NTSE (2016-17) Physics PHYSICS NTSE 2017-18...21. A particle moving with a uniform acceleration travels 24 m and 64 m in the first two consecutive intervals of 4 sec each. Its initial

NTSE (2016-17) Physics

NARAYANA IIT/PMT ACADEMY 1

PHYSICS

NTSE 2017-18

INDEX

MOTION ........................................................................................................ 2 to 8

FORCE ............................................................................................................. 9-12

WORK, POWER AND ENERGY ................................................................. 13-16

GRAVITATION ........................................................................................... 17-21

FLOATING BODIES .................................................................................... 22-29

HEAT ............................................................................................................. 30-33

SOUND .......................................................................................................... 34-39

ELECTRICITY AND MAGNETISM ........................................................... 40-45

REFLECTION AND REFRACTION ............................................................ 46-50

SOURCES OF ENERGY............................................................................... 51-53

QUESTION BANK FOR QUICK REVISION ............................................. 54-86

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS ................................................................. 87-89

ANSWER KEY .............................................................................................. 90-94

HINTS AND SOLUTIONS ......................................................................... 95-134

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MOTION

1. A particle experiences a constant acceleration for 20 sec after starting from rest. If it travels a

distance 1S in the first 10 sec and a distance 2S in the next 10 sec, then [NTSE]

(a) 21 SS (b) 3/21 SS

(c) 2/21 SS (d) 4/21 SS

2. The displacement x of a particle along a straight line at time t is given by 2210 tataax . The

acceleration of the particle is

(a) 0a (b) 1a

(c) 22a (d) 2a

3. The coordinates of a moving particle at any time are given by 2atx and 2bty . The speed of the

particle at any moment is

(a) )(2 bat (b) )(2 22 bat

(c) 22 bat (d) )(2 22 bat

4. An electron starting from rest has a velocity that increases linearly with the time that is ,ktv where 2sec/2mk . The distance travelled in the first 3 seconds will be

(a) 9 m (b) 16 m

(c) 27 m (d) 36 m

5. The displacement of a body is given to be proportional to the cube of time elapsed. The magnitude

of the acceleration of the body is

(a) Increasing with time (b) Decreasing with time

(c) Constant but not zero (d) Zero

6. The instantaneous velocity of a body can be measured

(a) Graphically (b) Vectorially

(c) By speedometer (d) None of these

7. A body is moving from rest under constant acceleration and let 1S be the displacement in the first

)1( p sec and 2S be the displacement in the first .secp The displacement in thpp )1( 2 sec. will be

(a) 21 SS (b) 21SS

(c) 21 SS (d) 21 / SS

8. A body under the action of several forces will have zero acceleration

(a) When the body is very light

(b) When the body is very heavy

(c) When the body is a point body

(d) When the vector sum of all the forces acting on it is zero

9. A body starts from the origin and moves along the X-axis such that the velocity at any instant is given by

)24( 3 tt , where t is in sec and velocity in sm / . What is the acceleration of the particle, when it is 2 m

from the origin

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(a) 2/28 sm (b) 2/22 sm

(c) 2/12 sm (d) 2/10 sm

10. The relation between time and distance is xxt 2 , where and are constants. The retardation

is

[NTSE]

(a) 32 v (b) 32 v

(c) 32 v (d) 322 v

11. A point moves with uniform acceleration and 21 ,vv and 3v denote the average velocities in the three

successive intervals of time 21 , tt and 3t . Which of the following relations is correct

(a) )(:)()(:)( 32213221 ttttvvvv (b) )(:)()(:)( 32213221 ttttvvvv

(c) )(:)()(:)( 31213221 ttttvvvv (d) )(:)()(:)( 32213221 ttttvvvv

12. The acceleration of a moving body can be found from

(a) Area under velocity-time graph (b) Area under distance-time graph

(c) Slope of the velocity-time graph (d) Slope of distance-time graph

13. The initial velocity of a particle is u (at 0t ) and the acceleration f is given by at . Which of the

following relation is valid

(a) 2atuv (b) 2

2tauv

(c) atuv (d) uv

14. The initial velocity of the particle is sec/10 m and its retardation is 2sec/2m . The distance moved by

the particle in th5 second of its motion is [NTSE]

(a) m1 (b) m19

(c) m50 (d) m75

15. A motor car moving with a uniform speed of sec/20 m comes to stop on the application of brakes

after travelling a distance of m10 Its acceleration is

(a) 2sec/20 m (b) 2sec/20m

(c) 2sec/40 m (d) 2sec/2m

16. The velocity of a body moving with a uniform acceleration of 2sec/.2 m is sec/10 m . Its velocity after

an interval of 4 sec is [NTSE]

(a) sec/12 m (b) sec/14 m

(c) sec/16 m (d) sec/18 m

17. A particle starting from rest travels a distance x in first 2 seconds and a distance y in next two

seconds, then

(a) xy (b) xy 2

(c) xy 3 (d) xy 4

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18. The initial velocity of a body moving along a straight line is 7 sm / . It has a uniform acceleration of 2/4 sm . The distance covered by the body in the 5

th second of its motion is

(a) 25 m (b) 35 m

(c) 50 m (d) 85 m

19. The velocity of a body depends on time according to the equation 21.020 tv . The body is

undergoing

(a) Uniform acceleration

(b) Uniform retardation

(c) Non-uniform acceleration

(d) Zero acceleration

20. Which of the following four statements is false

(a) A body can have zero velocity and still be accelerated

(b) A body can have a constant velocity and still have a varying speed

(c) A body can have a constant speed and still have a varying velocity

(d) The direction of the velocity of a body can change when its acceleration is constant

