24
1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of this page. 2. This paper consists of fifty multiple-choice type of questions. 3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below : (i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a booklet without sticker-seal and do not accept an open booklet. (ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in the booklet with the information printed on the cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any other discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a correct booklet from the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be given. (iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Number should be entered on the OMR Sheet and the OMR Sheet Number should be entered on this Test Booklet. 4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (1), (2), (3) and (4). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on the correct response against each item. Example : where (3) is the correct response. 5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark your response at any place other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated. 6. Read instructions given inside carefully. 7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet. 8. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or put any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair means, such as change of response by scratching or using white fluid, you will render yourself liable to disqualification. 9. You have to return the Original OMR Sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed to carry original question booklet and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on conclusion of examination. 10. Use only Black Ball point pen provided by C.B.S.E. 11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited. 12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers. 13. In case of any discrepancy in the English and Hindi versions, English version will be taken as final. Number of Pages in this Booklet : 24 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 50 Instructions for the Candidates fl‚ı£º Œ » fi/¿ 1. ˆ flØ´ Œ fl‚ fi ˆ£fi fl‚ flfi ‚Œ» fi·²‚ » 2. ˆ flˇ¿fi-fl¡ ·º flˆ ²˘ª »fl flˇ¿fi ˘ 3. fl‚ı flˇ‚·‡ ˘ŒfiŒ fl‚, flˇ¿fi-flªˆ fl Œ /Œ / Œ fl˘»Œ fl ·fi™ fl Œ flˇ¿fi-flªˆ Œ»fiŒ £ ˆ fi·fi» Œ » /Œ ºŒ, ˆ fl Œ ¿ ‚fi ˘ : (i) flˇ¿fi-flªˆ Œ»fiŒ Œ » flªˆ fl‚ » ˆ» Œ – »º ª» ˘ª ²fi ˆ™ ‚-ˆ» flªˆ ˆ ‚ fi ‚º (ii) ‚ flØ´ fl‚ flŒ fi/¿fiªˆ‚ flˇ¿fi-flªˆ Œ flØ´ £ flˇ¿fiº ˆ Œ ‚˘ ‚ »º Œ fl‚Œ ˘ /Œ ´fl ª ˆ fi·º Ø ´/flˇ ¿fi · ˘º /ª²‚ Œ ˘º ˆ‚» ·º fi ˘º £¸ ˆ ‡ flˇ ‚ ¡ª™fl flªˆ ˆ ‚ fi ‚º £ ˆ ˆ· ˆŒ »™ ‚ ˆŒ ˆ£fi fl‚ /ˆ‚ ˆ˘ flˇ¿fi-flªˆ »Œ »º ˆŒ » fl Œ fl ·fi™ /Œ ºŒ ˆŒ ²/ fi Œ fl flˇ ¿fi-flª ˆ flˆ » Œ ‚ fi ˘ fl Œ ‚ ˆ· / Œ (iii) ˆ Œ ²/ fl ˇ ¿fi-fl ª ˆ fi ²‚ OMR fl¡ fl‚ º ‚ OMR fl¡ fi ²‚ ˆ fl ˇ ¿fi-fl ª ˆ fl‚ ‚ /º 4. flˇŒ flˇ¿fi Œ » ‚ ¢‚ »fl (1), (2), (3) £ (4) /Œ Œ ˘ fl Œ ˆ˘ ¢‚ Œ Ø¢ Œ flŒfi ˆŒ ‡‚ ‚ » ‚fi ˘ ˆ fiŒ / ˘ : /˘‚ : ² (3) ˆ˘ ¢‚ ˘ 5. flˇ¿fiº Œ ¢‚ Œ » flˇ¿fi flªˆ Œ fi/‚ /Œ Œ OMR fl¡ fl‚ ˘ ‚fiŒ ˘ / fl OMR fl¡ fl‚ /Œ Œ Ø¢ Œ » ˆ fi ˆ£fi fl‚ ¢‚ ¯fi ‚Œ ˘, Œ ˆ ·» fi fi˘ ˘Œ 6. fi/‚ /Œ Œ fi/¿º Œ ‹fifl flº 7. · (Rough Work) ˆ flªˆ Œ fi· flØ´ fl‚ ‚º 8. / fl OMR fl¡ fl‚ fi ˆ£fi Œ » flfi fi·, ‚Œ» fi·²‚, – Œfi fi·²‚ Œ ‡ Œˆ ¯fi ˆˆŒ fl fl˘fi ˘Œ ˆŒ , ‚Œ ˘ £ ‡ƒ ‡´ flˇŒ ‚Œ ˘, Œ fi fiª ˆ‹fi flˇŒ ‚Œ ˘, ˆŒ Œ Œ ¢‚ Œ ·™fi ˆ–Œ / ˆ˘ ˆŒ ²/»fi Œ fl‚ı Œ »Œ Œ Œ´ Œ ˆ Œ ˘ 9. Œ fl‚ı ˆ·fl ˘Œ Œ fl‚ · » OMR fl¡ fi‚ı ·˘Œ / Œ » ™fi ¿ ˘ ‚ fl‚ı ˆ·fl Œ ²/ ˆ Œ flfi Œ ˆ£ fl‚ı ‡fi ˆ Œ ²˘‚ fi » Œ º ˘» fl fl‚ı ˆ·fl fl‚ · » fl ˇ ¿fi-fl ª ˆ £ OMR fl¡ ª fl»Œ ™ fl ˇ flfi Œ ˆ£ » Œ ˆ Œ ˘ 10. Œ » C.B.S.E. «‚ flˇ /fi Œ Œ »Œ ²» fl ™ flŒ ˘ ˆŒ·» ‚º 11. ˆ ‡ flˇ ‚ ˆ ( »ª »Œ™‚) » ™Œ²» / flˇŒ ˘ 12. » ¢‚º Œ » Œ fi ‚· fi˘ ˘ 13. / ˇŒ ˘/ ‚ ·º Œ ˆ ˘Œ, Œ ˇŒ ‚ · ·fi [Maximum Marks : 100 Time : 1 1 / 4 hours] PAPER-II PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION (To be filled by the Candidate) Signature and Name of Invigilator OMR Sheet No. : ............................................... Roll No. (In words) 1. (Signature) __________________________ (Name) ____________________________ 2. (Signature) __________________________ (Name) ____________________________ Roll No.________________________________ 14 (In figures as per admission card) J 1 6 J-14-16 1 P.T.O. www.examrace.com

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Page 1: PAPER-II PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION - Examrace · PDF fileAt the commencement of examination, the question booklet ... PAPER-II PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION (To be filled by the Candidate) Signature

1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top ofthis page.

2. This paper consists of fifty multiple-choice type of questions.3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet

will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requestedto open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below :(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the

paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accepta booklet without sticker-seal and do not accept an openbooklet.

(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questionsin the booklet with the information printed on thecover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questionsmissing or duplicate or not in serial order or anyother discrepancy should be got replaced immediatelyby a correct booklet from the invigilator within theperiod of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the QuestionBooklet will be replaced nor any extra time will begiven.

(iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Numbershould be entered on  the OMR Sheet and the OMRSheet Number should be entered on this Test Booklet.

4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (1), (2), (3)and (4). You have to darken the circle as indicated below onthe correct response against each item.

Example :

where (3) is the correct response.5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR

Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark yourresponse at any place other than in the circle in the OMRSheet, it will not be evaluated.

6. Read instructions given inside carefully.7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet.8. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or put

any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the spaceallotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose youridentity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfairmeans, such as change of response by scratching or usingwhite fluid, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.

9. You have to return the Original OMR Sheet to the invigilatorsat the end of the examination compulsorily and must notcarry it with you outside the Examination Hall. You are,however, allowed to carry original question booklet andduplicate copy of OMR Sheet on conclusion of examination.

10. Use only Black Ball point pen provided by C.B.S.E.11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers.13. In case of any discrepancy in the English and Hindi versions,

English version will be taken as final.

Number of Pages in this Booklet : 24 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 50

Instructions for the Candidates ¯Ö¸ßõÖÖÙ£ÖµÖÖë Ûê ×»Ö� ×®Ö¤ì¿Ö1. �ÃÖ ¯ÖéÂ� Ûê � ¯Ö¸ ×®ÖµÖ�Ö Ã£ÖÖ®Ö ¯Ö¸ �¯Ö®ÖÖ ¸Öê»Ö ®Ö´²Ö¸ ×»Ö×ÜÖ� �2. �ÃÖ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Ö¡Ö ´Öë ¯Ö�ÖÖÃÖ ²ÖÆã×¾ÖÛ »¯ÖßµÖ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö Æï �3. ¯Ö¸ßõÖÖ ¯ÖÏÖ¸´³Ö ÆÖê®Öê ¯Ö¸, ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×Ã�ÖÛ Ö �Ö¯ÖÛ Öê ¤ê ¤ß �ÖÖµÖêÝÖß � ¯ÖÆ»Öê

¯ÖÖÑ�Ö ×´Ö®Ö� �Ö¯ÖÛ Öê ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×Ã�ÖÛ Ö ÜÖÖê»Ö®Öê �Ö£ÖÖ �ÃÖÛ ß ×®Ö´®Ö×»Ö×ÜÖ�Ö�ÖÖÑ�Ö Ûê ×»Ö� פµÖê �ÖÖµÖëÝÖê, ×�ÖÃÖÛ ß �ÖÖÑ�Ö �Ö¯ÖÛ Öê �¾Ö¿µÖ Û ¸®Öß Æî :(i) ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×Ã�ÖÛ Ö ÜÖÖê»Ö®Öê Ûê ×»Ö� ¯Öã×Ã�ÖÛ Ö ¯Ö¸ »ÖÝÖß Û ÖÝÖ�Ö Û ß ÃÖß»Ö

Û Öê ± Ö�Ì »Öë � ÜÖã»Öß Æã�Ô µÖÖ ×²Ö®ÖÖ Ã�ßÛ ¸-ÃÖß»Ö Û ß ¯Öã×Ã�ÖÛ ÖþÖßÛ Ö¸ ®Ö Û ¸ë �

(ii) Û ¾Ö¸ ¯ÖéÂ� ¯Ö¸ �¯Öê ×®Ö¤ì¿ÖÖ®ÖãÃÖÖ¸ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×Ã�ÖÛ Ö Ûê ¯ÖéÂ� �Ö£ÖÖ¯ÖÏ¿®ÖÖë Û ß ÃÖÓܵÖÖ Û Öê ���ß �Ö¸Æ �ÖîÛ Û ¸ »Öë ×Û µÖê ¯Öæ¸êÆï � ¤ÖêÂÖ¯ÖæÞÖÔ ¯Öã×Ã�ÖÛ Ö ×�Ö®Ö´Öë ¯ÖéÂ�/¯ÖÏ¿®Ö Û ´Ö ÆÖë µÖÖ ¤ã²ÖÖ¸Ö �ÖÝÖµÖê ÆÖë µÖÖ ÃÖß׸µÖ»Ö ´Öë ®Ö ÆÖë �£ÖÖÔ�ÖË ×Û ÃÖß ³Öß ¯ÖÏÛ Ö¸ Û ß¡Öã×� ¯ÖæÞÖÔ ¯Öã×Ã�ÖÛ Ö Ã¾ÖßÛ Ö¸ ®Ö Û ¸ë �Ö£ÖÖ �ÃÖß ÃÖ´ÖµÖ �ÃÖê»ÖÖî�ÖÛ ¸ �ÃÖÛê ãÖÖ®Ö ¯Ö¸ ¤æÃÖ¸ß ÃÖÆß ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×Ã�ÖÛ Ö »Öê »Öë ��ÃÖÛê ×»Ö� �Ö¯ÖÛ Öê ¯ÖÖÑ�Ö ×´Ö®Ö� פµÖê �ÖÖµÖëÝÖê � �ÃÖÛê ²ÖÖ¤ ®Ö�ÖÖê �Ö¯ÖÛ ß ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×Ã�ÖÛ Ö ¾ÖÖ¯ÖÃÖ »Öß �ÖÖµÖêÝÖß �Öî ®Ö Æß �Ö¯ÖÛ Öê�×�Ö׸��Ö ÃÖ´ÖµÖ ×¤µÖÖ �ÖÖµÖêÝÖÖ �

(iii) �ÃÖ �ÖÖÑ�Ö Ûê ²ÖÖ¤ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×Ã�ÖÛ Ö Û Ö ®ÖÓ²Ö¸ OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛ ¯Ö¸ �Ó×Û �Ö Û ë�Öî OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛ Û Ö ®ÖÓ²Ö¸ �ÃÖ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×Ã�ÖÛ Ö ¯Ö¸ �Ó×Û �Ö Û ¸ ¤ë �

4. ¯ÖÏ�µÖêÛ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö Ûê ×»Ö� �ÖÖ¸ �¢Ö¸ ×¾ÖÛ »¯Ö (1), (2), (3) �Ö£ÖÖ (4) פµÖê ÝÖµÖêÆï � �Ö¯ÖÛ Öê ÃÖÆß �¢Ö¸ Ûê ¾Öé¢Ö Û Öê ¯Öê®Ö ÃÖê ³Ö¸Û ¸ Û Ö»ÖÖ Û ¸®ÖÖ Æî �ÖîÃÖÖ×Û ®Öß�Öê פÜÖÖµÖÖ ÝÖµÖÖ Æî :�¤ÖƸÞÖ :�Ö²Ö×Û (3) ÃÖÆß �¢Ö¸ Æî �

5. ¯ÖÏ¿®ÖÖë Ûê �¢Ö¸ Ûê ¾Ö»Ö ÖÏ¿®Ö Öã×Ã�ÖÛ Ö Ûê �®¤¸ פµÖê ÝÖµÖê OMR Ö¡ÖÛ Ö¸Æß �Ó×Û �Ö Û ¸®Öê Æï � µÖפ �Ö¯Ö OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛ ¯Ö¸ פµÖê ÝÖµÖê ¾Öé¢Ö Ûê �»ÖÖ¾ÖÖ×Û ÃÖß �®µÖ ãÖÖ®Ö ¯Ö¸ �¢Ö¸ ×�ÖÅ®ÖÖÓ×Û �Ö Û ¸�Öê Æï , �ÖÖê �ÃÖÛ Ö ´Ö滵ÖÖÓÛ ®Ö®ÖÆ à Æ ÖêÝÖÖ �

