes

The correct answer is: Eye surgery

Question:Indication of carbamazepine is:

A. TuberculosisB. Status epilepticusC. Bipolar disorderD. HypophosphatemiaE. Alcohol withdrawal

The correct answer is: Bipolar disorder

Question:Indication of cinoxacin is:

A. Urinary tract infections by gram-negative bacteriaB. Broad spectrum antibacterial agentC. Mycobacteria other than tuberculosis (MOTT)D. AsthmaE. Idiopathic edema

The correct answer is: Broad spectrum antibacterial agent

Question:Indication of cis-platinum is:

A. Congestive heart failureB. Subarachnoid hemorrageC. Gram-negative bacteriaD. Falciparum malariaE. Neoplasm

The correct answer is: Neoplasm Question:Indication of clarithromycin is:

A. AnginaB. Streptococcus pneumoniaeC. Supraventricular tachyarrhythmiasD. Mycobacteria other than tuberculosis (MOTT)E. Streptococci group A

The correct answer is: Mycobacteria other than tuberculosis (MOTT)

Question:Indication of codeine is:

A. Myocardial ischemiaB. Gastroesophageal reflux diseaseC. CoughD. HypertensionE. Chronic renal disease

The correct answer is: Cough Question:Indication of colestipol is:

A. HypertensionB. HypercholesterolemiaC. Pathologic thrombosisD. Toxic multinodular goiterE. Hypertriglyceridemia

The correct answer is: Hypercholesterolemia

Question:Indication of cromoglycate is:

A. Refractory hypertensionB. AsthmaC. ChlostridiaD. Partial motor seizuresE. Defect in vitamin D metabolism/activation

The correct answer is: Asthma Question:Indication of cyclosporine A is:

A. Idiopathic nephrotic syndromeB. Head and neck cancerC. Partial complex seizuresD. Renal failureE. Myocardial ischemia

The correct answer is: Idiopathic nephrotic syndrome Question:Indication of dapsone is:

A. Mycobacterium lepraeB. Haemophilus ducreiC. Pulmonary hypertensionD. NocardiaE. Legionella pneumophila

The correct answer is: Mycobacterium leprae

Question:Indication of desipramine is:

A. Haemophilus influenzaeB. HypercholesterolemiaC. Diabetes mellitus type IID. TuberculosisE. Major depression


Question:Indication of diazepam is:

A. Hypertensive crisisB. Partial complex seizuresC. Myocardial ischemiaD. Partial motor seizuresE. Insomnia

The correct answer is: Insomnia Question:Indication of digoxin is:

A. Severe volume overload with oliguriaB. ShockC. Severe heart failureD. Congestive heart failureE. Generalized absence seizures

The correct answer is: Congestive heart failure Question:Indication of doxycycline is:

A. Broad spectrum antibacterial agentB. Falciparum malariaC. NeoplasmD. HypercalcemiaE. Water intoxication


Question:Indication of e-aminocaproic acid is:

A. Increased osteolysisB. von Willebrand's diseaseC. Duodenal ulcerD. Mild HemophiliaE. Minor surgical procedures in hemophiliacs

The correct answer is: Minor surgical procedures in hemophiliacs

Question:Indication of EMB is:

A. Tuberculosis (in AIDS patients)B. Ventricular fibrillationC. Mycobacterium lepraeD. TuberculosisE. Lassa fever virus

The correct answer is: Tuberculosis Question:Indication of epinephrine is:

A. HypokalemiaB. Anesthesia (for muscle relaxation)C. Stage frightD. Measurement of bronchial hyperactivity in bronchoscopyE. Local anesthesia

The correct answer is: Local anesthesia Question:Indication of epinephrine is:

A. Stage frightB. TuberculosisC. Anaphylactic shockD. Toxic thyroid adenomaE. GI hyperactivity

The correct answer is: Anaphylactic shock

Question:Indication of erythromycin is:

A. HypercalcemiaB. Neisseria gonorrheaeC. ChlamydiaD. Haemophilus influenzaeE. Streptococci group A

The correct answer is: Streptococci group A

Question:Indication of ethambutol is:

A. TuberculosisB. Mycobacterium lepraeC. NeoplasmD. Haemophilus influenzaeE. Chlostridia

The correct answer is: Tuberculosis

Question:Indication of famciclovir is:

A. Herpes zosterB. HIVC. Influenza AD. Chronic and recurrent urinary tract infectionsE. Angina

The correct answer is: Herpes zoster Question:Indication of fansidar is:

A. Systolic hypertension in the elderlyB. Pneumocystis cariniiC. Raynaud's diseaseD. Acute exacerbations of chronic bronchitis (Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus

influenzae)E. Toxoplasmosis

The correct answer is: Toxoplasmosis

Question:Indication of fentanyl is:

A. Delirium tremorB. Tachyarrhythmias in association with myocardial infarctionC. PainD. Haemophilus influenzaeE. Cough

The correct answer is: Pain

Question:Indication of flunisolide is:

A. Condyloma acuminatumB. Myocardial infarctionC. Allergic rhinitisD. AsthmaE. Central diabetes insipidus

The correct answer is: Asthma Question:Indication of fluoxetine is:

A. Diabetes mellitus type IIB. Water intoxicationC. Major depressionD. TuberculosisE. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

The correct answer is: Major depression Question:Indication of ganciclovir is:

A. Herpes zosterB. Ascaris lumbricoidesC. Cytomegalovirus retinitisD. Ancylostoma duodenaleE. Respiratory syncytial virus

The correct answer is: Cytomegalovirus retinitis Question:Indication of griseofulvin is:

A. Major depressionB. Pulmonary edemaC. HypercholesterolemiaD. DermatophytesE. Lassa fever virus

The correct answer is: Dermatophytes

Question:Indication of imipramine is:

A. ChlostridiaB. Ancylostoma duodenaleC. Neisseria gonorrheaeD. TrematodesE. Major depression


Question:Indication of indinavir is:

A. Rheumatoid arthritisB. Peptic esophageal ulcerC. Influenza AD. HIVE. Herpes zoster

The correct answer is: HIV

Question:Indication of interferon alpha is:

A. NephrolithiasisB. HypertensionC. Eye surgeryD. Condyloma acuminatumE. Chronic granulomatous disease

The correct answer is: Condyloma acuminatum

Question:Indication of interferon alpha is:

A. HydrocephalusB. Kaposi's sarcomaC. Chronic granulomatous diseaseD. HypoparathyroidismE. Angina

The correct answer is: Kaposi's sarcoma Question:Indication of ipratropium bromide is:

A. Herpes simplex virus IIB. AsthmaC. Hereditary prolonged QT syndromeD. Wolff-Parkinson-White syndromeE. Allergic rhinitis

The correct answer is: Asthma

Question:Indication of isoetharine is:

A. Topical hair growth stimulationB. Gastric ulcerC. Allergic rhinitisD. Streptococci group AE. Asthma


Question:Indication of lidocaine is:

A. Cardiac resuscitation for ventricular failureB. Chronic life-threatening ventricular arrhythmias resistant to other drugsC. Raynaud's diseaseD. Bacteroides (other than Bacteroides fragilis)E. Ventricular tachyarrythmias provoked by exercise

The correct answer is: Cardiac resuscitation for ventricular failure

Question:Indication of lithium is:

A. Water intoxicationB. HIVC. Increased osteolysisD. ThyrotoxicosisE. Thyrotoxicosis - preparation for surgery

The correct answer is: water intoxication (or severe thyrotoxicosis)

Question:Indication of loperamide is:

A. SedationB. Herpes simplex virus IIC. Condyloma acuminatumD. DiarrheaE. Pathologic thrombosis

The correct answer is: Diarrhea

Question:Indication of lovastatin is:

A. ChlostridiaB. HypercholesterolemiaC. Head and neck cancerD. Myocardial ischemiaE. Asthma


Question:Indication of mefloquine is:

A. Generalized absence seizuresB. Candidiasis (oropharyngeal, mucocutaneous, esophageal)C. AmebiasisD. Rheumatoid arthritisE. Malaria

The correct answer is: Malaria Question:Indication of meperidine is:

A. Myocardial ischemiaB. Necator americanusC. EdemaD. PainE. Cough

The correct answer is: Pain Question:Indication of milrinone is:

A. ShockB. Partial motor seizuresC. Raynaud's diseaseD. Supraventricular tachyarrhythmiasE. Severe heart failure

The correct answer is: Severe heart failure

Question:Indication of minoxidil is:

A. Myocardial ischemiaB. Generalized motor seizuresC. Neurosurgical anesthesiaD. Topical hair growth stimulationE. Thyrotoxicosis - preparation for radioactive iodine therapy

The correct answer is: Topical hair growth stimulation

Question:Indication of nadolol is:

A. Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia provoked by emotion or exerciseB. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachyarrhythmiasC. NeoplasmD. HypertensionE. Stage fright

The correct answer is: Hypertension

Question:Indication of nalidixic acid is:

A. BlastomycosisB. Gastric ulcerC. ChlostridiaD. Mycobacteria other than tuberculosis (MOTT)E. Broad spectrum antibacterial agent


Question:Indication of nedocromil is:

A. Streptococci group AB. HypercalcemiaC. AsthmaD. Severe volume overload with oliguriaE. Allergic rhinitis

The correct answer is: Asthma Question:Indication of nitroprusside is:

A. Biliary colicB. Chronic renal diseaseC. Aortic dissectionD. ChlamydiaE. Esophageal spasm

The correct answer is: Aortic dissection Question:Indication of nitrosourea is:

A. EdemaB. NeoplasmC. Thyrotoxicosis - preparation for radioactive iodine therapyD. Subarachnoid hemorrhageE. Post myocardial infarction

The correct answer is: Neoplasm

Question:Indication of norepinephrine is:

A. Severe recurrent ventricular tachyarrhythmiasB. MigraineC. NephrolithiasisD. DecongestantE. GI hyperactivity

The correct answer is: Decongestant

Question:Indication of nystatin is:

A. AmebiasisB. Candidiasis (oral, cutaneous, vulvovaginal)C. Disseminated blastomycosisD. DiarrheaE. Disseminated cryptococcosis

The correct answer is: Candidiasis (oral, cutaneous, vulvovaginal)

Question:Indication of OKT-3 is:

A. Symptomatic arrhythmias due to mitral valve prolapseB. AsthmaC. Acute rejection of organ transplantD. Blastomycosis (mild to moderate, in immunocompetent patients)E. Rheumatoid arthritis

The correct answer is: Acute rejection of organ transplant Question:Indication of oxycodone is:

A. Haemophilus ducreiB. CoughC. PainD. Refractory hypertensionE. Failure of formation of vitamin D in skin

The correct answer is: Pain

Question:Indication of phenobarbital is:

A. Lassa fever virusB. Partial motor seizuresC. Partial complex seizuresD. Muscle relaxationE. Prophylaxis of sensitization by Rh antigen

The correct answer is: Partial motor seizures

Question:Indication of phenoxybenzamine is:

A. Migraine prophylaxisB. NephrolithiasisC. PheochromocytomaD. Post myocardial infarctionE. Thyrotoxicosis - preparation for surgery

The correct answer is: Pheochromocytoma Question:Indication of physostigmine is:

A. Systolic hypertension in the elderlyB. Congestive heart failureC. ThyrotoxicosisD. PheochromocytomaE. Atropine poisoning

The correct answer is: Atropine poisoning Question:Indication of pravastatin is:

A. ToxoplasmosisB. Supraventricular tachyarrhythmiasC. Mycobacteria other than tuberculosis (MOTT)D. NocardiaE. Hypercholesterolemia


Question:Indication of primidone is:

A. Generalized absence seizuresB. Sinus tachycardiaC. Mycobacterium lepraeD. Generalized motor seizuresE. Muscle relaxation

The correct answer is: Generalized motor seizures Question:Indication of reserpine is:

A. Vitamin D deficiency in dietB. Sinus tachycardiaC. RicketsD. HypertensionE. Severe recurrent ventricular tachyarrhythmias

The correct answer is: Hypertension

Question:Indication of Rogaine is:

A. MigraineB. Congestive heart failureC. HypoparathyroidismD. Neurosurgical anesthesiaE. Topical hair growth stimulation

The correct answer is: Topical hair growth stimulation

Question:Indication of salbutamol is:

A. AsthmaB. MalariaC. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidusD. Allergic rhinitisE. Hypercholesterolemia

The correct answer is: Asthma Question:Indication of scopolamine is:

A. Increased osteolysisB. HypophosphatemiaC. Eye surgeryD. Measurement of bronchial hyperactivity in bronchoscopyE. Motion sickness

The correct answer is: Motion sickness Question:Indication of simvastatin is:

A. Thyrotoxicosis - preparation for surgeryB. Myocardial ischemiaC. HypertriglyceridemiaD. Idiopathic edemaE. Acute mountain sickness

The correct answer is: Hypertriglyceridemia

Question:Indication of streptokinase is:

A. HypertensionB. Neisseria gonorrheaeC. Streptococcus pneumoniaeD. Hypertensive crisisE. Pathologic thrombosis

The correct answer is: Pathologic thrombosis

Question:Indication of succinylcholine is:

A. Anesthesia (for muscle relaxation)B. Hereditary prolonged QT syndromeC. AsthmaD. HypertensionE. Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia provoked by emotion or exercise

The correct answer is: Anesthesia (for muscle relaxation) Question:Indication of tetracycline is:

A. Diabetes mellitus type IIB. Broad spectrum antibacterial agentC. Failure of formation of vitamin D in skinD. Water intoxicationE. Duodenal ulcer

The correct answer is: Broad spectrum antibacterial agent Question:Indication of ticarcillin is:

A. NocardiaB. Renal failureC. Necator americanusD. Haemophilus influenzaeE. Bipolar disorder

The correct answer is: Haemophilus influenzae

Question:Indication of tocainide is:

A. Acquired neutropenias (chronic idiopathic neutropenia)(investigational)B. Migraine prophylaxisC. Chronic life-threatening ventricular arrhythmias resistant to other drugsD. Symptomatic arrhythmias due to mitral valve prolapseE. Alcohol withdrawal

The correct answer is: Chronic life-threatening ventricular arrhythmias resistant to other drugs

Question:Indication of Tofranil is:

A. Chronic renal diseaseB. CoccidiomycosisC. Amnesia inductionD. Major depressionE. Malaria

The correct answer is: Major depression Question:Indication of tolbutamide is:

A. Pathologic thrombosisB. Superficial mycosesC. Atrial fibrillationD. Hypertensive crisisE. Diabetes mellitus type II

The correct answer is: Diabetes mellitus type II Question:Indication of tramadol is:

A. Paget's diseaseB. CoughC. Ascaris lumbricoidesD. Gram-negative bacteriaE. Pain

The correct answer is: Pain Question:Indication of triamcinolone is:

A. MalariaB. AsthmaC. Allergic rhinitisD. HypertriglyceridemiaE. Increased osteolysis


Question:Indication of triamterene is:

A. NeoplasmB. Systolic hypertension in the elderlyC. EdemaD. HyperaldosteronismE. Spasticity in denervation syndromes

The correct answer is: Edema

Question:Indication of tubocurarine is:

A. Breast cancerB. Ventricular tachyarrythmias provoked by exerciseC. Streptococci group AD. Anesthesia (for muscle relaxation)E. Asthma

The correct answer is: Anesthesia (for muscle relaxation) Question:Indication of vinblastine is:

A. Gram-negative bacteriaB. Acute lymphocytic leukemiaC. Germ cell tumorsD. HypophosphatemiaE. Lymphomas

The correct answer is: Germ cell tumors

Question:Interactions with other drugs of acyclovir is:

A. Phenytoin: stimulates metabolismB. Amphetamine: enhances analgesia, decreases sedationC. Inhibits P450D. Calcitonin: increases renal excretionE. probenecid: decreases renal elimination -> increases half-life

The correct answer is: probenecid: decreases renal elimination -> increases half-life Question:Interactions with other drugs of amikacin is:

A. succinylcholine - augments neuromucsular paralysisB. MAO inhibitors: increase hyperpyrexia, excitation, delirium, seizures.C. Antihistamines: enhance analgesiaD. beta-lactam antibiotics - synergismE. Inhibits P450

The correct answer is: beta-lactam antibiotics - synergism

Question:Interactions with other drugs of amiodarone is:

A. Inhibits metabolism of all oxidatively metabolized drugsB. Cimetidine: decreases renal clearanceC. Indomethacin: decreases potencyD. Phenytoin: stimulates metabolismE. Aluminum hydroxide gel: decreases absorption

The correct answer is: Inhibits metabolism of all oxidatively metabolized drugs

Question:Interactions with other drugs of ansamycin is:

A. Induces P450B. ethacrynic acid - augments ototoxicityC. cyclosporin - augments nephrotoxicityD. Calciferols: increase absorptionE. Phenothiazines: enhance analgesia, respiratory depression, sedation, hypotension

The correct answer is: Induces P450

Question:Interactions with other drugs of calcium is:

A. Aspirin (high doses): decreases potencyB. Growth hormone: decreases renal excretionC. amphotericin B - augments nephrotoxicityD. Glucocorticoids: increase renal excretionE. Ethanol: decreases absorption

The correct answer is: Ethanol: decreases absorption

Question:Interactions with other drugs of cimetidine is:

A. sympathomimeticsB. Phenothiazines: enhance analgesia, respiratory depression, sedation, hypotensionC. Inhibits P450D. Desipramine: enhances analgesiaE. Glucocorticoids: increase renal excretion

The correct answer is: Inhibits P450 Question:Interactions with other drugs of diazepam is:

A. Acetazolamide: increases renal excretionB. NSAID: enhance analgesiaC. Oral contraceptives: inhibit metabolismD. meperidineE. tubocurarine - augments neuromuscular paralysis

The correct answer is: Oral contraceptives: inhibit metabolism

Question:Interactions with other drugs of digitoxin is:

A. Cimetidine: inhibits metabolismB. Indomethacin: decreases potencyC. Vasodilators: augment hypotensionD. Antibiotics: increase serum concentrationE. Phenothiazines: enhance analgesia, respiratory depression, sedation, hypotension

The correct answer is: Antibiotics: increase serum concentration

Question:Interactions with other drugs of fentanyl is:

A. cyclosporin - augments nephrotoxicityB. Inhibits P450C. Desipramine: enhances analgesiaD. Rifampin: stimulates metabolismE. MAO inhibitors: increase hyperpyrexia, excitation, delirium, seizures.

The correct answer is: Desipramine: enhances analgesia Question:Interactions with other drugs of furosemide is:

A. Loop diuretics: increase renal excretionB. Propranolol: inhibits activationC. Increases cardiac glycoside plasma levelsD. Aminoglycosides: augment hearing impairmentE. Indomethacin: decreases potency

The correct answer is: Indomethacin: decreases potency Question:Interactions with other drugs of hydromorphone is:

A. Beta blockers: offset increase in heart contractilityB. MAO inhibitors: increase hyperpyrexia, excitation, delirium, seizures.C. Rifampin: stimulates metabolismD. Lactose: increases absorptionE. Phenothiazines: enhance analgesia, respiratory depression, sedation, hypotension

The correct answer is: Phenothiazines: enhance analgesia, respiratory depression, sedation, hypotension Question:Interactions with other drugs of hydromorphone is:

A. Phenytoin: stimulates metabolismB. Desipramine: enhances analgesiaC. Increases carbamazepine plasma levelsD. Rifampin: stimulates metabolismE. Estrogens: decrease renal excretion

The correct answer is: Desipramine: enhances analgesia

Question:Interactions with other drugs of methadone is:

A. Vasodilators: augment hypotensionB. PALA augments therapeutic effect by inhibiting de novo synthesis of pyrimidine

precursorsC. Rifampin: stimulates metabolismD. Carbamazepine: stimulates metabolismE. MAO inhibitors: increase hyperpyrexia, excitation, delirium, seizures.

The correct answer is: Rifampin: stimulates metabolism

Question:Interactions with other drugs of mexiletine is:

A. Inhibits metabolism of all oxidatively metabolized drugsB. Amiodarone: inhibits activationC. Increases digoxin serum levelsD. Antiseizure drugs: stimulate metabolismE. Phenytoin: stimulates metabolism

The correct answer is: Phenytoin: stimulates metabolism Question:Interactions with other drugs of oxycodone is:

A. Cimetidine: inhibits metabolismB. Phenytoin: stimulates metabolismC. Ca channel blockersD. MAO inhibitors: increase hyperpyrexia, excitation, delirium, seizures.E. Desipramine: enhances analgesia

The correct answer is: Desipramine: enhances analgesia

Question:Interactions with other drugs of procainamide is:

A. Decreases theophylline clearanceB. Cimetidine: inhibits metabolismC. Cimetidine: decreases renal clearanceD. Inhibits metabolism of all oxidatively metabolized drugsE. Increases carbamazepine plasma levels

The correct answer is: Cimetidine: decreases renal clearance

Question:Interactions with other drugs of rifabutin is:

A. cis-platinum - augments nephrotoxicityB. Induces P450C. Amiloride: decrease renal excretionD. amphotericin B - augments nephrotoxicityE. Rifampin - augments hepatotoxicity

The correct answer is: Induces P450

Question:Interactions with other drugs of sulfisoxazole is:

A. Increases quinidine plasma levelsB. NSAID: enhance analgesiaC. Usually used in combination with pyrimethamine for treatment of malaria and

toxoplasmosisD. Displaces tolbutamide from carrier proteins - hypoglycemiaE. Decreases theophylline clearance

The correct answer is: Displaces tolbutamide from carrier proteins - hypoglycemia

Question:Interactions with other drugs of tranylcypromine is:

A. Ethanol: potentiates CNS toxicityB. Decreases theophylline clearanceC. buspironeD. Iron: decreases absorptionE. Increases warfarin serum levels

The correct answer is: buspirone

Question:Interactions with other drugs of trimethoprim is:

A. Ca channel blockersB. succinylcholine - augments neuromucsular paralysisC. tubocurarine - augments neuromuscular paralysisD. Ethanol: potentiates CNS toxicityE. Usually used in combination with sulfomethoxazole

The correct answer is: Usually used in combination with sulfomethoxazole

Question:Interactions with other drugs of verapamil is:

A. tubocurarine - augments neuromuscular paralysisB. Increases carbamazepine plasma levelsC. Increases digoxin serum levelsD. probenecid: decreases renal elimination -> increases half-lifeE. Increases cyclosporine A plasma levels

The correct answer is: Increases carbamazepine plasma levels

Question:Mechanism of action of 5-fluorocytosine is:

A. Blocks sustained repetitive neuronal firingB. Inhibits Na-K-2Cl transporterC. Induces RNA mistranslationsD. Muscarinic agonistE. Inhibits angiotensin converting enzyme

The correct answer is: Induces RNA mistranslations

Question:Mechanism of action of acetaminophen is:

A. Inhibits dihydropteroate synthetaseB. beta antagonistC. Inhibits hepatic gluconeogenesisD. Induces RNA mistranslationsE. Inhibits cyclooxygenase

The correct answer is: Inhibits cyclooxygenase

Question:Mechanism of action of acetazolamide is:

A. Opiate agonistB. Lowers surface tension of stool facilitating penetration of water and fatsC. Inhibits calcineurinD. Inhibits carbonic anhydraseE. Inhibits binding of aminoacyl-tRNA to ribosome A site

The correct answer is: Inhibits carbonic anhydrase

Question:Mechanism of action of acyclovir is:

A. Blocks sustained repetitive neuronal firingB. Inhibits viral DNA polymerase.C. Inhibits viral DNA polymeraseD. Inhibits angiotensin converting enzymeE. Inhibits herpesvirus DNA polymerase

The correct answer is: Inhibits viral DNA polymerase

Question:Mechanism of action of alendronate is:

A. Inhibits macrophagesB. Raises intracellular cAMP in osteoclastsC. Activates plasminogenD. Inhibits transpeptidaseE. Directly damages cell membrane (at higher doses)

The correct answer is: Inhibits macrophages

Question:Mechanism of action of amoxapine is:

A. serotonin reuptake inhibitorB. Muscarinic agonistC. Inhibits monoamine oxidaseD. Competitively inhibits H2 receptorsE. monoamine reuptake inhibitor

The correct answer is: monoamine reuptake inhibitor

Question:Mechanism of action of amphotericin B is:

A. Binds to ergosterol in cell membrane resulting in formation of poresB. Allosterically enhances GABAergic inhibitionC. Inhibits calcineurinD. beta-2 agonistE. Binds to ergosterol in cell membrane resulting in formation of pores.

The correct answer is: Binds to ergosterol in cell membrane resulting in formation of pores

Question:Mechanism of action of amrinone is:

A. beta agonistB. Inhibits Na/K ATPaseC. Inactivates pepsinD. Inhibits hepatic gluconeogenesisE. Inhibits phosphodiesterase III

The correct answer is: Inhibits phosphodiesterase III

Question:Mechanism of action of aspirin is:

A. alpha antagonistB. Calcium L-channel antagonistC. Inhibits reverse transcriptaseD. Inhibits renal epithelial Na channelsE. Inhibits cyclooxygenase


Question:Mechanism of action of atenolol is:

A. Inhibits Na-Cl transporterB. Stimulates guanylate cyclaseC. beta agonistD. Muscarinic antagonistE. beta-1 antagonist

The correct answer is: beta-1 antagonist Question:Mechanism of action of Aventil is:

A. Leukotriene antagonistB. Inhibits DNA qyraseC. serotonin reuptake inhibitorD. Inhibits monoamine oxidaseE. monoamine reuptake inhibitor

The correct answer is: monoamine reuptake inhibitor Question:Mechanism of action of AZT is:

A. Inhibits viral DNA polymeraseB. Inhibits dihydropteroate synthetaseC. Interferes with parasite's energy generationD. Inhibits reverse transcriptaseE. Inhibits viral DNA polymerase.

The correct answer is: Inhibits reverse transcriptase Question:Mechanism of action of benzathine penicillin is:

A. Inhibits reduction of oxidized vitamin KB. Induces "freezing" of initiation complexC. Stimulates guanylate cyclaseD. muscarinic antagonistE. Inhibits transpeptidase

The correct answer is: Inhibits transpeptidase Question:Mechanism of action of captopril is:

A. beta-1 antagonistB. Inhibits phospholipase A2C. Stimulates basal insulin secretionD. Inhibits angiotensin converting enzymeE. Inhibits monoamine oxidase

The correct answer is: Inhibits angiotensin converting enzyme

Question:Mechanism of action of carbamazepine is:

A. Mitotic spindle poisonB. Allosterically enhances GABAergic inhibitionC. Alkylation of DNAD. Reduces L-glutamate-mediated excitationE. Blocks sustained repetitive neuronal firing

The correct answer is: Blocks sustained repetitive neuronal firing

Question:Mechanism of action of carbenicillin is:

A. Inhibits macrophagesB. Potassium channel agonistC. Inhibits angiotensin converting enzymeD. Forms methemoglobinE. Inhibits transpeptidase

The correct answer is: Inhibits transpeptidase Question:Mechanism of action of cefixime is:

A. alpha antagonistB. dopamine antagonistC. Inhibits organification of iodine by thyroid glandD. Inhibits transpeptidaseE. Reduces calcium influx into neurons

The correct answer is: Inhibits transpeptidase Question:Mechanism of action of cefotaxime is:

A. Compete for Fc receptors with autoantibodiesB. Reduces calcium influx into neuronsC. Opsonization and phagocytosis of T lymphocytesD. Blocks K channelsE. Inhibits transpeptidase

The correct answer is: Inhibits transpeptidase

Question:Mechanism of action of cefotaxime is:

A. Binds to ergosterol in cell membrane resulting in formation of pores.B. Inhibits transpeptidaseC. Opiate agonistD. beta-2 agonistE. Blocks K channels

The correct answer is: Inhibits transpeptidase Question:Mechanism of action of ceftazidime is:

A. Inhibits monoamine oxidaseB. Stimulates guanylate cyclaseC. Inhibits phospholipase CD. Inhibits ergosterol synthesisE. Inhibits transpeptidase

The correct answer is: Inhibits transpeptidase Question:Mechanism of action of cefuroxime is:

A. Allosterically enhances GABAergic inhibitionB. Inhibits transpeptidaseC. beta-2 agonistD. Potassium channel agonistE. Inhibits topoisomerase II


Question:Mechanism of action of cephalexin is:

A. Inhibits DNA gyraseB. Lowers surface tension of stool facilitating penetration of water and fatsC. Interferes with parasite's energy generationD. Adenosine antagonistE. Inhibits transpeptidase


Question:Mechanism of action of cephazolin is:

A. alpha antagonistB. Inhibits transpeptidaseC. Inhibits herpesvirus DNA polymeraseD. H1 antagonistE. Inhibits Na-K-2Cl transporter


Question:Mechanism of action of chloroquine is:

A. Inhibits bone resorptionB. Inhibits reabsorption of bile acidsC. Muscarinic antagonistD. Inhibits peptidyl transferaseE. Unknown