21. A particle moving with a uniform acceleration travels 24 m and 64 m in the first two consecutive

intervals of 4 sec each. Its initial velocity is [NTSE]

(a) 1 m/sec (b) sec/10 m

(c) 5 m/sec (d) 2 m/sec

22. The position of a particle moving in the xy-plane at any time t is given by

)63( 2 ttx metres, )2( 2 tty metres. Select the correct statement about the moving particle from

the following

(a) The acceleration of the particle is zero at 0t second

(b) The velocity of the particle is zero at 0t second

(c) The velocity of the particle is zero at 1t second

(d) The velocity and acceleration of the particle are never zero

23. If body having initial velocity zero is moving with uniform acceleration 2sec/8 m the distance

travelled by it in fifth second will be

(a) 36 metres (b) 40 metres

(c) 100 metres (d) Zero

24. An alpha particle enters a hollow tube of 4 m length with an initial speed of 1 km/s. It is accelerated

in the tube and comes out of it with a speed of 9 km/s. The time for which it remains inside the tube

is

(a) 3108 s (b) s31080

(c) s310800 (d) s4108

25. Two cars A and B are travelling in the same direction with velocities 1v and 2v )( 21 vv . When the

car A is at a distance d ahead of the car B , the driver of the car A applied the brake producing a

uniform retardation a There will be no collision when [NTSE]



(a) a

vvd

2

)( 221 (b)

a

vvd

2

22

21

(c) a

vvd

2

)( 221 (d)

a

vvd

2

22

21

26. A body of mass 10 kg is moving with a constant velocity of 10 m/s. When a constant force acts for 4

seconds on it, it moves with a velocity 2 m/sec in the opposite direction. The acceleration produced

in it is

(a) 2sec/3 m (b) 2sec/3m

(c) 2sec/3.0 m (d) 2sec/3.0 m

27. A body starts from rest from the origin with an acceleration of 2/6 sm along the x-axis and 2/8 sm

along the y-axis. Its distance from the origin after 4 seconds will be

(a) 56 m (b) 64 m

(c) 80 m (d) 128 m

28. A car moving with a velocity of 10 m/s can be stopped by the application of a constant force F in a

distance of 20 m. If the velocity of the car is 30 m/s, it can be stopped by this force in

(a) m3

20 (b) 20 m

(c) 60 m (d) 180 m

29. The displacement of a particle is given by 42 dtctbtay . The initial velocity and acceleration

are respectively [NTSE]

(a) db 4, (b) cb 2,

(c) cb 2, (d) dc 4,2

30. A car moving with a speed of 40 km/h can be stopped by applying brakes after atleast 2 m. If the

same car is moving with a speed of 80 km/h, what is the minimum stopping distance

(a) 8 m (b) 2 m

(c) 4 m (d) 6 m

31. An elevator car, whose floor to ceiling distance is equal to 2.7 m, starts ascending with constant

acceleration of 1.2 ms–2

. 2 sec after the start, a bolt begins fallings from the ceiling of the car. The

free fall time of the bolt is

(a) s54.0 (b) s6

(c) 0.7 s (d) 1 s

32. The displacement is given by 52 2 ttx , the acceleration at st 2 is

(a) 2/4 sm (b) 2/8 sm

(c) 2/10 sm (d) 2/15 sm

33. Two trains travelling on the same track are approaching each other with equal speeds of 40 m/s. The

drivers of the trains begin to decelerate simultaneously when they are just 2.0 km apart. Assuming

the decelerations to be uniform and equal, the value of the deceleration to barely avoid collision

should be

(a) 11.8 2/ sm (b) 11.0 2/ sm

(c) 2.1 2/ sm (d) 0.8 2/ sm

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34. A body moves from rest with a constant acceleration of 2/5 sm . Its instantaneous speed (in )/ sm at

the end of 10 sec is

(a) 50 (b) 5

(c) 2 (d) 0.5

35. A boggy of uniformly moving train is suddenly detached from train and stops after covering some

distance. The distance covered by the boggy and distance covered by the train in the same time has

relation

(a) Both will be equal (b) First will be half of second

(c) First will be 1/4 of second (d) No definite ratio

36. An object is projected upwards with a velocity of 100 sm / . It will strike the ground after

(approximately)

(a) 10 sec (b) 20 sec

(c) 15 sec (d) 5 sec

37. A stone dropped from the top of the tower touches the ground in 4 sec. The height of the tower is

about [NTSE]

(a) m80 (b) m40

(c) m20 (d) m160

38. A body is released from the top of a tower of height h . It takes t sec to reach the ground. Where will

be the ball after time 2/t sec

(a) At 2/h from the ground (b) At 4/h from the ground

(c) Depends upon mass and volume of the body (d) At 4/3h from the ground

39. A mass m slips along the wall of a semispherical surface of radius R . The velocity at the bottom of

the surface is

m

R

(a) Rg (b) Rg2

(c) Rg2 (d) Rg

40. A frictionless wire AB is fixed on a sphere of radius R. A very small spherical ball slips on this wire.

The time taken by this ball to slip from A to B is

B

A

O

R

C

(a) cos

2

g

gR (b)

ggR

cos.2

(c) g

R2 (d)

cosg

gR



41. A body is slipping from an inclined plane of height h and length l . If the angle of inclination is ,

the time taken by the body to come from the top to the bottom of this inclined plane is

