OPENDET - XIII : Entrance Test forEngineering Diploma Programmes

November, 2009 00422

Total No. of Questions =100 Time : 2 Hours

All questions are Compulsory.

Use of calculator is not allowed. Rough work may be done in the space provided at theend of the Test Booklet.

The Test Booklet has the following four tests :

Test - I Mathematics

Test - II Physics

Test - III Chemistry

Test - IV General Awareness andCommunication Skills

No. of Questions 40

No. of Questions 20

No. of Questions 20

No. of Questions 20

Read the instructions given on the OMR Answer Sheet carefully before you start.

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HOW TO FILL UP THE INFORMATION ON THE ENTRANCE TEST OMR ANSWER SHEET

While filling up the OMR Answer Sheet, you should follow the following guidelines :

Write your complete Roll Number. This should correspond to the roll number already suppliedto you. Also write your correct name, address with pin code in the space provided, in ink.Put your signatures on the Answer Sheet with date, in ink. Ensure that the Invigilator inyour examination hall also puts his signatures with date on the OMR Answer Sheet at thespace provided. You should use HB pencil to mark the answers of the questions on the OMRAnswer Sheet.

Do not make any stray marks on the OMR Answer Sheet.

Write correct information in numerical digits in Roll No., Programme Code, Date and Monthand Examination Centre Code Columns. The column of Course Code should be left blank.The corresponding circle should be dark enough and should be filled in completely.

Each question is followed by four probable answers which are numbered 1, 2, 3 and 4. Youshould select and show only one answer to each question considered by you as the mostappropriate or the correct answer. Select the most appropriate answer. Then by using HBpencil, blacken the circle bearing the correct answer number against the serial number of thequestion. If you find that answer to any question is none of the four alternatives givenunder the question you should darken the circle with '0'.

If you wish to change your answer, ERASE completely the already darkened circle by usinga good quality eraser and then blacken the circle bearing your revised answer number. Ifincorrect answer is not erased completely, smudges will be left on the erased circle and thequestion will be read as having two answers by the Optical Mark Reader (OMR) and will beignored for giving any credit.

No credit will be given if more than one answer is given for one question. Therefore, youshould select the most appropriate answer.

7. You should not spend too much time on any one question. If you find any particular questiondifficult, leave it and go to the next. If you have time left after answering all the questions,you may go back to the unanswered ones.

8. There is no negative marking for wrong answers.

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GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

Mobile Phones, calculators, books, slide-rules, foot rulers, note-books or written notes, etc.are not allowed inside the examination hall.

You should follow the instructions given by the Centre Superintendent, Observers and bythe Invigilators at the examination venue. If you violate the instructions you will bedisqualified.

Any candidate found copying or receiving or giving assistance in the examination will bedisqualified.

The Test Booklet and the OMR Answer Sheet would be supplied to you by the Invigilators.After the exam is over, you should hand over the Test Booklet and the OMR AnswerSheet to the Invigilator before leaving the examination hall. Any candidate who does notreturn the Question Booklet and the OMR Answer Sheet will be disqualified.

Candidates arriving late will not be permitted to enter the examination hall. The reportingtime is 9.15 A.M. The examination will start at 10.00 A.M. and will be over at 12.00 noon.

All rough work is to be done on the test booklet itself and not on any other paper. Scrappaper is not permitted. For arriving at answers you may work in the margins, make somemarkings or underline in the test booklet itself.

7 The University reserves the right to cancel scores of any candidate who impersonates or usesmalpractices. The examination is conducted under uniform conditions. The University wouldalso follow a procedure to verify the validity of scores of all examinees uniformly. If there issubstantial indication that your performance is not genuine, the University may cancel yourscore.

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TEST - I

MATHEMATICS

If the base of a triangle is doubled and height is halved its area will be :

(1) doubled (2) halved (3) one-fourth (4) same

If x + —1 = 3 , then x

isx x +1

(1) 9 (3) 13

The expression sine (cosece — sine) is equal to :

(1) sin20 (2) cos20

(3) tan° (4) sin()

The diameter of a metallic sphere is 6 cm. The sphere is melted and drawn into a wire ofuniform circular cross-section. If the length of the wire is 36 cm, then its radius will be :

(1) 1 cm (2) 0.1 cm (3) 10 cm (4) 0.2 cm

The HCF of 4(x — 3) 2 (x — 1) (x +1) 3 and 6(x — 1) 2 (x+ 1) 2 (x + 5) is :

(1)

(x — 3)

(2) (x — 1) (x + 1)

(3)

(x — 1) (x + 1)2

(4) 2(x — 1) (x + 1)2

What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions ?

