DGCA NOV. 2009 (Modular System)

Q1. Approval of cat. F is not required in 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D

Q2. Who can raise log book in respect of newly manufactured A/C 1. Manufacture 2. A/W authority of country of manufacture 3. Owner of A/C with prior approval of competent authority

Q3. AO changes its location of maintenance facilities 1. Within 15 days 2. With in 1 month 3. Immediate 4. At earliest opportunity

Q4. Special inspection schedule of A/C MTOW above 5700 kg 1. QCM of operator 2. RAO /SRAO 3. DGCA Hq.

Q5. Authorization will not be issued in case of inspection failure is recorded in 1. 3 month 2. 6 month 3. 12 month 4. 24 month

Q6. Modification is1. Change incorporated in A/C during major inspection schedule 2. In consultation with RAO 3. Change to type certificated A/C 4. All

Q7. Modification is issued by manufacture on type certificate A/C 1. Require approval of DAGC Hq. 2. Require approval of RAO 3. Deemed to be approved modification 4. 1&2

Q8. Approval granted to BAMEL required approval of 1. 6 month in year 2. 3 month in year 3. 3 month in year 4. 6 month in year at least 20 transit /day over inspection

Q9. MTCS ( ETOPS) 1. Fly abroad 2. Fly over water more than 120 NM 3. Fly beyond 120 min. from airport

Q10. MTCS 1. Minimum deviation from normal operation 2. Values are acceptable 3. For reference to indicate corrective action require 4. Fixed in consultation with QC department

Q11. Storage /self life of other than gyro instrument shall not exceed beyond 1. 1yr. 2. 2yr. 3. 3yr. 4. 4yr.

Q12. increase in service life require prior approval of 1. RAO 2. DGCA 3. Both 1&2

Q13. ACC 4 of 19981. Approval of foreign organization 2. Approval of Indian organization 3. Both 4. None

Q14. Electrostatic device 1. ACC 6 of 2004 2. ACC 6 of 2000 3. ACC 6 of 2001 4. ACC 6 of 2005

Q15. If the A/C does not leave the vicinity of the departing aerodrome require 1. FRC 2. Air operation permit 3. C of A 4. C of R

Q16. Class III aeronautical product does not require 1. A/W Approval tag 2. Compliance with FAR /JAR 21 3. Statement of AD complied with 4. 1&2

Q17. ETOPS manual does not contain 1. A/C serial NO. 2. World fleet 3. Registration No.. 4. APU

Q18. According to CAR 145 uninstalled component excluding engine /APU 1. Class A 2. Class B 3. Class C

Q19. In helicopter when technical unit fails, force landing must be required 1. Class I 2. Class II 3. Class III

Q20. For issue of Cof A 1. CA 28 2. CA 25 3. CA 2001 4. CA 23

Q21. History card contain 1. Hard time 2. On condition 3. condition monitoring 4. 1&2

Q22. Weight and balance 1. Rule 55 2. Rule 56 3. Rule 57 4. Rule 58

Q23 Load and trim sheet is prepared by 1.All operator 2. Schedule operator 3. Non schedule operator 4. All operator excluding private operator

Q24 Section 4 of flight manual 1. Normal 2. Emergency 3. General 4. Limitation

Q25 Refresher course 1. ACC 8 of 2001 2. AAC 5 of 2001 3. ACC 8 of 2000

Q26 refresher course is not require 1. Instructor 2. Flying crew 3. Welders 4. All

Q27 QAR /PMR 1. 50hrs. of operation 2. 30 hrs. of operation 3. 30 days of operation 4. 30 min of operation

Q28 For Mode S address operator will apply 1. DGCA Hq. 2. RAO 3. RAO/SRAO 4. Non e

Q29 Good maintenance practices are not required for 1. Technicians 2. Manger 3. Supervisor 4. All

Q30 When intruder is in potential thread 1. RA 2. TA 3. SSR 4. ACAS

Q31 Flight test is not require in 1. When engine change 2. C of A renewal 3. Any repair which does not affect its flight characteristics 4. All