(a) g

h2 (b)

g

l2

(c) g

h2

sin

1

(d)

g

h2sin

42. A particle is projected up with an initial velocity of sec/80 ft . The ball will be at a height of ft96 from

the ground after

(a) 2.0 and 3.0 sec (b) Only at 3.0 sec

(c) Only at 2.0 sec (d) After 1 and 2 sec

43. A body falls from rest, its velocity at the end of first second is sec)/32( ftg

(a) sec/16 ft (b) sec/32 ft

(c) sec/64 ft (d) sec/24 ft

44. A stone thrown upward with a speed u from the top of the tower reaches the ground with a velocity

u3 . The height of the tower is

(a) gu /3 2 (b) gu /4 2

(c) gu /6 2 (d) gu /9 2

45. Two stones of different masses are dropped simultaneously from the top of a building

(a) Smaller stone hit the ground earlier

(b) Larger stone hit the ground earlier

(c) Both stones reach the ground simultaneously

(d) Which of the stones reach the ground earlier depends on the composition of the stone

46. The velocity-time graph of a body moving in a straight line is shown in the figure. The displacement

and distance travelled by the body in 6 sec are respectively [NTSE]

0 1

2 3 4

5

1 2

3

1 2 3 4 5 6

t(sec)

V(m

/s)

(a) 8 m, 16 m (b) 16 m, 8 m

(c) 16 m, 16 m (d) 8 m, 8 m

47. Velocity-time (v-t) graph for a moving object is shown in the figure. Total displacement of the object

during the time interval when there is non-zero acceleration and retardation is

4

3

2

1

0 10 20 30 40 50 60

t (sec)

(m/s)

Meena Samy

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(a) 60 m (b) 50 m (c) 30 m (d) 40 m

48. Figures (i) and (ii) below show the displacement-time graphs of two particles moving along the x-

axis. We can say that

X

t (i) (ii) t

X

(a) Both the particles are having a uniformly accelerated motion

(b) Both the particles are having a uniformly retarded motion

(c) Particle (i) is having a uniformly accelerated motion while particle (ii) is having a uniformly

retarded motion

(d) Particle (i) is having a uniformly retarded motion while particle (ii) is having a uniformly

accelerated motion

49. For the velocity-time graph shown in figure below the distance covered by the body in last two

seconds of its motion is what fraction of the total distance covered by it in all the seven seconds

10

8

6

4

2

1 2 3 4 5 6 7

Vel

oci

ty (

m/s

ec)

Time (sec)

(a) 2

1 (b)

4

1

(c) 3

1 (d)

3

2

50. In the following graph, distance travelled by the body in meters is

15

10

5

0 10 20 30 40

Time (s)

vm/s

X

Y

(a) 200 (b) 250 (c) 300 (d) 400



FORCE

1. A constant regarding force of 50 N is applied to a body of mass 20 kg, moving with a speed of 15

m/s. How long does the body take to stop?

(A) 5 s (B) 6 s (C) 8 s (D) 10 s

2. A cricket ball of mass 0.2 kg moving with a velocity of 20 m/s is brought to rest in 0.4 s. The

average force

(A) 20 N (B) 30 N (C) 40 N (D) 10 N

3. A body of mass 5 kg is acted upon by two perpendicular forces 8 N and 6 N. The magnitude of

the acceleration of the body is

(A) 4 m/s2 (B) 2 m/s

2 (C) 6 m/s

2 (D) 3 m/s

2

4. A cricket ball of mass 0.2 kg moving with a velocity of 20 m/s is brought to rest by a player in

0.1 s. The impulse of the force acting on the ball is

(A) 3 Ns (B) 4 Ns (C) 5 Ns (D) 6 Ns

5. A car of mass 1000 kg is moving uniformly at 10 m/s. If the engine of the car develops an extra

linear momentum of 1000 kg m/s. Calculate the new velocity with which the car runs

(A) 9 m/s (B) 15 m/s (C) 13 m/s (D) 11 m/s

6. Three blocks of mass 4 kg, 8 kg and 24 kg are connected to each other with light string and placed

on a smooth horizontal floor as shown in figure. If the acceleration of the system is 2 m/s2. Then

the applied force F is

24 kg 8 kg 4 kg F

(A) 72 N (B) 18 N (C) 108 N (D) 36 N

7. Which of the following relations associated with Newton’s second law remains valid for all

velocities

(A) F ma (B) dv

F mdt

(C) d mv

Fdt

(D) All the above

8. Two bodies of masses 6 kg and 4 kg are tied

to a string as shown in the figure. If the

table is smooth and pulley is frictionless,

then the acceleration of mass 6 kg will be

(take g = 10 m/s)

(A) 60 m/s2 (B) 40 m/s

2

(C) 6 m/s2 (D) 4 m/s

2

T 4 kg

6 kg

T

9. A packet of weight W is dropped with the help of a parachute and on striking the ground comes to

rest with a retardation equal to twice the acceleration due to gravity. What is the force exerted on

the ground?

