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Medium :ENGLISH Roll No:

Language : ENGLISH ____________________________________________________________

NTSE – MOCK TEST, 2014

MENTAL ABILITY AND

SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST

Time: 180 Minutes Mental Ability Test : 50 Marks Language Comprehensive Test:40 Marks Aptitude Test : 90 Marks Total :180 Marks

Instructions to Candidates

Read the following instructions carefully before you answer the questions. Answers are to be SHADED on a SEPARATE OMR Answer Sheet given, with HB Pencil. Read the Instructions printed on the OMR Sheet carefully before answering the question.

1. Please write your Center Code Number and Roll Number very clearly (only one digit in one block) on the OMR Sheet as given in your admission card. Please see that no block is left unfilled and even zeros appearing in the Center Code Number are correctly transferred to the appropriate blocks on the OMR Sheet as shown in the example given in the OMR Sheet. For all the subsequent purpose your Center Code Number and Roll Number shall remain the same as given on the Admission Card.

2. The Test is in THREE PARTS, Part-I (Mental Ability) consists of 50 Questions (Q.Nos. 1 to 50), Part-II (Language Comprehensive Test) consists of 40 Questions (Q. Nos, 51 to 90) and Part – III (Aptitude Test) Consists of 90 questions (Q.Nos, 91 to 180).

3. All questions carry one mark each.

4. Since all questions are compulsory, do not try to read through the whole question paper before beginning to answer it.

5. Begin with the first question and keep trying one question after another till you finish all three parts.

6. If you do not know the answer to any question, do not spend much time on it and pass on to next one. If time permits, you can come back to the questions which you have left in the first instance and try them again.

7. Since the time allotted to the question paper is very limited, you should make the best use of it by not spending too much time on any question.

8. A blank page is provided for rough work at the end of each part.

9. REMEMBER YOU HAVE TO SHADE ANSWERS ON A SEPARATE OMR SHEET PROVIDED.

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10. Answer to each question is to be indicated by SHADING the circle having the number of the correct alternative in OMR Sheet from among the once given for the corresponding question in the booklet.

11. Now turn to the next page and start answering the questions.

12. After the examination, you should hand over the OMR Sheet to the Invigilator of the room.

13. The candidate need not return this Question Paper booklet and can take it after completion of the examination. No candidate should leave the examination hall before the end of the examination.

PART – I

MENTAL ABILITY TEST (Q. Nos. 1 to 50)

Max. Marks – 50

Note:SHADE the correct alternatives in the OMR Answer Sheet provided, from

amongst the ones given against the corresponding question in the Question Booklet.

For shading the circles, use HB Pencil.

………

Directions: (Q 1 to 4) :In each of the questions 1 to 4 some of the letters are missing

in the given series with one term missing. This term is one of the alternatives among

the four groups of letters given under it. Find the right alternative. 1. JAZ, LEX, NIV, PMT,______

1) QUR 2) RQR 3) RUS 4) SUR

2. AKU, FPZ, ______ PZJ, UEO, ZJT

1) JTD 2) KUE 3) KVE 4) JUE

3. ab_a_b_cc_aabbb_c

1) abcabb 2) cabcc 3) cabcbc 4) cbbcac

4. DCXW, FEVU, HGTS ______

1) LKPO 2) ABYZ 3) JIRO 4) JIRQ

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Directions: (Q 5 to 8) : In each of the questions 5 to 8 some of the numbers are

missing in the given series with one term missing. This term is one of the alternatives

among the four numbers given under it. Find the right alternative. 5. 2 5 11 23 47 95 ___

1) 194 2) 190 3) 192 4) 191

6. 126 62 30 14 _____ 2

1) 5 2) 6 3) 7 4) 8

7. 2 6 12 20 30 42 ____

1) 47 2) 54 3) 58 4) 56

8. 2 6 15 64 315 _____

1) 1986 2) 1896 3) 8196 4) 1968

Directions: (Q 9 to 12): Diagram is given in which the figures are interlocking each

other. Figure represents certain section of people which are indicated there on. Different

regions of the diagram are lettered. Read the statements of the questions given below the

diagram and write down the letter of the region which represents the set.

9. Americans who are painters but not sculptors

1) a 2) f 3) c 4) b

10. Painters who are neither Americans nor sculptors

1) a 2) f 3) g 4) e

11. Non-American Painters who are also sculptors

1) d 2) g 3) e 4) d

12. Americans who are painters as well as sculptors

1) d 2) e 3) c 4) g

Directions: (Q 13 to 15): In each of the following questions, find out which of the alternatives (1), (2), (3) or (4) indicates the correct relationship between the three given words.

