PAPER - 1 PRELIMS MODEL TEST-20neoias-838f.kxcdn.com/images/pdf/prelims-2017/1. PMT-20 Question... · PAPER - 1 . PRELIMS MODEL TEST-20 . ... OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS. (i)

TEST BOOKLET TARGET PRELIMS 2017

GENERAL STUDIES PAPER - 1

PRELIMS MODEL TEST-20 Time Allowed: Two Hour Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS 1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD

CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.

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4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case, you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.

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8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.

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THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS. (i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question which

has a penalty for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (.33) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.

(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question, if it has a penalty.

(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

Date: 03-06-2017

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1. The ‘Giant Impact’ theory is associated with (a) origin and evolution of the universe (b) formation of gravitational waves (c) formation of the Moon (d) collision of Near Earth Objects

2. Consider the following statements: 1. The ocean salinity depends on

evaporation and precipitation. 2. Any change in the temperature or

density influences the salinity. 3. Terrestrial discharge by rivers is one of

the major source of sea salinity. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

3. The melting of Arctic permafrost has been a cause of concern. Why? (a) It will result in the increase of methane

concenration in atmosphere. (b) All the counttries surrounding North

Pole will be permanently submerged. (c) The temperature of ocean currents will

be drastically altered. (d) The Ph of the ocean water will be

drastically changed.

4. With reference to ‘Cloudbursts’, consider the following statements: 1. It is defined as localized sudden copious

rainfall. 2. It mostly occurs in hilly areas. 3. It refers to breaking open of a cloud

resulting in release of huge amounts of water.

4. It occurs only during daytime. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

5. Which one of the following is not correct? (a) Chilika lake is in Odisha (b) Damdam lake is in Haryana (c) Loktak lake is in Meghalaya (d) Dal lake is in Jammu and Kashmir

6. With reference to Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals (CMS), sometimes seen in news, consider the following statements: 1. It is an environmental treaty under the

aegis of IUCN. 2. CMS provides a global platform for the

conservation and sustainable use of migratory animals and their habitats.

3. The convention also deals with the migration routes of the migratory species.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

7. With reference to Nagoya Protocol, sometimes seen in news, consider the following statements: 1. It is a supplementary agreement to the

Convention on Biological Diversity. 2. It refers to the Convention of

International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora.

3. It provides a transparent legal framework for the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising out of the utilization of genetic resources.

4. India is not a signatory to the Protocol. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

8. Consider the following: 1. Manas Wildlife Sanctuary 2. Mukundpur Sanctuary 3. Bhandhavgarh National Park Which of the above is/are World Heritage Sites as per UNESCO? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None

9. Which one of the following statements is correct about the Gujarra minor rock edicts of Asoka? (a) The name Devanampiya was not

inscribed here. (b) It is located in the Raichur district of

Hyderabad. (c) The name Asoka was inscribed here. (d) It narrated Asoka’s victory over Kalinga.

10. Which one of the following civilizations is known for rectangular, circular or cylindrical shaped soapstone seals? (a) Mesopotamian (b) Roman (c) Egyptian (d) Harappan

11. Which of the following statements with regards to the Civil Disobedience movement is/are correct? 1. The movement received no response

from business groups and peasantry. 2. The movement coincided with Ramosi

uprisings in Maharashtra. 3. The movement was marked by the mass

participation of women and students. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3


12. Consider the following statements about Harappan town planning: 1. Roads were intersected by street drains

and followed a zigzag pattern. 2. A striking feature of its house building is

that the doors of houses opened in to streets.

Which of the statement given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

13. Consider the following statements with regard to Constitutional Remedies guaranteed in Indian Constitution: 1. Writ Jurisdiction of Supreme Court can

only be exercised in cases of violation of Fundamental Rights.

2. Public Interest Litigation is a remedy provided in the Constitution to enforce Fundamental Rights.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

14. Finance Commission is set up in every five years mainly to (a) examine whether the state and Central

government fulfills the budgetary promises.

(b) make recommendations to the central government for fiscal discipline.

(c) decide on principles and procedures guiding the allocation of funds to States.

(d) suggest measures to prevent money laundering.

15. Consider the following statements: 1. The Presidential rule is invoked in a

state when there is a failure of administrative machinery.