(A) W (B) 2W (C) 3W (D) 4 W

10. A body of mass 8 kg is hanging from another body of mass 12

kg. The combination is being pulled by a string with an

acceleration of 2.2 m/s2. The tension T1 will be

(A) 200 N (B) 220 N

(C) 240 N (D) 260 N

8 kg

12 kg

T1

T2

a

11. When a body is stationary, then

(A) There is no force acting on it (B) The force acting on it are not equal

(C) The combination of forces acting on it balances each other

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(D) The body is in vacuum

12. Passengers standing in a bus are thrown outwards. When the bus takes a sudden turn. This happen

because of

(A) outward pull on them (B) Inertia

(C) Change in momentum (D) Change in acceleration

13. In the system shown in figure, tension T2 is

(A) g

(B) 2g

(C) 3g

(D) 5g

3 kg

T1

2 kg

1 kg T2

T3

14. A body of mass 16 kg accelerates vertically down with a force of 8 N. What is minimum force

required to make it move upward with the same acceleration [Take g = 10 m/s2]

(A) 4 N (B) 8 N (C) 12 N (D) 16 N

15. While launching a rocket of mass 2 104 kg, a force of 5 10

5 N is applied for20 s. What is the

velocity attained by the rocket at the end of 20 s?

(A) 500 m/s (B) 250 m/s (C) 100 m/s (D) 750 m/s

16. A body of mass 2 kg travels according to the law, x(t) = pt + qt2 + rt

3, where p = 3 m/s, q = 4 m/s

2

and r = 5 m/s2. The force acting on the body at t = 2s is

(A) 136 N (B) 158 N (C) 134 N (D) 68 N

17. Conservation of momentum in a collision between particles can be understood from

(A) conservation of energy (B) Newton’s Ist law only

(C) Newton’s IInd

law only (D) Both Newton’s second and third law

18. A bullet of mass 0.4 kg moving with a speed of 90 m/s enters a heavy wooden block and is

stopped after a distance of 60 cm, what is the average resistive force exerted by the block on the

bullet?

(A) 250 N (B) 260 N (C) 270 N (D) 220 N

19. A 40 kg shell is flying at a speed of 72 km/hr. It explodes into two pieces. One of the piece mass

15 kg is stopped. The speed of the other part is

(A) 24 m/s (B)32 m/s (C) 41m/s (D) 50 m/s

20. A constant force acts for 3 s on a mass 16 kg and then ceases to act. During the next 3 s, the body

covers 81 m. Find the magnitude of the force

(A) 169 N (B) 177 N (C) 155 N (D) 144 N

21. A body of mass 4 kg weighs 4.8 kg when suspended in a moving lift. The acceleration of the lift is

(a) 280.9 ms downwards (b)9.80 2ms upwards (c) 1.96 2ms downwards (d) 1.96 2ms upwards

22. An elevator weighing 6000 kg is pulled upward by a cable with an acceleration of 25 ms . Taking g

to be 210 ms , then the tension in the cable is

(a) 6000 N (b) 9000 N (c) 60000 N (d) 90000 N

23. A ball of mass 0.2 kg moves with a velocity of 20 m/sec and it stops in 0.1 sec; then the force on the

ball is

(a) 40 N (b) 20 N (c) 4 N (d) 2 N

24. A vehicle of 100 kg is moving with a velocity of 5 m/sec. To stop it in sec10

1, the required force in

opposite direction is

(a) 5000 N (b) 500 N (c) 50 N (d) 1000 N



25. A boy having a mass equal to 40 kilograms is standing in an elevator. The force felt by the feet of

the boy will be greatest when the elevator

)sec/8.9( 2metresg

(a) Stands still

(b) Moves downward at a constant velocity of 4 metres/sec

(c) Accelerates downward with an acceleration equal to 2sec/4 metres

(d) Accelerates upward with an acceleration equal to 2sec/4 metres

26. A rocket has an initial mass of kg31020 . If it is to blast off with an initial acceleration of 24 ms , the

initial thrust needed is )10~( 2 msg

(a) N4106 (b) N41028 (c) N41020 (d) N41012

27. The ratio of the weight of a man in a stationary lift and when it is moving downward with uniform

acceleration ‘a’ is 3 : 2. The value of ‘a’ is (g-Acceleration due to gravity of the earth)

(a) g2

3 (b)

3

g (c) g

3

2 (d) g

28. The mass of a lift is 500 kg. When it ascends with an acceleration of 2/2 sm , the tension in the cable

will be ]/10[ 2smg

(a) 6000 N (b) 5000 N (c) 4000 N (d) 50 N

29. If force on a rocket having exhaust velocity of 300 m/sec is 210 N, then rate of combustion of the

fuel is

[NTSE]

(a) 0.7 kg/s (b) 1.4 kg/s (c) 0.07 kg/s (d) 10.7 kg/s

30. In an elevator moving vertically up with an acceleration g, the force exerted on the floor by a

passenger of mass M is

(a) Mg (b) Mg2

1 (c) Zero (d) 2 Mg

31. A 30 gm bullet initially travelling at 120 m/s penetrates 12 cm into a wooden block. The average

resistance exerted by the wooden block is [NTSE]

(a) 2850N (b) 2200 N (c) 2000N (d) 1800 N

32. A force of 10 Newton acts on a body of mass 20kg for 10 seconds. Change in its momentum is

(a) 5 smkg / (b) smkg /100 (c) smkg /200 (d) 1000 smkg /

33. A body of mass 1.0kg is falling with an acceleration of 10 2/ secm . Its apparent weight will be

)sec/10( 2mg

(a) wtkg0.1 (b) wtkg0.2 (c) wtkg5.0 (d) Zero

34. A player caught a cricket ball of mass 150 gm moving at the rate of 20 m/sec. if the catching process

be completed in 0.1 sec the force of the blow exerted by the ball on the hands of player is

(a) 0.3 N (b) 30 N (c) 300 N (d) 3000 N

35. If rope of lift breaks suddenly, the tension exerted by the surface of lift

(a = acceleration of lift)

