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1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top ofthis page.
2. This paper consists of fifty multiple-choice type of questions.3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requestedto open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below :(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the
paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accepta booklet without sticker-seal and do not accept an openbooklet.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questionsin the booklet with the information printed on thecover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questionsmissing or duplicate or not in serial order or anyother discrepancy should be got replaced immediatelyby a correct booklet from the invigilator within theperiod of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the QuestionBooklet will be replaced nor any extra time will begiven.
(iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Numbershould be entered on the OMR Sheet and the OMRSheet Number should be entered on this Test Booklet.
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (1), (2), (3)and (4). You have to darken the circle as indicated below onthe correct response against each item.
Example :
where (3) is the correct response.5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR
Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark yourresponse at any place other than in the circle in the OMRSheet, it will not be evaluated.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully.7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet.8. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or put
any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the spaceallotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose youridentity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfairmeans, such as change of response by scratching or usingwhite fluid, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.
9. You have to return the Original OMR Sheet to the invigilatorsat the end of the examination compulsorily and must notcarry it with you outside the Examination Hall. You are,however, allowed to carry original question booklet andduplicate copy of OMR Sheet on conclusion of examination.
10. Use only Black Ball point pen provided by C.B.S.E.11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers.13. In case of any discrepancy in the English and Hindi versions,
English version will be taken as final.
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 24 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 50
Instructions for the Candidates ¯Ö¸ßõÖÖÙ£ÖµÖÖë Ûê ×»Ö� ×®Ö¤ì¿Ö1. �ÃÖ ¯ÖéÂ� Ûê � ¯Ö¸ ×®ÖµÖ�Ö Ã£ÖÖ®Ö ¯Ö¸ �¯Ö®ÖÖ ¸Öê»Ö ®Ö´²Ö¸ ×»Ö×ÜÖ� �2. �ÃÖ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Ö¡Ö ´Öë ¯Ö�ÖÖÃÖ ²ÖÆã×¾ÖÛ »¯ÖßµÖ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö Æï �3. ¯Ö¸ßõÖÖ ¯ÖÏÖ¸´³Ö ÆÖê®Öê ¯Ö¸, ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×Ã�ÖÛ Ö �Ö¯ÖÛ Öê ¤ê ¤ß �ÖÖµÖêÝÖß � ¯ÖÆ»Öê
¯ÖÖÑ�Ö ×´Ö®Ö� �Ö¯ÖÛ Öê ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×Ã�ÖÛ Ö ÜÖÖê»Ö®Öê �Ö£ÖÖ �ÃÖÛ ß ×®Ö´®Ö×»Ö×ÜÖ�Ö�ÖÖÑ�Ö Ûê ×»Ö� פµÖê �ÖÖµÖëÝÖê, ×�ÖÃÖÛ ß �ÖÖÑ�Ö �Ö¯ÖÛ Öê �¾Ö¿µÖ Û ¸®Öß Æî :(i) ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×Ã�ÖÛ Ö ÜÖÖê»Ö®Öê Ûê ×»Ö� ¯Öã×Ã�ÖÛ Ö ¯Ö¸ »ÖÝÖß Û ÖÝÖ�Ö Û ß ÃÖß»Ö