13. Elected house, M.P, M.L.A

1) 2) 3) 4)

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14. Triangle, Four – sided figure, Square

1) 2) 3) 4)

15. Doctor, Nurse, Human being

1) 2) 3) 4)

Directions: (Q 16 to 19): Three alternatives are alike in certain way but the rest one

is different. Find out the odd one and write correct answer. 16. 1) C Z H K 2) M L A G 3) X U B U 4) S E N O

17. 1) C F I L 2) P S V X 3) J M P S 4) O R U X

18. 1) 199 2) 326 3) 527 4) 248

19. 1) Carnatic 2) Kuchipudi 3) Kathak 4) Kathakali

Directions (Q 20 to 21): Numbers from 1 to 6 are placed on different faces of the dice. 20. Two positions of a dice are shown. When 4 is at the bottom, what number will be on the top ?

1) 1 2) 2 3) 5 4) 6

21. A die is thrown four times and its four different positions are given below. Find the number

on the face opposite to 3.

1)1 2) 2 3) 4 4) 6

Direction (Q 22 to 23): Give answer on the basis of given figure that the different

faces are folded in the form of a cube. 22.

The number on opposite side of the face having the number 3 will be

1) 2 2) 4 3) 5 4) 6

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23.

The number on opposite side of the face having the number 1 will be

1) 2 2) 4 3) 3 4) 6

24. In a certain code language, ‘479’ means ‘fruit is sweet’: ‘248’ means ‘very sweet voice’ and

‘637’ means ‘eat fruit daily’. Which digit stands for ‘is’ that code?

1) 7 2) 9 3) 4 4) 8

25. If diamond is called gold, gold is called silver, silver is called ruby and ruby is called emerald,

which is the cheaper jewel?

1) Diamond 2) silver 3) gold 4) ruby

26. In a certain language, CAT = 12, MAT = 17, then what is the value of JAM

1) 15 2) 16 3) 17 4) 12

27. In a certain code language STUDENT is written as TUTDNES. How will SOURCES be

written in that language?

1) SOURCES 2) SUORECS 3) SRUOCES 4) SOURSES

Directions: (Q. 28 to Q.30): In each of the following questions a statement is given

followed by two conclusions I and II: 28. Statement: Good voice is a natural gift but one has to keep practicing to improve and excel

well in the field of music.

Conclusions:

I) Natural gift needs nurturing and care.

II) Even though your voice is not good, one can keep practicing.

1) Only Conclusion I is true 2) Only Conclusion II is true

3) Conclusions I and II both are true 4) Neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II are true

29. Statement: Fortune favours the brave

Conclusions:I) Risk is necessary for success II) Cowards die many times before their death

1) Only Conclusion I is true 2) Only Conclusion II is true

3) Conclusions I and II both are true 4) Neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II are true

30. Statement: Morning walks are good for health

Conclusions:I) all healthy people go for morning walks. II) Evening walks are harmful.

1) Only Conclusion I is true 2) Only Conclusion II is true

3) Conclusions I and II both are true 4) Neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II are true

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Directions: (Q. 31 to 32):A is the Son of B: C,B’s Sister has a son D and a Daughter

E : F is the Maternal Uncle of D. 31. How A is related to D ?

1) Nephew 2) Cousin 3) Brother 4) Uncle

32. How many nephews does F have?

1) Nil 2) One 3) Two 4) Three

33. If 23 * 52 = 48, then 43 * 35 = ?

1) 78 2) 96 3) 98 4) 80

34. If 26th January 1995 fell on a Thursday, on what day did it fall in the year 1986?

1) Friday 2) Monday 3) Sunday 4) Thursday

35. Which of the following years had the same calendar as that of the year 1998?

1) 1987 and 2009 2) 1987 and 2004 3) 2004 and 2009 4) 1993 and 2009

36. If 8th February in a certain non-leap year is Wednesday, then on which day of the week is 4th

October in the same year.

1) Thursday 2) Wednesday 3) Tuesday 4) Saturday

37. Saritha is at 27th position from the top in a class of 43 students. What is her rank from the

other side?