2. Fundamental rights, except Article 20 and Article 21, stand suspended during Presidential rule.

3. When the Presidential rule is proclaimed in a state, Council of Ministers of State is dismissed.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None

16. Consider the following with regard to Union Public Service Commission: 1. UPSC chairman is selected by a

Committee consisting of Prime Minister, Opposition Leader in the Lok Sabha and the Lok Sabha Speaker.

2. UPSC Chairman is removed from the office in the same manner as a judge of Supreme Court.


17. ‘VIKALP’ sometimes seen in the news is related to (a) an alternative train accommodation

scheme (b) a 2 week cleanliness drive run by the

Indian railway (c) a regional air connectivity scheme (d) a cryogenic engine developed by the

ISRO

18. Consider the following pairs: 1. Inflation : increase in general level of

prices 2. Reflation : slower rate of inflation 3. Disinflation : inflation combined with

unemployment Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

19. Union Government of India has recently proposed a new Agricultural Produce and Livestock Marketing (Promotion and Facilitating) model law to replace the Agricultural Produce Marketing Committee Act, 2003. Which of the following is not the feature of the same? (a) It allows the farmer to sell his produce

to any mandi in the country. (b) It also proposes private wholesale

markets. (c) It delists fruit and vegetables from the

APMC Act. (d) It has provisions to declare warehouses

and cold storages as market sub-yards.

20. Consider the following pairs: Nuclear power station State 1. Tarapur : Maharashtra 2. Kaiga : Rajasthan 3. Kudankulam : Tamilnadu 4. Narora : Odisha 5. Kakrapar : Madhya Pradesh Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 4 and 5 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

21. Consider the following pairs Missile system Launch mode 1. Agni : surface to surface 2. Trishul : sea to sea


3. Astra : air to air 4. Akash : surface to air Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only

22. With reference to Total internal reflection (TIR), consider the following statements: 1. In TIR, the light travels from rarer to

denser medium. 2. It occurs with no loss of intensity of light 3. It is the operating principle of optical

fibres. Which of the statements given above is / are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

23. With reference to ‘Defence industrial park’, recently seen in the news, consider the following statements: 1. It is aimed at attracting component

manufacturers in the defence industry. 2. Department of Industrial Policy and

Promotion (DIPP) has decided to set up the country’s first defence industrial park at Kochi.


24. Dhola-Sadiya bridge, India’s longest bridge, connects which one of the following pairs of states? (a) Assam and Nagaland (b) Assam and Meghalaya (c) Assam and Arunachal Pradesh (d) Assam and Manipur

25. Some substances known as ‘Short-Lived Climate Pollutants’ (SLCP) assume importance in the context of climate change. Which of the following is/are SLCP? 1. Carbon dioxide 2. Black carbon 3. Hydrofluorocarbons 4. Methane Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

26. Consider the following statements: 1. Black soils are rich in iron and lime but

deficient in nitrogen. 2. Alluvial soils are rich in potash but poor

in phosphorous.

3. Laterite soils are rich in iron and aluminium but deficient in nitrogen and potassium.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

27. In which one of the following countries, the Mediterranean type of climate is found? (a) Chile (b) Kenya (c) Argentina (d) Bolivia

28. With reference to mangrove trees, consider the following statements: 1. Mangroves are salt tolerant trees. 2. Mangrove forest in India can be found

along the coastal areas of West Bengal and Odisha only.

3. Mangrove forests only grow at tropical and subtropical latitudes near the equator.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 3 only

29. With reference to Fly ash, sometimes seen in news, consider the following statements: 1. Fly ash is emitted from coal powered

thermal plants. 2. It can be used in making bricks. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

30. With reference to acid rain, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Acid rain reacts with buildings made

from limestone. 2. Burning of sulphur containing coal can

contribute to acid rain. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

31. Government of India encourages the cultivation of ‘Jatropha’. What is the importance of this plant? 1. It is a rich source of biodiesel and

produces high protein manure. 2. It is well adapted to thrive under a wide

range of physiographic and climatic conditions.