6. �®¤¸ פµÖê ÝÖµÖê ×®Ö¤ì¿ÖÖë Û Öê ¬µÖÖ®Ö¯Öæ¾ÖÔÛ ¯Ö�Ìë �7. Û ��ÖÖ Û Ö´Ö (Rough Work) �ÃÖ ¯Öã×Ã�ÖÛ Ö Ûê �×®�Ö´Ö ¯ÖéÂ� ¯Ö¸ Û ¸ë �8. µÖפ �Ö¯Ö OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛ ¯Ö¸ ×®ÖµÖ�Ö Ã£ÖÖ®Ö Ûê �»ÖÖ¾ÖÖ �¯Ö®ÖÖ ®ÖÖ´Ö, ¸Öê»Ö

®Ö´²Ö¸, ± Öê®Ö ®Ö´²Ö¸ µÖÖ Û Öê�Ô ³Öß �êÃÖÖ ×�ÖÅ®Ö ×�ÖÃÖÃÖê �Ö¯ÖÛ ß ¯ÖÆ�ÖÖ®Ö ÆÖêÃÖÛê , �Ó×Û �Ö Û ¸�Öê Æï �£Ö¾ÖÖ �³Ö¦ ³ÖÖÂÖÖ Û Ö ¯ÖϵÖÖêÝÖ Û ¸�Öê Æï, µÖÖ Û Öê�Ô�®µÖ �®Öã×�Ö�Ö ÃÖÖ¬Ö®Ö Û Ö ¯ÖϵÖÖêÝÖ Û ¸�Öê Æï, �ÖîÃÖê ×Û �Ó×Û �Ö ×Û µÖê ÝÖµÖê�¢Ö¸ Û Öê ×´Ö�Ö®ÖÖ µÖÖ ÃÖ±ê ¤ õÖÖÆß ÃÖê ²Ö¤»Ö®ÖÖ �ÖÖê ¯Ö¸ ßõÖÖ Ûê ×»ÖµÖê�µÖÖêÝµÖ �ÖÖê×ÂÖ�Ö ×Û µÖê �ÖÖ ÃÖÛ �Öê Æï �

9. �Ö¯ÖÛ Öê ¯Ö¸ßõÖÖ ÃÖ´ÖÖ¯�Ö ÆÖê®Öê ¯Ö¸ ´Öæ»Ö OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛ ×®Ö¸ßõÖÛ ´ÖÆÖê¤µÖ Û Öê»ÖÖî�Ö®ÖÖ �Ö¾Ö¿µÖÛ Æî �Öî ¯Ö¸ßõÖÖ ÃÖ´ÖÖׯ�Ö Ûê ²ÖÖ¤ �ÃÖê �¯Ö®Öê ÃÖÖ£Ö ¯Ö¸ßõÖÖ ³Ö¾Ö®ÖÃÖê ²ÖÖƸ ®Ö »ÖêÛ ¸ �ÖÖµÖë � ÆÖ»ÖÖÓ×Û �Ö¯Ö ¯Ö¸ßõÖÖ ÃÖ´ÖÖׯ�Ö ¯Ö¸ ´Öæ»Ö ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×Ã�ÖÛ Ö�Ö£ÖÖ OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛ Û ß �ã »ÖßÛê � ¯ÖÏ×�Ö �¯Ö®Öê ÃÖÖ£Ö »Öê �ÖÖ ÃÖÛ �Öê Æï �

10. Ûê ¾Ö»Ö C.B.S.E. «Ö¸Ö ¯ÖÏ¤Ö®Ö ×Û µÖê ÝÖµÖê Û Ö»Öê ²ÖÖ»Ö ¯¾ÖÖ�Õ� ¯Öê®Ö Û ÖÆß �Ã�Öê´ÖÖ»Ö Û ¸ë �

11. ×Û ÃÖß ³Öß ¯ÖÏÛ Ö¸ Û Ö ÃÖÓÝÖÞÖÛ (Ûî »ÖÛã »Öê�¸) µÖÖ »ÖÖÝÖ �ê²Ö»Ö �Öפ Û Ö¯ÖϵÖÖêÝÖ ¾ÖÙ�Ö�Ö Æî �

12. ÝÖ»Ö�Ö �¢Ö¸Öë Ûê ×»Ö� Û Öê�Ô ®ÖÛ Ö¸Ö�´ÖÛ �ÓÛ ®ÖÆà Æï �13. µÖפ �ÓÝÖÏê�Öß µÖÖ ØÆ¤ß ×¾Ö¾Ö¸ÞÖ ´Öë Û Öê�Ô ×¾ÖÃÖÓÝÖ×�Ö ÆÖê, �ÖÖê �ÓÝÖÏê�Öß ×¾Ö¾Ö¸ÞÖ

�Ó×�Ö´Ö ´ÖÖ®ÖÖ �ÖÖ�ÝÖÖ �

[Maximum Marks : 100Time : 1 1/4 hours]

PAPER-IIPUBLIC ADMINISTRATION

(To be filled by the Candidate)

Signature and Name of Invigilator

OMR Sheet No. : ...............................................

Roll No.

(In words)

1. (Signature) __________________________

(Name) ____________________________

2. (Signature) __________________________

(Name) ____________________________Roll No.________________________________

1 4

(In figures as per admission card)

J 1 6

J-14-16 1 P.T.O.

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Paper-II 2 J-14-16

PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION

Paper – II

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All

questions are compulsory.

1. ‘Public Administration is detailed and systematic execution of Law.’ This statement was

given by

(1) Herbert A. Simon (2) John A. Veig

(3) Willoughby (4) Woodrow Wilson

2. Consider the following proactive steps listed by David Rosenblom to make public

administration ‘a stronger and robust field’.

(i) Public Administration to be inter disciplinary by shunning its orthodoxy.

(ii) Collaborative research

(iii) To maintain methodological and epistemological pluralism in public administration.

(iv) Understanding the non-western administration.