1) 16th 2) 17th 3) 15th 4) 21th

38. How many 3s are followed by 7 but are not preceded by 1?

5 3 7 7 3 4 2 6 3 7 2 7 1 3 7 7 3 7 3 4 3 2 3 7 6 1 3 7

1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 5

39. How many times does the digit 7 appear when you write from 11 to 100?

1) 9 2) 10 3) 11 4) 19

40. If the numbers 810, 912, 910, 809, 781, 673, 573 are written in ascending order, then the sum

of the digits of middle number will be:

1) 9 2) 12 3) 17 4) 13

Directions: (Q 41 to 45) : There are four (or) five figures given. One of these doesn't

correlate with the rest of the figures. Find out that figure 41.

1) 2 2) 5 3) 4 4) 1

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42.

1) 3 2) 4 3) 5 4) 2 43.

1) 2 2) 1 3) 4 4) 3 44.

1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4 45.

1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4 Directions : (Q 46 to 50) : There are two sets of figures. One set contains problem

figures while the other has answer figures. There is a sequence according to which

the problem figures are arranged. You have to select one figure from the set of

answer. Figure which can be placed in sequence after the set of problem figures. Find

out the correct figure. 46.

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47.

48.

49.

50.

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PART-II

LANGUAGE COMPREHENSIVE TEST (Q. Nos. 51 TO 90)

Max. Marks – 40

Note :

i) SHADE the correct alternatives in the OMR Answer Sheet provided, from amongst the ones given against the corresponding question I the Question Booklet. For shading the circles, use HB Pencil.

ii) Q. No 51 to 90 of Language Comprehensive Test contains

English Language along with a blank sheet for rough work.

…………

Read the following passage carefully and answer the following questions. To set and work toward any goal is an act of courage. When we exercise the courage to set and act on goals that are connected to principles and conscience, we tend to achieve positive results. Over time, we create an upward spiral of confidence and courage. Our commitment becomes stronger than our moods. Eventually, our integrity is not even an issue. We build the courage to set increasingly challenging, even heroic goals. This is the process of growth, of becoming all we can become. On the other hand, when we exercise courage in setting goals that are not deeply connected to principles and conscience, we often get undesirable results that lead to discouragement and cynicism. The cycle is reversed. Eventually, we find ourselves without the courage to set even small goals. The power of principle-basedgoal setting is the power of principles the confidence that the goals we set will create quality of life results, that our ladders are leaning against the right walls. It’s the power of integrity the ability to set and achieve meaningful goals regularly, the ability to change with confidence when the “best” becomes the “good.” It’s the power of the four human endoments working together to create the passion, vision, awareness, creativity, and character and strength that nurture growth. To access this power is to create the upward spiral that empowers us to continually put first things first in our lives. 51. We achieve positive results 1) When we exercise the courage to set and act on goals. 2) When we give connection to conscience. 3) When we set goals. 4) When we respect our goals.

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52. We get unwanted results when 1) We exercise courage in setting goals. 2) We are discouraged by others. 3) We set the goals that are not deeply connected to principles and conscience. 4) When we set the goals that is connected deeply to principles and conscience. 53. We find ourselves without the courage to set even small goals. 1) if we do not have goals 2) if we discourage others

3) if we are discouraged 4) if we do not have courage 54. Growth is nurtured by 1) passion and awareness 2) character and strength 3) passion, vision, awareness, creativity 4) strength and passion 55. Which one of the following statements is true according to the above passage. 1) our mood becomes stranger than our commitment

2) setting the goal is an act of courage 3) discouragement is also an encouragement

4) none of the above Direction :In the following passage, there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, some words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate words. About (6)_________ year and half after I had entertained these notions, and by long

musing had, as it were, resolved all (7)_________ nothing, for want of an occasion to put them

(8)_________execution, I was (9)_________, one morning early, with seeing no less than five

can all on shore together on my side the island, and the people (10) _________belonged to them

all landed, and out of my sight.

56. 1) an 2) a 3) the 4) no article 57. 1) into 2) in 3) by 4) on 58. 1) with 2) of 3) on 4) in 59. 1) surprising 2) am surprised 3) was surprised 4) surprised 60.1) that 2) who 3) whose 4) none of these Direction :Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningful complete. 61. I worked about on the shore _____up my hands.