(a) mg (b) )( agm (c) )( agm (d) 0



36. A boy whose mass is 50kg stands on a spring balance inside a lift. The lift starts to ascent with an

acceleration of .2 2ms The reading of the machine or balance )10( 2 msg is

(a) kg50 (b) Zero (c) kg49 (d) kg60

37. A rocket is ejecting g50 of gases per sec at a speed of ./500 sm The accelerating force on the rocket

will be

(a) N125 (b) N25 (c) N5 (d) Zero

38. A block of mass kg5 is moving horizontally at a speed of 1.5 m/s. A perpendicular force of 5N acts

on it for 4 sec. What will be the distance of the block from the point where the force started acting

(a) 10 m (b) 8 m (c) 6 m (d) 2 m

39. A lift of mass 1000 kg is moving with an acceleration of 1 2/ sm in upward direction. Tension

developed in the string, which is connected to the lift, is

(a) 9,800 N (b) 10,000 N (c) 10,800 N (d) 11,000 N

40. A lift accelerated downward with acceleration 'a'. A man in the lift throws a ball upward with

acceleration ).( 00 aaa Then acceleration of ball observed by observer, which is on earth, is

(a) )( 0aa upward (b) )( 0aa upward (c) )( 0aa downward (d) )( 0aa downward

41. A lift is moving down with acceleration a. A man in the lift drops a ball inside the lift. The

acceleration of the ball as observed by the man in the lift and a man standing stationary on the

ground are respectively

(a) gg, (b) agag , (c) gag , (d) ga,

42. A man weighs .80kg He stands on a weighing scale in a lift which is moving upwards with a uniform

acceleration of ./5 2sm What would be the reading on the scale. )/10( 2smg

(a) 400 N (b) 800 N (c) 1200 N (d) Zero

43. A monkey of mass 20kg is holding a vertical rope. The rope will not break when a mass of 25 kg is

suspended from it but will break if the mass exceeds 25 kg. What is the maximum acceleration with

which the monkey can climb up along the rope )/10( 2smg

(a) 2/10 sm (b) 2/25 sm (c) 2/5.2 sm (d) 2/5 sm

44. The time in which a force of 2 N produces a change of momentum of 14.0 mskg in the body is

(a) 0.2 s (b) 0.02 s (c) 0.5 s (d) 0.05 s

45. A gun of mass kg10 fires 4 bullets per second. The mass of each bullet is 20 g and the velocity of the

bullet when it leaves the gun is .300 1ms The force required to hold the gun while firing is

(a) 6 N (b) 8 N (c) 24 N (d) 240 N

Meena Samy

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Work, Power and Energy

1. A force ˆ ˆ(5 3 ) F i j newton is applied over a particle which displaces it from its origin to the

point ˆ ˆ(2 1 ) r i j metres. The work done on the particle is

(A) – 7 joules (B) + 13 joules (C) + 7 joules (D) + 11 joules

2. A force acts on a 30 gm particle in such a way that the position of the particle as a function of time

is given by 2 33 4 x t t t , where x is in metres and t is in seconds. The work done during the

first 4 seconds is

(A) 5.28 J (B) 450 mJ (C) 490 mJ (D) 530 Mj

3. A body of mass 10 kg is dropped to the ground from a height of 10 metres. The work done by the

gravitational force is 2( 9.8 / sec )g m

(A) – 490 Joules (B) + 490 Joules (C) – 980 Joules (D) + 980 Joules

4. A body of mass 6kg is under a force which causes displacement in it given by 2

4

tS metres

where t is time. The work done by the force in 2 seconds is

(A) 12 J (B) 9 J (C) 6 J (D) 3 J

5. A body of mass 10kg at rest is acted upon simultaneously by two forces 4 N and 3N at right angles

to each other. The kinetic energy of the body at the end of 10 sec is

(A) 100 J (B) 300 J (C) 50 J (D) 125 J

6. A cylinder of mass 10kg is sliding on a plane with an initial velocity of 10m/s. If coefficient of

friction between surface and cylinder is 0.5, then before stopping it will describe

(A) 12.5 m (B) 5 m (C) 7.5 m (D) 10 m

7. When a 1.0kg mass hangs attached to a spring of length 50 cm, the spring stretches by 2 cm. The

mass is pulled down until the length of the spring becomes 60 cm. What is the amount of elastic

energy stored in the spring in this condition, if g = 10 m/s2

(A) 1.5 Joule (B) 2.0 Joule (C) 2.5 Joule (D) 3.0 Joule

8. A spring of force constant 800 N/m has an extension of 5cm. The work done in extending it from

5cm to 15 cm is

(A) 16 J (B) 8 J (C) 32 J (D) 24 J

9. When a spring is stretched by 2 cm, it stores 100 J of energy. If it is stretched further by 2 cm, the

stored energy will be increased by

(A) 100 J (B) 200 J (C) 300 J (D) 400 J

10. Two bodies of different masses 1m and 2m have equal momenta. Their kinetic energies 1E and

2E are in the ratio

(A) 1 2:m m (B) 1 2:m m (C) 2 1:m m (D) 2 2

1 2:m m

11. A car travelling at a speed of 30 km/hour is brought to a halt in 8 m by applying brakes. If the

same car is travelling at 60 km/hour, it can be brought to a halt with the same braking force in

(A) 8 m (B) 16 m (C) 24 m (D) 32 m

12. If velocity of a body is twice of previous velocity, then kinetic energy will become

(A) 2 times (B) 1

2times (C) 4 times (D) 1 times

13. Two bodies A and B having masses in the ratio of 3 : 1 possess the same kinetic energy. The ratio

of their linear momenta is then

(A) 3 : 1 (B) 9 : 1 (C) 1 : 1 (D) 3 :1

Meena Samy

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Meena Samy

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14. If momentum is increased by 20%, then K.E. increases by