The correct answer is: Unknown

Question:Mechanism of action of cilastin is:

A. Inhibits dehydropeptidase IB. Induces "freezing" of initiation complexC. Inhibits viral DNA polymeraseD. Opiate agonistE. Disrupts microtubules

The correct answer is: Inhibits dehydropeptidase I

Question:Mechanism of action of cimetidine is:

A. Competitively inhibits H2 receptorsB. Inhibits mycolic acid synthesisC. Inhibits monoamine oxidaseD. Inhibits transpeptidaseE. Interferes with parasite's energy generation

The correct answer is: Competitively inhibits H2 receptors

Question:Mechanism of action of clarithromycin is:

A. Inhibits bone resorptionB. opiate agonistC. Inhibits glycolysisD. Blocks sustained repetitive neuronal firingE. Inhibits translocase

The correct answer is: Inhibits translocase Question:Mechanism of action of clavulanate is:

A. Inhibits beta-lactamaseB. Inhibits DNA gyraseC. Inhibits reverse transcriptaseD. Inhibits dihydrofolate reductaseE. monoamine reuptake inhibitor

The correct answer is: Inhibits beta-lactamase

Question:Mechanism of action of clofazimine is:

A. Induces translation misreadingsB. Potentiates glucose-mediated insulin secretionC. inhibits topoisomerase ID. Inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesisE. Unknown


Question:Mechanism of action of codeine is:

A. opiate agonistB. inhibits topoisomerase IC. Reduces calcium influx into neuronsD. Disrupts microtubulesE. Induces translation misreadings

The correct answer is: opiate agonist

Question:Mechanism of action of curare is:

A. UnknownB. Competitively inhibits H2 receptorsC. Non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockerD. beta-2 agonistE. Blocks catecholamine uptake by axonal terminal

The correct answer is: Non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocker

Question:Mechanism of action of cyclophosphamide is:

A. Alkylation of DNAB. Inhibits phosphodiesteraseC. Synthetic hormoneD. Inhibits transpeptidaseE. Induces translation misreadings

The correct answer is: Alkylation of DNA

Question:Mechanism of action of cycloserine is:

A. Substitution for patient's defiecient immunoglobulinsB. Muscarinic agonistC. Induces translation misreadingsD. UnknownE. Inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis

The correct answer is: Inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis

Question:Mechanism of action of cytoxan is:

A. Induces translation misreadingsB. Activates plasminogenC. Inhibits inosine monophosphate dehydrogenaseD. Irradiates and destroys thyroid glandE. Alkylation of DNA

The correct answer is: Alkylation of DNA

Question:Mechanism of action of desipramine is:

A. Inhibits DNA gyraseB. Stimulates synthesis of hepatic LDL receptorC. Inhibits monoamine oxidaseD. dopamine antagonistE. alpha antagonist

The correct answer is: alpha antagonist Question:Mechanism of action of dicloxacillin is:

A. Mitotic spindle poisonB. Inhibits phospholipase A2C. Inhibits translocaseD. Induces "freezing" of initiation complexE. Inhibits transpeptidase


Question:Mechanism of action of digoxin is:

A. Inhibits phosphodiesterase IIIB. Blocks K channelsC. beta agonistD. Inhibits mycolic acid synthesisE. Inhibits Na/K ATPase

The correct answer is: Inhibits Na/K ATPase

Question:Mechanism of action of diltiazem is:

A. Increases peripheral tissues sensitivity to insulinB. Calcium L-channel antagonistC. Blocks Na channelsD. Potassium channel agonistE. Opsonization and phagocytosis of T lymphocytes

The correct answer is: Allergic reactions

Question:Mechanism of action of disopyramide is:

A. Inhibits T4 to T3 conversionB. Inhibits transpeptidaseC. beta-1 antagonistD. beta antagonistE. Blocks Na channels

The correct answer is: Blocks Na channels

Question:Mechanism of action of doxepin is:

A. Inhibits phospholipase A2B. Inhibits monoamine oxidaseC. Potentiates glucose-mediated insulin secretionD. alpha antagonistE. serotonin reuptake inhibitor

The correct answer is: alpha antagonist

Question:Mechanism of action of doxycycline is:

A. monoamine reuptake inhibitorB. Inhibits ADH actionC. alpha antagonistD. Inhibits binding of aminoacyl-tRNA to ribosome A siteE. Inhibits nucleoside uptake

The correct answer is: Inhibits binding of aminoacyl-tRNA to ribosome A site

Question:Mechanism of action of enoxacin is:

A. Inhibits angiotensin converting enzymeB. Stimulates synthesis of hepatic LDL receptorC. Inhibits transpeptidaseD. Inhibits DNA gyraseE. Inhibits DNA qyrase

The correct answer is: Inhibits DNA gyrase

Question:Mechanism of action of epinephrine is:

A. Induces "freezing" of initiation complexB. Depolarizing neuromuscular blockerC. Adrenergic agonistD. UnknownE. Muscarinic agonist

The correct answer is: Adrenergic agonist Question:Mechanism of action of etidronate is:

A. Adrenergic agonistB. Increases catecholamine levelsC. Inhibits macrophagesD. Raises intracellular cAMP in osteoclastsE. Inhibits bone resorption

The correct answer is: Inhibits bone resorption

Question:Mechanism of action of famotidine is:

A. Inhibits viral proteaseB. Inhibits Na-Cl transporterC. Inhibits bone resorptionD. Competitively inhibits H2 receptorsE. Inhibits viral uncoating


Question:Mechanism of action of fentanyl is:

A. opiate agonistB. beta antagonistC. Activates plasminogenD. Inhibits Na-Cl transporterE. Inhibits platelet aggregation at high concentrations


Question:Mechanism of action of fluconazole is:

A. Inhibits ergosterol synthesisB. Inhibits transpeptidaseC. Inhibits viral DNA polymeraseD. Opsonization and phagocytosis of T lymphocytesE. Reduces calcium influx into neurons

The correct answer is: Inhibits ergosterol synthesis Question:Mechanism of action of flunisolide is:

A. Inhibits iodine uptake by thyroid glandB. Irreversibly inhibits H/K-ATPaseC. beta-2 agonistD. Inhibits phospholipase A2E. Inhibits phosphodiesterase

The correct answer is: Inhibits phospholipase A2 Question:Mechanism of action of foscarnet is:

A. Inhibits HIV reverse transcriptaseB. Inhibits phospholipase A2C. Inhibits inosine monophosphate dehydrogenaseD. Inhibits viral DNA polymerase.E. Serotonin antagonist

The correct answer is: Inhibits HIV reverse transcriptase

Question:Mechanism of action of foscavir is:

A. Inhibits viral proteaseB. serotonin reuptake inhibitorC. Inhibits mRNA cappingD. Inhibits reverse transcriptaseE. Inhibits HIV reverse transcriptase

The correct answer is: Inhibits HIV reverse transcriptase

Question:Mechanism of action of furosemide is:

A. Calcium L-channel antagonistB. Irradiates and destroys thyroid glandC. Inhibits Na-K-2Cl transporterD. muscarinic antagonistE. Inhibits DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

The correct answer is: Inhibits Na-K-2Cl transporter

Question:Mechanism of action of griseofulvin is:

A. Inhibits activation of GPIIb/IIIaB. Disrupts microtubulesC. Blocks sustained repetitive neuronal firingD. Inhibits phospholipase A2E. Stimulates guanylate cyclase

The correct answer is: Disrupts microtubules

Question:Mechanism of action of hydralazine is:

A. Damages mitochondrial DNAB. Potassium channel agonistC. Binds to 30S subunit of bacterial ribosomeD. Stimulates guanylate cyclaseE. Unknown


Question:Mechanism of action of hydrochlorothiazide is:

A. Inhibits peptidyl transferaseB. Inhibits calcineurinC. monoamine reuptake inhibitorD. Inhibits Na-Cl transporterE. Stimulates synthesis of hepatic LDL receptor

The correct answer is: Inhibits Na-Cl transporter

Question:Mechanism of action of hydromorphone is:

A. Allosterically enhances GABAergic inhibitionB. beta-2 agonistC. opiate agonistD. Inhibits dihydrofolate reductaseE. Inhibits T4 to T3 conversion

The correct answer is: opiate agonist Question:Mechanism of action of indinavir is:

A. Inhibits reverse transcriptaseB. Inhibits dihydropteroate synthetaseC. Inhibits viral uncoatingD. Inhibits viral proteaseE. Inhibits topoisomerase II

The correct answer is: Inhibits viral protease Question:Mechanism of action of ipratropium bromide is:

A. Enhances presynaptic release of GABAB. Induces RNA mistranslationsC. muscarinic antagonistD. Inhibits phospholipase A2E. Increases catecholamine levels

The correct answer is: muscarinic antagonist

Question:Mechanism of action of isoniazid is:

A. Inhibits Na-Cl transporterB. Inhibits glycolysisC. Inhibits transpeptidaseD. Inhibits dihydropteroate synthetaseE. Induces "freezing" of initiation complex

The correct answer is: Usually used in combination with sulfomethoxazole

Question:Mechanism of action of lansoprazole is:

A. Inhibits Na-K-2Cl transporterB. Reduces calcium influx into neuronsC. alpha antagonistD. beta-2 agonistE. Irreversibly inhibits H/K-ATPase

The correct answer is: Irreversibly inhibits H/K-ATPase

Question:Mechanism of action of mannitol is:

A. Aldosterone antagonistB. Osmotic diureticC. Competitively inhibits H2 receptorsD. UnknownE. Inhibits phospholipase C

The correct answer is: Osmotic diuretic

Question:Mechanism of action of metaclopramide is:

A. Inhibits Na-K-2Cl transporterB. Inhibits Na-Cl transporterC. serotonin reuptake inhibitorD. Inhibits transpeptidaseE. Promotes release of acetylcholine

The correct answer is: Promotes release of acetylcholine Question:Mechanism of action of methylcellulose is:

A. Directly damages cell membrane (at higher doses)B. Non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockerC. Holds water in stoolD. Lowers surface tension of stool facilitating penetration of water and fatsE. opiate agonist

The correct answer is: Holds water in stool

Question:Mechanism of action of metoprolol is:

A. Inhibits T4 to T3 conversionB. alpha antagonistC. beta-1 antagonistD. Blocks K channelsE. Lowers surface tension of stool facilitating penetration of water and fats

The correct answer is: beta-1 antagonist

Question:Mechanism of action of muscarine is:

A. Inhibits viral DNA polymeraseB. Muscarinic agonistC. Inhibits cholesterol synthesisD. beta-2 agonistE. beta-1 antagonist

The correct answer is: Muscarinic agonist

Question:Mechanism of action of norepinephrine is:

A. Muscarinic agonistB. Potentiates glucose-mediated insulin secretionC. beta-2 agonistD. alpha-agonistE. Inhibits RNA-dependent RNA polymerase

The correct answer is: alpha-agonist Question:Mechanism of action of norfloxacin is:

A. Being positively charged, binds and inactivates negatively-charged heparin.B. Inhibits DNA qyraseC. Reduces L-glutamate-mediated excitationD. Inhibits transpeptidaseE. Inhibits DNA gyrase

The correct answer is: Inhibits DNA gyrase Question:Mechanism of action of Norpramin is:

A. alpha antagonistB. serotonin reuptake inhibitorC. Reduces calcium influx into neuronsD. Inhibits monoamine oxidaseE. Inhibits cyclooxygenase


Question:Mechanism of action of nystatin is:

A. monoamine reuptake inhibitorB. Blocks K channelsC. Binds to ergosterol in cell membrane resulting in formation of poresD. beta-2 agonistE. Binds to ergosterol in cell membrane resulting in formation of pores.

The correct answer is: Binds to ergosterol in cell membrane resulting in formation of pores.

Question:Mechanism of action of oxacillin is:

A. Inhibits Na/K ATPaseB. Inhibits ergosterol synthesisC. muscarinic antagonistD. Inhibits transpeptidaseE. Inhibits cholesterol synthesis


Question:Mechanism of action of oxacillin is:

A. Binds to 30S subunit of bacterial ribosomeB. beta-1 antagonistC. beta antagonistD. beta-2 agonistE. Inhibits transpeptidase


Question:Mechanism of action of oxycodone is:

A. Anti-idiotype antibodies against autoantibodiesB. Competitively inhibits H2 receptorsC. opiate agonistD. inhibits topoisomerase IE. Inhibits beta-lactamase


Question:Mechanism of action of ozolinone is:

A. Inhibits Na-K-2Cl transporterB. alpha antagonistC. opiate agonistD. Inhibits angiotensin converting enzymeE. Benzodiazepine antagonist

The correct answer is: Inhibits Na-K-2Cl transporter Question:Mechanism of action of Paxil is:

A. Muscarinic agonistB. serotonin reuptake inhibitorC. monoamine reuptake inhibitorD. Blocks sustained repetitive neuronal firingE. alpha antagonist

The correct answer is: serotonin reuptake inhibitor

Question:Mechanism of action of penicillin V is:

A. Inhibits platelet aggregation at high concentrationsB. opiate agonistC. Induces "freezing" of initiation complexD. Activates plasminogenE. Inhibits transpeptidase


Question:Mechanism of action of phenoxybenzamine is:

A. Inhibits phosphodiesteraseB. Muscarinic antagonistC. beta-2 agonistD. alpha antagonistE. Reduces peripheral insulin resistance


Question:Mechanism of action of phenytoin is:

A. muscarinic antagonistB. Reduces calcium influx into neuronsC. Reduces L-glutamate-mediated excitationD. Inhibits viral uncoatingE. Allosterically enhances GABAergic inhibition

The correct answer is: Reduces calcium influx into neurons Question:Mechanism of action of procainamide is:

A. beta-1 antagonistB. Inhibits T4 to T3 conversionC. monoamine reuptake inhibitorD. beta antagonistE. Blocks Na channels


Question:Mechanism of action of propranolol is:

A. beta-1 antagonistB. Being positively charged, binds and inactivates negatively-charged heparin.C. opiate agonistD. Blocks Na channelsE. beta antagonist

The correct answer is: beta antagonist

Question:Mechanism of action of Prozac is:

A. UnknownB. monoamine reuptake inhibitorC. H1 antagonistD. Inhibits translocaseE. serotonin reuptake inhibitor


Question:Mechanism of action of ranitidine is:

A. Inhibits transpeptidaseB. Inhibits angiotensin converting enzymeC. Competitively inhibits H2 receptorsD. Allosterically enhances GABAergic inhibitionE. Promotes release of acetylcholine