Q32 Operational check for non radiation load in ELT is done every 1. 12 month 2. 36 month 3. 6month 4. 24 month

Q33 Log book of private A/C is maintained by 1. Owner 2. Operator 3. manufacture 4. All

Q34 calibration of dipstick is done by1. DGCA 2. Owner 3. PIC

Q35 Light A/C 1. A/C weight less than 5700 kg or less 2. A/C weight less than 3000kg 3. A/C used for training purpose

Q36 MTCS ( alert Value)1. Piston engine parameter are recorded every 100 hrs 2. Alert value not for acceptance 3. DGCA office must be inform when alert value is reach

Q37 Detoiration of item is acceptable in1. Hard time 2. On condition 3. Condition monitoring

Q38 ACAS certification 1. Cat . I 2. Any avionics engineer 3. Cat. R and QCM certification

Q39 If A/C is imported from outside the country its C of A validity will start from 1. Date of issue export C of A 2. As in 1and restricted to validity of export C of A 3. 1&2 correct

Q40 when C of A lapse in the foreign ground 1. Normal procedure for renewal of c of a will be followed 2. Its validity will be extended till it comes back by dgca hq. 3. It will be renewed on the ground where it has lapsed 4. None

Q41 Defect register should be1. Kept at normal base 2. Carried on board and pilot will enter al defect init 3. Both

Q42 MEL is applicable1. where manufacture has issue MMEL 2. Scheduled operator 3. General aviation operator 4. All

Q43 When Mel is invoked by AME then AME will 1. Inform the pilot and make all record in the technical log 2. Inform pilot and QCM 3. Both

Q44 For life development program of engine or its accessories then operator will follow 1. Manufacture recommendation 2. TBO 3. Both

Q45 For fixation of TBO / COSL1. Manufacture recommendation and operating experience 2. Whether the A/C is for which type 3. All

Q46 Maintenance control by reliability method 1. QCM 2. QCM/MSM 3.MSM 4. All

Q47 Procedure for in-house audit 1. QCM 2. QCM/MSM 3.MSM 4. All

Q48 Weight and balance sheet is prepared by 1. All operator 2. scheduled operator 3. Non scheduled operator 4. All

Q49 Guidance installation of A/C radio equipment 1. A/C rules 1937 2. BCR section R AC 4313 3. R –I 4. Both 1&2

Q50 When MEL is prepared schedule operator will inform about forward carried defect to 1. Monthly to concerned RAO 2. 3 month to DGCA 3. Monthly to manufacture 4. Any of the above

Q51 MTCS 1. Damage tolerant 2. If it does not sustain remaining parts damage 3. Both

Q52 If A/C sustains damage outside country ferry flight permit is given by 1. A/w authority when a/c is on base 2. DGCA Hq. 3. Regulatory authority of country of manufacture

Q53 MTCS hoses1. Periodic inspection of hoses is done once a yr. 2. Hose pressure to be tested 1 ½ workly pressure 3. 1&2 4. None

Q54 When any operator is importing any a/c with document he will carry history card for inspection for such components to carrying out the maintenance 1. Hard maintenance and on condition 2. Hard time maintenance 3. Condition monitoring 4, All

Q55 Form CA 25 is for 1. C of R 2. C of A 3. Flight manual 4. All

Q56 Which of the following radially accessible to pilot 1. Flight manual 2. Operation manual 3. Log book 4. All

Q57 If a/c is not living its vicinity area the documents required on the board 1. C of A 2. Air operator permit 3. JLB 4. FRC

Q58 Responsibility for log book of private a/c 1. Operator 2. QCM 3. Organization

Q59 When Cof A of an A/c is ceased at out side of India 1. A/C will be brought to India with ferry flight 2. Procedure will be completed at the station where A/C is grounded

Q60 When any operator changes its location than he will notify DGCA 1. With in 15 days of change 2. With in 30 days 3. Immediately 4. At earliest opportunity