(A) 44% (B) 55% (C) 66% (D) 77%

15. Two masses of 1kg and 16kg are moving with equal K.E. The ratio of magnitude of the linear

momentum is

(A) 1 : 2 (B) 1 : 4 (C) 1: 2 (D) 2:1

16. A boy lifts a book of known weight from the surface of a table and then keeps it back.To calculate

the work done, he needs to know:

(A) The mass of the book (B) The height

(C) The cost of the book (D) The time taken by him

17. A lorry and a car moving with same kinetic energy are brought to rest by the application of brakes

which provide equal retarding forces. Which of them come to rest in a shorter distance?

(A) Car

(B) Lorry

(C) Both travel the same distance before coming to rest

(D) Nothing can be said

18. Two persons take different reference states for zero potential energy. The changes in potential

energy for two persons

(A) Are same

(B) Are different

(C) Depend strictly on the choice of zero of potential

(D) Become indeterminate

19. You lift a suitcase from the floor and keep it on a table. The work done by you on the suitcase

depends on

(A) The weight of the suit case (B) The path taken by the suit case

(C) The time taken by you in doing so (D) Your weight.

20. When the system is in equilibrium, the net force is

(A) Positive (B) Negative (C) Zero (D) No value

21. P.E. ...... when a body is raised up above the earth surface.

(A) Remains same (B) decreases (C) Increases (D) is zero

22. In order to do work:

(A) Force must act at any angle to the displacement

(B) Force may not act along the same direction as is the displacement

(C) Must act along the direction of displacements

(D) Must act normal to the direction of displacement

23. Given that W F s 0 and F 0 , s 0 , then:

(A) F is equal to s (B) F is parallel to s

(C) F is perpendicular to s (D) none of these

24. When two bodies collide elastically, then:

(A) KE of the system alone is conserved

(B) only momentum is converted

(C) both KE and momentum are conserved

(D) neither KE nor momentum is conserved

25. During inelastic collision of two particles:

(A) (KE)final = (KE)initial

(B) (KE)final must be greater than (KE)initial

(C) (KE)final must be less than (KE)initial

(D) (KE)final may be greater or less than (KE)initial



26. Two balls at the same temperature collide, which is conserved?

(A) Temperature (B) Velocity (C) Kinetic energy (D) Momentum

27. A ball moving with a velocity1u collide elastically with another ball of equal mass, in a one-

dimensional collision. Which of the following is not possible?

(A) First ball will come to rest

(B) Second ball will move with a velocity 1u

(C) Both balls will move with velocity 1u after collision

(D) The first ball will move with a velocity less than 1u

28. In elastic collision between two bodies, complete energy is transferred when:

(A) both bodies have equal mass

(B) both bodies are moving

(C) heavy body is moving and lighter one is at rest

(D) lighter body is moving and heavier one is at rest

29. A bullet strikes against a wooden block and is embedded in it; the nature of collision is

(A) elastic (B) perfectly elastic (C) inelastic (D) perfectly inelastic

30. Which of the following statement is false?

(A) Momentum is conserved in all types of collisions

(B) Energy is conserved in all types of collisions

(C) During elastic collisions conservative forces are involved

(D) Work energy theorem is not applicable to inelastic collisions

31. A ball of mass m moves with speed v and strikes a wall having infinite mass and it returns with

same speed then the work done by the ball on the wall is

(a) Zero (b) Jmv (c) m/v.J (d) v/m J

32. A force NkjiF )ˆ2ˆ3ˆ5(

is applied over a particle which displaces it from its origin to the point

mjir )ˆˆ2(

. The work done on the particle in joules is ]

(a) – 7 (b) +7 (c) +10 (d) +13

33. The kinetic energy acquired by a body of mass m is travelling some distance s, starting from rest

under the actions of a constant force, is directly proportional to

(a) 0m (b) m (c) 2m (d) m

34. If a force jiF ˆ5ˆ4

causes a displacement kis ˆ6ˆ3

, work done is

(a) 64 unit (b) 36 unit (c) 65 unit (d) 34 unit

35. A man starts walking from a point on the surface of earth (assumed smooth) and reaches

diagonally opposite point. What is the work done by him

(a) Zero (b) Positive (c) Negative (d) Nothing can be said

36. It is easier to draw up a wooden block along an inclined plane than to haul it vertically, principally

because

(a) The friction is reduced (b) The mass becomes smaller

(c) Only a part of the weight has to be overcome (d) ‘g’ becomes smaller

37. Two bodies of masses 1 kg and 5 kg are dropped gently from the top of a tower. At a point 20 cm

from the ground, both the bodies will have the same

(a) Momentum (b) Kinetic energy (c) Velocity (d) Total energy



38. Due to a force of Nji )ˆ2ˆ6( the displacement of a body is mji )ˆˆ3( , then the work done is

(a) 16 J (b) 12 J (c) 8 J (d) Zero

39. A ball is released from the top of a tower. The ratio of work done by force of gravity in first,

second and third second of the motion of the ball is

(a) 1 : 2 : 3 (b) 1 : 4 : 9 (c) 1 : 3 : 5 (d) 1 : 5 : 3

40. Two bodies of masses m and 2m have same momentum. Their respective kinetic energies 1E and

2E are in the ratio

(a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 2:1 (d) 1 : 4

41. If a lighter body (mass 1M and velocity 1V ) and a heavier body (mass 2M and velocity 2V ) have

the same kinetic energy, then

(a) 1122 VMVM (b) 1122 VMVM (c) 2112 VMVM (d) 1122 VMVM

42. A frictionless track ABCDE ends in a circular loop of radius R. A body

slides down the track from point A which is at a height h = 5 cm.