Û Öê ± Ö�Ì »Öë � ÜÖã»Öß Æã�Ô µÖÖ ×²Ö®ÖÖ Ã�ßÛ ¸-ÃÖß»Ö Û ß ¯Öã×Ã�ÖÛ ÖþÖßÛ Ö¸ ®Ö Û ¸ë �
(ii) Û ¾Ö¸ ¯ÖéÂ� ¯Ö¸ �¯Öê ×®Ö¤ì¿ÖÖ®ÖãÃÖÖ¸ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×Ã�ÖÛ Ö Ûê ¯ÖéÂ� �Ö£ÖÖ¯ÖÏ¿®ÖÖë Û ß ÃÖÓܵÖÖ Û Öê ���ß �Ö¸Æ �ÖîÛ Û ¸ »Öë ×Û µÖê ¯Öæ¸êÆï � ¤ÖêÂÖ¯ÖæÞÖÔ ¯Öã×Ã�ÖÛ Ö ×�Ö®Ö´Öë ¯ÖéÂ�/¯ÖÏ¿®Ö Û ´Ö ÆÖë µÖÖ ¤ã²ÖÖ¸Ö �ÖÝÖµÖê ÆÖë µÖÖ ÃÖß׸µÖ»Ö ´Öë ®Ö ÆÖë �£ÖÖÔ�ÖË ×Û ÃÖß ³Öß ¯ÖÏÛ Ö¸ Û ß¡Öã×� ¯ÖæÞÖÔ ¯Öã×Ã�ÖÛ Ö Ã¾ÖßÛ Ö¸ ®Ö Û ¸ë �Ö£ÖÖ �ÃÖß ÃÖ´ÖµÖ �ÃÖê»ÖÖî�ÖÛ ¸ �ÃÖÛê ãÖÖ®Ö ¯Ö¸ ¤æÃÖ¸ß ÃÖÆß ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×Ã�ÖÛ Ö »Öê »Öë ��ÃÖÛê ×»Ö� �Ö¯ÖÛ Öê ¯ÖÖÑ�Ö ×´Ö®Ö� פµÖê �ÖÖµÖëÝÖê � �ÃÖÛê ²ÖÖ¤ ®Ö�ÖÖê �Ö¯ÖÛ ß ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×Ã�ÖÛ Ö ¾ÖÖ¯ÖÃÖ »Öß �ÖÖµÖêÝÖß �Öî ®Ö Æß �Ö¯ÖÛ Öê�×�Ö׸��Ö ÃÖ´ÖµÖ ×¤µÖÖ �ÖÖµÖêÝÖÖ �
(iii) �ÃÖ �ÖÖÑ�Ö Ûê ²ÖÖ¤ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×Ã�ÖÛ Ö Û Ö ®ÖÓ²Ö¸ OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛ ¯Ö¸ �Ó×Û �Ö Û ë�Öî OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛ Û Ö ®ÖÓ²Ö¸ �ÃÖ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×Ã�ÖÛ Ö ¯Ö¸ �Ó×Û �Ö Û ¸ ¤ë �
4. ¯ÖÏ�µÖêÛ ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö Ûê ×»Ö� �ÖÖ¸ �¢Ö¸ ×¾ÖÛ »¯Ö (1), (2), (3) �Ö£ÖÖ (4) פµÖê ÝÖµÖêÆï � �Ö¯ÖÛ Öê ÃÖÆß �¢Ö¸ Ûê ¾Öé¢Ö Û Öê ¯Öê®Ö ÃÖê ³Ö¸Û ¸ Û Ö»ÖÖ Û ¸®ÖÖ Æî �ÖîÃÖÖ×Û ®Öß�Öê פÜÖÖµÖÖ ÝÖµÖÖ Æî :�¤ÖƸÞÖ :�Ö²Ö×Û (3) ÃÖÆß �¢Ö¸ Æî �
5. ¯ÖÏ¿®ÖÖë Ûê �¢Ö¸ Ûê ¾Ö»Ö ÖÏ¿®Ö Öã×Ã�ÖÛ Ö Ûê �®¤¸ פµÖê ÝÖµÖê OMR Ö¡ÖÛ Ö¸Æß �Ó×Û �Ö Û ¸®Öê Æï � µÖפ �Ö¯Ö OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛ ¯Ö¸ פµÖê ÝÖµÖê ¾Öé¢Ö Ûê �»ÖÖ¾ÖÖ×Û ÃÖß �®µÖ ãÖÖ®Ö ¯Ö¸ �¢Ö¸ ×�ÖÅ®ÖÖÓ×Û �Ö Û ¸�Öê Æï , �ÖÖê �ÃÖÛ Ö ´Ö滵ÖÖÓÛ ®Ö®ÖÆ à Æ ÖêÝÖÖ �
6. �®¤¸ פµÖê ÝÖµÖê ×®Ö¤ì¿ÖÖë Û Öê ¬µÖÖ®Ö¯Öæ¾ÖÔÛ ¯Ö�Ìë �7. Û ��ÖÖ Û Ö´Ö (Rough Work) �ÃÖ ¯Öã×Ã�ÖÛ Ö Ûê �×®�Ö´Ö ¯ÖéÂ� ¯Ö¸ Û ¸ë �8. µÖפ �Ö¯Ö OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛ ¯Ö¸ ×®ÖµÖ�Ö Ã£ÖÖ®Ö Ûê �»ÖÖ¾ÖÖ �¯Ö®ÖÖ ®ÖÖ´Ö, ¸Öê»Ö
®Ö´²Ö¸, ± Öê®Ö ®Ö´²Ö¸ µÖÖ Û Öê�Ô ³Öß �êÃÖÖ ×�ÖÅ®Ö ×�ÖÃÖÃÖê �Ö¯ÖÛ ß ¯ÖÆ�ÖÖ®Ö ÆÖêÃÖÛê , �Ó×Û �Ö Û ¸�Öê Æï �£Ö¾ÖÖ �³Ö¦ ³ÖÖÂÖÖ Û Ö ¯ÖϵÖÖêÝÖ Û ¸�Öê Æï, µÖÖ Û Öê�Ô�®µÖ �®Öã×�Ö�Ö ÃÖÖ¬Ö®Ö Û Ö ¯ÖϵÖÖêÝÖ Û ¸�Öê Æï, �ÖîÃÖê ×Û �Ó×Û �Ö ×Û µÖê ÝÖµÖê�¢Ö¸ Û Öê ×´Ö�Ö®ÖÖ µÖÖ ÃÖ±ê ¤ õÖÖÆß ÃÖê ²Ö¤»Ö®ÖÖ �ÖÖê ¯Ö¸ ßõÖÖ Ûê ×»ÖµÖê�µÖÖêÝµÖ �ÖÖê×ÂÖ�Ö ×Û µÖê �ÖÖ ÃÖÛ �Öê Æï �
9. �Ö¯ÖÛ Öê ¯Ö¸ßõÖÖ ÃÖ´ÖÖ¯�Ö ÆÖê®Öê ¯Ö¸ ´Öæ»Ö OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛ ×®Ö¸ßõÖÛ ´ÖÆÖê¤µÖ Û Öê»ÖÖî�Ö®ÖÖ �Ö¾Ö¿µÖÛ Æî �Öî ¯Ö¸ßõÖÖ ÃÖ´ÖÖׯ�Ö Ûê ²ÖÖ¤ �ÃÖê �¯Ö®Öê ÃÖÖ£Ö ¯Ö¸ßõÖÖ ³Ö¾Ö®ÖÃÖê ²ÖÖƸ ®Ö »ÖêÛ ¸ �ÖÖµÖë � ÆÖ»ÖÖÓ×Û �Ö¯Ö ¯Ö¸ßõÖÖ ÃÖ´ÖÖׯ�Ö ¯Ö¸ ´Öæ»Ö ¯ÖÏ¿®Ö-¯Öã×Ã�ÖÛ Ö�Ö£ÖÖ OMR ¯Ö¡ÖÛ Û ß �ã »ÖßÛê � ¯ÖÏ×�Ö �¯Ö®Öê ÃÖÖ£Ö »Öê �ÖÖ ÃÖÛ �Öê Æï �
10. Ûê ¾Ö»Ö C.B.S.E. «Ö¸Ö ¯ÖÏ¤Ö®Ö ×Û µÖê ÝÖµÖê Û Ö»Öê ²ÖÖ»Ö ¯¾ÖÖ�Õ� ¯Öê®Ö Û ÖÆß �Ã�Öê´ÖÖ»Ö Û ¸ë �
11. ×Û ÃÖß ³Öß ¯ÖÏÛ Ö¸ Û Ö ÃÖÓÝÖÞÖÛ (Ûî »ÖÛã »Öê�¸) µÖÖ »ÖÖÝÖ �ê²Ö»Ö �Öפ Û Ö¯ÖϵÖÖêÝÖ ¾ÖÙ�Ö�Ö Æî �
12. ÝÖ»Ö�Ö �¢Ö¸Öë Ûê ×»Ö� Û Öê�Ô ®ÖÛ Ö¸Ö�´ÖÛ �ÓÛ ®ÖÆà Æï �13. µÖפ �ÓÝÖÏê�Öß µÖÖ ØÆ¤ß ×¾Ö¾Ö¸ÞÖ ´Öë Û Öê�Ô ×¾ÖÃÖÓÝÖ×�Ö ÆÖê, �ÖÖê �ÓÝÖÏê�Öß ×¾Ö¾Ö¸ÞÖ
�Ó×�Ö´Ö ´ÖÖ®ÖÖ �ÖÖ�ÝÖÖ �
[Maximum Marks : 100Time : 1 1/4 hours]
PAPER-IIPUBLIC ADMINISTRATION
(To be filled by the Candidate)
Signature and Name of Invigilator
OMR Sheet No. : ...............................................