Q61 Which organization need separating approval for cat. F 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D

Q62 The operator can change from one maintenance process to another e.g from Hard time maintenance to on condition or on condition to condition or vise versa such as a program will have to be approved by 1. RAO 2. DGCA 3. QCM 4. All

Q63 Light A/C means 1. AUW 5700 kg or less 2. AUW 3000kg or above 3. AUW 7000 kg 4. All

Q64 The maintenance program to which the a/c has been previously maintained including 1. Previous check cycle 2. Future check cycle 3. Compliance with Indian mandatory 4. All

Q65 Maintenance control by reliability method is a part of which manual 1. QC manual 2. MS manual 3. operator manual 4. ALL

Q66 Special inspection schedule of an a/c over 5700kg auw will be approved by 1. QCM 2. RAO 3. DGCA

Q67 If instrument of indicating fuel quantity is not satisfactory than it is whose responsibility to carry dipstick 1. pilot 2. AME 3. Flight crew 4. ALL

Q68 After duplicate inspection if any part is disturbed than 1. A/ C will release with QCM permission 2. A/ C will be released with invoking MEL3. The disturbed part will be inspected in duplicate by a person authorized for it

Q69 A/ C fitted with PMR /QMR its retaining period will be of1. 30 hrs. 2. 30 days 3. 50 days 4. 50 hrs .

Q70 ACAS should be installed by 1. Cat. A &C 2. Any avionic cat. 3. Cat. R and authorized

Q71 Guidance for ESDS is in 1. AAC 6 of 2000 2. ACC 2 of 2006

Q72 operation check of non radiating load EIT 1. With in 12 months 2. within 6 month 3. With in 3 month 4. none

Q73 Who can raise the log book of newly manufactured a/c 1. Manufacture 2. regulatory authority 3. owner in consultation with competent authority

Q74 Schedule operator will analyze all defects related to MEL will be submitted to 1. RAO every month 2. DGCA 3 month

Q75 Modification means 1. Change of design 2. Change in type certified product 3. Modification is carried out during major inspection schedule 4. All

Q76 When operator do any modification to he will inform 1. Manufacture 2. DGCA hq. 3. RAO 4. All

Q77 MTCS 1. Minimum deviation from normal operating range 2. Acceptable limit 3. For reference only for piston engine that corrective action is required

Q78 When component of the propeller is removed from engine entry should be made 1. Propeller and engine log book 2. As in 1 also in a/c log book 3. Components own log book

Q79 Authorization will not be renewed to a person it has failed in inspection record in last 1. 3month 2. 6month 3. 12 month

Q80 A/C defect register shall be

1. Kept on board 2. At the normal base 3. As in 1 and all abnormal occurrence like heavy landing will be entered by flight crew

Q81 In case a/c sustain damage outside the country application for special flight permit is given to 1. A/w office where a/c is based 2. DGCA 3. Where a/c sustain damage

Q82 In which case flight test is not required 1. When engine is changed 2. Any modification which does not effect flight safety 3. Major modification

Q83 Preparation of MEL is mandatory for 1. For whom MMEL is issued 2. General aviation 3. Non schedule 4. All

Q84 When AME invoke MEL 1. Inform to pilot 2. As in 1mentaion technical log

Q85 For approval of sub base the inspection schedule should be less than1. 50 hrs. 2. 100hrs, 3. 200hrs. 4. None

Q86 Approval granted to BAMEL require 1. 6monthly in 1yr. 2. 3 month in 6 month 3. 3 month in 1 yr4. 6 month in 1 yr at least 20 transit/ lay over

Q87 Modification issued by manufacture by type certificate a/c 1. Require approval of DGAC hq. 2. Required. Approval of RAO 3. Deemed to be as approved modification 4. 1&2

Q88. The study of efficiency of person in their working environment and human machine system design issues is called1. Agronomics 2. Economics 3. Ergonomics 4. All