3. It is pest resistant, easily propagated, has a low gestation period and has a high seed yield and oil content.


4. Grazing of the plant by cattle or sheep is the main problem facing for the cultivation of the plant.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

32. Gandhiji’s Harijan campaign did not include (a) giving up the eating of carrion and beef (b) promotion of education (c) giving up liquor (d) mass demonstrations

33. Which one of the following statement about Fatehpur Sikri is correct? (a) The monuments were mostly built in red

sand stone here. (b) Sheikh Salim Christi’s tomb was

commissioned to mark Akbar’s victory over Afghanistan.

(c) The Punch Mahal was built to commemorate Akbar’s victory over Gujarat.

(d) The monuments in the Fatehpur Sikri were partly built by Sha Jahan.

34. Which one of the following statement regarding King Krishnadevaraya is not correct? (a) He built the famous temple of Hazara

Ramaswamy at his capital. (b) Foreign travellers Paes and Nuniz visited

his court. (c) Krishna Devaraya wrote his magnum

opus Amuktamalyada in Telugu. (d) Barbosa criticized his policy of religious

discrimination.

35. Which one of the following was not a cause of the Revolt of 1857? (a) The rumour that the British used to add

the fat of cows and pigs in soldiers’ dinner

(b) Replacing of the old-fashioned muskets by the Enfield rifles.

(c) The British policy of territorial annexations

(d) The annexation of Awadh, on grounds of misgovernment

36. Which of the following are initiatives by NITI Aayog? 1. Atal Innovation Mission 2. Sankalp 3. DigiDhan Mela 4. Grand Innovation Challenge Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

37. Performance Management Division which monitors the working efficiency of different Ministries is under (a) The Ministry of Personnel, Public

Grievances and Pensions (b) Cabinet Secretariat (c) Prime Minister’s Office (d) NITI Aayog

38. What will follow if a no-confidence motion is adopted in the House of People (a) The minister against whom the motion is

passed must resign. (b) Similar motion will be initiated in the

Rajya Sabha. (c) The council of ministers will resign. (d) The motion will be passed to President

for his approval.

39. Income Tax, Central Excise and Customs duty collected by the Government of India is credited to the (a) Contingency Fund of India (b) Public Account (c) Consolidated Fund of India (d) Deposits and Advances Fund

40. ‘Unicorn club’ sometimes seen in the news is related to (a) Start ups (b) Major cotton production countries (c) Turkish referendum (d) Belt and Road initiative (BRI)

41. To prevent the recurrence of scams in Indian Commodity market, the Government of India has assigned the regulatory powers to (a) RBI (b) SEBI (c) FSDC (d) All of the above

42. A country with high rate of savings and low growth rate will have (a) High ICOR (b) Low ICOR (c) High foreign inflow (d) Low foreign inflow

43. Which one of the following pairs of Tribe and State is not correctly matched? (a) Adiyan : Madhya Pradesh (b) Abor : Arunachal Pradesh (c) Irula : Tamil Nadu (d) Tharu: Uttar Pradesh

44. Arrange the following countries in ascending order on the basis of the Gold medal earned by them in Rio Olympic 2016: 1. Great Britain


2. Russia 3. South Korea 4. Germany Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 1, 3, 2, 4 (c) 4, 3, 2, 1 (d) 4, 3, 1, 2

45. Which of the following statements with regard to Pradhan Mantri Yuva Yojana is/are correct? 1. This is a scheme on entrepreneurship

education and training. 2. The scheme spans over a period of three

years (2016-17 to 2018-19) with a project cost of around Rs. 500 crore.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

46. Which of the following statements are correct about ‘Saakshar Bharat’ scheme? 1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme which

was launched during the Eleventh Five Year Plan.

2. The scheme is to impart functional literacy and numeracy to non-literate and non-numerate adults

3. The scheme applied to women in particular and disadvantaged group in general.

4. The scheme applies to persons above the age of 10 years.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4

47. Which of the following are the characteristics of Indian Monsoonal Rainfall? 1. Largely governed by topographical

features. 2. Regional and seasonal variation in the

distribution of rainfall. 3. Precipitation decreases with increasing

distance from sea. 4. Beginning and end of rain is regular and

on time. Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4

48. The main reason that the earth experiences highest temperatures in the subtropics in the northern hemisphere rather than at the equator is

(a) Subtropical areas have an enhanced “greenhouse effect” compared to equatorial areas.