Question:Mechanism of action of salmeterol is:

A. Inhibits organification of iodine by thyroid glandB. Inhibits phospholipase CC. Inhibits phospholipase A2D. beta-2 agonistE. Inhibits calcineurin

The correct answer is: beta-2 agonist

Question:Mechanism of action of scopolamine is:

A. beta-1 antagonistB. beta antagonistC. Inhibits dihydropteroate synthetaseD. Muscarinic antagonistE. Acetylcholinesterase carbamate inhibitor

The correct answer is: Muscarinic antagonist

Question:Mechanism of action of sertraline is:

A. H1 antagonistB. Inhibits Na-Cl transporterC. Stimulates guanylate cyclaseD. serotonin reuptake inhibitorE. alpha antagonist


Question:Mechanism of action of sodium valproate is:

A. Inhibits binding of aminoacyl-tRNA to ribosome A siteB. Enhances presynaptic release of GABAC. Allosterically enhances GABAergic inhibitionD. Reduces L-glutamate-mediated excitationE. Enhances effects of catecholamines

The correct answer is: Enhances presynaptic release of GABA

Question:Mechanism of action of sulbactam is:

A. Inhibits hydroxyapatite crystal formation, aggregation, and dissolutionB. Alkylation of DNAC. serotonin reuptake inhibitorD. Inhibits DNA gyraseE. Inhibits beta-lactamase

The correct answer is: Inhibits beta-lactamase Question:Mechanism of action of sulfasalazine is:

A. beta-1 antagonistB. Inhibits cyclooxygenaseC. muscarinic antagonistD. beta agonistE. Inhibits phospholipase A2


Question:Mechanism of action of terbutaline is:

A. Inhibits phospholipase A2B. Inhibits reabsorption of bile acidsC. Inhibits dihydropteroate synthetaseD. Non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockerE. beta-2 agonist

The correct answer is: beta-2 agonist

Question:Mechanism of action of tetracycline is:

A. Inhibits binding of aminoacyl-tRNA to ribosome A siteB. Inhibits ADH actionC. Induces catecholamine release from axonal terminalD. Lowers surface tension of stool facilitating penetration of water and fatsE. Inhibits angiotensin converting enzyme

The correct answer is: Inhibits binding of aminoacyl-tRNA to ribosome A site

Question:Mechanism of action of tocainide is:

A. beta antagonistB. muscarinic antagonistC. Blocks Na channelsD. Inhibits phospholipase A2E. Blocks K channels


Question:Mechanism of action of tramadol is:

A. opiate agonistB. Raises intracellular cAMP in osteoclastsC. Allosterically enhances GABAergic inhibitionD. Inhibits beta-lactamaseE. Inhibits angiotensin converting enzyme


Question:Mechanism of action of triamcinolone is:

A. beta-2 agonistB. muscarinic antagonistC. Inhibits Na-K-2Cl transporterD. Inhibits phospholipase CE. Increases catecholamine levels

The correct answer is: Inhibits phospholipase C

Question:Mechanism of action of trimethoprim is:

A. Binds to 30S subunit of bacterial ribosomeB. Inhibits dihydrofolate reductaseC. Inhibits cyclooxygenaseD. Inhibits transpeptidaseE. Potassium channel agonist

The correct answer is: Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase

Question:Mechanism of action of valcyclovir is:

A. Inhibits viral DNA polymerase.B. Inhibits viral proteaseC. Inhibits inosine monophosphate dehydrogenaseD. beta agonistE. Induces release of stored factor VIII and von Willebrand factor

The correct answer is: Inhibits viral DNA polymerase.

Question:Mechanism of action of vancomycin is:

A. Inhibits reduction of oxidized vitamin KB. Inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesisC. alpha antagonistD. Inhibits organification of iodine by thyroid glandE. Stimulates basal insulin secretion

The correct answer is: Inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis

Question:Mechanism of action of vinblastine is:

A. Inhibits RNA-dependent RNA polymeraseB. monoamine reuptake inhibitorC. Reduces calcium influx into neuronsD. GM-CSFE. Mitotic spindle poison

The correct answer is: Mitotic spindle poison

Question:Mechanism of action of warfarin is:

A. Stimulates lipoprotein lipaseB. Inhibits platelet aggregation at high concentrationsC. Inhibits reduction of oxidized vitamin KD. Activates heparin cofactor II which inhibits thrombin (at high concentrations)E. Blocks Na channels

The correct answer is: Inhibits reduction of oxidized vitamin K

Question:Mechanism of resistance of amikacin is:

A. Increased synthesis of normal precursors of dUMPB. ToleranceC. Increased synthesis of thymidilate synthaseD. Increased synthesis of paraaminobenzoic acidE. Ribosomal mutations

The correct answer is: Ribosomal mutations


A. Decreased drug uptake by bacteriaB. ToleranceC. Mutations of viral proteaseD. Penicillin binding proteins (PBPs)E. Acetylation

The correct answer is: Acetylation


A. Mutation of viral DNA polymeraseB. Beta-lactamaseC. Increased synthesis of thymidilate synthaseD. ToleranceE. Acetylation

The correct answer is: Acetylation

Question:Mechanism of resistance of ansamycin is:

A. Ribosomal mutationsB. RNA polymerase gene mutationsC. Mutation of viral reverse transcriptaseD. katG (catalase-peroxidase) deletionE. Adenylation

The correct answer is: RNA polymerase gene mutations Question:Mechanism of resistance of chloroquine is:

A. Development of thymine dependenceB. ToleranceC. Increased synthesis of paraaminobenzoic acidD. PhosphorylationE. Mutation in multi-drug resistance protein

The correct answer is: Mutation in multi-drug resistance protein Question:Mechanism of resistance of dicloxacillin is:

A. Penicillin binding proteins (PBPs)B. Mutation of thymidilate synthase decreasing its affinity for the drug's active metaboliteC. Beta-lactamaseD. Decreased drug uptake by bacteriaE. Mutations in M (matrix) protein

The correct answer is: Penicillin binding proteins (PBPs) Question:Mechanism of resistance of dicloxacillin is:

A. Decreased affinity of dihydropteroate synthetase for the drugB. Increased synthesis of dihydropteroate synthetaseC. AdenylationD. Penicillin binding proteins (PBPs)E. Beta-lactamase

The correct answer is: Penicillin binding proteins (PBPs)

Question:Mechanism of resistance of interferon gamma is:

A. Increased synthesis of paraaminobenzoic acidB. Mutation of thymidilate synthase decreasing its affinity for the drug's active metaboliteC. ToleranceD. AntibodiesE. Penicillin binding proteins (PBPs)

The correct answer is: Antibodies

Question:Mechanism of resistance of oxacillin is:

A. AdenylationB. Penicillin binding proteins (PBPs)C. ToleranceD. Beta-lactamaseE. Not all cells are in S phase at the same time

The correct answer is: Penicillin binding proteins (PBPs)

Question:Mechanism of resistance of penicillin G is:

A. Beta-lactamaseB. RNA polymerase gene mutationsC. Transport protein mutationsD. Increased synthesis of dihydropteroate synthetaseE. Penicillin binding proteins (PBPs)

The correct answer is: _______________________

Question:Mechanism of resistance of streptokinase is:

A. Antibodies resulting from streptococcal infectionB. PhosphorylationC. Mutations in M (matrix) proteinD. Mutation of viral reverse transcriptaseE. Decreased drug uptake by bacteria

The correct answer is: Antibodies resulting from streptococcal infection

Question:Mechanism of resistance of sulfadoxine is:

A. Increased synthesis of paraaminobenzoic acidB. AcetylationC. PhosphorylationD. Mutation of viral reverse transcriptaseE. Increased synthesis of thymidilate synthase

The correct answer is: ____________________ Question:Mechanism of resistance of tetracycline is:

A. AdenylationB. Transport protein mutationsC. Genetic alteration of bacterial active transport systemD. Antibodies resulting from streptococcal infectionE. Tolerance

The correct answer is: Genetic alteration of bacterial active transport system

Question:Side effect of 5-fluorocytosine is:

A. LeukopeniaB. HyponatremiaC. HepatotoxicityD. Bone painE. Closed-angle glaucoma

The correct answer is: Hepatotoxicity

Question:Side effect of 5-fluorocytosine is:

A. Sexual dysfunctionB. MyelosuppressionC. HyperthyroidismD. HypertensionE. Insomnia

The correct answer is: Myelosuppression

Question:Side effect of adenosine is:

A. BronchoconstrictionB. Sleep disturbanceC. EdemaD. HypoglycemiaE. GI toxicity

The correct answer is:___________________ Question:Side effect of antacids is:

A. DiarrheaB. Blue-gray skin discolorationC. AnxietyD. HypotensionE. Flushing

The correct answer is: Diarrhea

Question:Side effect of aspirin is:

A. ConstipationB. HepatitisC. Cardiac arrhythmiasD. PalpitationsE. Bronchospasm

The correct answer is: Hepatitis

Question:Side effect of atropine is:

A. Arthrotoxicity (in children)B. HypoglycemiaC. Difficulty in concentrationD. Dry skinE. Tremor

The correct answer is: Dry skin

Question:Side effect of benazepril is:

A. VomitingB. HypotensionC. FatigueD. Adult respiratory distress syndromeE. ECL cell hyperplasia

The correct answer is: Hypotension.

Question:Side effect of bendroflumethiazide is:

A. MyelosuppressionB. HypokalemiaC. Orthostatic hypotensionD. FlushE. Myalgia

The correct answer is: Hypokalemia

Question:Side effect of bretylium is:

A. DysphoriaB. AtaxiaC. Aggravation of symptoms of reduction of peripheral arterial flowD. TachycardiaE. Sexual dysfunction

The correct answer is: Tachycardia

Question:Side effect of calcitonin is:

A. CataractsB. NephrolithiasisC. Defective bone mineralizationD. LupusE. General malaise

The correct answer is: General malaise

Question:Side effect of captopril is:

A. Neuromuscular paralysisB. Sleep disturbanceC. Uterine atonyD. FracturesE. Hypotension

The correct answer is: Hypotension

Question:Side effect of carbamazepine is:

A. Gum hyperplasiaB. Stevens-Johnsons syndrome (erythema multiforme)C. AtaxiaD. HeartburnE. Hypercalcemia

The correct answer is: Ataxia

Question:Side effect of carbamazepine is:

A. NephrotoxicityB. Sexual dysfunctionC. Aplastic anemiaD. HypertrichosisE. Embryopathy

The correct answer is: Aplastic anemia

Question:Side effect of chlorthalidone is:A. PruritusB. NauseaC. HyperlipidemiaD. SeizuresE. Ototoxicity

The correct answer is: Hyperlipidemia

Question:Side effect of colestipol is:

A. Blood dyscrasiasB. MyalgiaC. BloatingD. Respiratory suppressionE. Flushing

The correct answer is: Bloating

Question:Side effect of desipramine is:

A. InsomniaB. Reye's syndromeC. HypokalemiaD. Paralytic ileusE. Priapism

The correct answer is: Paralytic ileus Question:Side effect of desipramine is:

A. Torsades de pointesB. HypertensionC. Sexual dysfunctionD. Respiratory suppressionE. Sedation

The correct answer is: Sedation

Question:Side effect of digitoxin is:

A. CNS toxicityB. ArthralgiaC. ThrombocytopeniaD. AnginaE. Angioedema

The correct answer is: CNS toxicity Question:Side effect of dihydrotachysterol is:

A. NauseaB. Respiratory suppressionC. MyelosuppressionD. PolyuriaE. Facial swelling

The correct answer is: Polyuria Question:Side effect of doxepin is:

A. InsomniaB. Toxic megacolonC. AnxietyD. TachycardiaE. Bradycardia


Question:Side effect of doxepin is:

A. AnxietyB. Extrapyramidal side effectsC. CoughD. HypotensionE. AV block

The correct answer is: AV block

Question:Side effect of Elavil is:

A. Candida albicans infections of mouth and throatB. Cardiac arrhythmiasC. SeizuresD. InsomniaE. Tardive dyskinesia

The correct answer is: Seizures

Question:Side effect of EMB is:

A. Allergic reactionsB. Nausea and vomitingC. Orange discoloration of urine, sweat, tears, soft contact lensesD. Brain ischemiaE. Peripheral neuropathy

The correct answer is: Peripheral neuropathy Question:Side effect of enalapril is:

A. Idiosyncrasy: skin rash, drug fever, joint pain, lymphadenopathyB. GI toxicityC. AngioedemaD. Sexual dysfunctionE. Alopecia

The correct answer is: Angioedema Question:Side effect of ethacrynic acid is:

A. HyperkalemiaB. Congestive heart failureC. HepatotoxicityD. HypertensionE. Nausea

The correct answer is: Nausea

Question:Side effect of ethambutol is:

A. Small bowel thickening => abdominal painB. Reddish-blue skin pigmentationC. HypertrichosisD. TachycardiaE. Retrobulbar optic neuritis

The correct answer is: Retrobulbar optic neuritis

Question:Side effect of etoposide is:

A. Orthostatic hypotensionB. Peripheral neuropathyC. VomitingD. BradycardiaE. Blue-gray skin discoloration

The correct answer is: Vomiting

Question:Side effect of filgrastim is:

A. Pulmonary fibrosisB. Bone painC. ApprehensionD. HypertensionE. Bleeding

The correct answer is: Bone pain Antifungal

Question:Side effect of fluconazole is:

A. HyperglycemiaB. Inhibits steroid hormone synthesisC. HypotensionD. HepatotoxicityE. Tachycardia

The correct answer is: Hepatotoxicity Question:Side effect of furosemide is:

A. PriapismB. SeizuresC. TachycardiaD. NauseaE. Hearing impairment


Question:Side effect of ganciclovir is:

A. AstheniaB. NephrolithiasisC. Urinary tract complicationsD. Nausea and vomitingE. Testicular toxicity

The correct answer is: Testicular toxicity

Question:Side effect of imipramine is:

A. Extrapyramidal side effectsB. Tardive dyskinesiaC. Defective bone mineralizationD. TachycardiaE. Hypergastrinemia


Question:Side effect of indacrinone is:

A. TachycardiaB. NauseaC. MyelosuppressionD. Hearing impairmentE. Lupus


Question:Side effect of indacrinone is:

A. SeizuresB. DiarrheaC. Ventricular arrhythmiasD. Hearing impairmentE. Vomiting

The correct answer is: Vomiting

Question:Side effect of indinavir is:

A. LightheadednessB. Local irritationC. AsthmaD. NephrolithiasisE. CNS toxicity

The correct answer is: Nephrolithiasis


A. NephrotoxicityB. AnemiaC. Abdominal painD. HypotensionE. CNS toxicity

The correct answer is: Abdominal pain


A. HypercalciuriaB. Peripheral neuropathyC. Metastatic calcificationsD. NauseaE. Mutagenicity



A. BilirubinemiaB. Nausea and vomitingC. NervousnessD. ThrombocytopeniaE. Blood dyscrasias

The correct answer is: Bilirubinemia

Question:Side effect of interferon alpha is:

A. PhotosensitivityB. MyalgiaC. PolyuriaD. Flu-like acute phase reactionE. Hepatotoxicity

The correct answer is: Myalgia

Question:Side effect of interferon gamma is:

A. CNS toxicityB. Free water retention with hyponatremiaC. HypercholesterolemiaD. HeadacheE. Reddish-blue skin pigmentation

The correct answer is: Headache

Question:Side effect of ipratropium bromide is:

A. HypoglycemiaB. NauseaC. ChillsD. TremorE. Blurred vision

The correct answer is: Blurred vision

Question:Side effect of isoproterenol is:

A. Weight gainB. AnginaC. AnxietyD. Lactic acidosisE. Beta blocker withdrawal syndrome

The correct answer is: Angina Question:Side effect of isotretinoin is:

A. NeutropeniaB. HyponatremiaC. DysphoriaD. Peripheral neuropathyE. Dry eyes

The correct answer is: Dry eyes

Question:Side effect of lisinopril is:

A. AcidosisB. Urinary retentionC. AngioedemaD. VasculitisE. Proteinuria

The correct answer is: Angioedema

Question:Side effect of lithium is:

A. Fluid overloadB. AsthmaC. HypokalemiaD. HypothyroidismE. Aggravation of symptoms of reduction of peripheral arterial flow

The correct answer is: Hypothyroidism Question:Side effect of Ludiomil is:

A. MyelosuppressionB. AnemiaC. Tardive dyskinesiaD. RestlessnessE. AV block


Question:Side effect of metolozone is:

A. Urinary retentionB. AnemiaC. HyperuricemiaD. DiarrheaE. Myalgia

The correct answer is: Hyperuricemia

Question:Side effect of metoprolol is:

A. Blurred visionB. AsthmaC. CardiotoxicityD. Urinary retentionE. Fatigue

The correct answer is: Fatigue

Question:Side effect of metoprolol is:

A. HypotensionB. HyponatremiaC. DepressionD. Beta blocker withdrawal syndromeE. Ventricular arrhythmias

The correct answer is: Depression

Question:Side effect of milrinone is:

A. Congestive heart failureB. Increased ventricular response rates in patients with atrial fibrillationC. HepatotoxicityD. ThrombocytopeniaE. Nephrotoxicity

The correct answer is: Hepatotoxicity

Question:Side effect of morphine is:

A. TachycardiaB. PalpitationsC. Respiratory suppressionD. Dry mouthE. Myelosuppression

The correct answer is: Respiratory suppression

Question:Side effect of Norpramin is:

A. Sexual dysfunctionB. AnxietyC. AV blockD. HypothyroidismE. Restlessness


Question:Side effect of Norpramin is:

A. Non-ketotic hyperglycemic comaB. TachycardiaC. Extrapyramidal side effectsD. NervousnessE. Insomnia


Question:Side effect of Paxil is:

A. AV blockB. RestlessnessC. EdemaD. DiarrheaE. Urinary retention

The correct answer is: Restlessness

Question:Side effect of phenytoin is:

A. Aortic dissectionB. HypertrichosisC. Aplastic anemiaD. AtaxiaE. Hypokalemia

The correct answer is: Hypertrichosis

Question:Side effect of phosphorus is:

A. Extrapyramidal side effectsB. Metastatic calcificationsC. Paralytic ileusD. PolyuriaE. Pruritus

The correct answer is: Metastatic calcifications

Question:Side effect of pravastatin is:

A. Cardiac arrhythmiasB. AstheniaC. MyalgiaD. NauseaE. Constipation

The correct answer is: Myalgia Question:Side effect of primidone is:

A. HypertrichosisB. HypocalcemiaC. Cognitive dullingD. HepatotoxicityE. Anorexia

The correct answer is: Cognitive dulling

Question:Side effect of procaine penicillin is:

A. SeizuresB. Seizures (when administered IV)C. Dry mouthD. DiarrheaE. AV block

The correct answer is: Seizures (when administered IV)

Question:Side effect of propafenone is:

A. CNS toxicityB. Corneal depositsC. Allergic reactionsD. HypotensionE. Granulocytopenia

The correct answer is: Granulocytopenia

Question:Side effect of propranolol is:

A. GI toxicityB. HypertrichosisC. FatigueD. Orthostatic hypotensionE. Hypokalemia

The correct answer is: Fatigue


A. PhotosensitivityB. FeverC. AV blockD. HyperthyroidismE. General malaise



A. Urinary retentionB. Blurred visionC. BradycardiaD. Fetal goiterE. CNS toxicity

The correct answer is: Bradycardia

Question:Side effect of quinine is:

A. Hemolytic anemia in G6PD-deficient patientsB. Urinary retentionC. GI toxicityD. FatigueE. Cinchonism

The correct answer is: Cinchonism Question:Side effect of quinine is:

A. CinchonismB. DiarrheaC. GI toxicityD. CNS toxicityE. Pericardial effusions

The correct answer is: Headache

Question:Side effect of sertraline is:

A. Urinary retentionB. SedationC. InsomniaD. RestlessnessE. Weight loss

The correct answer is: Restlessness

Question:Side effect of sodium valproate is:

A. HyponatremiaB. DepressionC. DiplopiaD. DysphoriaE. Hepatotoxicity

The correct answer is: Hepatotoxicity Question:Side effect of sotalol is:

A. Congestive heart failureB. HypokalemiaC. Blood dyscrasiasD. Sexual dysfunctionE. Hypotension

The correct answer is: Congestive heart failure

Question:Side effect of tetracycline is:

A. AnticoagulationB. AnemiaC. Folate deficiencyD. Peripheral neuropathyE. Chelates with calcium - deposition in teeth and bones

The correct answer is: Chelates with calcium - deposition in teeth and bones

Question:Side effect of thiabendazole is:

A. RhabdomyolysisB. VomitingC. DepressionD. LeukopeniaE. Restlessness

The correct answer is: Leukopenia

Question:Side effect of timolol is:

A. LupusB. NervousnessC. HypoglycemiaD. VestibulotoxicityE. GI toxicity

The correct answer is: Hypoglycemia

Question:Side effect of tocainide is:

A. BradycardiaB. HypercholesterolemiaC. EpistaxisD. Pulmonary fibrosisE. AV block

The correct answer is: Pulmonary fibrosis Question:Side effect of tramadol is:

A. DysphoriaB. ThyroiditisC. Color blindnessD. Aggravation of myocardial ischemiaE. Hypertension

The correct answer is: Dysphoria

Question:Side effect of triamcinolone is:

A. BradycardiaB. CataractsC. Orthostatic hypotensionD. Cardiac arrhythmiasE. Tachycardia

The correct answer is: Cataracts

Question:Side effect of triamcinolone is:

A. OsteoporosisB. BronchospasmC. ApprehensionD. Growth retardation in childrenE. Hepatotoxicity

The correct answer is: Growth retardation in children

Question:Side effect of urokinase is:

A. AnginaB. DysphoriaC. ThrombocytopeniaD. Skin rashE. Anaphylaxis

The correct answer is: Skin rash Question:Side effect of vinblastine is:

A. Defective bone mineralizationB. DysphoriaC. MyelosuppressionD. HepatotoxicityE. Peripheral neuropathy

The correct answer is: Myelosuppression Question:Side effect of vincristine is:

A. Peripheral neuropathyB. Myopathy / muscle necrosisC. MyelosuppressionD. ArthralgiaE. Tachycardia

The correct answer is: Peripheral neuropathy Question:Side effect of zalcitabine is:

A. DiarrheaB. MyalgiaC. DysphoniaD. Peripheral neuropathyE. Nausea and vomiting

The correct answer is: Peripheral neuropathy

Question:Subclass of ampicillin is:

A. Broad spectrum penicillinsB. Organic nitratesC. CarbapenemsD. Long-acting penicillinsE. Broader spectrum penicillins

The correct answer is:_____________

Question:Subclass of aztreonam is:

A. Long-acting penicillinsB. Beta-lactamase resistant penicillinsC. FluoroquinolonesD. Type IE. Monobactam

The correct answer is: Monobactam

Question:Subclass of cefotaxime is:

A. ICB. 2nd generationC. SulfonylureasD. 1st generationE. 3d generation

The correct answer is: 3d generation

Question:Subclass of cefoxitin is:

A. 1st generationB. Type IC. 3d generationD. Aldosterone antagonistsE. 2nd generation

The correct answer is: 2nd generation

Question:Subclass of ceftazidime is:

A. 1st generationB. FluoroquinolonesC. SulfonylureasD. 2nd generationE. 3d generation

The correct answer is: 3d generation

Question:Subclass of cephalexin is:

A. Organic nitratesB. FluoroquinolonesC. 2nd generationD. 3d generationE. 1st generation

The correct answer is: 1st generation Question:Subclass of cephazolin is:

A. Type IIB. 1st generationC. 2nd generationD. 3d generationE. Organic nitrates

The correct answer is: 1st generation Question:Subclass of fluconazole is:

A. IIIB. FluoroquinolonesC. ImidazolesD. Type IIE. Triazoles

The correct answer is: Triazoles

Question:Subclass of metformin is:

A. SulfonylureasB. IIIC. BiguanidesD. CarbapenemsE. Pioglitazones

The correct answer is: Biguanides Question:Subclass of methylcellulose is:

A. FluoroquinolonesB. Type IC. EmollientsD. Bulk-forming laxativesE. Aldosterone antagonists

The correct answer is: Bulk-forming laxatives

Question:Subclass of norfloxacin is:

A. ICB. FluoroquinolonesC. Alpha-glucosidase inhibitorsD. SulfonylureasE. Bile acid sequestrant

The correct answer is: Fluoroquinolones

Question:Subclass of oxacillin is:

A. Beta-lactamase resistant penicillinsB. Surface active agentsC. ICD. Broad spectrum penicillinsE. Broader spectrum penicillins

The correct answer is: Beta-lactamase resistant penicillins Question:Subclass of penicillin V is:

A. SulfonylureasB. Long-acting penicillinsC. PhenylpiperidineD. Broader spectrum penicillinsE. Orally available penicillins

The correct answer is: Orally available penicillins

Question:Subclass of procaine penicillin is:

A. CarbapenemsB. Long-acting penicillinsC. Beta-lactamase resistant penicillinsD. 2nd generationE. II

The correct answer is: Long-acting penicillins

Question:Subclass of psyllium is:

A. EmollientsB. Broader spectrum penicillinsC. Broad spectrum penicillinsD. Organic nitratesE. Bulk-forming laxatives

The correct answer is: Bulk-forming laxatives

Question:Which of the following statements refers to Accutane:

A. Cardiac Arrhythmia Suppression Trial showed that flecainide resulted in a threefold increase in cardiac death.

B. Active metabolite - acitretin - binds to cellular retinoic acid binding proteins.C. 50% probability of embryopathy in 1st trimester exposure.D. Acute pancreatitis may result if triglycerides go above 1000 mg/dL.E. Have to adjust dose in renal failure.

The correct answer is: 50% probability of embryopathy in 1st trimester exposure.

Question:Which of the following statements refers to acebutolol:

A. Onset of analgesia in 1 hour, peak in 2-3 hours.B. Activates ATP/ADP-dependent potassium channel in the pancreas.C. Mild intrinsic sympathomimetic activity - does not decrease heart rate and contractility as

much during exercise.D. Should not be used as a sole agent in sustained forms of hyperthyroidism.E. Take once a day

The correct answer is: Mild intrinsic sympathomimetic activity - does not decrease heart rate and contractility as much during exercise.

Question:Which of the following statements refers to acetaminophen:

A. As a result of high doses used in clinical settings, is not as specific for fibrin-bound plasminogen as the natural tPA is

B. No anti-inflammatory effectC. Prolonged treatment (>= 2 weeks) leads to morning insomnia.D. 50% bound to albuminE. Is rapidly hydrolyzed to salicylic acid

The correct answer is: No anti-inflammatory effect

Question:Which of the following statements refers to amphotericin B:

A. Na+ and K+ should be monitored.B. Gray baby syndrome: cyanosis, hypotension and death in newborns.C. Used for maintenance/prophylaxis.D. Fatal overdosage rare unless taken with alcohol or other CNS depressants.E. Skeletal half-life is hundreds of days.

The correct answer is: Na+ and K+ should be monitored.

Question:Which of the following statements refers to antacids:

A. Require frequent administrationB. Cough and angioedema do not develop due to lack of effects on substance P and

bradykinin.C. No significant tissue reservoirs.D. Low efficacyE. Is metabolized by CYP3A4

The correct answer is: Require frequent administration

Question:Which of the following statements refers to aspirin:

A. Binds to DNAB. 50% bound to albuminC. Elderly are more sensitive to the drug.D. Highly lipophylic.E. No anti-inflammatory effect

The correct answer is: 50% bound to albumin

Question:Which of the following statements refers to atenolol:

A. More expensive than other aminoglycosidesB. No intrinsic sympathomimetic activity.C. May exacerbate coronary artery diseaseD. Effects: 1. Inotropic 2. Increased automaticity 3. Impaired AV node conduction (indirect)

4. Decreased heart rate (indirect) 5. Vasoconstriction 6. Vasodilation 7. DiureticE. No first pass effect.

The correct answer is: No intrinsic sympathomimetic activity.

Question:Which of the following statements refers to atenolol:

A. Long half-life.B. Lipid profile may worsen.C. Experimentally used for severe heart failure.D. Dose: 1. Gland weight(g) times 80 mcCi / 24h uptake time 2. Empirical (10 mCi)E. Poorly lipid soluble.

The correct answer is: Poorly lipid soluble.

Question:Which of the following statements refers to Aventil:

A. May work when other antidepressants fail.B. Reduces calcium excretion - hence use in nephrolithiasis (and possibly in prevention of

osteoporosis).C. Muscarinic antagonist - both central and peripheral.D. Has some stimulant (amphetamine-like) effects.E. Less effective than tricyclics or ECT in unipolar depression.

The correct answer is: Muscarinic antagonist - both central and peripheral.