Roll No.
(In words)
1. (Signature) __________________________
(Name) ____________________________
2. (Signature) __________________________
(Name) ____________________________Roll No.________________________________
1 4
(In figures as per admission card)
J 1 6
J-14-16 1 P.T.O.
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Paper-II 2 J-14-16
PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION
Paper – II
Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All
questions are compulsory.
1. ‘Public Administration is detailed and systematic execution of Law.’ This statement was
given by
(1) Herbert A. Simon (2) John A. Veig
(3) Willoughby (4) Woodrow Wilson
2. Consider the following proactive steps listed by David Rosenblom to make public
administration ‘a stronger and robust field’.
(i) Public Administration to be inter disciplinary by shunning its orthodoxy.
(ii) Collaborative research
(iii) To maintain methodological and epistemological pluralism in public administration.
(iv) Understanding the non-western administration.
Select the correct answer by using code given below :
Codes :
(1) (i) and (ii)
(2) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(3) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
3. Which of the followings are the features of administrators of New Public Administration ?
(a) Positive (b) Proactive
(c) Responsive (d) Authoritarian
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) (b), (c) and�(d)
(3) (a), (b) and�(d)
(4) (a), (c) and (d)
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J-14-16 3 Paper-II
����� ��������� ��������� – II
������� : ������������������� ��� (50) �� ������ �������������� ������������ ���������� ���� (2) ��� � ��������������������������� ���
1. “����� ������������ ��� ���� ������������������������������ ���������������”������ ������� �� �������
(1) ������������ !��� (2) "��#���������$�
(3) ���������% (4) ��&'(�����������
�
2. ����� � ���������� ��� ‘)�*�� � !�"��� ���)��(� ��+���,��-�’� ��������� ����&�'����'� (��"���� ����!��.�(�� � /�%��0� ���!������1����)$����,�%�2������3���(����/��(�� %�"���:�
(i) ����� ����������� ��� �� %�� �4�(�������������!�&+���� (� ���)���5��-�%���������������
(ii) ������$���!�� ����*��
(iii) ����� ����������!�3����6����%���-�%���������7����!�%!������!�� ����&�����8�� ������������(1��������
(iv) $��(9���/�!�%����������� ����!�:�������
� ��%/����8����$������ ��3������%�2;�(�� ��/������� %�"���:�
� �� �
(1) (i) )��(�(ii)
(2) (i), (ii) )��(�(iii)
(3) (ii), (iii) )��(�(iv)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii) )��(�(iv)
�
3. ���!������1����!�3����� ������%����������� ������������ �������� �3�� %������<�����=��>���
(a) �� �(��!�� �
(b) )$����,�%
(c) )��&��� ����!�� �
(d) �;�����8%�
� ��%/����8��$���� ��3�� %���������������%�2;�(�� ��/������� %�"���5�
� �� �
(1) (a), (b) ������(c)
(2) (b), (c) ������(d)
(3) (a), (b) ������(d)
(4) (a), (c) ������(d)
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Paper-II 4 J-14-16
4. Minnow Brook conferences were held in which of the following university ?
(1) Harward University (2) Syracuse University
(3) California University (4) Yale University
5. Which one of the following is relevant to the study of complex public organizations that
have diversified structure ?
(1) Systems Approach (2) Institutional Approach
(3) Structural Approach (4) Ecological Approach
6. Assertion (A) : The administrative theory is still in its pre-paradigmatic stage.
Reason (R) : It is marked by a plethora of competing school, a polyglot of languages
and accordingly, a confusion of logic.
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
7. Which one of the following is considered by Max Weber as the most powerful weapon for
restraining bureaucracy ?
(1) Collegiality (2) Separation of Powers
(3) Direct Democracy (4) Representation
8. ‘Morale is a feeling, somewhat related to esprit de corps, enthusiasm or zeal’. This
statement is made by
(1) Filippo (2) Yoder
(3) Jucius (4) McFarland
9. Whose theory on span of control can be mathematically expressed as n(2n/2 + n – 1),
where n stands for the number of subordinates reporting directly to the supervisor ?
(1) Sir Ian Hamilton (2) V.A. Graicunus
(3) Lyndall Urwich (4) J.D. Mooney
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J-14-16 5 Paper-II
4. �!��������&� ��!!����������!������1����!�3������ ����������?������!�3�)������"������ ��$�����
(1) �����'����������?����� (2) ��(�+��&"����������?�����
(3) �� ���@ ��A��������������?����� (4) ��������������?������
�
5. ������*����(/������������"����������� ���$�B���3��� �)*�������!�3����!������1����!�3����� ��������2���$�!���������$�� ������
(1) ���������2���$�!� (2) �����$����2���$�!�
(3) ��(/�����!�� �2���$�!� (4) ��������(6�%���2���$�!��
�
6. ���� ���� (A) : ���������� ���0�����)C�%�C�%��� ����D �������%�/�(6��!�3����������
��� �(R) : �� %������<�������������*�F��!���8����3�� %����/�&(��������&C���<�� ����)��(���8��&��(����� �� %�2��:���������
� :
(1) (A) ������ (R) 8�����3���%��>������ (R), (A) � %���%�����1���������
(2) (A) ����� (R) 8�����3���%��>����(���& (R), (A) � %���%�����1�������G�����
(3) (A) ��%�������(���& (R) $����������
(4) (A) $������������(���& (R) ��%�����
7. !��+�������(��������!������1����!�3������ �������� (���%���(�)��& ����$�������� ������������*�� ���+������%��������(�!�����������
(1) ������� (2) ��+�����3�� �������+� (6�
(3) ������,������� ���-� (4) ����������*������
�
8. ‘!��������������C������������"��� ���& H�����& H������*���%!��C��������J������(��'%�� �����K��2���������2!��$���������’������ ������� �� �������
(1) �@ �������� (2) ����'(
(3) "� ����� (4) !��� @ (��>'�
�
9. ������-�6���� �,��-��� ���n(2n/2 + n – 1)��� �D ���!�3�$��6���%���)�C�����+����� ��� �.�(��� %�$� ���"��!�3�n�� ���!���*��)�*������3�� %�2����1����������"������������,�� �� ����%*������������8���� (�����>���
(1) �(� ���������!������ (2) ��%����$����& ���"�
(3) ����'���2(���� (4) "���'%��!� ����
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Paper-II 6 J-14-16
10. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of the Scanlon plan ?