1) Leaved 2) Lifting 3) Leave 4) was lifting 62. I thought that I _____on the ground, on the outside of my wall, where I sat when the

storm below after the earthquake. 1) was sat 2) was sitting 3) is sitting 4) seating

63. Success comes to those who are vigilant not to permit _____from the chosen path. 1) diversion 2) deviation 3) distraction 4) obstruction

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Direction :In each of the following questions, find out which part of the sentence has an error. If there is no mistake, the answer is ‘No error’. 64. If Ihad time, I would havemet you without fail.No error

1 2 3 4 65. Hardly had I seenThe snake than I tooka stick and threw at it.No error

1 2 3 4 66. I have been playing heresince seven yearsto make our team perform the best. No error.

1 2 3 4 67. She has made an appeal to all the peopleyesterday to be alertNo error. 1 2 3 4 68. If I wereThe Chief MinisterI would not have done so. No error.

1 2 3 4 Direction: In each of the following questions, a sentence has been given in Active / Passive voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive / Active voice. 69. They treat me well. 1) I am being treated well 2) I am treated well

3) I am been treated well 4) None of the above 70. Have you informed him? 1) He has been informed by you. 2) Have he been informed by you? 3) Has he been informed by you? 4) Have you been informed by you? 71. Dust covered the walls. 1) The wall were covered by dust 2) The walls covered with dust. 3) The walls were covered with dust 4) The walls covered the dust. Direction :In each of the following questions, a sentence has been given in Direct / Indirect speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested select the one which best express the same sentence in Indirect / Direct speech. 72. She said to me. “Why were you late?”

1) She asked me why I was late. 2) She asked me that why I had been late 3) She asked me why I had been late 4) She asked me why you were late. 73. I said to them,” Do you play chess”? 1) I asked them did you play chess. 2) I asked them if they played chess ? 3) I asked them if they playing chess ? 4) I said to them if they played chess. 74. She says,” I am Unwell.” 1) She says that she was unwell. 2) She says that she is unwell. 3) She said that she was unwell. 4) She said that I was unwell. 75. Which one of the following sentences is in comparative degree. 1) He is as good as Ramu. 2) She is the best student. 3) This is worse than anything else. 4) I am beautiful. 76. ‘No other country is as rich as the U.S.A.’ The comparative degree of the sentence is. 1) The U.S.A is the richest country. 2) The U.S.A is richer than many other countries. 3) The U.S.A is richer than any other country. 4) Some countries are as riches the U.S.A

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77. ‘Ramu runs faster than Raju.’ The positive degree of the sentence is. 1) Ramu is running faster than Raju. 2) Raju does not run as fast as Ramu 3) Raju runs as fast as Ramu 4) Raju did not run as fast as Ramu 78. Which one of the following is a simple sentence. 1) He bought a blue shirt. 2) I saw a man who is strange 3) You are simple and sweet 4) This is the book that changed the whole society 79. ‘She is ill but she attended the class’ Change the sentence into complex. 1) In spite of her illness she attended the class. 2) Though she is ill she attended the class. 3) Although she was ill she attended the class. 4) Being ill she attended the class. 80. Which one of the following sentences is not a compound sentence. 1) He came and met me. 2) He came to meet me. 3) She gave me book but I did not read 4) I gave her book but she did not return 81. Somebody gave you this book. (Add Question Tag) 1) did they ? 2) didn’t he ? 3) didn’t she ? 4) didn’t they ? 82. I am aware of this. (Add question Tag) 1) amn’t I ? 2) aren’t I ? 3) are not I ? 4) am I not ? Direction :In each of the following questions, a word has been written in four different ways out of which one is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word. 83. 1) recedeing 2) receding 3) receeding 4) reeceding Direction :Find out the wrongly spelt word among the following. 84. 1) arrangement 2) laureat 3) alliteration 4) overlapped

85. ‘A close shave’ idiom gives the following meaning. 1) a clean shave 2) a lucky escape 3) a narrow escape 4) no escape 86. One of the following idioms give the meaning of ‘get into trouble.’

1) to split hours 2) to spill the beans 3) to lose one’s head 4) to get into hot waters.

Direction :Rearrange the following sentences to make a meaningful paragraph. A) and asked him if he had solved the tough problems. B) Rama got surprised C) he did not feel the problems were tough. D) One day Rama went to Ravi. E) Hearing this, he laughed and said that 87. 1) d, e, c, b, a 2) d, a, e, c, b 3) d, a, e, c, b 4) d, e, b, c, a 88. The synonym for ‘INCENTIVE’

1) Punishment 2) reward 3) sensitive 4) tough 89. The antonym for ‘IOTA’ 1) tiny 2) high 3) big 4) shallow 90. It is an interesting news.