Question:Which of the following statements refers to AZT:

A. Is acid unstable - needs to be administered with antacid or a buffer.B. T4 half-life is longer in hypothyroid state. If a dose is missed, can be taken later in the

day or next day. In extreme cases, can be taken once a week.C. Non-linear kineticsD. Less anticholinergic effects and less QT prolongation than quinidine.E. Metabolism in liver is by glucuronidization

The correct answer is: Metabolism in liver is by glucuronidization

Question:Which of the following statements refers to aztreonam:

A. No cross-allergenicity with penicillinsB. Risk factors for allergic reactions: 1. Previous reactions 2. Atopy 3. Older patients 4.

Topical > parenteral > oralC. Idiosyncrasia in AIDS patients is due to low acetylation in the liver - more drug available

for conversion to toxic metabolitesD. Potential applications: 1. Pulmonary hypertension 2. Thrombotic stroke (infarct

reduction) 3. Esophageal spasm 4. Biliary colic 5. AsthmaE. Only 10% is metabolized.

The correct answer is: No cross-allergenicity with penicillins

Question:Which of the following statements refers to bendroflumethiazide:

A. Has longer half-life than PTU.B. Hepatitis is more prevalent older people and in slow acetylators (5% of Eskimos, 83% of

Egyptians, 50% of Caucasian Americans). Usually reversible.C. Possesses antihypertensive effect independent from diuretic effect.D. Decrease calcium excretion - hence use in nephrolithiasis (and, perhaps, in prevention of

osteoporosis).E. Reduces calcium excretion - hence use in nephrolithiasis (and possibly in prevention of

osteoporosis).The correct answer is: Decrease calcium excretion - hence use in nephrolithiasis (and, perhaps, in prevention of osteoporosis).

Question:Which of the following statements refers to bismuth subsalicylate:

A. May act as binding agent or act to absorb excess fluid in gut lining or absorb enterotoxins.

B. Lipid profile may worsen.C. Advantages over quinidine for treatment of ventricular arrhythmias: 1. Comparable

efficacy 2. Little or no hemodynamic depression 3. No QT prolongation 4. Absence of vagolytic effects

D. May bind enterotoxins, particularly from strains of toxigenic E. coli.E. H1 antagonist - central.

The correct answer is: May bind enterotoxins, particularly from strains of toxigenic E. coli.

Question:Which of the following statements refers to bretylium:

A. Dose dependent kinetics.B. Reflex increase in heart rate and contractility; increase renin secretion; sodium and water

retention.C. Used in emergency setting during attempted resuscitation when lidocaine and

cardioversion have failed.D. Is concentrated by follicular cells so that thyroid half-life is longer than serum half-life.E. Hypotension may result from fast IV administration.

The correct answer is: Used in emergency setting during attempted resuscitation when lidocaine and cardioversion have failed.

Question:Which of the following statements refers to calcitonin:

A. Dosage: 2.25 mcg/kg q/day. Start with lower dose in patients with ischemic heart disease.B. Recommended Ca daily allowance for males: 1. 1-10 years: 800 mg 2. 11-18 years: 1200

mg 3. 19-50 years: 1000 mg 4. > 51 years: 1000 mgC. 1st generation biphosphonate.D. May induce mild hypotension and worsen congestive heart failure in some patients.

However, most CHF patients can tolerate it.E. Primary and seconcary ("rebound" after long-term treatment) resistancies can develop.

The correct answer is: Primary and seconcary ("rebound" after long-term treatment) resistancies can develop.

Question:Which of the following statements refers to calcium:

A. Fever and lymphocytopenia are reversible.B. Rapid IV infusion predisposes to neuromuscular paralysis.C. Poor availability in CSF and eye.D. Food supplements: 1. Ca carbonate (highest content) 2. Ca gluconate 3. Ca lactate 4. Ca

glubionate (lowest content) 5. Ca citrateE. Skeletal half-life is hundreds of days.

The correct answer is: Food supplements: 1. Ca carbonate (highest content) 2. Ca gluconate 3. Ca lactate 4. Ca glubionate (lowest content) 5. Ca citrate

Question:Which of the following statements refers to calcium:

A. May be useful in acute/chronic treatment of supraventricular tachycardias and atrial fibrillation.

B. Salmon and eel calcitonins are more potent, partly because of lower clearance.C. Binds DNAD. Avoid Ca supplements made from dolomite or from bone meal as these may contain lead

or other toxic metals.E. Diarrhea appears only in case of oral administration.

The correct answer is: Avoid Ca supplements made from dolomite or from bone meal as these may contain lead or other toxic metals.

Question:Which of the following statements refers to chloroquine:

A. Drug of choice for prophylaxis of chloroquine-resistant Plasmodium falciparum.B. Resistance develops quickly when used as a single agent.C. Drug of choice for treatment of chloroquine-resistant Plasmodium falciparum.D. Metabolism follows Michaelis-Menten kinetics - accumulation can occur.E. Inexpensive.

The correct answer is: Inexpensive.

Question:Which of the following statements refers to chloroquine:

A. Is taken as tertiary amine and converted to secondary amine by the liver.B. Frequent side effects at doses required to treat established disease.C. Dosage: 2.25 mcg/kg q/day. Start with lower dose in patients with ischemic heart disease.D. Drug of choice for treatment of chloroquine-resistant Plasmodium falciparum.E. Widely available.

The correct answer is: Widely available.

Question:Which of the following statements refers to cinoxacin:

A. The only drug active against exoerythrocytic forms.B. Bactericidal activity requires RNA and protein synthesis - reasons not clear.C. Expensive; not widely available.D. Excessive doses are not as bactericidal - possible consequence of inhibition of

RNA/protein synthesis by quinolonesE. Binds DNA

The correct answer is: Bactericidal activity requires RNA and protein synthesis - reasons not clear.

Question:Which of the following statements refers to cisapride:

A. Does not penetrate into CNSB. Tricyclic.C. Used for both prevention and treatment of nausea/vomiting.D. No dopaminergic or antiemetic effects.E. Active sites: peripheral, spinal, central.

The correct answer is: No dopaminergic or antiemetic effects. Question:Which of the following statements refers to co-trimoxazole:

A. Used in anesthesia.B. More popular than phenobarbital for generalized/partial motor & partial complex

seizures.C. Is a mixture of pyrimethamine and sulfodoxine.D. Allergic reactions (cutaneous) can be fatal in 1/20,000 users.E. Is a mixture of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole

The correct answer is: Is a mixture of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole

Question:Which of the following statements refers to DDI:

A. Risk factors for allergic reactions: 1. Previous reactions 2. Atopy 3. Older patients 4. Topical > parenteral > oral

B. Pyrophosphate analogC. Intracellular half-life of DDATP is 18-24 hoursD. Has the same spectrum as acyclovir plus human cytomegalovirus.E. Absorption is independent of gastric acidity

The correct answer is: Intracellular half-life of DDATP is 18-24 hours

Question:Which of the following statements refers to Desyrel:

A. Is slightly more effective than aspirin in preventing strokes in patients with transient ischemic attacks, and just as effective in preventing coronary thrombosis

B. Gastric upset common at start of therapy. May worsen generalized motor seizures.C. MOA inhibitors - 2nd choice in tricyclic non-responders.D. Has some stimulant (amphetamine-like) effects.E. Low potency

The correct answer is: Low potency

Question:Which of the following statements refers to diazoxide:

A. Active transport into bacteria inhibited by: 1. Acidic environment 2. Anaerobic environment 3. Ca++ ions 4. Chloramphenicol

B. Structure - sulfonylbenzamide.C. Metabolized to cyanide which in turn is metabolized into thiocyanate.D. Metabolism in liver is by glucuronidization.E. Duration of action 4-20 hours.

The correct answer is: Duration of action 4-20 hours. Question:Which of the following statements refers to diltiazem:

A. Is preferred for treatment of arrhythmias to propranolol, digoxin, edrophonium, vasoconstrictor agents and cardioversion. Not as good as adenosine, though.

B. Fever and lymphocytopenia are reversible.C. Diet restrictions: cheese, aged meats, red wine, pickled herring (tyrosine is converted to

tyramine in aged products).D. Peripheral vasodilation in normotensives less than in hypertensives.E. Ineffective in ventricular arrhythmias except for a rare form of monomorphic ventricular

tachycardia with a structurally normal heart.The correct answer is: Peripheral vasodilation in normotensives less than in hypertensives.

Question:Which of the following statements refers to diltiazem:

A. Peripheral vasodilation in normotensives as strong as in hypertensives.B. Is less likely to cause heart failure than verapamil.C. Rapid IV infusion predisposes to neuromuscular paralysis.D. Is less likely to cause edema than nifedipine.E. Toxic to osteoclasts

The correct answer is: Is less likely to cause heart failure than verapamil.

Question:Which of the following statements refers to dioctyl sodium sulfosuccinate:

A. Low molecular weight heparins inhibit factor Xa but not thrombin. They seem to have fewer side effects. They are much more expensive. Unlike heparin, have linear kinetics.

B. No significant tissue reservoirs.C. Emollients = stool softenersD. Inhibits mitochondrial peptidyl transferaseE. Efficacy not well documented but felt to provide some benefit in irritable bowel

syndrome.The correct answer is: Emollients = stool softeners

Question:Which of the following statements refers to domperidone:

A. Act chiefly on distal convoluted tubules.B. 2nd generation biphosphonate (amino-biphosphonate).C. Used for both prevention and treatment of nausea/vomiting.D. Half-life increases in renal failureE. Does not penetrate into CNS

The correct answer is: Does not penetrate into CNS

Question:Which of the following statements refers to etretinate:

A. Embryopathy: 1. Anotia 2. Microtia 3. Absent external ear canal 4. Microphthalmia 5. Conotruncal heart defects 6. Aplasia/hypoplasia of thymus 7. Neural tube defects (anencephaly, spina bifida). 8. Limb development defects.

B. Moderately lipid soluble.C. Used for both prevention and treatment of nausea/vomiting.D. Acute pancreatitis may result if triglycerides go above 1000 mg/dL.E. 50% probability of embryopathy in 1st trimester exposure.

The correct answer is: Acute pancreatitis may result if triglycerides go above 1000 mg/dL. Question:Which of the following statements refers to etretinate:

A. Penetrates placenta less readily than MMIB. Embryopathy: 1. Anotia 2. Microtia 3. Absent external ear canal 4. Microphthalmia 5.

Conotruncal heart defects 6. Aplasia/hypoplasia of thymus 7. Neural tube defects (anencephaly, spina bifida). 8. Limb development defects

C. Analgesic effect half-life - 4 hours.D. 50% probability of embryopathy in 1st trimester exposure.E. While serum half-life is 60-170 days, it was found in fat as long as 6 years after the end

of the therapy.The correct answer is: While serum half-life is 60-170 days, it was found in fat as long as 6 years after the end of the therapy.

Question:Which of the following statements refers to fansidar:

A. Duration of action 4-20 hours.B. Peak plasma concentration in 1-2 hours.C. Tertiary amines are more potent against serotonin reuptake, and secondary amines are

more potent against norepinephrine reuptake.D. Is a mixture of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazoleE. Allergic reactions (cutaneous) can be fatal in 1/20,000 users.

The correct answer is: Allergic reactions (cutaneous) can be fatal in 1/20,000 users.

Question:Which of the following statements refers to foscarnet:

A. Intracellular half-life of DDATP is 18-24 hoursB. Claimed to produce less tabacco than isosorbide dinitrate.C. 75% of patients get better after 1st treatment; 90% - after 2nd; 99% - after 3d and more.D. Pyrophosphate analogE. Acyclovir is seldom used against recurrent HSV infections since the symptoms usually

quickly (5-7 days) resolve on their own.The correct answer is: Pyrophosphate analog

Question:Which of the following statements refers to glyburide:

A. Side chains more polar - possible reason for increase in potency.B. 2nd generationC. Slows down intestinal breakdown of carbohydrates.D. Myasthenia gravis and botulism predispose to neuromuscular paralysisE. Minimal side effects.

The correct answer is: 2nd generation Question:Which of the following statements refers to HPMPC:

A. H1 antagonist - central.B. Beta half-life - 2 hours; gamma half-life - 36 hours.C. Acyclovir triphosphate preferentially and irreversibly inhibits viral DNA polymerase; it

inhibits human DNA polymerase only weakly and reversibly.D. Cytosine monophosphate analogE. Is used for both therapy and prophylaxis of influenza A.

The correct answer is: Cytosine monophosphate analog

Question:Which of the following statements refers to hydralazine:

A. Neither chemically, nor pharmacologically related to any other sedative.B. Reflex increase in heart rate and contractility, renin secretion.C. Mechanism of action probably involves NO.D. For hypertension always used with diuretics and beta blockers.E. Half-life: 1 hour at 100U/kg; 5 hours at 800U/kg

The correct answer is: Mechanism of action probably involves NO.

Question:Which of the following statements refers to hydrochlorothiazide:

A. Hepatitis is more prevalent older people and in slow acetylators (5% of Eskimos, 83% of Egyptians, 50% of Caucasian Americans). Usually reversible.

B. Reduces calcium excretion - hence use in nephrolithiasis (and possibly in prevention of osteoporosis).

C. See bendroflumethiazideD. Decreases sebum production by 90%.E. Weak carbonic anhydrase inhibitors.

The correct answer is: Reduces calcium excretion - hence use in nephrolithiasis (and possibly in prevention of osteoporosis).

Question:Which of the following statements refers to Invirase:

A. Twice as potent as carbenicillinB. Binds both A and B subunits of DNA gyrase (topoisomerase II)C. Acyclovir triphosphate preferentially and irreversibly inhibits viral DNA polymerase; it

inhibits human DNA polymerase only weakly and reversibly.D. Non-linear kineticsE. Very large first-pass effect.

The correct answer is: Very large first-pass effect. Question:Which of the following statements refers to isoetharine:

A. Duration of action: 1-2 hoursB. Is lipid insoluble -> not absorbed in either bronchial tree or GI tract -> few systemic

effects.C. Is ion-trapped in basic urineD. Is used for maintenance, prophylaxisE. Binds to BZ1 (benzodiazepine-1) receptor in the brain.

The correct answer is: Duration of action: 1-2 hours

Question:Which of the following statements refers to isoproterenol:

A. Acyclovir triphosphate preferentially and irreversibly inhibits viral DNA polymerase; it inhibits human DNA polymerase only weakly and reversibly.

B. Highly lipophylic.C. Can prevent recurrent infarction and sudden death in patients recovering from myocardial

infarction.D. Effects: 1. Inotropic 2. Increased automaticity 3. Impaired AV node conduction (indirect)

4. Decreased heart rate (indirect) 5. Vasoconstriction 6. Vasodilation 7. DiureticE. Has been supplanted by more selective agents in treatment of asthma and shock.