Q89. An error or violation which has an immediate adverse effect is called1. Active failure 2. Passive failure 3. Latent failure 4. None

Q90. A result of action or decision made wall before an accident the consequence which may remain dormant for a log time is known as 1. Active failure 2. safety failure 3. Latent failure 4. All

Q91. The error may have been caused by latent failure such as deficient training, poor allocation of resources time pressure etc. they may also have been caused by 1. Poor design of tool /equipment 2. Poor maintenance 3. Poor training

Q92. Knob and lever which are poorly located or lack of proper coding creates mismatch interface between 1. Live ware 2. Software 3. Hardware 4. 1&3 both

Q93. The difference between personality and attitude is 1. relevant 2. irrelevant 3. As in 1 and it is unrealistic to expect a change in personality through routine training 4. As in 2 and attitude are less susceptible to change through training

Q94. The difference between what a person can do what he will actually do is called1. Motivation 2. Co- ordination 3. Inspiration 4. De-motivation

Q95. The factor that determines whether a person will do so in a given situation is called 1. Co- ordination 2. Motivation 3. Co- operation

Q96. A person whose ideas and action influence the thought and the behavior of other is known as 1. politician 2. Leader 3. Commander

Q97. A condition reflecting inadequate rest as well as collection of symptoms associated with displaced or disturbed biological rhythms is called1. Jet log 2. Circadian rhythms 3. Fatigue

Q98. The use of drugs such as hypnotics, sedatives and tranquilizers to induce sleep is usually1. appropriate 2. Inappropriate 3. as in 2 and they have adverse effect on performance 4. As in 1 and should be taken with advise of medical practitioner

Q99. Caffeine in coffee, tea and various soft drinks increases alertness and 1. Keep awaking 2. Reduces reaction times 3. Health in sleep 4. Both 1&3

Q100. Sleep has a restorative function and is essential for mental performance. Sleep deprivation and disturbance can 1. Increase alertness and attention 2. Increase performance 3. Reduce alertness and attention 4. None

INSTITUTE OF AERONAUTICS & ENGINEERINGDGCA Human factor NOV. 2009 (Modular System)

Q1 Faulty maintenance work which contributed to the accident was performed 1. During night sift only 2. during inspection in day light 3. Inducing L-E interface flaw 4. 1&3

Q2 Climbing over wings and horizontal stabilizer and working in uncomfortable position are common and generally engineers performance in this situation may be related to 1. Fitness and health 2. Mental situation of individual 3. Good performance as he is alone on work

Q3 Glare may produces discomfort or annoyance and 1. Helps in working environment to see object 2. May inter fare with visual performance

Q4 Vibration in any form of oscillating motion that changes its magnitude periodically and is of operational significance in aviation because 1. It does not impair visual acuity 2. It may impair visual acuity 3. Interfere with neuromuscular control and lead to fatigue 4. Both 2&3

Q5 The success of communication program depends on 1. Non verbal /gesture communication 2. The degree to which the intended massage is understood by the receiver 3. Background noise problem

Q6 For the study of information related to the investigation human factors issues are obtained from 1. Advisory circular 2. Information circular 3. Maps 4. Chart/navigation (check list)

Q7 error tolerance refers to 1. Error reduction strategies which includes improving access to part 2. The ability of a system to accept en error with out catastrophic consequences

Q8 study of efficiency of a person, study of human machine system design is 1. Agronomics 2. Ergonomics 3. Human factor 4. None

Q9 Factor that effect the human performance 1. noise 2. Environment 3. As in 1&2 light and darkness 4. None

Q10 The difference between what a person can do and what he will do 1. Motivation 2. Communication 3. Culture

Q11 the frequency of vibration, acceleration changes which effect 1. Visual acuity 2. Neuromuscular system 3. Fatigue 4. Any of the above

Q12 A condition reflecting inadequate rest is called 1. Circadian rhythm disturbance 2. Fatigue 3. None