The underlined word is. 1) Noun 2) Adjective 3) Verb 4) Gerund

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PART IIIAPTITUDE TEST [Q.Nos 91 to 180]

Max. Marks - 90i . Subjects, Questions Sl. No. and Marks allotted:

1. Physics 91 to 102 Questions 12 Marks2. Chemistry 103 to 113 Questions 11 Marks3. Biology 114 to 125 Questions 12 Marks4. Mathematics 126 to 145 Questions 20 Marks5. History 146 to 155 Questions 10 Marks6. Geography 156 to 165 Questions 10 Marks7. Political Science 166 to 175 Questions 10 Marks8. Economics 176 to 180 Questions 05 Marks

i i SHADE the circle having the correct alternative in the OMR Sheet provided,from among the ones given against the corresponding question in the QuestionPaper Booklet. For shading the circles, use HB Pencil

PHYSICS91. A ball is thrown vertically upwards. Which of the following plot represents the velocity-

time graph of the ball during its flight, if the air resistance is not ignored ?

92. The motion of rocket is based on the principle of conservation of1) mass 2) kinetic energy 3) Angular momentum 4) linear momentum

93. The earth rotates about the sun in an elliptical orbit. At which point is velocity maximum?1) At A

2) At B

B

A C

D

S3) At C

4) At D

94. Two bodies having kinetic energies in the ratio of 4:1 are moving with equal linear

momentum. The ratio of their masses is1) 1:2 2) 1:4 3) 1:1 4) 4:1

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95. Match the following :

Column - A Column - Ba) pitch ( ) d) wave formb) quality ( ) e) frequency

c) loudness ( ) f) IntensityThe correct match is1) ae, bd, c f 2) ae, b f, cd 3) ad, be, c f 4) a f, bd, ce

96. 540 gm of ice at 00c is mixed with 540 gm of water at 800 C. The final temperature of themixture is (given that latent heat of fusion of ice = 80 cal/gm, Specific heat of water = 1

cal/gm-0C)1) 800c 2)4 00c 3) 00c 4) 79.90c

97. For a prism, the correct relationship between i and is represented by (i = angle of

incidence, = angle of deviation)

98. A hunter wants to shoot a fish the image of which can be seen through clear water. It is tobe aimed.

1) Above the image of fish 2) Below the image of fish

3) Directly towards the image 4) In any direction

99. Total internal reflection is possible when a ray of light passes from

1) air into water 2) air into glass 3) glass into water 4) water into glass

100. What is the resistance between the points A and B ?

1) 32

2) 23

3) 12

4) 2

101. A current carrying conductor experiences a mechanical force of maximum value in amagnetic field when it is

1) parallel to the field 2) Inclined at 450 to the field

3) perpendicular to the field 4) none of these

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102. Induced e.m.f. in a coil is proportional to the

1) current in the coil 2) Magneticflux linked with the coil

3) Rate of change of magnetic flux linked with the coil

4) magneticflux densityCHEMISTRY

103. The chemical equation Cacl2 + 2AgNO3 2Agcl + Ca(NO3)2 represents followingtype of chemical reaction.1) displacement reaction 2) combination reaction3) Decomposition reaction 4) Double decomposition reaction

104. Element with electronic configuration (2, 8, 2) is1) metal 2) Non-metal 3) Metalloid 4) Inert gas

105. Ca has atomic number 20 and atomic weight 40. Which of the following statement is NOTcorrect about Ca atom ?1) The number of electrons is same as the number of neutrons2) The number of nucleons is double of the number of neutrons3) The number of protons is half of the number of neutrons4) The number of nucleons is double of the atomic number

106. In which of the following, the elements belong to the same period1) Na, Li, k 2) Cu, Zn, Cr 3) Cr, Sn, At 4) H, He, F

107. Ionisation energy of nitrogen is more than oxygen because1) Attraction of electrons by the nucleus is more2) Half filled ‘p’ orbitals are more stable3) nitrogen atom is small 4) more penetration effect

108. The unit cell of Nacl has1) Greater number of Na+ ions than Cl– ions2) unequal number of Na+ ions than Cl– ions3) equal number of Na+ and Cl– ions 4) smaller number of Na+ ions than Cl– ions