5 4 38 of of —5 of 222 = ?

(1) 42 (2) 43 (3) 39 (4) 37

03 57. —+ —8

= ?10

37(2)

09 11

(3) IF) (4) T-4

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(2.5) 2 = ?

(1) 62.5

918 ± 27 ÷ 4 = ?

(1) 12.5

10. 180 x 18 x 8 — 8888 =?

(1) 14036

(2) 0.0625 (3) 6.25

(2) 14 (3) 16

(2) 15048 (3) 16012

(4) 0.625

(4) None of these

(4) 17032

The average age of a man and his son is 22 years. The ratio of their ages is 19 : 3 respectively.What is the man's age ?

(1) 44 years (2) 38 years (3) 6 years (4) 8 years

48% of a number is 1248. What is the number ?

(1) 2850

(2) 2700 (3) 2450

(4) 2600

13. A, B and C divide an amount of Rs. 9915 amongst themselves in the ratio of 3 : 5 : 7 respectively.What is the C's share in the amount ?

(1) Rs. 4627 (2) Rs. 5627 (3) Rs. 6627 (4) Rs. 7627

A shopkeeper buys 5 watches for Rs. 9490 and later sells them for Rs. 9700. How muchprofit does the shopkeeper make per watch ?

(1) Rs. 95 (2) Rs. 80 (3) Rs. 60 (4) None of these

What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions ?

156 ± 6 ± 0.65 = ?

(1) 45 (2) 54 (3) 38 (4) None of these

16. ji + 28 = j1681

(1) 13 (2) 225

(3) 14 (4) None of these

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1 7. A car covers a distance of 1204 km in 28 hours. What is the speed of the car ?

(1) 61 kmph (2) 43 kmph (3) 56 kmph (4) None of these

The total number of students in a school is 6020. If the number of girls in the school is 2800,then what is the ratio of the total number of boys to the total number of girls in the school ?

(1) 23 : 20 (2) 8 : 7

(3) 81 : 70 (4) 11 : 13

The distance of the point P(6, — 6) from the origin is :

(1) 12 units (2) 6 units

(3) 6 ,5 units (4) None of these

In a throw of a coin, the probability of getting a head is :

(1) 0.5 (2) 1.0

(3) 0.4 (4) Zero

A horse is tied to a peg fixed at one corner of a square field. If it grazes over an area of

154 square metres, then the length of the rope is :

(1) 7 m (2) 49 m

(3) 14 m (4) 3.5 m

22. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions ?

23 x 3 3 X 27 x —1 =?8

(2) 2 (3) 9

(4) 27

If (x : y) 2 : 1, then (x2 — y2) : (x2 + y2) is :

(1) 3 : 5 (2) 5 : 3

Find the odd man out :

8, 27, 64, 100, 125, 216, 343

(1) 27 (2) 100

(3) 1 : 3 (4) 3 : 1

(3) 125 (4) 343

25. The product of two number is 168 and their difference is 2. Their sum is :

(1) 39 (2) 36

(3) 26 (4) 29

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If A :B=B:C=C:D=3 : 5 and A=27, thenD is:

(1) 45

(2) 60 (3) 75

(4) 125

When 60% of a number is added to 60, the result is number itself. The number is :

(1) 80 (2) 120

(3) 140 (4) 150

What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions ?

1 + tan20= ?

(1) sin20 (2) cos20 (3) sec20 (4) cosec20

(1 — cos20) cosec20 = ?

(1) zero (2) 1

(3) cot20 (4) sin20

The sum of either pair of the opposite angles of a cyclic quadrilateral is :

(1) 90° (2) 150°

(3) 180° (4) 360°

If a number is increased by 10% and then decreased by 10% the number :

(1) remains same (2) decreased by 1%

(3) increased by 1% (4) increased by 0.1%

How many 3 - digit numbers can be formed by using the digits 0, 2, 3 without repetition ?

(1) 4

(2) 3 (3) 5

(4) 6

In the given figure 1 II m, the value of x is :

(1) 40°

(2) 120°

(3) 30° (4) 110°

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What percent of 6.25 is 1.25 ?