Select the correct answer by using code given below :

Codes :

(1) (i) and (ii)

(2) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(3) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

3. Which of the followings are the features of administrators of New Public Administration ?

(a) Positive (b) Proactive

(c) Responsive (d) Authoritarian

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Codes :

(1) (a), (b) and (c)

(2) (b), (c) and�(d)

(3) (a), (b) and�(d)

(4) (a), (c) and (d)

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J-14-16 3 Paper-II

����� ��������� ��������� – II

������� : ������������������� ��� (50) �� ������ �������������� ������������ ���������� ���� (2) ��� � ��������������������������� ���

1. “����� ������������ ��� ���� ������������������������������ ���������������”������ ������� �� �������

(1) ������������ !��� (2) "��#���������$�

(3) ���������% (4) ��&'(�����������

2. ����� � ���������� ��� ‘)�*�� � !�"��� ���)��(� ��+���,��-�’� ��������� ����&�'����'� (��"���� ����!��.�(�� � /�%��0� ���!������1����)$����,�%�2������3���(����/��(�� %�"���:�

(i) ����� ����������� ��� �� %�� �4�(�������������!�&+���� (� ���)���5��-�%���������������

(ii) ������$���!�� ����*��

(iii) ����� ����������!�3����6����%���-�%���������7����!�%!������!�� ����&�����8�� ������������(1��������

(iv) $��(9���/�!�%����������� ����!�:�������

� ��%/����8����$������ ��3������%�2;�(�� ��/������� %�"���:�

� �� �

(1) (i) )��(�(ii)

(2) (i), (ii) )��(�(iii)

(3) (ii), (iii) )��(�(iv)

(4) (i), (ii), (iii) )��(�(iv)

3. ���!������1����!�3����� ������%����������� ������������ �������� �3�� %������<�����=��>���

(a) �� �(��!�� �

(b) )$����,�%

(c) )��&��� ����!�� �

(d) �;�����8%�

� ��%/����8��$���� ��3�� %���������������%�2;�(�� ��/������� %�"���5�

� �� �

(1) (a), (b) ������(c)

(2) (b), (c) ������(d)

(3) (a), (b) ������(d)

(4) (a), (c) ������(d)

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Paper-II 4 J-14-16

4. Minnow Brook conferences were held in which of the following university ?

(1) Harward University (2) Syracuse University

(3) California University (4) Yale University

5. Which one of the following is relevant to the study of complex public organizations that

have diversified structure ?

(1) Systems Approach (2) Institutional Approach

(3) Structural Approach (4) Ecological Approach

6. Assertion (A) : The administrative theory is still in its pre-paradigmatic stage.

Reason (R) : It is marked by a plethora of competing school, a polyglot of languages

and accordingly, a confusion of logic.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

7. Which one of the following is considered by Max Weber as the most powerful weapon for

restraining bureaucracy ?

(1) Collegiality (2) Separation of Powers

(3) Direct Democracy (4) Representation

8. ‘Morale is a feeling, somewhat related to esprit de corps, enthusiasm or zeal’. This

statement is made by

(1) Filippo (2) Yoder

(3) Jucius (4) McFarland

9. Whose theory on span of control can be mathematically expressed as n(2n/2 + n – 1),

where n stands for the number of subordinates reporting directly to the supervisor ?

(1) Sir Ian Hamilton (2) V.A. Graicunus

(3) Lyndall Urwich (4) J.D. Mooney

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J-14-16 5 Paper-II

4. �!��������&� ��!!����������!������1����!�3������ ����������?������!�3�)������"������ ��$�����

(1) �����'����������?����� (2) ��(�+��&"����������?�����

(3) �� ���@ ��A��������������?����� (4) ��������������?������

5. ������*����(/������������"����������� ���$�B���3��� �)*�������!�3����!������1����!�3����� ��������2���$�!���������$�� ������

(1) ���������2���$�!� (2) �����$����2���$�!�

(3) ��(/�����!�� �2���$�!� (4) ��������(6�%���2���$�!��

6. ���� ���� (A) : ���������� ���0�����)C�%�C�%��� ����D �������%�/�(6��!�3����������

��� �(R) : �� %������<�������������*�F��!���8����3�� %����/�&(��������&C���<�� ����)��(���8��&��(����� �� %�2��:���������

� :

(1) (A) ������ (R) 8�����3���%��>������ (R), (A) � %���%�����1���������

(2) (A) ����� (R) 8�����3���%��>����(���& (R), (A) � %���%�����1�������G�����

(3) (A) ��%�������(���& (R) $����������

(4) (A) $������������(���& (R) ��%�����

7. !��+�������(��������!������1����!�3������ �������� (���%���(�)��& ����$�������� ������������*�� ���+������%��������(�!�����������

(1) ������� (2) ��+�����3�� �������+� (6�

(3) ������,������� ���-� (4) ����������*������

8. ‘!��������������C������������"��� ���& H�����& H������*���%!��C��������J������(��'%�� �����K��2���������2!��$���������’������ ������� �� �������

(1) �@ �������� (2) ����'(

(3) "� ����� (4) !��� @ (��>'�

9. ������-�6���� �,��-��� ���n(2n/2 + n – 1)��� �D ���!�3�$��6���%���)�C�����+����� ��� �.�(��� %�$� ���"��!�3�n�� ���!���*��)�*������3�� %�2����1����������"������������,�� �� ����%*������������8���� (�����>���

(1) �(� ���������!������ (2) ��%����$����& ���"�

(3) ����'���2(���� (4) "���'%��!� ����

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Paper-II 6 J-14-16

10. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of the Scanlon plan ?

(1) It is a philosophy of management based on theoretical assumption consistent with

theory Y.

(2) It has a feature of loss reduction.

(3) It supports effective participation.

(4) It helps to understand manager’s behaviour.

11. Which one of the following needs is placed at the top of Hierarchical needs in the

Maslow’ revised eight stage model during 1970s ?

(1) Self-Actualization needs (2) Transcendence needs

(3) Aesthetic needs (4) Cognitive needs

12. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

List – I

(Theory)

List – II

(Explanation)

a. Trait theory of Leadership i. The traits and skills of leadership

varies with situations

b. The situational theory of

leadership

ii. Leadership is concerned with

motivation of subordinates

c. Contingency theory of

leadership

iii. Leadership qualities can be acquired

d. Path-Goal leadership theory iv. Leadership is concerned with styles

and situation

� Codes :

a b c d

(1) i ii iii iv

(2) ii i iv iii

(3) iii i iv ii

(4) iii ii iv i

13. Prime Minister’s Office (P.M.O.) is headed by

(1) Prime Minister of India

(2) Cabinet Secretary

(3) Principal Secretary to the Prime Minister

(4) National Security Advisor

14. Which of the following statement regarding The Estimates Committee of Parliament is not

correct ?

(1) The term of the Estimates Committee is one year.

(2) All its members are from the Lok Sabha.

(3) The ministers can be the members of the Estimates Committee.

(4) The chairperson of the Committee is appointed by the speaker from its members.