(1) It is a philosophy of management based on theoretical assumption consistent with
theory Y.
(2) It has a feature of loss reduction.
(3) It supports effective participation.
(4) It helps to understand manager’s behaviour.
11. Which one of the following needs is placed at the top of Hierarchical needs in the
Maslow’ revised eight stage model during 1970s ?
(1) Self-Actualization needs (2) Transcendence needs
(3) Aesthetic needs (4) Cognitive needs
12. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I
(Theory)
List – II
(Explanation)
a. Trait theory of Leadership i. The traits and skills of leadership
varies with situations
b. The situational theory of
leadership
ii. Leadership is concerned with
motivation of subordinates
c. Contingency theory of
leadership
iii. Leadership qualities can be acquired
d. Path-Goal leadership theory iv. Leadership is concerned with styles
and situation
� Codes :
a b c d
(1) i ii iii iv
(2) ii i iv iii
(3) iii i iv ii
(4) iii ii iv i
13. Prime Minister’s Office (P.M.O.) is headed by
(1) Prime Minister of India
(2) Cabinet Secretary
(3) Principal Secretary to the Prime Minister
(4) National Security Advisor
14. Which of the following statement regarding The Estimates Committee of Parliament is not
correct ?
(1) The term of the Estimates Committee is one year.
(2) All its members are from the Lok Sabha.
(3) The ministers can be the members of the Estimates Committee.
(4) The chairperson of the Committee is appointed by the speaker from its members.
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J-14-16 7 Paper-II
10. ���!���!�3����� ���������� ��� ��������������� %������<��������G������
(1) ������0�����L��� �)��&D �����0������ �� ���������(�)�*���(���������*��� ��8�����������
(2) ��&� �����!�3�� !�%� �� %��� ������<����������
(3) �������C����%�C��$�%8�(%�� ���!�������� (����������
(4) ����������*���� ��������(�� ����!�:�����!�3������� �������
�
11. ���!������1����!�3������ ��)������ ����� ���MNOP��� �8�� ��� �8��(����!��#������� �������*����)�B�/�(6��������!������� ���8����������� �)������ ���)�3��� ��%<�����(�(1���"�����������
(1) ��9������,�%� (6��)������ ����= (2) )���&C����� �)������ ����=
(3) ����8�����(� �)������ ����= (4) ��7����� /�� �)������ ����=�
�
12. � /�% – I � ���� /�%�– II �� �������&!��������� %�"�������%/����8��� ��3�� %���������������%�2;�(�� ��/������� %�"���: ������– I
(��������) ����� – II
(��������) a. ����������� ��$�&6����0����� i. ������������ �$�&6�������� ���������(���������3��� ������
��8�������>����b. ����������� �����(�������"�����
��0�����ii. ����������)*�%�����3�� %�)�C�����(6�������!����*������������
������c. ����������� ��)�� �!�� ���0������ iii. ����������$�&6��3�� ���)A"������ ����"����� ����������d. ����������� ��!��$��9��,�����0������ iv. ��������������%���������(�����������!����*���������
� � :
a b c d
(1) i ii iii iv
(2) ii i iv iii
(3) iii i iv ii
(4) iii ii iv i
13. ���*�����!��-�%�� ����������J��%��!��)���K�� ��)*��,��� �����������������
(1) C��(���� �����*�����!��-�% (2) !���-�!��'�����/����J�� ������������� �(%K
(3) ���*�����!��-�%�� �����!�&1����/���� (4) (�<�Q%����&(,��������� �(��
�
14. ���!������1����!�3����� ��������� ��������8�� %�����+� �������!������� ������*��!�3���%����G������
(1) ����+� �������!������ ��� ����� ������ ���<���� ���������������
(2) ��� ��C�%��8�������� ��C��������������>���
(3) !��-�%�����+� �������!������� ��8��������� �����>����
(4) ����!������� ��C��������� %������&�+���)*��,��.�(�� ��� ��8���3�!�3������%�"����%������� �
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Paper-II 8 J-14-16
15. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India can be removed by
(1) President of India (2) Prime Minister
(3) Supreme Court of India (4) Parliament
16. Which of the following commission/committee suggested the constitution of the office of
Ethics Commissioner by each House of Parliament ?
(1) Santhanam Committee
(2) Ethics Committee of the Rajya Sabha
(3) First Administrative Reforms Commission
(4) Second Administrative Reforms Commission
17. Under which one of the following articles of Indian Constitution the Governor of a State
enjoys certain immunities ?
(1) Article 301 (2) Article 321
(3) Article 341 (4) Article 361
18. Assertion (A) : In a federal system, Centre-State relations is a matter of crucial importance.
Reason (R) : Indian constitution provides only skeleton provisions on this matter.
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
19. The digital era has ushered in a new kind of journalism in which citizens play a greater
role in news making for development of society. This is known as ?
(1) Yellow Journalism (2) Advocacy Journalism
(3) Citizen Journalism (4) Investigation Journalism
20. Which of the following are the advantages of computer-based training over class based
training ?
(i) Addresses group rather than individual.
(ii) Learning can be at any place and time.
(iii) Learning / training can take place on the job as the time is available.