The correct answer is: Has been supplanted by more selective agents in treatment of asthma and shock. Question:Which of the following statements refers to lidocaine:

A. Not well suited for long-term therapy because of risk of lupus (20% per year).B. Distribution half-life - 8 minutes, metabolism half-life - 120 minutes.C. Not shown to reduce sudden death or prolong survival.D. Has been taken off the market due to side effects.E. Binds to SH group of ACE

The correct answer is: Distribution half-life - 8 minutes, metabolism half-life - 120 minutes. Question:Which of the following statements refers to mebendazole:

A. Is oxidized to active epoxide metabolite to variable extent in different individuals.B. Used only for maintenance/prophylaxis. Systemic steroids are used in case of acute

exacerbations.C. Is well absorbed in human GI tract.D. Frequent side effects.E. Minimal GI absorption.

The correct answer is: Minimal GI absorption.

Question:Which of the following statements refers to metaclopramide:

A. No dopaminergic or antiemetic effects.B. Immunosuppressive effects may contribute to efficacy in Graves' diseaseC. Half-life increases in renal failureD. Crosses the placenta. May cause neonatal respiratory distress syndrome, but is still

considered safe when symptoms are present. Should not be used as a sole agent in pregnancy with thyrotoxicosis.

E. Does not penetrate into CNSThe correct answer is: Half-life increases in renal failure

Question:Which of the following statements refers to metaproterenol:

A. Subclass II of antiarrhythmic agents.B. Duration of action: 3-4 hoursC. Most effective in prevention of cold/exercise-induced asthma.D. Excretion is largely unaffected by heart failure.E. Minimal GI absorption.

The correct answer is: Most effective in prevention of cold/exercise-induced asthma Question:Which of the following statements refers to metformin:

A. Prolonged treatment (>= 2 weeks) leads to morning insomnia.B. Low potencyC. Side chains more polar - possible reason for increase in potency.D. 2nd generationE. Causes weight loss

The correct answer is: Causes weight loss. Question:Which of the following statements refers to methazolamide:

A. Analgesic "ceiling" effect.B. Stimulates beta-1 stronger than beta-2.C. Side chains more polar - possible reason for increase in potency.D. Is seldom used as diuretic - except in metabolic alkalosis.E. Seldom used as diuretic - except in metabolic alkalosis.

The correct answer is: Seldom used as diuretic - except in metabolic alkalosis. Question:Which of the following statements refers to methylcellulose:

A. Efficacy not well documentedB. Relatively good CSF bioavailability - 10% of plasma concentrationC. Inhibits Na reabsorption in late distal tubule.D. Efficacy not well documented but felt to provide some benefit in irritable bowel

syndrome.E. Emollients = stool softeners

The correct answer is: Efficacy not well documented but felt to provide some benefit in irritable bowel syndrome.

Question:Which of the following statements refers to morphine:

A. Pulmonary hypertension - questionable use.B. Penetrates placenta less readily than MMIC. MS Contin - sustained release form.D. Liver failure increases meperidine and normeperidine blood levels.E. Delayed onset P/O 30-60', IV 10-20'

The correct answer is: MS Contin - sustained release form. Question:Which of the following statements refers to nedocromil:

A. 8-10% of the dose administered is deposited in the airway - the rest is swallowed.B. Inhibits folate synthesis in bacteriaC. Tertiary amines are more potent against serotonin reuptake, and secondary amines are

more potent against norepinephrine reuptake.D. Does not cause bronchodilation.E. No synergy with theophylline - effects simply add up.

The correct answer is: Does not cause bronchodilation.

Question:Which of the following statements refers to ondansetron:

A. No significant tissue reservoirs.B. Balanced arteriolar and venous vasodilator effects.C. May undermine treatment of ParkinsonismD. Lipid profile may worsen.E. Mainly used against chemotherapy side effects.

The correct answer is: Mainly used against chemotherapy side effects.

Question:Which of the following statements refers to oxycodone:

A. Active sites: peripheral, spinal, central.B. Analgesic effect half-life - 4 hours.C. Lower doses used in supraventricular tachyarrhythmias may be better tolerated.D. Duration of analgesia - 4 hours.E. May work when other antidepressants fail.

The correct answer is: Active sites: peripheral, spinal, central. Question:Which of the following statements refers to oxycodone:

A. Highly lipophylic.B. Renal failure raises blood concentration.C. Respiratory depression rare.D. Myasthenia gravis and botulism predispose to neuromuscular paralysisE. Is acid unstable - needs to be administered with antacid or a buffer.

The correct answer is: Renal failure raises blood concentration.

Question:Which of the following statements refers to penicillin V:

A. No cross-allergenicity with penicillinsB. Triggers autolysinsC. AV block - from quinidine-like effect; sedation - from H1 blockage.D. Acid stableE. Administer at least twice daily and restrict salt intake.

The correct answer is: Acid stable

Question:Which of the following statements refers to pentamidine:

A. Possibly terato- and carcinogenic; not confirmed by trials on human subjects.B. Prolonged treatment (>= 2 weeks) leads to morning insomnia.C. Possibly drug of choice for Giardia lamblia.D. Liver failure increases meperidine and normeperidine blood levels.E. Is as effective against PCP as TMP-SMX but is used only as second-line agent due to

side effects.The correct answer is: Is as effective against PCP as TMP-SMX but is used only as second-line agent due to side effects.

Question:Which of the following statements refers to phenobarbital:

A. Excretion is largely unaffected by heart failure.B. Drug is lipophilic and readily taken up by macrophagesC. More popular than phenobarbital for generalized/partial motor & partial complex

seizures.D. Induces mixed function oxidases.E. Little relationship between blood concentration and anticonvulsant effect.

The correct answer is: Induces mixed function oxidases.

Question:Which of the following statements refers to phenobarbital:

A. Not active against dormant organisms; therefore not used in long-term therapyB. Tamponade rare in pericardial effusions - mostly asymptomatic.C. Few serious hematologic reactions.D. Provides immediate effective therapy for status epilepticus.E. Little relationship between blood concentration and anticonvulsant effect.

The correct answer is: Few serious hematologic reactions.

Question:Which of the following statements refers to plicamycin:

A. Bioavailability < 5%B. IV preparations: 1. Ca chloride 2. Ca gluconateC. Re-sedation may occur.D. Can usually lower serum calcium levels in 48 hours.E. Food supplements: 1. Ca carbonate (highest content) 2. Ca gluconate 3. Ca lactate 4. Ca

glubionate (lowest content) 5. Ca citrateThe correct answer is: Can usually lower serum calcium levels in 48 hours.

Question:Which of the following statements refers to primaquine:

A. Dysphonia - laryngeal myopathy - can be prevented by gargling, slow inhalation, and use of a spacer.

B. Poorly lipid soluble.C. The only drug active against exoerythrocytic forms.D. Stereoisomer quinidine normally used to treat arrhythmias can be substituted for it in case

of emergency.E. Drug of choice for treatment of chloroquine-resistant Plasmodium falciparum.

The correct answer is: The only drug active against exoerythrocytic forms.

Question:Which of the following statements refers to procainamide:

A. Lupus occurs more commonly in slow acetylators.B. Anti-alpha adrenergic effect may cause hypotension in fast IV administration.C. Minimal side effects.D. May induce mild hypotension and worsen congestive heart failure in some patients.

However, most CHF patients can tolerate it.E. Not necessary to adjust dose in renal failure.

The correct answer is: Lupus occurs more commonly in slow acetylators.

Question:Which of the following statements refers to propranolol:

A. Renal failure raises blood concentration.B. Crosses the placenta. May cause neonatal respiratory distress syndrome, but is still

considered safe when symptoms are present. Should not be used as a sole agent in pregnancy with thyrotoxicosis.

C. No first pass effect.D. May induce mild hypotension and worsen congestive heart failure in some patients.

However, most CHF patients can tolerate it.E. Poorly lipid soluble.

The correct answer is: Crosses the placenta. May cause neonatal respiratory distress syndrome, but is still considered safe when symptoms are present. Should not be used as a sole agent in pregnancy with thyrotoxicosis.

Question:Which of the following statements refers to propranolol:

A. No first pass effect.B. Resistance encountered less frequently than to other aminoglycosidesC. Binds to BZ1 (benzodiazepine-1) receptor in the brain.D. Is not effective against hyperthyroidism caused by thyroiditis.E. Lipid profile may worsen.

The correct answer is: Lipid profile may worsen.

Question:Which of the following statements refers to Prozac:

A. Long half-life.B. Blockade of alpha-adrenergic receptors: doxepin = amitriptyline > imipramine >

nortriptyline > desipramineC. Can prevent recurrent infarction and cardiac death in patients recovering from myocardial

infarction.D. MS Contin - sustained release form.E. MOA is inhibited irreversibly. Response occurs when >80% platelet MOA is inhibited.

The correct answer is: Long half-life.

Question:Which of the following statements refers to PZA:

A. Poor availability in CSF and eye.B. Is rarely used because of toxicity and weak activityC. Side effects rare - only after very large doses.D. BactericidalE. Semisynthetic antibiotic derived from Streptomyces

The correct answer is: Bactericidal Question:Which of the following statements refers to rifabutin:

A. Take once a dayB. Not active against dormant organisms; therefore not used in long-term therapyC. Structural analog of nicotinamideD. Does not inhibit eukaryotic peptyidyl transferase.E. Structural analog of rifampin, but is more potent.

The correct answer is: Structural analog of rifampin, but is more potent.

Question:Which of the following statements refers to rifampin:

A. Structural analog of nicotinamideB. Serum phosphorus concentrations should be monitored at least daily in case of oral

administration.C. Crosses placenta; is excreted in breast milk.D. Resistance develops quickly when used as a single agent.E. Uveitis is dose-dependent; rare with doses < 300 mg / day.

The correct answer is: Resistance develops quickly when used as a single agent.

Question:Which of the following statements refers to Rogaine:

A. Oral ISDN: onset of action 15-45 min, duration 2-6 hours.B. Efficacy not well documented but felt to provide some benefit in irritable bowel

syndrome.C. Duration of action - 12 hours.D. Is not effective against ventricular arrhythmias.E. Reflex increase in heart rate and contractility, renin secretion.

The correct answer is: Reflex increase in heart rate and contractility, renin secretion.

Question:Which of the following statements refers to sodium valproate:

A. Typically given 3-4 times a day.B. Metabolized by COMT, MAO.C. Multiple doses per day.D. Incidence of fatal hepatic necrosis is higher in children under 3 who are taking other

anticonvulsants as well.E. Highly lipophylic.

The correct answer is: Incidence of fatal hepatic necrosis is higher in children under 3 who are taking other anticonvulsants as well. Question:Which of the following statements refers to spironolactone:

A. Tertiary amines are more potent against serotonin reuptake, and secondary amines are more potent against norepinephrine reuptake.

B. Is a mixture of pyrimethamine and sulfodoxine.C. Low efficacy. Most prone to nephrolithiasis of all K sparing diuretics.D. Acts by stimulating prostaglandin synthesis (hence interactions with NSAIDs).E. Inhibits Na reabsorption in late distal tubule.

The correct answer is: Inhibits Na reabsorption in late distal tubule.

Question:Which of the following statements refers to terbutaline:

A. Hypertension effects: 1. Blood pressure - decrease 2. Systemic vascular resistance - decrease 3. Heart rate - no change 4. Stroke volume - no change 5. Ejection fraction - no change 6. Venous capacitance - increase 7. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure - no change 8. Renin - increase 9. Plasma aldosterone - decrease 10. Plasma norepinephrine - no change

B. Poor penetration into CSFC. Mechanism of action unknown. Possibly similar to cromolyn.D. May exacerbate coronary artery diseaseE. Substantial first pass effect.

The correct answer is: May exacerbate coronary artery disease Question:Which of the following statements refers to terbutaline:

A. 8-10% of the dose administered is deposited in the airway - the rest is swallowed.B. Duration of action: 4-6 hoursC. Is active in acidic environment, therefore especially useful for killing intracellular

mycobacteriaD. Peak plasma concentration in 1-2 hours.E. Inhibits P450 - 2C9 and 3A4.

The correct answer is: Duration of action: 4-6 hours

Question:Which of the following statements refers to tocainide:

A. Seldom prescribed due to high frequency (0.2%) of side effectsB. Not used for long-term treatment or treatment of situational anxiety.C. Lower doses used in supraventricular tachyarrhythmias may be better tolerated.D. Lipid profile may worsen.E. Effects in heart failure: 1. Blood pressure - no change/decrease 2. Systemic vascular

resistance - decrease 3. Heart rate - decrease 4. Stroke volume - increase 5. Ejection fraction - increase 6. Venous capacitance - increase 7. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure - increase 8. Renin - increase 9. Plasma aldosterone - decrease 10. Plasma norepinephrine - no change/decrease

The correct answer is: Seldom prescribed due to high frequency (0.2%) of side effects

Question:Which of the following statements refers to Tofranil:

A. Diet restrictions: cheese, aged meats, red wine, pickled herring (tyrosine is converted to tyramine in aged products).

B. Used in anesthesia.C. Torsades de pointes - 2% of patients, usually the first week. May respond to dose

reduction.D. MOA is inhibited irreversibly. Response occurs when >80% platelet MOA is inhibited.E. Muscarinic antagonist - both central and peripheral.

The correct answer is: Muscarinic antagonist - both central and peripheral.

Question:Which of the following statements refers to tramadol:

A. Is not effective against ventricular arrhythmias.B. No significant tissue reservoirs.C. Poorly lipid soluble.D. Duration of analgesia - 4 hours.E. Analgesic "ceiling" effect.

The correct answer is: Analgesic "ceiling" effect.

Question:Which of the following statements refers to urokinase:

A. Nephrotoxicity is almost always reversible.B. AV block - from quinidine-like effect; sedation - from H1 blockage.C. As a result of high doses used in clinical settings, is not as specific for fibrin-bound

plasminogen as the natural tPA isD. Activates plasminogen by binding to it and inducing a conformational change leading to

"auto-cleavage"E. Activates plasminogen by directly cleaving it

The correct answer is: Activates plasminogen by directly cleaving it

Question:Which of the following statements refers to valcyclovir:

A. Is a prodrug for acylovir.B. Cytosine monophosphate analogC. In infected cells acyclovir is converted to acyclovir monophosphate by viral thymidine

kinase, and subsequently to triphosphate by host cell kinases.D. Tertiary amines are more potent against serotonin reuptake, and secondary amines are

more potent against norepinephrine reuptake.E. Very large first-pass effect.