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J-14-16 7 Paper-II

10. ���!���!�3����� ���������� ��� ��������������� %������<��������G������

(1) ������0�����L��� �)��&D �����0������ �� ���������(�)�*���(���������*��� ��8�����������

(2) ��&� �����!�3�� !�%� �� %��� ������<����������

(3) �������C����%�C��$�%8�(%�� ���!�������� (����������

(4) ����������*���� ��������(�� ����!�:�����!�3������� �������

11. ���!������1����!�3������ ��)������ ����� ���MNOP��� �8�� ��� �8��(����!��#������� �������*����)�B�/�(6��������!������� ���8����������� �)������ ���)�3��� ��%<�����(�(1���"�����������

(1) ��9������,�%� (6��)������ ����= (2) )���&C����� �)������ ����=

(3) ����8�����(� �)������ ����= (4) ��7����� /�� �)������ ����=�

12. � /�% – I � ���� /�%�– II �� �������&!��������� %�"�������%/����8��� ��3�� %���������������%�2;�(�� ��/������� %�"���: ������– I

(��������) ����� – II

(��������) a. ����������� ��$�&6����0����� i. ������������ �$�&6�������� ���������(���������3��� ������

��8�������>����b. ����������� �����(�������"�����

��0�����ii. ����������)*�%�����3�� %�)�C�����(6�������!����*������������

������c. ����������� ��)�� �!�� ���0������ iii. ����������$�&6��3�� ���)A"������ ����"����� ����������d. ����������� ��!��$��9��,�����0������ iv. ��������������%���������(�����������!����*���������

� � :

a b c d

(1) i ii iii iv

(2) ii i iv iii

(3) iii i iv ii

(4) iii ii iv i

13. ���*�����!��-�%�� ����������J��%��!��)���K�� ��)*��,��� �����������������

(1) C��(���� �����*�����!��-�% (2) !���-�!��'�����/����J�� ������������� �(%K

(3) ���*�����!��-�%�� �����!�&1����/���� (4) (�<�Q%����&(,��������� �(��

14. ���!������1����!�3����� ��������� ��������8�� %�����+� �������!������� ������*��!�3���%����G������

(1) ����+� �������!������ ��� ����� ������ ���<���� ���������������

(2) ��� ��C�%��8�������� ��C��������������>���

(3) !��-�%�����+� �������!������� ��8��������� �����>����

(4) ����!������� ��C��������� %������&�+���)*��,��.�(�� ��� ��8���3�!�3������%�"����%������� �

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Paper-II 8 J-14-16

15. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India can be removed by

(1) President of India (2) Prime Minister

(3) Supreme Court of India (4) Parliament

16. Which of the following commission/committee suggested the constitution of the office of

Ethics Commissioner by each House of Parliament ?

(1) Santhanam Committee

(2) Ethics Committee of the Rajya Sabha

(3) First Administrative Reforms Commission

(4) Second Administrative Reforms Commission

17. Under which one of the following articles of Indian Constitution the Governor of a State

enjoys certain immunities ?

(1) Article 301 (2) Article 321

(3) Article 341 (4) Article 361

18. Assertion (A) : In a federal system, Centre-State relations is a matter of crucial importance.

Reason (R) : Indian constitution provides only skeleton provisions on this matter.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

19. The digital era has ushered in a new kind of journalism in which citizens play a greater

role in news making for development of society. This is known as ?

(1) Yellow Journalism (2) Advocacy Journalism

(3) Citizen Journalism (4) Investigation Journalism

20. Which of the following are the advantages of computer-based training over class based

training ?

(i) Addresses group rather than individual.

(ii) Learning can be at any place and time.

(iii) Learning / training can take place on the job as the time is available.

(iv) Changes to course materials can be made available immediately.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Codes :

(1) (i), (ii) and (iii) (2) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(3) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (4) (ii) and (iv)

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J-14-16 9 Paper-II

15. C��(����� �������-�� ������!������1�����(%,�� �� ������!������1����!�3������ ��� �.�(���������"����� ���������

(1) C��(���� ��(�<�Q����� (2) ���*�����!��-�%

(3) C��(����� �����R//�������������� (4) ���8�

16. ���!������1����!�3������ ��)�����$�S��!������������8��� ��������� ��8���.�(��������� �)���&+����� ���8��� ���"����� ���&:������8���������

(1) �������!����!����� (2) (�"����C���� %�)�/��(���!�����

(3) �����!������������ ��&*��(�)�����$�� (4) �.��%������������� ��&*��(�)�����$���

17. C��(����� ������*������� ��� ��)��&/H�8��� �)���$�����(�"����� �(�"��������� ����& H�2�!�&�+�����=��������������

(1) )��&/H�8�TPM (2) )��&/H�8�TUM

(3) )��&/H�8�TVM (4) )��&/H�8�TWM�

18. ���� ���� (A) : ��X�%������������!�3��3 Y9(�"���3��� ���%/��� �������*�����&���!��;���� 6������<�������������

��� �(R) : C��(��%��������*�����!�3� �����<������(��� �������%"�� �������*������8����$������>���

� :

(1) (A) ������ (R) 8�����3���%��>������ (R), (A) � %���%�����1���������

(2) (A) ����� (R) 8�����3���%��>����(���& (R), (A) � %���%�����1�������G�����

(3) (A) ��%�������(���& (R) $����������

(4) (A) $������������(���& (R) ��%�����

19. �'�"�������&$�� ���� ��-�� ��(������ ��� ������ ������&$��� ��)�(!C�� �� ������� �"��!�3� ���$��(� ��!��"���� � ���� ����� � ������!��/��(����������!�3���'Z%�C� �!�� �����C�������>�� ���� ���"����������

(1) ��%�����-�� ��(��� (2) �'������ �%���-�� ��(���

(3) ���$��(� ���-�� ��(��� (4) )����<�6���(� ���-�� ��(����

20. ���!������1����!�3����� ��������� ,���)�*���(��������,�6��� %���&������!�3�� !��� �(�)�*���(��������,�6���� ����C���>���

(i) �����!� ����(�*������8������������� �����+�����(���

(ii) �� �%�C�%�������)��(��!����!�3��%1���"����� ���������

(iii) �%1������ %���� ���S�����,�6��� ��� ������� ������ (�����&��2�����*���� �%�C�%��!���������� ����������

(iv) ���B4���� !����!�$��%�!�3����(������������ ������ ����"����� ����������

� ��%/����8��� ��3�!�3������%�2;�(�� ��/������� %�"���5�

� �� �

(1) (i), (ii)�)��( (iii) (2) (i), (ii), (iii) )��( (iv)

(3) (ii), (iii) )��( (iv) (4) (ii) )��( (iv)

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Paper-II 10 J-14-16

21. Which of the following institution and mechanism outside the state is considered highly

effective for promoting accountability by the second administrative reforms commission ?

(1) Citizen’s Charter (2) Civil society

(3) Media (4) Elections

22. Assertion (A) : NITI Aayog is meant to faster co-operative federalism.

Reason (R) : The NITI Aayog would lay special emphasis on the weaker sections of

the society.

Select the correct answer using codes given below :

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

23. ‘The state shall endeavour to protect and improve the environment and wildlife of the

country.’ This is reflected in which of the following ?