109. An electronegativity difference between combining atoms increases

i) Covalent character increases ii) covalent character decreasesiii) ionic character increases iv) ionic character decreases1) (i) and (iii) 2) (ii) and (iv) 3) (ii) and (iii) 4) (i) and (iv)

110. Match the following

a) Bleaching powder ( ) i) NaHCO3

b) Gypsum ( ) ii) CaSO4.2H2O

c) Baking soda ( ) iii) CaOcl2d) plaster of paris ( ) iv) CaSO4 ½H2O1) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv 2) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv 4) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv

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111. The ore that is concentrated by Froth floatation process is ___1) cinnabar 2) Bauxite 3) malachite 4) Zincite

112. Which of the following are chain isomers of C5H12

(I) 3 2 2 2 3CH CH CH CH CH (II) |3 2 3CH CH CH CH

CH3

(III) |

|3 3

CH3CH C CH

CH3

1) I & II 2) II & III 3) I & III 4) I, II & III

113. List - I List - II

i) Graphite p) 13 bondsii) Buckminster fullerene q) sp3

iii) C4H10 r) good conductor of heat and electricityiv) Diamond s) 12 pentagons, 20 hexagons1) i-s, ii-q, iii-r, iv-p 2) i-r, ii-s, iii-p, iv-q3) i-r, ii-s, iii-q, iv-p 4) None of these

BIOLOGY114. Match the following

i) Tuber ( ) a) Onionii) Corm ( ) b) Colocasiaiii) Bulb ( ) c) Bryophyllumiv) Reproductive leaves ( ) d) Potato

1) i-b,ii-a,iii-c,iv-d 2) i-b,ii-a,iii-d,iv-c 3) i-d, ii-b, iii-a, iv-c 4) i-d, ii-b , iii-c, iv-a115. Plasmodesmata connections help in

1) Cytoplasmic streaming 2) Synchronous mitotic divisions3) Locomotion of unicellular organisms 4) Movement of substances between cells

116. A cell is plasmolysed after being kept in a hypertonic solution. What will be presentbetween cell wall and plasmalemma?1) Hypertonic solution 2) Air 3) Hypotonic solution 4) Isotonic solution

117. Agar is commercially obtained from1) Blue green algae 2) Brown algae 3) Red algae 4) Green algae

118. The mouth parts of mosquito are of1) Siphoning type 2) Piercing and sucking type3) Sponging type 4) Cutting and chewing type

119. Identify the true statement1) Pellagra is due to deficiency of vitamin B2 2) Scurvy is due to deficiency of vitamin A3) Rickets is due to deficiency of vitamin D 4) Beri beri is due to deficiency of vitamin B6

120. The pyramid that cannot be inverted in a stable ecosystem is pyramid of1) Number 2) Energy 3) Biomass 4) All the above

121. The longest cell in the body of an animal is1) Osteocytes 2) Neuron 3) Chromatophores 4) Lymph corpuscles

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122. The book named “ Philosophic Zoologique” was published in 1809 and was written by:1) Mendel 2) Darwin 3) De Vries 4) Lamarck

123. Double fertilization is characteristic of1) Angiosperms 2) Algae 3) Gymnosperms 4) Bryophytes

124. In 28-day human ovarian cycle, ovulation occurs on1) day 1 2) day 10 3) day 14 4) day 28

125. Normal haemoglobin content of an adult man is1) 10.5 gm/100 ml of blood 2) 12.5 gm/100 ml of blood

3) 14.5 gm/100 ml of blood 4) 13.5 gm/100 ml of blood

MATHEMATICS126. The given figure consists of three semicircular arcs and one circle. The smaller arcs are

equal. If AB = 6cm, AC = 4 cm, then the complete length of the two figures is

1) 2 cm 2) 4 cm 3) 6 cm 4) 8 cm127. If , , are the real roots of the equation x3 – 3ax2 + 3bx – 1 = 0, then the centroid of

the triangle whose vertices are the points 1 1, , ,

, 1,

is

1) (a, b) 2) (a, -b) 3) (-a, b) 4) (-a, -b)128. Four circular cardboard pieces, each of radius 7cm are placed in such a way that each

piece touches the two other pieces. The area of the space enclosed by the four pieces is1) 21 cm2 2) 42 cm2 3) 84 cm2 4) 168 cm2

129. Let S be the sample space of the random experiment of throwing simultaneously two

unbiased dice with six faces (numbered 1 to 6). Let , :kE a b s ab k for 1k .

If ( )k kP P E for 1k , then which of the following is correct?