Maximum value of R for the body to successfully complete the loop is

(a) 5 cm (b) cm4

15

(c) cm3

10 (d) 2 cm

A

h

B

2R

E

D

C

43. The force constant of a weightless spring is 16 N/m. A body of mass 1.0 kg suspended from it is

pulled down through 5 cm and then released. The maximum kinetic energy of the system (spring +

body) will be

(a) J2102 (b) J2104 (c) J2108 (d) J21016

44. Two bodies with kinetic energies in the ratio of 4 : 1 are moving with equal linear momentum. The

ratio of their masses is

(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 1 (c) 4 : 1 (d) 1 : 4

45. If the kinetic energy of a body becomes four times of its initial value, then new momentum will

(a) Becomes twice its initial value (b) Become three times its initial value

(c) Become four times its initial value (d) Remains constant

46. A bullet is fired from a rifle. If the rifle recoils freely, then the kinetic energy of the rifle is

(a) Less than that of the bullet (b) More than that of the bullet

(c) Same as that of the bullet (d) Equal or less than that of the bullet

47. If the water falls from a dam into a turbine wheel 19.6 m below, then the velocity of water at the

turbine is )/8.9( 2smg

(a) 9.8 m/s (b) 19.6 m/s (c) 39.2 m/s (d) 98.0 m/s

48. Two bodies of masses 2m and m have their K.E. in the ratio 8 : 1, then their ratio of momenta is

(a) 1 : 1 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 4 : 1 (d) 8 : 1

49. A bomb of 12 kg divides in two parts whose ratio of masses is 1 : 3. If kinetic energy of smaller

part is 216 J, then momentum of bigger part in kg-m/sec will be

(a) 36 (b) 72 (c) 108 (d) Data is incomplete

50. A 4 kg mass and a 1 kg mass are moving with equal kinetic energies. The ratio of the magnitudes

of their linear momenta is

(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 1 (c) 2 : 1 (d) 4 : 1



GRAVITATION

1. The gravitational force between two stones of mass 1 kg each separated by a distance of 1 metre in

vacuum is

(A) Zero (B) 56.675 10 newton

(C) 116.675 10 newton (D) 86.675 10 newton

2. Two sphere of mass m and M are situated in air and the gravitational force between them is F. The

space around the masses is now filled with a liquid of specific gravity 3. The gravitational force

will now be

(A) F (B) 3

F (C)

9

F (D) 3 F

3. As we go from the equator to the poles, the value of g

(A) Remains the same (B) Decreases

(C) Increases (D) Decreases upto a latitude of 45°

4. Force of gravity is least at

(A) The equator (B) The poles

(C) A point in between equator and any pole (D) None of these

5. The height of the point vertically above the earth’s surface, at which acceleration due to gravity

becomes 1% of its value at the surface is (Radius of the earth = R)

(A) 8 R (B) 9 R (C) 10 R (D) 20 R

6. An object weights 72 N on earth. Its weight at a height of R/2 from earth is

(A) 32 N (B) 56 N (C) 72 N (D) Zero

7. Two planets of radii in the ratio 2 : 3 are made from the material of density in the ratio 3 : 2. Then

the ratio of acceleration due to gravity 1 2/g g at the surface of the two planets will be

(A) 1 (B) 2.25 (C) 4/9 (D) 0.12

8. If ev and ov represent the escape velocity and orbital velocity of a satellite corresponding to a

circular orbit of radius R, then

(A) e ov v (B) 2 o ev v (C) 0 / 2ev v (D) ev and ov are not related

9. A geostationary satellite

(A) Revolves about the polar axis

(B) Has a time period less than that of the near earth satellite

(C) Moves faster than a near earth satellite

(D) Is stationary in the space

10. A small satellite is revolving near earth's surface. Its orbital velocity will be nearly

(A) 8 km/sec (B) 11.2 km/sec (C) 4 km/sec (D) 6 km/sec

11. The time period of a geostationary satellite is

(A) 24 hours (B) 12 hours (C) 365 days (D) One month

12. For a satellite escape velocity is 11 km/s. If the satellite is launched at an angle of 60° with the

vertical, then escape velocity will be



(A) 11 km/s (B) 11 3 km/s (C) 11

3 km/s (D) 33 km/s

13. The period of a satellite in a circular orbit of radius R is T, the period of another satellite in a

circular orbit of radius 4R is

(A) 4T (B) T/4 (C) 8T (D) T/8

14. Orbit of a planet around a star is

(A) A circle (B) An ellipse (C) A parabola (D) A straight line

15. The ratio of SI units to CGS units of G is

(A) 103 (B) 102 (C) 10–2 (D) 10–3

16. How does the force of gravitation between two objects change when the distance between them is

reduced to half?

(A) increases 4 times (B) increases 2 times

(C) increases 16 times (D) increases 32 times

17. What happens to the gravitational force between two objects, if the mass of one object is doubled?

(A) Increases 4 times (B) Increases 2 times

(C) Increases 16 times (D) increases 32 times

18. What happens to the gravitational force between two objects, if the distance between the objects is

tripled?