(1) 10% (2) 15%

(3) 20% (4) 25%

A and B can do a piece of work in 10 days. A alone can do it in 15 days, then B alone will doit in :

(1) 15 days (2) 20 days (3) 25 days (4) 30 days

\ ,—\3If 25 x V-5- )

a x \/5 = 5 then value of 'a' is :

(1) — 4 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5

If x > y and x, y both are positive then :

1 1 1 1(1) — x > — y (2) — > — (3)

X y — < —x y (4) None of these

If the radius of a sphere be doubled, then its volume will be :

(1) doubled (2) tripled (3) four times (4) eight times

If mean of data :

5, 7, 9, 11, x, 12, 6, 9, is 8 then value of x is :

(1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 9 (4) 8

40. If xP = y and yq = z, then x is equal to :

(1) zPq (2) (zP)1 (3) (z1/P1

(4) zpq

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TEST - II

PHYSICS

Dimensional formula for the latent heat is :(1) [ML2T -2] (2) [M°L2T -2] (3) [WILT -2] (4) [ML2T -1]

The unit of momentum is kg-m/sec. The unit of impulse will be :(1) kg-m-sec (2) kg/sec (3) kg/m-sec (4) kg-m/sec

-4The scalar product of two mutually perpendicular vectors A and B is :

(1) AB

(2) zero (3) A B (4) A2B2

The motions of jet plane and rocket are based on conservation of :(1) energy (2) momentum (3) kinetic energy (4) mass

The SI unit of the gas-constant is :(1) Calories/degree celsius (2) Joule/K-mole(3) Joule/mole (4) Joule/kg

The average kinetic energy of the molecules depends on :(1) absolute temperature (2) volume(3) nature of the gas (4) pressure

A bullet is fired from a gun and the gun is recoiled backward. The K.E. of the gun incomparison with the K.E. of the bullet :(1) will be less (2) will be more (3) will be zero (4) will be equal

In a force F applied on a body moves it with a velocity V , then power will be :

(1) /F(2)

(3) F V

(4) F . V

Sound waves are :(1) longitudinal in nature (2) transverse in nature(3) electromagnetic in nature (4) none of these

A light and a heavy body have equal momentum. Which one has greater kinetic energy ?(1) The light body (2) Both have equal K.E.(3) The heavy body (4) Data given is incomplete

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1 A is equivalent to :(1) 10-8m (2) 10 -10m (3) 10 10m (4) 108m

If body moves in a circle of radius r with angular velocity w, centripetal acceleration (a) is :

(1) rw (2) rw2 (3) //w2 (4) r2w2

Which one is the correct expression for kinetic energy of a body ?1 1

(1) m y2 (2) m y (3) —2 my2 (4) —2 m2V2

The amount of work done in raising a glass of water weighing 0.5 kg through a height of20 cm is :(1) 2 Joule (2) 1 Joule (3) 3 Joule (4) 1.5 Joule(Taking g =10 m/ sec2)

Rain drops are spherical in shape due to :(1) surface tension (2) cohesion(3) viscosity (4) adhesion

A unitless quantity :may have a non-zero dimensionalways has a non-zero dimensionnever has a non-zero dimensiondoes not exist

Physical independence of a force is a consequence of :(1) Third law of motion (2) Second law of motion(3) First law of motion (4) All of the above

For a body moving with constant speed in a horizontal circle, which one of the followingremains constant ?(1) velocity (2) acceleration(3) kinetic energy (4) centripetal force

When a body thrown horizontally from top of a tower in air, it follows :(1) horizontal path (2) vertical path(3) parabolic path (4) nothing can be said with certainity

Sound travels fastest in :(1) air (2) water (3) vacuum (4) steel

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TEST - III

CHEMISTRY

61. An orbital is the region of space around the nucleus in which :

proton and neutron exist.

electron and proton exist.

probability of finding the electron is maximum.

electron, proton and neutron exist.

62. Which out of the four is the balanced equation ?

Fe + H20 ---> Fe304 + H2

Fe + 4H20 --> Fe304 + H2

3Fe + 4H20 --> Fe304 + 4H2

Fe + 4H20 —> Fe304 + 4H2

Respiration is an :

(1) endothermic process. (2) exothermic process.

(3) internal process. (4) external process.

In terms of oxidation = reduction chemical reaction (1) and (2) in the followingrepresent :

(1)

4+ CO

(2)

(1) Reduction and oxidation (2) Oxidation and reduction

(3) Reduction only (4) Oxidation only

65. How many bonds are there in N2 ?

(2) 2 (3) 3

(4) 4

ZnO1

+ C -0,- Zn1

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CaO(s) + H2O (1) —› Ca (OH) 2 (aq) is a :

(1)

Decomposition reaction. (2) Combination reaction.

(3)

Neutralisation reaction. (4) Redox reaction.