(iv) Changes to course materials can be made available immediately.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(1) (i), (ii) and (iii) (2) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(3) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (4) (ii) and (iv)
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J-14-16 9 Paper-II
15. C��(����� �������-�� ������!������1�����(%,�� �� ������!������1����!�3������ ��� �.�(���������"����� ���������
(1) C��(���� ��(�<�Q����� (2) ���*�����!��-�%
(3) C��(����� �����R//�������������� (4) ���8�
�
16. ���!������1����!�3������ ��)�����$�S��!������������8��� ��������� ��8���.�(��������� �)���&+����� ���8��� ���"����� ���&:������8���������
(1) �������!����!����� (2) (�"����C���� %�)�/��(���!�����
(3) �����!������������ ��&*��(�)�����$�� (4) �.��%������������� ��&*��(�)�����$���
�
17. C��(����� ������*������� ��� ��)��&/H�8��� �)���$�����(�"����� �(�"��������� ����& H�2�!�&�+�����=��������������
(1) )��&/H�8�TPM (2) )��&/H�8�TUM
(3) )��&/H�8�TVM (4) )��&/H�8�TWM�
�
18. ���� ���� (A) : ��X�%������������!�3��3 Y9(�"���3��� ���%/��� �������*�����&���!��;���� 6������<�������������
��� �(R) : C��(��%��������*�����!�3� �����<������(��� �������%"�� �������*������8����$������>���
� :
(1) (A) ������ (R) 8�����3���%��>������ (R), (A) � %���%�����1���������
(2) (A) ����� (R) 8�����3���%��>����(���& (R), (A) � %���%�����1�������G�����
(3) (A) ��%�������(���& (R) $����������
(4) (A) $������������(���& (R) ��%�����
19. �'�"�������&$�� ���� ��-�� ��(������ ��� ������ ������&$��� ��)�(!C�� �� ������� �"��!�3� ���$��(� ��!��"���� � ���� ����� � ������!��/��(����������!�3���'Z%�C� �!�� �����C�������>�� ���� ���"����������
(1) ��%�����-�� ��(��� (2) �'������ �%���-�� ��(���
(3) ���$��(� ���-�� ��(��� (4) )����<�6���(� ���-�� ��(����
�
20. ���!������1����!�3����� ��������� ,���)�*���(��������,�6��� %���&������!�3�� !��� �(�)�*���(��������,�6���� ����C���>���
(i) �����!� ����(�*������8������������� �����+�����(���
(ii) �� �%�C�%�������)��(��!����!�3��%1���"����� ���������
(iii) �%1������ %���� ���S�����,�6��� ��� ������� ������ (�����&��2�����*���� �%�C�%��!���������� ����������
(iv) ���B4���� !����!�$��%�!�3����(������������ ������ ����"����� ����������
� ��%/����8��� ��3�!�3������%�2;�(�� ��/������� %�"���5�
� �� �
(1) (i), (ii)�)��( (iii) (2) (i), (ii), (iii) )��( (iv)
(3) (ii), (iii) )��( (iv) (4) (ii) )��( (iv)
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Paper-II 10 J-14-16
21. Which of the following institution and mechanism outside the state is considered highly
effective for promoting accountability by the second administrative reforms commission ?
(1) Citizen’s Charter (2) Civil society
(3) Media (4) Elections
22. Assertion (A) : NITI Aayog is meant to faster co-operative federalism.
Reason (R) : The NITI Aayog would lay special emphasis on the weaker sections of
the society.
Select the correct answer using codes given below :
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
23. ‘The state shall endeavour to protect and improve the environment and wildlife of the
country.’ This is reflected in which of the following ?
(1) Resolutions of UN Habitat
(2) Article 48-A of the Indian Constitution
(3) Directions of the Green Tribunal
(4) Resolution of the Indian Parliament
24. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer by using codes given below :
List – I
(Police Agency)
List – II
(Ministry/Government)
a. Civil Police i. Ministry of Home Affairs
b. Railway Protection Forces ii. Ministry of Defence
c. Assam Rifles iii. Ministry of Railways
d. Defence Security Forces iv. State Government
� Codes :
a b c d
(1) i ii iii iv
(2) ii iii iv i
(3) iv iii ii i
(4) iv iii i ii
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J-14-16 11 Paper-II
21. �.��%������������� ��&*��(�)�����$��(�"����� �����(�� %����!������1���������)�3��������������)�3�!�3������ ���"������8�������� �����[Z�����8������� ������������*�� ����C����%�!�������������
(1) ���$��(� �)�*�� �(���-�� (2) ���$��(� ��!��"�
(3) !�%�'��� (4) /�&������
�
22. ���� ���� (A) : ��%����)�����$��� ��2\������� �(%���X����8�� ���!�"��� ���� (�������������
��� �(R) : ��%����)�����$���!��"���� �� !�"���(���$��]���(������<�������8�$������
� ��%/����8��$���� ��� %���������������%�2;�(�� ��/������� %�"���5
� :
(1) (A) ������ (R) 8�����3���%��>������ (R), (A) � %���%�����1���������
(2) (A) ����� (R) 8�����3���%��>����(���& (R), (A) � %���%�����1�������G�����
(3) (A) ��%�������(���& (R) $����������
(4) (A) $������������(���& (R) ��%�����
23. ‘(�"���8����� � ��������(6��������������"�%���3��� ���(,�6�����������*������ (����� �� ��������� (�$����’����� ���!������ ���!�3������ �!�3����(���,�����&)�������
(1) �� ����������������� ���� ����!�3��
(2) C��(��%��������*������� �)��&/H�8�V^9� �!�3�
(3) ��(�����������*�� (6���� ����8R��3�!�3��
(4) C��(��%������8��� ���� ����!�3��
�
24. � /�% – I � ���� /�%�– II �� �������&!��������� %�"�������%/����8��� ��3�� %���������������%�2;�(�� ��/������� %�"���:
������– I
(����������������)
����� – II
( �!"������#��$ �$)
a. ����������&���� i. $����!��-������
b. (��������&(,������� ii. (,���!��-������
c. )�!��(� @ �� iii. (�������!��-������
d. �'@3 ���&(,������� iv. (�"����(� �(
� � :
a b c d
(1) i ii iii iv
(2) ii iii iv i
(3) iv iii ii i
(4) iv iii i ii
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Paper-II 12 J-14-16
25. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of scientific method ?
(1) Reliance on empirical evidences
(2) Intra subjectivity
(3) Generality
(4) Predictions based on probability
26. Conducting literature review in a research study does not refer to
(1) Analysis of previous research on the topic.
(2) Reading and analyzing published material.
(3) Gathering previous published ideas.
(4) Testing hypotheses of the proposed research study.
27. Which of the followings are the features of scientific research ?
(a) Objectivity
(b) Verifiability
(c) Value-ladden
(d) Systematic
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a), (b) and (d)
(3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (c) and (d)
28. Closed ended questions entail
(1) Fixed range of answers
(2) Detailed and elaborate responses
(3) Demographic characteristics of respondents related questions
(4) Personal information questions
29. Which one of following is not correct about Endnotes and Footnotes while writing a
research paper ?
(1) Endnotes are placed at the end of the paper before bibliography
(2) These are the tools to include additional information
(3) Personal observations/comments cannot be expressed in endnotes and footnotes.