Q13 The difference between attitude and personality is1. Relevant 2. irrelevant 3. As in 1 and attitude can be changed through training 4. As in 2and personality can be changed through training

Q14 A person whose ideas and act’s influence thought and behavior of other 1. Leader 2. Supervisor 3. Co ordination 4. Manager

Q15 The stress due to noise, temp., humidity is called 1. Environmental stress 2. Mental stress 3. Cognitive stress

Q16 Coffin in coffee and tea has effect 1. Reduces the reaction time 2. Increases the reaction time 3. As in 1 nad disturb sleep

Q17 Transequilizers and sleeping tablets 1. Adequate and doctor advice 2. Inadequate 3. As in 2 and affect human performance

Q18 Glare produces causes 1. Discomfort and annoyance 2. As in 1 and may interfere with visual performance

Q19 When inspection is carried out over fuselage and wing the performance of AME depends 1. Mental status of AME 2. Health and physical status of AME 3. Social status of AME

Q20 Error tolerance means1. The ability of a system to accept an error with out catastrophic consequences

Q21 Factor affecting training1. Discomfort 2. As in 1 and low motivation

Q22 Training program of an organization is for 1. To develop interpersonal relationship 2. Increase group decision making 3. As in 2 and develop interpersonal skill

Q23 To eliminate error completely is unrealistic so the design of a/c should be 1. Fail safe 2.Error tolerant 3. Safe failure 4. Damage tolerant

Q24 Errors are caused due to carelessness negligence or poor judgment and other are caused 1. Poorly designed equipment 2. As in 1 and normal reaction of a person to a particular situation

Q25 Knobs and levers which are poorly located or lack of proper coding create mismatch at 1. Live ware and hard ware 2. Live ware and live ware 3. Live ware and software

Q26 A good communication is ensured when 1. When massage of sender is understood by recipient 2. Message of sender isn’t understood by recipient

Q27 Human factor training on communication is to 1. Prevent communication error 2. Explanation of common communication problem 3. Ambiguous, Misleading, inappropriate combined with expect 4. All

Q28 Failures are of two types the failure which are error and violation having an immediate adverse effect is called1. Latent failure 2. Active failure 3. Active and latent failure

Q29 The failure which may remain dormant for a long time is called 1. Latent Failure 2. Active failure

Q30 Knob and levers poorly located or lack of proper coding create mismatch at 1. Live ware interface 2. Soft ware interface 3. Hard ware interface 4. As in 1&3

Q31 Well designed team result in 1. Improvement in work performance 2. As in 1 and employees satisfaction 3. Low productivity

Q32 there should be a mechanism in team 1. To identify individual performance 2. As in 1 and individual contribution to team

Q33 Which of the following has pathogenic effect impaired hearing change in blood pressure headaches, gastrointestinal problem such as ulcers 1. Illumination 2. Sickness 3. Noise

Q34 Sleep deprivation and disturbance has affect on 1. Weaken our body 2. Reduce alertness and attention

Q35 Work team should have 1. Various skills 2. No. of task 3. As in 1 &2 such as hydraulic, electrical and rigging skills

Q36 What determine whether a person will do so in a given situation 1. Communication 2. Motivation 3. Co ordination 4. All

Q37 potential for worker satisfaction and improved out can be achieved by 1. Regard system 2. Selection and staffing 3. Training 4. All

Q38 Faulty maintenance work which contribute to the accident was performed during 1. Night shift 2. Day shift 3. Shift hand over and as in 1

Q39 Errors are mainly caused due to 1. Deficient training to maintenance person 2. Poor allocation of resources and maintenance tool3. Time pressure 4. As in 1,2,and 3 and poor ergonomics design of tool

Q40 While some error may be due to carelessness negligence or poor judgment many are induced by 1. Poorly designed equipment 2. Time pressure 3. Poor training 4. None

Q41 Errors due to poor equipment design or stressful are likely to be remedied by 1. Proper training to engineer 2. Practicing ergonomics 3. None