(b) Subtropical areas tend to have less cloud cover than equatorial areas.

(c) Subtropical areas have longer day hours in the summer than the equatorial.

(d) Subtropical areas are nearer to the oceanic areas than the equatorial locations.

49. Consider the following names: 1. Hurricane Matthew 2. Hurricane Gustav 3. Hurricane Hermine Which of the above are the names of hurricanes that had occurred very recently? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

50. The ‘Godzilla’ El-Nino was one of the strongest and longest in history. Which of the following could be the results of an El Nino? 1. Reduction in the amount of planktons

which reduces the number of fish in the sea.

2. Decreased rainfall around Indonesia and Australia.

3. Increased frequency of tropical storms and hurricanes in the eastern Pacific.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

51. Consider the following pairs: Protected Area Well-known for 1. Jaldapara

National Park : One horned

Rhinos 2. Namdapha

National Park : Lion

3. Gir National Park : Flying Squirrel Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

52. Consider the following pairs: 1. Nagarjunsagar

Srisailam Tiger Reserve

: Krishna river

2. Agasthyamalai Biosphere Reserve

: Neyyar river

3. Keibul Lamjao National Park

: Loktak lake

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3


53. With reference to snakes, which belong to the class reptiles, consider the following statements: 1. Snakes are always at the end of the food

chain. 2. All snakes are oviparous. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

54. With reference to Gharial, a reptile found in India, consider the following statements: 1. Gharial in its natural habitat is found in

Bhitarkanika mangroves. 2. Gharial in its natural habitat can be

found in Ganges and some of its tributaries.


55. Which one of the following was a feature of the Subsidiary Alliance of Lord Wellesley? (a) The ally was provided resources for

maintaining a British armed contingent. (b) The ally could not enter into any

agreement with other rulers for three years.

(c) The British were responsible for protecting the ally from any external threats.

(d) All internal threats were to be handled by the ally alone, with no help from the British.

56. Which among the following statements is/are correct about ‘Varna Parichay’? 1. It was a mid-19th century Bengli primer 2. It was written by Raja Rammohan Roy Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

57. Consider the following statements about the Champaran Satyagraha: 1. Mahatma Gandhi organized an All India

Hartal in Champaran satyagraha. 2. The peasants of Champaran condemned

the expulsion of the tinkathia system. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

58. Which of the following statements about the Swadeshi movement in Bengal in 1905 is/are correct?

1. It witnessed mass mobilization through the organization of Samitis.

2. Swadesh Bandhab Samiti, the volunteer Organisation was set up by Ravindra Nath Tagore.

3. Traditional folk theatre forms such as jatras were utilized to spread the swadeshi ideas.

4. The celebration of Ganapati and Shivaji festivals, became a medium for Swadeshi propaganda.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 4 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only

59. With reference to parliamentary privileges, consider the following statements: 1. There is no mention of parliamentary

privileges in the Indian Constitution. 2. Courts cannot inquire into the

proceedings of the house. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

60. Which among the following statement is not correct with respect to the parliamentary system and the presidential system? (a) Governments in a Parliamentary system

will be more stable. (b) A Parliamentary system allows better

representation. (c) Presidential System is based on strict

separation of power. (d) The Conflict between government and

Parliament is easily resolved in a parliamentary system.

61. Consider the following statements with regard to removal of a judge of Supreme Court: 1. Proven misbehavior or incapacity is the

only ground for removal of a Supreme Court Judge.

2. A special committee needs to be constituted by the President to investigate into the charges.

3. A notice must be given to the Judge at least 14 days before the date of removal motion.


62. Which of the following are Classical Languages recognized by Government of India? 1. Sanskrit


2. Bangla 3. Odiya 4. Malayalam Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

63. India’s strategic petroleum reserves are located in which of the following places? 1. Mangalore, Karnataka 2. Kochi, Kerala 3. Tuticorin, Tamil Nadu 4. Vishakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 4 only (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

64. Consider the following statements regarding the liquid assets: 1. Currency has high liquidity compared to

the savings and demand deposits. 2. Time deposits have low liquidity

compared to the savings and demand deposits.