(1) Resolutions of UN Habitat

(2) Article 48-A of the Indian Constitution

(3) Directions of the Green Tribunal

(4) Resolution of the Indian Parliament

24. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer by using codes given below :

List – I

(Police Agency)

List – II

(Ministry/Government)

a. Civil Police i. Ministry of Home Affairs

b. Railway Protection Forces ii. Ministry of Defence

c. Assam Rifles iii. Ministry of Railways

d. Defence Security Forces iv. State Government

� Codes :

a b c d

(1) i ii iii iv

(2) ii iii iv i

(3) iv iii ii i

(4) iv iii i ii

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J-14-16 11 Paper-II

21. �.��%������������� ��&*��(�)�����$��(�"����� �����(�� %����!������1���������)�3��������������)�3�!�3������ ���"������8�������� �����[Z�����8������� ������������*�� ����C����%�!�������������

(1) ���$��(� �)�*�� �(���-�� (2) ���$��(� ��!��"�

(3) !�%�'��� (4) /�&������

22. ���� ���� (A) : ��%����)�����$��� ��2\������� �(%���X����8�� ���!�"��� ���� (�������������

��� �(R) : ��%����)�����$���!��"���� �� !�"���(���$��]���(������<�������8�$������

� ��%/����8��$���� ��� %���������������%�2;�(�� ��/������� %�"���5

� :

(1) (A) ������ (R) 8�����3���%��>������ (R), (A) � %���%�����1���������

(2) (A) ����� (R) 8�����3���%��>����(���& (R), (A) � %���%�����1�������G�����

(3) (A) ��%�������(���& (R) $����������

(4) (A) $������������(���& (R) ��%�����

23. ‘(�"���8����� � ��������(6��������������"�%���3��� ���(,�6�����������*������ (����� �� ��������� (�$����’����� ���!������ ���!�3������ �!�3����(���,�����&)�������

(1) �� ����������������� ���� ����!�3��

(2) C��(��%��������*������� �)��&/H�8�V^9� �!�3�

(3) ��(�����������*�� (6���� ����8R��3�!�3��

(4) C��(��%������8��� ���� ����!�3��

24. � /�% – I � ���� /�%�– II �� �������&!��������� %�"�������%/����8��� ��3�� %���������������%�2;�(�� ��/������� %�"���:

������– I

(����������������)

����� – II

( �!"������#��$ �$)

a. ����������&���� i. $����!��-������

b. (��������&(,������� ii. (,���!��-������

c. )�!��(� @ �� iii. (�������!��-������

d. �'@3 ���&(,������� iv. (�"����(� �(

� � :

a b c d

(1) i ii iii iv

(2) ii iii iv i

(3) iv iii ii i

(4) iv iii i ii

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Paper-II 12 J-14-16

25. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of scientific method ?

(1) Reliance on empirical evidences

(2) Intra subjectivity

(3) Generality

(4) Predictions based on probability

26. Conducting literature review in a research study does not refer to

(1) Analysis of previous research on the topic.

(2) Reading and analyzing published material.

(3) Gathering previous published ideas.

(4) Testing hypotheses of the proposed research study.

27. Which of the followings are the features of scientific research ?

(a) Objectivity

(b) Verifiability

(c) Value-ladden

(d) Systematic

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

Codes :

(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a), (b) and (d)

(3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (c) and (d)

28. Closed ended questions entail

(1) Fixed range of answers

(2) Detailed and elaborate responses

(3) Demographic characteristics of respondents related questions

(4) Personal information questions

29. Which one of following is not correct about Endnotes and Footnotes while writing a

research paper ?

(1) Endnotes are placed at the end of the paper before bibliography

(2) These are the tools to include additional information

(3) Personal observations/comments cannot be expressed in endnotes and footnotes.

(4) Endnote and Footnotes are used to tell the source of idea to the reader

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J-14-16 13 Paper-II

25. ���!������1����!�3����� ������%����7������ �����*��� %������<��������G������

(1) )���&C����� ����!��6��3���(����C��(���� (2) )���(��������+��� ���

(3) ��!�������� (4) ��C�����������(�)�*���(���C����<�����6�%�

26. �� �%����*��)*�������!�3���������� ����&��(�������� ������!���!�3������ ����������*�������G������

(1) 2�%����<������(��&���� ����)��&��*������ ��������<�6��

(2) ���� ��������!�$��%�� ����B���������������<�6�

(3) �� �������� ���������/��(�3�J!����3K�� ���� -�%� (6��

(4) ���������������*��)*�������� %�2��� ������)�3�� ����(%,�6���

27. ���!������1����!�3����� ������%����7������ �)��&��*������ %������<�����=��>���

(a) ����&���<B��� (b) ���������%�����

(c) !� ����*���(����� (d) �� !���0����

� ���!������1����� ��3�� %���������������%�2;�(�� ��/������� %�"���5�

� �� �

(1) (a), (b) )��(�(c) (2) (a), (b) )��(�(d)

(3) (b), (c) )��(�(d) (4) (a), (c) )��(�(d)

28. ���8����6����%�J+����"'���'�'K��� �������������������>���"���3�/�������

(1) ���*����(���_��6�%��� �2;�(��

(2) �����������������(<�� ���2;�(�

(3) 2;�(8������ %�"������� � %������<����)�3����������*����"����� �(%��

(4) ����+��$����"����� �(%�!��=$�������������������

29. ���*���-�����1������!����)����!�������6��J�6'������K����������8������6��J@& ������K��� ����(��!�3����!������1����!�3����+������%����G������

(1) )����!�������6��$������� /�%��� ��� �������*���-���� �)����!�3��8����"������������

(2) ����)����(+���"����� �(%����!������ ��"�������� ���*�����>���

(3) )����!�������6�����������8������6��!�3�������+��� �)������� ���3S������6����3�� ���)�C����+������G��� ����"����� �������

(4) )����!�������6�����������8������6��� ��2������$�����B� �� ������/��(�� ��`����������������� �������� ����"������������

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Paper-II 14 J-14-16

30. Who among following emphasizes the importance of learning from different experiences

to evolve a meaningful methodology to understand the contextual particularities of

comparative public administration is varied socio-economic and political circumstances ?

(1) Fred Riggs

(2) Farrel Heady

(3) Comparative Administrative Group

(4) Third Minnowbrook Conference

31. Which one of the following is not included in 4Ps through which Donald Stone analysed

Development administration ?

(1) Plan (2) Policies

(3) Projects (4) Performance

32. Which of the following is correct regarding U.L. Goswami ?

(a) He used the term development administration for the first time in 1955.

(b) He used this term in the article ‘The Structure of Development Administration in

India’.

(c) This article was published in Public Administration Review (PAR), U.S.A.

(d) He was a civil servant.