The correct answer is: Is a prodrug for acylovir.

Question:Which of the following statements refers to vancomycin:

A. Is less likely to cause bradycardia or AV block than verapamil.B. Tertiary amines are more potent against serotonin reuptake, and secondary amines are

more potent against norepinephrine reuptake.C. Acute pancreatitis may result if triglycerides go above 1000 mg/dL.D. A mixture of Al & Mg hydroxides, Ca carbonate, Na bicarbonate.E. Half-life 9 days in anuric patients

The correct answer is: Half-life 9 days in anuric patients

Question:Which of the following statements refers to verapamil:

A. Oxycontin - sustained release formulation.B. Negligible anticholinergic and cardiotoxic effects.C. Is less likely to cause heart failure than calan.D. Peripheral vasodilation in normotensives is less than in hypertensives.E. Peripheral vasodilation in normotensives as strong as in hypertensives.

The correct answer is: Peripheral vasodilation in normotensives as strong as in hypertensives.

Question:Which of the following statements refers to warfarin:

A. Balanced arteriolar and venous vasodilator effects.B. Possibly drug of choice for Giardia lamblia.C. Due to its nonlinear kinetics, requires constant therapeutic monitoring.D. Effect monitored by PT (prothrombin time)E. Inhibits extrinsic << intrinsic pathway

The correct answer is: Effect monitored by PT (prothrombin time)

Question:Which of the following statements refers to Zoloft:

A. Muscarinic antagonist - both central and peripheral.B. May work when other antidepressants fail.C. MOA is inhibited irreversibly. Response occurs when >80% platelet MOA is inhibited.D. Renal failure raises blood concentration.E. Blockade of muscarinic receptors: doxepin > amitriptyline > imipramine > desipramine,

nortriptylineThe correct answer is: May work when other antidepressants fail.

#3. TOP 200 DRUGS PRESCRIBED IN USA in 2003 Mosby Drugs. In rank column the numbers in parenthesis refer to how many questions in the above test relate to this drug. For example in row #1 (5QA;0QH) means 5 questions on Acetaminophen and zero questions on Hydrocodone. When the drug appears many times as an answer in the above quesions, I indicated [manyA] for many answers).

Those drugs where there were no questions (0Q) I colored the row yellow also. The drugs are active links and you can hold the control key down and right click on the word to read about the drug.

Rank (Rx Volume)

Generic Drug Name Brand Name

1 (5QA;0QH) Acetaminophen; Hydrocodone Generic (Vicodin)2 (0Q) Atorvastatin Lipitor3 (0Q) Levothyroxine Synthroid4 (3Q) Atenolol Generic (Tenormin)5 (2Q) Amoxicillin Generic (many)6 (2Q) Lisinopril Generic (Prinivil; Zestril)7 (3Q) Hydrochlorothiazide Generic (many)8 (4Q) Furosemide Oral Generic (Lasix)

9 (2Q) Albuterol AerosolGeneric (Proventil; Proventil, others)

10 (0Q) Alprazolam Generic (Xanax)11 (0Q) Amlodipine Norvasc (Norvasc)12 (2Q) Sertraline Zoloft13 (0Q) Azithromycin Zithromax Z-Pak14 (4Q) Metoprolol Succinate Toprol XL15 (3Q) Cephalexin Generic (Keflex; Keftab)16 (5QA;0QP) Acetaminophen; Propoxyphene-N Generic (Darvocet)17 (2Q) Simvastatin Zocor18 (2Q) Lansoprazole Prevacid19 (0Q) Ibuprofen Generic (Advil, Motrin)20 (1QT;3QH) Triamterene; Hydrochlorothiazide Generic (Dyazide; Maxzide)21 (0Q) Estrogens; Conjugated Premarin Tabs22 (0Q) Prednisone Oral Generic (many)23 (3Q) Metformin Generic (Glucophage)24 (0Q) Zolpidem Ambien25 (0Q) Levothyroxine Levoxyl26 (1Q) Fluoxetine Generic (Prozac; Sarafem, others)27 (0Q) Fexofenadine Allegra28 (0Q) Celecoxib Celebrex29 (0Q) Ethinyl Estradiol; Norgestimate Ortho Tri-Cyclen30 (0Q) Esomeprazole Nexium31 (5QA;2QC) Acetaminophen; Codeine Generic (Tylenol #?)32 (4Q) Metoprolol Tartrate Generic (Lopressor; Toprol)33 (0Q) Lorazepam Generic (Ativan)34 (0Q) Cetirizine Zyrtec35 (0Q) Montelukast Singulair

36 (0Q) Rofecoxib Vioxx37 (1Q) Alendronate Fosamax38 (0Q) Venlafaxine Extended-Release Effexor XR39 (0Q) Sildenafil Viagra40 (0Q) Gabapentin Neurontin41 (0Q) Potassium Chloride Generic (many)42 (0Q) Citalopram Celexa43 (2Q) Amoxicillin Trimox43 (0Q) Buproprion Sustained-Release Wellbutrin SR44 (2QA;2QC) Amoxicillin; Potassium Clavulanate Generic (Augmentin)45 (2Q) Ranitidine HCl Generic (Zantac)46 (1Q) Paroxetine HCl Paxil47 (0Q) Amitriptyline Generic (Elavil, others)48 (0Q) Clonazepam Generic (Klonopin, others)49 (0Q) Pantoprazole Protonix50 (5Q) Warfarin Generic (Coumadin; Jantoven)51 (0QF;2QS) Fluticasone; Salmeterol Advair Diskus52 (0Q) Fluticasone Flonase53 (0Q) Escitalopram Lexapro54 (0Q) Clopidogrel Plavix55 (3Q) Pravastatin Pravachol56 (2QT;0QS) Trimethoprim/Sulfa Generic (Bactrim, others)57 (0Q) Trazodone HCl Generic (Desyrel)58 (0Q) Levofloxacin Levaquin59 (0Q) Cyclobenzaprine Generic (Flexeril)60 (0Q) Naproxen Generic (Anaprox; Naprosyn)61 (1Q) Enalapril Generic (Vasotec)62 (0Q) Omeprazole Generic (Prilosec)63 (1Q) Quinapril Accupril64 (2Q) Diazepam Generic (Valium)65 (3Q) Fluconazole Diflucan66 (0Q) Ramipril Altace67 (0Q) Valsartan Diovan68 (0QA;1QB) Amlodipine; Benazepril Lotrel69 (5Q; manyA) Penicillin VK Generic (many)70 (5QA;6QO) Acetaminophen; Oxycodone Generic (Percocet, Tylox)71 (0Q) Glipizide Extended-Release Glucotrol XL72 (0Q) Potassium Chloride Klor-Con73 (5Q) Tramadol Generic (Ultram)74 (0Q) Azithromycin Zithromax Suspension75 (0Q) Carisoprodol Generic (Soma)76 (0Q) Desloratadine Clarinex

77 (2Q) Verapamil Sustained-Release Generic (Calan; Isoptin; Verelan)78 (3Q) Doxycycline Generic (Adoxa; Vibramycin)79 (0Q) Ethinyl Estradiol; Norelgestromin Ortho Evra80 (0Q) Valdecoxib Bextra81 (0Q) Isosorbide Mononitrate Generic (Imdur; ISMO; Monoket)82 (1Q) Glyburide Generic (Glycron; Micronase)83 (0Q) Methylprednisolone Tablets Generic (Medrol, others)84 (1Q) Paroxetine HCl Controlled-Release Paxil CR85 (0Q) Clonidine Generic (Catapres)86 (0Q) Allopurinol Generic (Aloprim; Zyloprim)87 (0Q) Pioglitazone Actos88 (0Q) Losartan Cozaar89 (2Q) Albuterol Nebulizer Solution Generic (Proventil; Ventolin)90 (0QV;3QH) Valsartan; Hydrochlorothiazide Diovan HCT91 (0Q) Ciprofloxacin Cipro92 (0Q) Rosiglitazone Avandia93 (2QL;3QH) Lisinopril; Hydrochlorothiazide Generic (Prinzide; Zestoretic)94 (0Q) Folic Acid Generic95 (0Q) Risperidone Risperdal96 (0Q) Mometasone Nasal Nasonex97 (2Q) Digoxin Digitek98 (0Q) Rabeprazole Aciphex99 (5Q) Warfarin Coumadin100 (1Q) Benazepril Lotensin101 (3Q) Metformin Extended-Release Glucophage XR102 (0Q) Fexofenadine; Pseudoephedrine Allegra-D103 (0Q) Methylphenidate Concerta104 (0Q) Olanzapine Zyprexa105 (0Q) Tamsulosin Flomax106 (2Q) Amoxicillin Amoxil107 (0Q) Promethazine Tablets Generic (Phenergan)108 (6Q) Oxycodone OxyContin

109 (1QA; (0QD)Amphetamine; DextroamphetamineExtended- Release

Adderall XR

110 (0Q) Estradiol Oral Generic (Climara; Estrace, others)111 (0Q) Raloxifene Evista112 (0Q) Fluticasone Inhalation Flovent113 (0Q) Temazepam Generic (Restoril)114 (0QL;3QH) Losartan; Hydrochlorothiazide Hyzaar115 (0Q) Fenofibrate Tricor116 (0Q) Glimepiride Amaryl117 (1QG;3QM) Glyburide; Metformin Glucovance

118 (2QA;4QI) Albuterol; Ipratropium Combivent119 (1Q) Spironolactone Generic (Aldactone)120 (0Q) Drospirenone; Ethinyl Estradiol Yasmin 28121 (0Q) Risedronate Actonel122 (0Q) Latanoprost Xalatan123 (2Q) Digoxin Lanoxin124 (0Q) Doxazosin Generic (Cardura)125 (0Q) Metronidazole Tablets Generic (Flagyl)126 (0Q) Valacyclovir Valtrex127 (0Q) Hydroxyzine Generic (Atarax; Hyzine; Vistaril)128 (0Q) Quetiapine Seroquel128 (0Q) Cetirizine Syrup Zyrtec Syrup129 (2Q) Gemfibrozil Generic (Lopid)130 (6Q) Triamcinolone Acetonide Topical Generic (Kenalog)131 (0Q) Metoclopramide Generic (Reglan)132 (0Q) Meclizine HCl Generic (Antivert)133 (0Q) Divalproex Sodium Depakote134 (2QC;0QP) Codeine; Promethazine Generic (None)135 (0Q) Levothyroxine Levothroid136 (0Q) Minocycline Generic (Arestin; Minocin)137 (2Q) Clindamycin Systemic Generic (Cleocin)138 (0Q) Azithromycin Zithromax139 (0Q) Metaxalone Skelaxin140 (5QA;5QT)) Acetaminophen; Tramadol Ultracet141 (0QB;3QH) Bisoprolol; Hydrochlorothiazide Generic (Ziac)142 (0Q) Estrogens; conjugated; Medroxyprogesterone Prempro143 (5QA;6QO) Acetaminophen; Oxycodone Endocet144 (0Q; manyA) Insulin Glargine Lantus145 (0Q) Cefdinir Omnicef146 (2QA;2QC) Amoxicillin; Potassium Clavulanate Augmentin ES-600147 (0Q) Topiramate Topamax148 (0Q) Irbesartan Avapro149 (0Q) Nitrofurantoin Macrobid150 (2QA;0QB) Acetaminophen; Butalbital; Caffeine Generic (Esgic; Fioricet)151 (2Q) Famotidine Generic (Pepcid)152 (0Q) Omeprazole Prilosec153 (0Q) Sumatriptan Oral Imitrex Oral154 (0Q) Glipizide Generic (Glucotrol)155 (0Q) Carvediol Coreg156 (0Q) Human Insulin Isophane (Recombinant) Humulin N157 (0Q) Tolterodine long-acting Detrol LA158 (3Q) Budesonide Nasal Rhinocort Aqua

159 (0Q) Terazosin Generic (Hytrin)160 (1Q) Buspirone HCl Generic (Buspar)161 (8Q) Propranolol HCl Generic (Inderal)162 (3Q) Diltiazem CD Generic (Cardizem)163 (0Q) Ezetimibe Zetia164 (6Q) Triamcinolone Acetonide Nasal Nasacort AQ165 (3Q) Diltiazem Extended-Release Cartia XT166 (1Q) Fosinopril Monopril167 (0Q) Medroxyprogesterone Tablets Generic (Depo-Provera, Provera)168 (0Q) Ethinyl Estradiol; Levonorgestrel Aviane169 (0Q) Cefprozil Cefzil170 (2Q;manyA) Acyclovir Generic (Zovirax)171 (2Q) Clarithromycin Extended-Release Biaxin XL172 (2Q) Lovastatin Generic (Mevacor)173 (0Q) Mupirocin Bactroban174 (0Q) Nifedipine Extended-Release Generic (Adalat; Procardia)175 (0Q) Insulin Lispro Humalog176 (0Q) Ciprofloxacin HCl Generic (Ciloxan; Cipro)177 (3Q) Fentanyl Transdermal Duragesic178 (0Q) Olopatadine Patanol179 (1Q) Paroxetine Generic (Paxil)180 (0Q) Clotrimazole; Betamethasone Generic (Lotrisone)181 (2Q) Captopril Generic (Capoten)182 (0Q) Polyethylene Glycol 3350 Miralax183 (0Q) Cetirizine; Pseudoephedrine Zyrtec-D184 (0Q) Atomoxetine Strattera185 (0Q) Benzonatate Generic (Tessalon)186 (4Q) Aspirin; Enteric-Coated Generic (none)187 (0Q) Ethinyl Estradiol; Levonorgestrel Trivora-28188 (4Q) Phenytoin Sodium Extended Dilantin Kapseals189 (0Q) Nortriptyline Generic (Pamelor)190 (0Q) Tizanidine HCl Generic (Zanaflex)191 (0Q) Ferrous Sulfate Generic (none)192 (0Q) Pimecrolimus Elidel

193 (0Q)Human Insulin Regular/Isophane (Recombinant)

Humulin 70/30

194 (0Q) Diclofenac Sodium Generic (Voltaren)195 (8Q) Propranolol Long-Acting Inderal LA196 (0Q) Donepezil Aricept197 (0Q) Chlorpheniramine Maleate; Hydrocodone Tussionex198 (0Q) Desogestrel; Ethinyl Estradiol Apri199 (0Q) Oxybutynin Chloride Extended-Release Ditropan XL

200 (0Q) Phenazopyridine HCl Generic (Eridium; Urodol) Good Luck to all and there is no substitute for long hours studying!! Dr. Clark

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Pharmacology Board Exam 2009