(4) Endnote and Footnotes are used to tell the source of idea to the reader
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J-14-16 13 Paper-II
25. ���!������1����!�3����� ������%����7������ �����*��� %������<��������G������
(1) )���&C����� ����!��6��3���(����C��(���� (2) )���(��������+��� ���
(3) ��!�������� (4) ��C�����������(�)�*���(���C����<�����6�%�
�
26. �� �%����*��)*�������!�3���������� ����&��(�������� ������!���!�3������ ����������*�������G������
(1) 2�%����<������(��&���� ����)��&��*������ ��������<�6��
(2) ���� ��������!�$��%�� ����B���������������<�6�
(3) �� �������� ���������/��(�3�J!����3K�� ���� -�%� (6��
(4) ���������������*��)*�������� %�2��� ������)�3�� ����(%,�6���
�
27. ���!������1����!�3����� ������%����7������ �)��&��*������ %������<�����=��>���
(a) ����&���<B��� (b) ���������%�����
(c) !� ����*���(����� (d) �� !���0����
� ���!������1����� ��3�� %���������������%�2;�(�� ��/������� %�"���5�
� �� �
(1) (a), (b) )��(�(c) (2) (a), (b) )��(�(d)
(3) (b), (c) )��(�(d) (4) (a), (c) )��(�(d)
�
28. ���8����6����%�J+����"'���'�'K��� �������������������>���"���3�/�������
(1) ���*����(���_��6�%��� �2;�(��
(2) �����������������(<�� ���2;�(�
(3) 2;�(8������ %�"������� � %������<����)�3����������*����"����� �(%��
(4) ����+��$����"����� �(%�!��=$�������������������
�
29. ���*���-�����1������!����)����!�������6��J�6'������K����������8������6��J@& ������K��� ����(��!�3����!������1����!�3����+������%����G������
(1) )����!�������6��$������� /�%��� ��� �������*���-���� �)����!�3��8����"������������
(2) ����)����(+���"����� �(%����!������ ��"�������� ���*�����>���
(3) )����!�������6�����������8������6��!�3�������+��� �)������� ���3S������6����3�� ���)�C����+������G��� ����"����� �������
(4) )����!�������6�����������8������6��� ��2������$�����B� �� ������/��(�� ��`����������������� �������� ����"������������
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Paper-II 14 J-14-16
30. Who among following emphasizes the importance of learning from different experiences
to evolve a meaningful methodology to understand the contextual particularities of
comparative public administration is varied socio-economic and political circumstances ?
(1) Fred Riggs
(2) Farrel Heady
(3) Comparative Administrative Group
(4) Third Minnowbrook Conference
31. Which one of the following is not included in 4Ps through which Donald Stone analysed
Development administration ?
(1) Plan (2) Policies
(3) Projects (4) Performance
32. Which of the following is correct regarding U.L. Goswami ?
(a) He used the term development administration for the first time in 1955.
(b) He used this term in the article ‘The Structure of Development Administration in
India’.
(c) This article was published in Public Administration Review (PAR), U.S.A.
(d) He was a civil servant.
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below :
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a), (b) and (d)
(3) (a) and (b) (4) (c) and (d)
33. Which system of efficiency rating for the purpose of promotion is followed in U.S.A. ?
(a) Production Records System
(b) Trait Rating System
(c) Ordinary Laffan System
(d) Personality Inventory System
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below :
Codes :
(1) (a), (b), (c) and�(d)
(2) (b), (c) and�(d)
(3) (a), (c) and�(d)
(4) (c) and (d)
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J-14-16 15 Paper-II
30. ���!������ ���!�3���� �� ����� ������*����!���"�� ��)�A��� ������(�"�������� ����(���������3� !�3�� ��&������!�� ������ � ���������� %���8C��$���������<����)�3�� ����!�:������� �����������C�����)��&C����3��� �)�*��(���(��� ������� ����6����%����� ������ (������ �!��;���� ���(�1����� ����� �����
(1) @�� '��($� (2) @� (������'%
(3) ��&������!�� ����������� ��!� �� (4) �����%����!���������&� ��!!�������
�
31. ���!������1����!�3����� ��������2���4Ps�!�3����!�������G���� �"����� �!��*��!�����'������'������� ���� ���� ��� ���������� ��������<�6���� ��������
(1) ����"�����J������K (2) ��%������=�J��������%"�K
(3) ���(����"�����=�J�����"��+�4�K� (4) ���<������J��(@ ��(!����K�
�
32. �� ������$������!�%��� ������*��!�3����!������1����!�3����+������%������
(a) 2���3�������������!������ ��������������8�� ���������$��MNaa�!�3��� �����������
(b) 2���3���� ����8�� ���������$��)���������1��‘C��(���!�3����� ������������� %���(/����’�!�3��� ���������
(c) �������1��������� ��'�!�����Q������(��� �J��%���)�(�K��� �������!�3����� �������&)���������
(d) ������ ������ ������ ��������
� ��%/����8��$���� ��3�� ���������$��� (�����&����%�2;�(�� ��/������� (3�5�
(1) (a), (b) )��(�(c) (2) (a), (b) )��(�(d)
(3) (a) )��(�(b) (4) (c) )��(�(d)
�
33. )!���(� ��!�3���8����������� ������8,��������*���(6��� %�� ������%���0����)����� ��"����%�����
(a) 2����8���)�C����1������0����
(b) $�&6�����*���(6����0���
(c) ��!��������b@ ������0����
(d) ����+������)����<�� ���0����
� ���!���� ��� %���������������%�2;�(�� ��/������� (3�5�
� �� �
(1) (a), (b), (c) )��(�(d)
(2) (b), (c) )��(�(d)
(3) (a), (c) )��(�(d)
(4) (c) )��(�(d)
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Paper-II 16 J-14-16
34. In most of the states of United States of America, the lowest local government authority is
known as
(1) Boroughs (2) Counties
(3) Parishes (4) Township
35. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding the Ministry of Tribal Affairs,
Government of India ?
(1) It came into existence in 1999.
(2) It was carved out from the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
(3) It was carved out from the Ministry of Social Welfare.
(4) Tribal development and welfare is its main objective.
36. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct from the codes given below :
List – I
(Institutions)
List – II
(Year of
Establishment)
a. Ministry of Women and Child
Development
i. 1956
b. National Commission for Women ii. 1992
c. National Commission for
Protection of Child Rights
iii. 2006
d. Central Social Welfare Board iv. 2007
� Codes :
a b c d
(1) i ii iii iv
(2) iii ii iv i
(3) iv iii ii i
(4) ii iii i iv
37. In which part/s the concept of social justice is included in the constitution of India ?
(i) Preamble
(ii) Fundamental Rights
(iii) Directive Principles of State Policy
(iv) Special Provision relating to certain classes
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below :
Codes :
(1) (i), (ii)�and (iii)
(2) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(3) (ii) and (iii)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
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J-14-16 17 Paper-II
34. ����&+���(�"���)!���(� ���� �)�*�� ����(�"���3�!�3������%���������� %�������H���%� � � ���� �����!�����"����%�"����%������
(1) ����(�� (2) � �2��%
(3) ����(� (4) ��c �������
�
35. C��(����(� �(��� �)��&� �/����"���"����%���!��-��������� ����(��!�3����!������1����!�3����� ������%���������%����G������
(1) ����MNNN�!�3�)�������!�3�)��������
(2) �����!���"�� �������������)�*�� ��(����!��-�������������� ����� (��� �)��$��!��-����������������$�������
(3) ����!��"��� ����6��!��-�������������� ����� (�)��$��!��-����������������$��������
(4) �� ��!�&1���2\����"���"��������3�� ������ ���������� ����6��������
�
36. � /�% – I ������� /�%�– II � ����&!��������� (3�����%/����8��$���� �������%�2;�(�� ��/������� (3�:
������– I
(��!�����%) ����� – II
(������������&��) a. !���������������������� ���!��-������ i. MNaW
b. (�<�Q%���!�������)�����$� ii. MNNU
c. (�<�Q%���������)�*�� �(���(,�6��)�����$�� iii. UPPW
d. �3 Y%����!��"��� ����6������'� iv. UPPO
� � :
a b c d
(1) i ii iii iv
(2) iii ii iv i
(3) iv iii ii i
(4) ii iii i iv
37. C��(��%��������*������� ��� �S�� ���C��$�SC��$��3�!�3���!���"�� ��������� %�)��*��(6������!���������
(i) �������������
(ii) !� ���)�*�� �(�
(iii) (�"����� ���%�������8R�� ���0�����
(iv) �& H���$��]��� ������*��!�3������<��������*������
� ��%/����8����$������ ��� %���������������%�2;�(�� ��/������� %�"���:�
� �� �
(1) (i), (ii)�)��( (iii)
(2) (ii), (iii) )��( (iv)
(3) (ii) )��( (iii)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii) )��( (iv)
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Paper-II 18 J-14-16
38. The Central Public Sector Enterprises are classified into strategic and non-strategic
enterprises. Which of the following is not classified as strategic Public Sector Enterprise ?
(1) Arms and Ammunition (2) Iron and Steel
(3) Atomic energy (4) Railway transport
39. Which of the following is not a goal of Decentralization ?
(1) Ensuring participation in Decision making.
(2) Addressing diversity in ecosystem and social groups.
(3) Attempting conflict resolution between State and Central Government.
(4) Aiming at decreasing role of sub-ordinates.
40. Which one of the following statements about the objectives behind setting up of State
Finance Commission is not correct ?
(1) It is intended to bring greater transparency to fiscal transfers from state to local
government.
(2) It will bring greater rule-based criteria of transfer of funds.
(3) It would bring greater clarify to the functional responsibilities of the local
governments.
(4) It will usher in more responsive and accountable system of local governance.
41. Which of the following is not a ground for the courts to intervene in the administrative
cases ?
(1) Lack of Jurisdiction
(2) Error of Law
(3) Error of Authority
(4) Matters notified under the IX schedule of the constitution
42. The recommendation to set up statewide municipal cadre under integrated personnel
system was first made by which of the following committee/commission ?
(1) Committee on service conditions of Municipal Employees
(2) Central government’s High Powered Expert Committee on urbanization
(3) Second Administrative Reforms Commission
(4) 12th plan Steering Committee on urbanization
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J-14-16 19 Paper-II
38. �� �Y%��������"����� �,��-��2���� !��3�� ���(6���%���� �)��(�$��(9(6���%���� �2���� !��3��� �D ���!�3���$�F�� ����� ����$�������������!���!�3����� ��������(6���%���� ������"����� �,��-��2���� !���� �D ���!�3���$�F�� ������G��� ����$����������
(1) )-�9�-��)��(�$����������D 8 (2) �������)��(� �����
(3) ��(!��6�&�c "��� (4) (����������(�������
�
39. ���!������1����!�3����+��������� �Y%� (6��� ����,������G������
(1) ���6��������!���6��!�3�C��$�%8�(%�� %��&����/�������
(2) ��!���"�� ��!� ��3�� %����(������� %������6����%�� %�������*����)�3�� ���!����*���
(3) �� �Y%������(�"����(� �(�3��� �!�*���!�3�������8��!��*������ %�/��<���
(4) )*�%�����3�� %�X����%�C� �!�� ��� ����,����
�
40. ���!������1����!�3����� ��������� �����(�"������;��)�����$��$��B����� ����"�������� �2848����3��� ����(��!�3���%����G������
(1) �� ��)�C��������(�"�����������%������������ �(�"�� ��<�%���)���(6��3�!�3�)�*�� ����(8A������������������
(2) ��������*����3��� �)���(6��!�3�����*��)�*���(���!����8�'�)�*�� ����)�*�� ��������"���=$�����
(3) ���������%���������� %�� ������!�� ��"�!!��8��(���3�!�3�)�*�� ���<�����)��$�%����
(4) ���������%���������� %�)�*�� �)��&��� ����%���)��(��"�!!��8�(����6����%�)��$�%����
�
41. ���������� �!��!����3�!�3�������������3��� �.�(�����,������� ��"�������� ���������!������ ���!�3����� ��������)�*��(����G������
(1) ,��-���*�� �(�� %�� !�%��
(2) � ��� ���� %�-�&���
(3) �;������������*�� �(�� %�-�&���
(4) �����*������ %�����G�)��&� /�%��� �)*�%���)�*�� �/����!��!������
�
42. ���!������1���� !�3� ��� �� �� ��!����S)�����$�� .�(�� ���������!�� �!���� ��� � �A!�� � ���6����%� �� � )���$����� (�"��� ������%���$�(������� ������$�������������� ����"������� %���@ ��(��� %�$� ����%���
(1) ��$�(������� ��� !��/���(���3�� %����������]������*�%���!������
(2) ��(%� (6�������*�%��3 Y��(� �(�� %�2//��)�*�� �(��������������<�7����!�����
(3) �.��%������������� ��&*��(�)�����$���
(4) ��(%� (6�������*�%�MU��G�����"�������/���������!������
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Paper-II 20 J-14-16
43. Which one of the following is not a subject of 12th schedule of the Constitution ?
(1) Women and Child Development
(2) Roads and Bridges
(3) Planning for economics and social development
(4) Public amenities including street lighting parking lots etc.