65. Consider the following statements: 1. Fat tax is levied on junk foods. 2. Kerala is the first state in India to

introduce the fat tax. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

66. The area known as ‘Shaksgam Valley’ sometimes appears in the news in the context of the events related to (a) North Africa (b) Middle East (c) South-East Asia (d) South Asia

67. The ‘Goa Declaration’, recently in the news, is related to the affairs of (a) ASEAN (b) BRICS (c) Heart of Asia-Istanbul Process (d) Asia-Europe Meeting

68. The Nobel Peace Prize 2016 was awarded to (a) Juan Manuel Santos (b) Ali Akbar Salehi and Ernest Moniz (c) White Helmets (d) Edward Snowden

69. Which one of the following statements about Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) is not correct?

(a) ASEAN Secretariat participates as observer in NSG.

(b) NSG seeks to contribute to the non-proliferation of nuclear weapons through the implementation of two sets of Guidelines for nuclear exports and nuclear-related exports.

(c) The NSG Guidelines are implemented by each Participating Government (PG) in accordance with its national laws and practices.

(d) NSG works on the basis of consensus.

70. What is the correct sequence of occurrence of the following hills as one proceeds from north to south? 1. Cardamom hills 2. Shevaroy hills 3. Javadi hills 4. Anamalai hills Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 4 – 2 – 1 – 3 (b) 3 – 2 – 4 – 1 (c) 3 – 4 – 1 – 2 (d) 4 – 3 – 2 – 1

71. Recently, there was a leakage of sensitive information regarding one of India’s defence platforms. In the context of this which among the following platforms was in news? (a) Attack helicopters (b) Combat aircrafts (c) Submarines (d) Main battle tank

72. With reference to LISA pathfinder, recently seen in the news, consider the following statements: 1. It aims to measure gravitational waves

directly by using laser interferometry. 2. It has a constellation of three spacecraft. 3. It is a European Space Agency (ESA)

mission Which of the statements given above is / are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

73. Consider the following statements: 1. A warm-blooded animal is one which has

a fluctuating body temperature depending on its surroundings.

2. A cold-blooded animal is one which has a constant body temperature.


74. With reference to the shale gas, consider the following statements: 1. Shale gas refers to natural gas that is

trapped within shale formations. 2. Shale gas is a conventional gas.


3. Fracking technology used in the extraction of the shale gas requires large quantities of water.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

75. Consider the following: 1. Star tortoise 2. Puma 3. Palm civet 4. Sangai deer Which of the above are naturally found in India? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

76. With reference to Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve, sometimes seen in news, consider the following statements: 1. It is located in the Western Ghats 2. It is having unique tropical rain forest 3. Red sanders is a dominant tree variety

found in the Reserve Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 only

77. Which one of the following is the famous novel written in 1869 by Nazir Ahmad? (a) The annihilation of caste (b) Mirat-ul-urus (c) Bahishti Zewar (d) Al-Hilal

78. With reference to the Gupta taxation in Ancient India, consider the following: 1. Bhaga refers to the tax in kind of gifts,

flowers, woods, fruits. 2. Halivakara was a plough tax, paid by

every cultivator owning a plough. 3. Hiranya is the king’s customary share of

the produce(1/6th). 4. Klipta refers to Purchase and sales tax. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 4 only

79. Consider the following statements 1. The Poona Pact provided for reservation

of 148 seats for the Depressed Classes in Provincial Legislatures.

2. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar withdrew from active politics for almost a decade when the Communal Award was announced.

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

80. The Mahalwari system of land revenue was introduced by (a) A.O Hume (b) Holt MacKenzie (c) Lord Wellesley (d) Lord Macaulay

81. The name of a High Court can be changed through (a) an ordinary bill passed in the

Parliament. (b) a Constitutional Amendment Act. (c) an executive order from the Government

of India. (d) a Presidential notification to that effect.

82. Which one of the following pairs of Schedules in the Constitution of India and its content is not correctly matched? Schedule Content (a) Tenth Schedule : Anti-defection (b) Eleventh Schedule : Allocation of seats

in the Council of State

(c) Seventh Schedule : Federal Structure (d) Eighth Schedule : Languages

83. Consider the following statements with regard to Union Executive in India: 1. The rank of different Ministers is

determined by the President of India. 2. According to the Constitution of India,

the total number of Union Council of Ministers cannot exceed 15% of the total number of members of the House of the People.