1) P1 < P30 < P4 < P6 2) P36 < P6 < P2 < P4 3) P1 < P11 < P4 < P6 4) P36 < P11 < P6 < P4

130. OABC is a quadrant with radius 14 cm and a semi-circle with OA as diameter. Thearea of the shaded portion is:

1) 55 cm2 2) 66 cm2 3) 77 cm2 4) 88 cm2

131. If sin A, cos A and tan A are in G.P, then tan6 A + tan4 A = ………………

1) 0 2) – 1 3) 2 4) 1

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132. If 2 2cos cos ,f x x x where is the step function, then…………………

1) 0 1f 2) / 4 2f 3) / 2 1f 4) 1f

133. In the given figure below, the value of QSR is

1) 700 2) 600 3) 750 4) 650

134. The sum of all odd numbers between 100 and 200 is1) 6200 2) 6500 3) 7500 4) 3700

135. The number of solutions of the equation x2 – |x – 1 | = 1 is

1) 0 2) 1 3) 2 4) 3

136. The angle of elevation of the top of a lamp post of 4m tall from a point on the ground is

300. How far should the observer walk so that the elevation gets doubled?

1) 8 3 m 2) 83 m 3) 8 m 4) 4 m

137. If ab + bc + ca = 0, then the value of 2 2 2

1 1 1a bc b ca c ab

is equal to

1) 3 2) 3abc 3) abc 4) 0

138. If 2 23 3

5 2 6 5 2 6 10x x

, then x = ……………………..

1) 2, 2 2) 3, 3 3) 3, 7 4) None139. In the given figure, sectors of two concentric circles of radii 7cm and 3.5 cm are shown.

The area of the shaded region is

1) 2774

cm 2) 2778

cm 3) 2772

cm 4) None of these

140. If ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral, in which BC is parallel to AD. Then DAC

1) 400 2) 500 3) 600 4) 640

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141. If 1 2 20...20

x x xM , then the value of

20

1 20i

i

x M

is

1) 19

20M

2) 1 3) 0 4) 1/20

142. The value of ‘k’ for which the system of equations kx – y = 2 and 6x – 2y = 3 have a

unique solution is ………………

1) k 2 2) k = 3 3) k 6 4) k 3

143. If the zeros of the polynomial f(x) = x3 – 12x2 + 39x + k are in A.P., then the value of k

is …

1) 28 2) – 28 3) 30 4) – 30

144. The values of ‘x’ satisfying log3(x2 + 4x + 12) = 2 are

1) 2, -4 2) 1, -3 3) -1, 3 4) -1, -3145. Which of the following is false?

1) A B C A B A C 2) c c cA B A B

3) c c cA B A B 4) cA A

HISTORY146. “Praying Hands” is a famous, sketch by

1) Albert Durer 2) Michelangelo 3) Leonardo Davinei 4) Delacroix

147. Who among the following did not contribute to the unification of Italy

1) cavour 2) victor immanuel 3) Garibaldi 4) Georges michelet

148. Which among the following statements regarding the mill workers in India during 19th

century are correct.

1) They had to work till the sun set and it became only impossible to see

2) payments were made in proportion to the amount of goods produced

3) mill owner would keep some part of wages till the end of next month as security

4) when electric bulbs began to be fitted the hours of work also increased

1) 1, 3 and 4 are correct 2) only 1 & 4 are correct

3) only 2 & 3 are correct 4) 1, 2, 3 & 4 are correct

149. “Animal Farm” was written by

1) George Orwel 2) Shawkat Usmani 3) Joseph Stalin 4) Florence owens

150. “Long March” was conducted in

1) 1905-06 2) 1934-35 3) 1948-49 4) 1944-45

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151. The amount of “Agent Orange” sprayed over vietnam by US is

1) 11 million gallons 2) 25 million gallons 3) 5 million gallons 4) 18 million gallons

152. “Sare Jahan se Achha Hindustan Hamara” was written by

1) Rabindranath Tagoore 2) Mohammed Iqbal

3) Sarojini Naidu 4) Jayaprakash Narayan

153. Gandhiji did not celebrate the first independance day because

1) he was against celebrations

2) He thought that India could not achieved Indipendance

3) He was unhappy with the communal frenzy

4) He was busy with the preparation of constitution

154. Punnapra-Vayalar revolt took place in

1) Tamilnadu 2) Karnataka 3) Kerala 4) Odisha

155. Kalidasa lived during the reign of

1) Samudra gupta 2) Chandragupta mourya 3) Ashoka 4) Chandragupta II

GEOGRAPHY

156. Which of the following is called “Lungs” of the earth

1) Tropical evergreen forest of Brazil 2) Tropical deciduous forest of central America

3) Temperate evergreen forest of China 4) Temperate deciduous forest of chile

157. A man travels from 1700E to 170W. On 01.01.2014 saturday at 1am. He took 2 hours to

reach his destination. What changes he has to make on his wrist watch after reaching

1700W.