Select the correct answer by using the codes given below :

(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a), (b) and (d)

(3) (a) and (b) (4) (c) and (d)

33. Which system of efficiency rating for the purpose of promotion is followed in U.S.A. ?

(a) Production Records System

(b) Trait Rating System

(c) Ordinary Laffan System

(d) Personality Inventory System

Select the correct answer by using the codes given below :

Codes :

(1) (a), (b), (c) and�(d)

(2) (b), (c) and�(d)

(3) (a), (c) and�(d)

(4) (c) and (d)

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J-14-16 15 Paper-II

30. ���!������ ���!�3���� �� ����� ������*����!���"�� ��)�A��� ������(�"�������� ����(���������3� !�3�� ��&������!�� ������ � ���������� %���8C��$���������<����)�3�� ����!�:������� �����������C�����)��&C����3��� �)�*��(���(��� ������� ����6����%����� ������ (������ �!��;���� ���(�1����� ����� �����

(1) @�� '��($� (2) @� (������'%

(3) ��&������!�� ����������� ��!� �� (4) �����%����!���������&� ��!!�������

31. ���!������1����!�3����� ��������2���4Ps�!�3����!�������G���� �"����� �!��*��!�����'������'������� ���� ���� ��� ���������� ��������<�6���� ��������

(1) ����"�����J������K (2) ��%������=�J��������%"�K

(3) ���(����"�����=�J�����"��+�4�K� (4) ���<������J��(@ ��(!����K�

32. �� ������$������!�%��� ������*��!�3����!������1����!�3����+������%������

(a) 2���3�������������!������ ��������������8�� ���������$��MNaa�!�3��� �����������

(b) 2���3���� ����8�� ���������$��)���������1��‘C��(���!�3����� ������������� %���(/����’�!�3��� ���������

(c) �������1��������� ��'�!�����Q������(��� �J��%���)�(�K��� �������!�3����� �������&)���������

(d) ������ ������ ������ ��������

� ��%/����8��$���� ��3�� ���������$��� (�����&����%�2;�(�� ��/������� (3�5�

(1) (a), (b) )��(�(c) (2) (a), (b) )��(�(d)

(3) (a) )��(�(b) (4) (c) )��(�(d)

33. )!���(� ��!�3���8����������� ������8,��������*���(6��� %�� ������%���0����)����� ��"����%�����

(a) 2����8���)�C����1������0����

(b) $�&6�����*���(6����0���

(c) ��!��������b@ ������0����

(d) ����+������)����<�� ���0����

� ���!���� ��� %���������������%�2;�(�� ��/������� (3�5�

� �� �

(1) (a), (b), (c) )��(�(d)

(2) (b), (c) )��(�(d)

(3) (a), (c) )��(�(d)

(4) (c) )��(�(d)

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Paper-II 16 J-14-16

34. In most of the states of United States of America, the lowest local government authority is

known as

(1) Boroughs (2) Counties

(3) Parishes (4) Township

35. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding the Ministry of Tribal Affairs,

Government of India ?

(1) It came into existence in 1999.

(2) It was carved out from the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.

(3) It was carved out from the Ministry of Social Welfare.

(4) Tribal development and welfare is its main objective.

36. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct from the codes given below :

List – I

(Institutions)

List – II

(Year of

Establishment)

a. Ministry of Women and Child

Development

i. 1956

b. National Commission for Women ii. 1992

c. National Commission for

Protection of Child Rights

iii. 2006

d. Central Social Welfare Board iv. 2007

� Codes :

a b c d

(1) i ii iii iv

(2) iii ii iv i

(3) iv iii ii i

(4) ii iii i iv

37. In which part/s the concept of social justice is included in the constitution of India ?

(i) Preamble

(ii) Fundamental Rights

(iii) Directive Principles of State Policy

(iv) Special Provision relating to certain classes

Select the correct answer by using the codes given below :

Codes :

(1) (i), (ii)�and (iii)

(2) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(3) (ii) and (iii)

(4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

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J-14-16 17 Paper-II

34. ����&+���(�"���)!���(� ���� �)�*�� ����(�"���3�!�3������%���������� %�������H���%� � � ���� �����!�����"����%�"����%������

(1) ����(�� (2) � �2��%

(3) ����(� (4) ��c �������

35. C��(����(� �(��� �)��&� �/����"���"����%���!��-��������� ����(��!�3����!������1����!�3����� ������%���������%����G������

(1) ����MNNN�!�3�)�������!�3�)��������

(2) �����!���"�� �������������)�*�� ��(����!��-�������������� ����� (��� �)��$��!��-����������������$�������

(3) ����!��"��� ����6��!��-�������������� ����� (�)��$��!��-����������������$��������

(4) �� ��!�&1���2\����"���"��������3�� ������ ���������� ����6��������

36. � /�% – I ������� /�%�– II � ����&!��������� (3�����%/����8��$���� �������%�2;�(�� ��/������� (3�:

������– I

(��!�����%) ����� – II

(������������&��) a. !���������������������� ���!��-������ i. MNaW

b. (�<�Q%���!�������)�����$� ii. MNNU

c. (�<�Q%���������)�*�� �(���(,�6��)�����$�� iii. UPPW

d. �3 Y%����!��"��� ����6������'� iv. UPPO

� � :

a b c d

(1) i ii iii iv

(2) iii ii iv i

(3) iv iii ii i

(4) ii iii i iv

37. C��(��%��������*������� ��� �S�� ���C��$�SC��$��3�!�3���!���"�� ��������� %�)��*��(6������!���������

(i) �������������

(ii) !� ���)�*�� �(�

(iii) (�"����� ���%�������8R�� ���0�����

(iv) �& H���$��]��� ������*��!�3������<��������*������

� ��%/����8����$������ ��� %���������������%�2;�(�� ��/������� %�"���:�

� �� �

(1) (i), (ii)�)��( (iii)

(2) (ii), (iii) )��( (iv)

(3) (ii) )��( (iii)

(4) (i), (ii), (iii) )��( (iv)

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Paper-II 18 J-14-16

38. The Central Public Sector Enterprises are classified into strategic and non-strategic

enterprises. Which of the following is not classified as strategic Public Sector Enterprise ?

(1) Arms and Ammunition (2) Iron and Steel

(3) Atomic energy (4) Railway transport

39. Which of the following is not a goal of Decentralization ?

(1) Ensuring participation in Decision making.

(2) Addressing diversity in ecosystem and social groups.

(3) Attempting conflict resolution between State and Central Government.

(4) Aiming at decreasing role of sub-ordinates.

40. Which one of the following statements about the objectives behind setting up of State

Finance Commission is not correct ?

(1) It is intended to bring greater transparency to fiscal transfers from state to local

government.

(2) It will bring greater rule-based criteria of transfer of funds.

(3) It would bring greater clarify to the functional responsibilities of the local

governments.

(4) It will usher in more responsive and accountable system of local governance.

41. Which of the following is not a ground for the courts to intervene in the administrative

cases ?

(1) Lack of Jurisdiction

(2) Error of Law

(3) Error of Authority

(4) Matters notified under the IX schedule of the constitution

42. The recommendation to set up statewide municipal cadre under integrated personnel

system was first made by which of the following committee/commission ?