84. Which of the following are Constitutional provisions and laws for the Protection of the rights of the Scheduled Tribes in India? 1. Article 15 of the Constitution of India 2. Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of

India 3. Forest Rights Act, 2006 Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 only

85. Consider the following statements regarding the Goods and Service Tax: 1. It is a taxation that benefits more to

manufacturing states. 2. It is a production based tax. Which of the following statements is/are correct?


(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

86. Which of the following statements regarding the Bitcoin is not correct? (a) Bitcoin is a cryptocurrency. (b) The lowest denomination of the Bitcoin

is called satoshi (c) Recently South Korean Government has

recognised it as legal form of payment. (d) Digital Asset and Blockchain Foundation

of India (DABFI) helps in the orderly and transparent growth of virtual currency market.

87. Which of the following pairs are not correctly matched?

International institutions

Report published

1. World Bank : Fiscal Monitor 2. IMF : Global Financial

Stability Report 3. World Intellectual

Property Organisation

: Global Innovation Report


88. A member’s quota in IMF determines which of the following? 1. Voting power of the country 2. Amount of fund that a country obliged to

provide to IMF. 3. Access to financing Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

89. Which of the following statements regarding the Asia Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) is not correct? (a) It’s a China led development bank

aiming for infrastructure development in the Asia-Pacific region

(b) Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Gram Jyoti Yojna has been carried out under the funding from AIIB

(c) Only China and India can appoint their own directors for the Board of Directors

(d) The Union Finance Minister is the Governor to the Board of Governors and the alternate is Secretary to Economics Affairs at Ministry of Finance

90. The term ‘Big Data’, sometimes seen in the news, refers to (a) computer-based systems that do things

in the physical world

(b) the practice of using a network of remote servers hosted on the Internet to store data

(c) industrial applications of Internet of things

(d) large amount of information that is generated as trails or by-products of online and offline activities

91. With reference to ‘Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers (ICANN)’, sometimes seen in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is the United Nations specialized

agency for information and communication technologies.

2. ICANN was created in 1998 to take over the task of assigning web addresses.

3. It administrates domain names and Internet protocol addresses (IPs) globally.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

92. Consider the following pairs: Place Industry

1. Coimbatore : Paper 2. Pinjore : Machine tools 3. Bongaigaon : Petrochemical 4. Sirpur : Cotton Textiles Which of the above pairs are correctly matched? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4

93. Which one of the following is not an industrial corridor as per the government policy? (a) Chennai-Bengaluru (b) Amritsar-Kolkata (c) Visakhapatnam - Chennai (d) Kolkata - Guwahati

94. With reference to ‘Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchai Yojana’, consider the following statements: 1. It is to be implemented in an area

development approach, adopting decentralized state level planning.

2. This scheme is aimed to achieve convergence of investments in irrigation at the field level.


95. With reference to Bhimbetka cave paintings, consider the following statements:


1. Bhimbetka cave paintings were developed during the Bronze age.

2. Bhimbetka cave paintings are categorised into several historical periods.

3. The paints were made by grinding various rocks and minerals.

4. The paintings of Mesolithic phase became smaller in size and hunting scenes were predominating.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 4 only

96. Consider the following statements regarding the MSCI Emerging Market Index. 1. It is designed to measure equity

market performance in global emerging markets.

2. It consists of indices of all G20 nations. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

97. Consider the following statements regarding the Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs): 1. InvITs provide an investment option in

infrastructure as well as real estate projects.

2. InvIT is regulated by National Housing Board.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither nor 2

98. Recently Government of India allowed Foreign Investment in the Food processing sector. Consider the following sector regarding the same. 1. Government has allowed 100% FDI for

trading including through e-commerce, in respect of food products manufactured or produced in India.

2. 100% FDI is already permitted in manufacturing of food products through automatic route.


99. ‘Zangger Committee’, sometimes seen in the news, is related to (a) Climate change mitigation (b) United Nations Security Council reform (c) Counter Terrorism Operations (d) Nuclear Non-Proliferation

100. Which of the following is not a member of ‘Missile Technology Control Regime’ (MTCR)? (a) India (b) China (c) Russia (d) United States of America


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