1) the watch will automatically adjust

2) He has to adjust his watch to 4:20 AM Sunday Jan 2, 2014.

3) He has to adjust as 1:40 AM Jan 1 2014 Saturday

4) He has to adjust as 1:40 AM Dec 31 Friday 2013

158. Which among the following is not a reason for ocean current.

1) Centrifugal force B) Solar energy 3) Tilting of the earth 4) wind directions

159. A foot ball stadium is located in the Northern hemisphere have goal points at North

and South. A player kicks the ball freely into the air from the South east corner and

towards the goal post. What will be the possible coriolis effect on the ball.

1) The ball moves away from the post 2) The ball moves into the post

3) The ball goes strait to North East corner 4) The ball goes towards the centre of the stadium

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160. Which among the following is not a fibre crop :

1) Jute 2) Hemp 3) Coconut 4) Sesamum

161. Which of the following river does not include in ‘Sapta Sindu”.

1) Jhalem 2) Saraswathy 3) Yamuna 4) Ravi

162. Find the odd one from the group

1) Patkai Hills 2) Naga Hills 3) Palani Hills 4) Khasi Hills

163. Match the following :

1) Vasantha a) Sravana-Bhadra

2) Grishma b) Aswayuja - Karthika

3) Varsha c) Chaitra- Vaishaka

4) Sharad d) Margashira-Pusha

5) Hemantha e) Jyesta - Ashadha

1) ceabd 2) caebd 3) cdeab 4) cebad

164. How many ‘kopis’ do a ‘Gadi’ have ?

1) 200-500 2) 10-50 3) 50-100 4) 1000-2000

165. The highest peak in South India is

1) Doda betta 2) Anaimudi 3) Kodaicanal 4) Makurti

POLITICAL SCIENCE166. General We Win belongs to

1) Burma 2) Vietnam 3) Libya 4) Belgium

167. UDHR was made in

1) 1945 2) 1946 3) 1948 4) 1949

168. “Right to enviornment” is laid under1) Article 19 2) Article 24 3) Article 32 4) Article 21

169. Which among the following does not come under Immoral Trafficking (Prevention) Act 1956.

1) Reading rustic writings and watching observe pictures

2) Taking work with out making proper payments

3) Stealing vehicles 4) Removing body parts and doing busines

170. Which among the following document cannot be produced as a residance proof for a

driving licence

1) Ration card 2) electricity bill 3) life insurance policy 4) Bank account

171. According to Ambedkar which article of Indian constitution is known as the “Heart and

Soul” of the constitution.

1) Article 42 2) Article 17 3) Article 32 4) Article 29

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172. Official language Act was passed in

1) 1963 2) 1964 3) 1965 4) 1966

173. In which year Supreme Court laid down strict norms for the use of Article 356.

1) 1976 2) 1994 3) 1983 4) 1998

174. Which Indian Prime Minister brought constitutional status to local self governments.

1) Rajiv Gandhi 2) LalBahadur Shastri 3) V.P. Singh 4) P.V.Narasimha Rao

175. Federalism means

1) Existence of more than one level of government in the country

2) Federation of states to run the country

3) Only the central government has the right to make laws

4) Judiciary is the highest authority in the country

ECONOMICS176. START was signed between

1) The USA & The USSR 2) The USA & Vietnam3) The USSR & China 4) India & Pakistan

177. Juvenile Justice Act was passed in1) 1976 2) 1956 3) 1986 4) 1987

178. “Money Kumar and Monitory policy” is a1) Comic published by Reserve Bank of India 2) novel written by Amarthya Sen3) cartoon by SLBC 4) short film by RBI

179. As per WDR percapita Income of low income countries is1) less than $1035 2) less than $12,600 3) less than $2085 4) less than $5430

180. Literacy rate of India for men in 2011 census was1) 65.46% 2) 74.04% 3) 82.14% 4) 80.12%

_________ X _________