44. Which one of the following variable is dropped by 14th Finance Commission in effecting
horizontal devolution of funds to the States ?
(1) Population (2) Fiscal Discipline
(3) Area (4) Forest Cover
45. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I
(Concepts of Hierarchy)
List – II
(Thinkers)
a. Scaler process i. Earl Lantham
b. Scaler chain ii. L.D. White
c. Hierarchy iii. Henry Fayol
d. Ladder system iv. James D. Mooney
� Codes :
a b c d
(1) iii iv ii i
(2) iv iii ii i
(3) iii iv i ii
(4) ii i iii iv
46. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I
(Types of Budget)
List – II
(Feature)
a. Zero Based Budgeting i. All new proposals and the continuing ones are
reviewed and scrutinised.
b. Performance Budgeting ii. It is management oriented.
c. Program Budgeting iii. It is planning oriented, its main goal being to
rationalise policy making.
d. Sunset Legislation iv. It embodies the concept of self-retiring government
programmes.
� Codes :
a b c d
(1) iv ii i iii
(2) iii ii i iv
(3) ii i iii iv
(4) i ii iii iv
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J-14-16 21 Paper-II
43. ���!������1����!�3����� �������������*������ %�MU��G�)��&� /�%�� �����<�������G������
(1) !���������������������� ����
(2) �'Z�3 ��������&���
(3) )�A��� ��������!���"�� ����� ���� ���������"����
(4) ����� ��&���*���=��"���!�3�$�������3�!�3�(�����%�����d� $�������)��8���!!��������>�����
44. (�"���3�� �������*����3��� ��!���(%���)���(6��� ������$� �� (����!�3�MV��3����;��)�����$��.�(�����!������1����!�3������ ��/�(�� ��������8����$����������
(1) "�����1��� (2) (�"�� ��<�%���)��&�����
(3) ,��-� (4) �����,��-����
45. � /�% – I � ���� /�%�– II �� �������&!��������� %�"�������%/����8��� ��3�� %���������������%�2;�(�� ��/������� %�"���: ������– I
(�������'������ �����(��$)��) ����� – II
(������$ )
a. �� �!�� ������� ���� i. )������3��!��b. �� �!�� �e���1����� ii. ����'%����� ��c. ��8��������� iii. ����(%�@� �������d. �%[Z%���������� iv. "��!��'%��!� ����
� � :
a b c d
(1) iii iv ii i
(2) iv iii ii i
(3) iii iv i ii
(4) ii i iii iv
46. � /�% – I � ���� /�%�– II �� �������&!��������� (3�����%/����8��� ��� %���������������%�2;�(�� ��/������� (3�: ������– I
(*�����' ���+ �$)
����� – II
(�����'&����) a. � ����)�*���(�����"��� i. �C�%��������������3�������"��(%�����"����)�3�� ����&��(%,�6������������%,���b. ���<���8�����"��� ii. ������*����)��&� ������c. � ������ !����"��� iii. ��������"�����!�&1�%����� �� ��!�&1���2\�����������"��������!���6��� ������� ��$����
���������d. � ����������*������� iv. �!�3�)������)�����!����������(����(� �(%�� ������ !��3�� %�)��*��(6���
��!!�������������� � :
a b c d
(1) iv ii i iii
(2) iii ii i iv
(3) ii i iii iv
(4) i ii iii iv
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Paper-II 22 J-14-16
47. Which of the following are the sources of Administrative law in India ?
(i) Constitution of India
(ii) Acts and Statutes
(iii) Administrative Directions
(iv) Judicial Decisions
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(1) (i) and�(ii)
(2) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(4) (iii) and (iv)
48. Department of personnel and training of Central Government is under which of the
following ministries ?
(1) Home Affairs
(2) Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions
(3) Human Resource Development
(4) Ministry of Law and Justice
49. Which one of following is not characteristic of British Constitution ?
(1) Flexible Constitution
(2) Supremacy of Parliament
(3) Unitary Government
(4) Based on separation of powers
50. National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005 was launched on which of the following
date :
(1) 2nd
February, 2005 (2) 2nd
February, 2006
(3) 2nd
October, 2005 (4) 2nd
October, 2006
__________
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J-14-16 23 Paper-II
47. C��(���!�3����������� �����*���� ����!������1����!�3����+����`�������>���
(i) C��(���� �������*�����
(ii) )�*������!��������������*�
(iii) ���������� ����8R��
(iv) �������� ����6�����
� ��%/����8��$������ ��� %���������������%�2;�(�� ��/������� %�"���5�
� �� �
(1) (i) )��(�(ii)
(2) (i), (ii) )��(�(iii)
(3) (i), (ii), (iii) )��(�(iv)
(4) (iii) )��(�(iv)
�
48. �'�����!�����)�#@ �����R�������6'��Q�f��$�����!������ ���!�3������ ��!��-�������� ��C��$���� ���
(1) $����!��-�������
(2) � �A!�� ������ ���� �������������3����!��-�������
(3) !�����������*�������� ����
(4) � ��� ���������������!��-��������
�
49. ���!���!�3����� ������%��� ��������������*������ %������<��������G������
(1) ��/�%���������*�����
(2) ���8�� %�����R//����
(3) �� ��!�� �������
(4) ��+�����3��� ������+� (6����(�)�*���(����
�
50. (�<�Q%���$���!�%6��(��"�$��(�$��(��%�)�*������!���UPPa����!����!�3������ ���������� �������(�C���� ����$�������
(1) U�@ (��(%��UPPa (2) U�@ (��(%��UPPW
(3) U�)+� ��(��UPPa (4) U�)+� ��(��UPPW�
______________
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Space For Rough Work
Paper-II 24 J-14-16
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