(1) Committee on service conditions of Municipal Employees

(2) Central government’s High Powered Expert Committee on urbanization

(3) Second Administrative Reforms Commission

(4) 12th plan Steering Committee on urbanization

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J-14-16 19 Paper-II

38. �� �Y%��������"����� �,��-��2���� !��3�� ���(6���%���� �)��(�$��(9(6���%���� �2���� !��3��� �D ���!�3���$�F�� ����� ����$�������������!���!�3����� ��������(6���%���� ������"����� �,��-��2���� !���� �D ���!�3���$�F�� ������G��� ����$����������

(1) )-�9�-��)��(�$����������D 8 (2) �������)��(� �����

(3) ��(!��6�&�c "��� (4) (����������(�������

39. ���!������1����!�3����+��������� �Y%� (6��� ����,������G������

(1) ���6��������!���6��!�3�C��$�%8�(%�� %��&����/�������

(2) ��!���"�� ��!� ��3�� %����(������� %������6����%�� %�������*����)�3�� ���!����*���

(3) �� �Y%������(�"����(� �(�3��� �!�*���!�3�������8��!��*������ %�/��<���

(4) )*�%�����3�� %�X����%�C� �!�� ��� ����,����

40. ���!������1����!�3����� ��������� �����(�"������;��)�����$��$��B����� ����"�������� �2848����3��� ����(��!�3���%����G������

(1) �� ��)�C��������(�"�����������%������������ �(�"�� ��<�%���)���(6��3�!�3�)�*�� ����(8A������������������

(2) ��������*����3��� �)���(6��!�3�����*��)�*���(���!����8�'�)�*�� ����)�*�� ��������"���=$�����

(3) ���������%���������� %�� ������!�� ��"�!!��8��(���3�!�3�)�*�� ���<�����)��$�%����

(4) ���������%���������� %�)�*�� �)��&��� ����%���)��(��"�!!��8�(����6����%�)��$�%����

41. ���������� �!��!����3�!�3�������������3��� �.�(�����,������� ��"�������� ���������!������ ���!�3����� ��������)�*��(����G������

(1) ,��-���*�� �(�� %�� !�%��

(2) � ��� ���� %�-�&���

(3) �;������������*�� �(�� %�-�&���

(4) �����*������ %�����G�)��&� /�%��� �)*�%���)�*�� �/����!��!������

42. ���!������1���� !�3� ��� �� �� ��!����S)�����$�� .�(�� ���������!�� �!���� ��� � �A!�� � ���6����%� �� � )���$����� (�"��� ������%���$�(������� ������$�������������� ����"������� %���@ ��(��� %�$� ����%���

(1) ��$�(������� ��� !��/���(���3�� %����������]������*�%���!������

(2) ��(%� (6�������*�%��3 Y��(� �(�� %�2//��)�*�� �(��������������<�7����!�����

(3) �.��%������������� ��&*��(�)�����$���

(4) ��(%� (6�������*�%�MU��G�����"�������/���������!������

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Paper-II 20 J-14-16

43. Which one of the following is not a subject of 12th schedule of the Constitution ?

(1) Women and Child Development

(2) Roads and Bridges

(3) Planning for economics and social development

(4) Public amenities including street lighting parking lots etc.

44. Which one of the following variable is dropped by 14th Finance Commission in effecting

horizontal devolution of funds to the States ?

(1) Population (2) Fiscal Discipline

(3) Area (4) Forest Cover

45. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

List – I

(Concepts of Hierarchy)

List – II

(Thinkers)

a. Scaler process i. Earl Lantham

b. Scaler chain ii. L.D. White

c. Hierarchy iii. Henry Fayol

d. Ladder system iv. James D. Mooney

� Codes :

a b c d

(1) iii iv ii i

(2) iv iii ii i

(3) iii iv i ii

(4) ii i iii iv

46. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

List – I

(Types of Budget)

List – II

(Feature)

a. Zero Based Budgeting i. All new proposals and the continuing ones are

reviewed and scrutinised.

b. Performance Budgeting ii. It is management oriented.

c. Program Budgeting iii. It is planning oriented, its main goal being to

rationalise policy making.

d. Sunset Legislation iv. It embodies the concept of self-retiring government

programmes.

� Codes :

a b c d

(1) iv ii i iii

(2) iii ii i iv

(3) ii i iii iv

(4) i ii iii iv

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J-14-16 21 Paper-II

43. ���!������1����!�3����� �������������*������ %�MU��G�)��&� /�%�� �����<�������G������

(1) !���������������������� ����

(2) �'Z�3 ��������&���

(3) )�A��� ��������!���"�� ����� ���� ���������"����

(4) ����� ��&���*���=��"���!�3�$�������3�!�3�(�����%�����d� $�������)��8���!!��������>�����

44. (�"���3�� �������*����3��� ��!���(%���)���(6��� ������$� �� (����!�3�MV��3����;��)�����$��.�(�����!������1����!�3������ ��/�(�� ��������8����$����������

(1) "�����1��� (2) (�"�� ��<�%���)��&�����

(3) ,��-� (4) �����,��-����

45. � /�% – I � ���� /�%�– II �� �������&!��������� %�"�������%/����8��� ��3�� %���������������%�2;�(�� ��/������� %�"���: ������– I

(�������'������ �����(��$)��) ����� – II

(������$ )

a. �� �!�� ������� ���� i. )������3��!��b. �� �!�� �e���1����� ii. ����'%����� ��c. ��8��������� iii. ����(%�@� �������d. �%[Z%���������� iv. "��!��'%��!� ����

� � :

a b c d

(1) iii iv ii i

(2) iv iii ii i

(3) iii iv i ii

(4) ii i iii iv

46. � /�% – I � ���� /�%�– II �� �������&!��������� (3�����%/����8��� ��� %���������������%�2;�(�� ��/������� (3�: ������– I

(*�����' ���+ �$)

����� – II

(�����'&����) a. � ����)�*���(�����"��� i. �C�%��������������3�������"��(%�����"����)�3�� ����&��(%,�6������������%,���b. ���<���8�����"��� ii. ������*����)��&� ������c. � ������ !����"��� iii. ��������"�����!�&1�%����� �� ��!�&1���2\�����������"��������!���6��� ������� ��$����

���������d. � ����������*������� iv. �!�3�)������)�����!����������(����(� �(%�� ������ !��3�� %�)��*��(6���

��!!�������������� � :

a b c d

(1) iv ii i iii

(2) iii ii i iv

(3) ii i iii iv

(4) i ii iii iv

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Paper-II 22 J-14-16

47. Which of the following are the sources of Administrative law in India ?

(i) Constitution of India

(ii) Acts and Statutes

(iii) Administrative Directions

(iv) Judicial Decisions

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Codes :

(1) (i) and�(ii)

(2) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(3) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(4) (iii) and (iv)

48. Department of personnel and training of Central Government is under which of the

following ministries ?

(1) Home Affairs

(2) Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions

(3) Human Resource Development

(4) Ministry of Law and Justice

49. Which one of following is not characteristic of British Constitution ?

(1) Flexible Constitution

(2) Supremacy of Parliament

(3) Unitary Government

(4) Based on separation of powers

50. National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005 was launched on which of the following

date :

(1) 2nd

February, 2005 (2) 2nd

February, 2006

(3) 2nd

October, 2005 (4) 2nd

October, 2006

__________

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J-14-16 23 Paper-II

47. C��(���!�3����������� �����*���� ����!������1����!�3����+����`�������>���

(i) C��(���� �������*�����

(ii) )�*������!��������������*�

(iii) ���������� ����8R��

(iv) �������� ����6�����

� ��%/����8��$������ ��� %���������������%�2;�(�� ��/������� %�"���5�

� �� �

(1) (i) )��(�(ii)

(2) (i), (ii) )��(�(iii)

(3) (i), (ii), (iii) )��(�(iv)

(4) (iii) )��(�(iv)

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