Chemical reaction in which energy for decomposition is required is known as :

(1) exothermic reaction

(2) endothermic reaction

(3) both (1) and (2)

(4) none of the above

When a metal is attacked by moisture and air present in atmosphere the process is knownas :

(1) oxidation (2) hydrolysis

(3) both (1) and (2) (4) corrosion

Find the odd one out in the following :

CH3COOH ; NaOH Ca(OH)2 ; NH4OH

(1) NaOH (2) Ca(OH) 2(3) CH3COOH (4) NH4OH

HC/ is an acid. It breaks up into H + and Cl - in aqueous solution. Which ion is responsiblefor its acidic properties ?

(1) Cl

(2) H +(3) H + and Cl -(4) all of the above

Which out of the following is/are the natural source(s) of citric acid ?

Tomato

Curd

Orange

Lemon

(1) (a)

(2) (b) (3) (a) and (b) (4) (c) and (d)

72. The chemical formula of ;bleaching powder is :

(1) Ca(OH) 2(2) CaO

(3) Ca0C1 2(4) CaC12

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73. Which of the following statements is not correct for ionic compounds ?

generally solids in state.

high melting and boiling point.

not soluble in water.

do not conduct electricity in solid state.

74. M-shell has capacity of accommodating maximum of :

(1) 2 electrons (2) 8 electrons (3) 18 electrons (4) 32 electrons

N--N contains :

(1) 3 sigma bonds

(2) 2o- and 1-rr bonds

(3) 27 and lo- bonds

(4) 37 bonds

Which out of the following is a homonuclear molecule ?

(1) HCl (2) CO2 (3) 02 (4) NaC/

The volume of given mass of a gas is directly proportional to absolute temperature atconstant pressure i.e. V cc T (at constant mass and pressure) is known as :

(1) Gay - Lussac's law

(2) Boyle's law

(3) Charle's law

(4) Faraday's law

Electronic configuration of an atom 'A' is 1S 22S22P5 . Which one is the most stablespecies ?

(1) A (2) A 2 (3) A3 (4) A4

Which one has bond order 3 ?

(1) C/2 (2) N2 (3) 02 (4) F2

How many o- bonds are there in C 2H6 ?

(1) 6

(2) 5 (3) 7

(4) 8

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TEST - IV

GENERAL AWARENESS AND COMMUNICATION SKILLS

The unit of current is :

(1) ohm (2) watt (3) ampere (4) none of these

The capital of Goa is :

(1) Agartala (2) Guwahati (3) Kohima (4) Panaji

Oncology is the study of :

(1) Birds (2) Cancer (3) Mammals (4) Soil

Who is the author of Mein Kampf ?

(1) Bill Clinton (2) Dalai Lama

(3) Adolf Hitler (4) Napoleon Bonaparte

When was the Civil Disobedience Movement started ?

(1) 1928 (2) 1926 (3) 1930 (4) 1932

Which country will host the 2016 Olympic Games ?

(1) London (2) Japan (3) United States (4) Brazil

World Literacy day is celebrated on :

(1) 2nd October (2) 1st December (3) 30th November (4) 8th September

The country known as the "Land of Thunderbolts" is :

(1) Nepal (2) Bhutan (3) Korea (4) Thailand

'Last Judgement' was the first painting of an Italian painter named :

(1) Fillipino Lipi (2) Michelangelo

(3) Leonardo da Vinci (4) Raphael

Who wrote The God of Sinai! Things ?

(1) Sobha De (2) Arundhati Roy

(3) Jhumpa Lahiri (4) Taslima Nasrin

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Directions : In questions 91, 92, 93 and 94, fill in the blanks with appropriate words so as to completethe sentence in the best possible manner.

The new clerk was not sure under which he should file the purchasing documents.

(1) covering (2) level

(3) rank (4) category

These stocks have done very since the company changed management.

(1) slowly (2) weakly (3) poorly (4) steadily

We would like to a teleconference with your public relations office regardingthe upcoming merger.

(1) transact (2) install (3) perform (4) arrange

The negotiations cannot be because of the disagreements.

(1) concurred (2) continued

(3) contourd (4) confounded

Directions :

For questions 95, 96 and 97, state the choice closest to the meaning to the given word(synonym).

proximity

(1) buffoon (2) nearness (3) collapse (4) change

hindrance

(1) allotment (2) anticyclone (3) obstruction (4) multiform

97. penury

(1) destitution (2) pension (3) vigour (4) . digestive

Directions :

For questions 98, 99 and 100, select the choice closest to the opposite in meaning of thegiven word (antonyms).

obese

(1) poor

adroit

(1) gorgeous

100. censure

(1) fight

(2) slim (3) smart (4) vagabond

(2) reluctant (3) skeptic (4) unskillful

(2) mitigate (3) praise (4) govern

- o 0 o -

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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