(A) becomes(1/9) times (B) becomes(1/3) times

(C) becomes(1/27) times (D) becomes 9 times

19. What happens to the gravitational force between two objects, If the masses of both the objects are

doubled?

(A) becomes 2 times (B) becomes 8 times

(C) becomes (1/4) times (D) becomes 4 times

20. Calculate the gravitational force of attraction between a woman weighing 50 kg and her child of

12 kg separated by a distance of 2 m.

(A) 1.0 × 10–10 N (B) 1.0 × 10–11 N 102

(C) 1.0 × 10–9 N (D) 1.0 × 10–8 N

21. The gravitational force of attraction between two bodies is F1. If the mass of each body is doubled

and the distance between them is halved, then the gravitational force between them is F2. Then

(A) F1 = F2 (B) F2 = 4F1

(C) F2 = 8F1 (D) F2 = 16F1



22. The SI unit of g is

(A) m2/s (B) m/s2 (C) s/m2 (D) m/s.

23. The value of acceleration due to gravity near the earth’s surface is

(A) 8.9 m/s2 (B) 8.9 m/s (C) 9.8 m/s2 (D) 9.8 m/s

24. The relation between ‘g’ and ‘G’ is

(A) 2

GMg

R (B)

2GR

M (C) g = GMR2 (D)

2

G

MR.

25. All bodies whether large or small fall with the

(A) Same force (B) Same acceleration

(C) Same velocity (D) Same momentum.

26. The ratio of gmoonto gearth is

(A) 6 (B) 1

6 (C) 4 (D)

1

4.

27. The unit of the quantity g/G in SI will be

(A) Kgm–2 (B) mKg–2 (C) m2Kg–1 (D) Kg2m–1

28. The ratio of SI units to CGS units of g is

(A) 102 (B) 10 (C) 10–1 (D) 10–2

29. The earth’s gravitational force causes an acceleration of 5m/s2 in a 1 kg mass somewhere is space.

How much will the acceleration of a 3 kg mass be at the same place?

(A) 2m/s2 (B) 3m/s2 (C) 4m/s2 (D) 5m/s2

30. As we go to the higher altitudes the gravitational attraction of the earth

(A) Increases (B) Decreases

(C) Does not change (D) First increase then decrease

31. Force of gravity is least at

(a) The equator (b) The poles

(c) A point in between equator and any pole (d) None of these

32. The radius of the earth is 6400 km and 2sec/10mg . In order that a body of 5 kg weighs zero at the

equator, the angular speed of the earth is

(a) 1/80 radian/sec (b) 1/400 radian/sec

(c) 1/800 radian/sec (d) 1/1600 radian/sec

33. The value of ‘g’ at a particular point is 2/8.9 sm . Suppose the earth suddenly shrinks uniformly to

half its present size without losing any mass. The value of ‘g’ at the same point (assuming that the

distance of the point from the centre of earth does not shrink) will now be [NTSE]

(a) 2sec/9.4 m (b) 2sec/1.3 m (c) 2sec/8.9 m (d) 2sec/6.19 m



34. If R is the radius of the earth and g the acceleration due to gravity on the earth's surface, the mean

density of the earth is

(a) gRG 3/4 (b) gGR 4/3 (c) RGg 4/3 (d) GRG 12/

35. The weight of an object in the coal mine, sea level, at the top of the mountain are 21, WW and 3W

respectively, then

(a) 321 WWW (b) 321 WWW (c) 321 WWW (d) 321 WWW

36. The radii of two planets are respectively 1R and 2R and their densities are respectively 1 and 2 .

The ratio of the accelerations due to gravity at their surfaces is

(a) 22

2

21

121 ::

RRgg

(b) 212121 :: RRgg (c) 122121 :: RRgg (d) 221121 :: RRgg

37. The mass of the earth is 81 times that of the moon and the radius of the earth is 3.5 times that of

the moon. The ratio of the acceleration due to gravity at the surface of the moon to that at the

surface of the earth is

(a) 0.15 (b) 0.04 (c) 1 (d) 6

38. Spot the wrong statement :

The acceleration due to gravity ‘g’ decreases if

(a) We go down from the surface of the earth towards its centre

(b) We go up from the surface of the earth

(c) We go from the equator towards the poles on the surface of the earth

(d) The rotational velocity of the earth is increased

39. Which of the following statements is true

(a) g is less at the earth's surface than at a height above it or a depth below it

(b) g is same at all places on the surface of the earth

(c) g has its maximum value at the equator

(d) g is greater at the poles than at the equator

40. A spring balance is graduated on sea level. If a body is weighed with this balance at consecutively

increasing heights from earth's surface, the weight indicated by the balance

(a) Will go on increasing continuously

(b) Will go on decreasing continuously

(c) Will remain same

(d) Will first increase and then decrease

41. If mass of a body is M on the earth surface, then the mass of the same body on the moon surface is

[NTSE]

(a) M/6 (b) Zero (c) M (d) None of these

42. Mass of moon is 221034.7 kg. If the acceleration due to gravity on the moon is 2/4.1 sm , the radius

of the moon is )/10667.6( 2211 kgNmG

(a) m41056.0 (b) m61087.1 (c) m61092.1 (d) m81001.1

43. What should be the velocity of earth due to rotation about its own axis so that the weight at

equator become 3/5 of initial value. Radius of earth on equator is 6400 km



(a) sec/104.7 4 rad (b) sec/107.6 4 rad (c) sec/108.7 4 rad (d) sec/107.8 4 rad

44. Acceleration due to gravity is ‘g’ on the surface of the earth. The value of acceleration due to

gravity at a height of 32 km above earth’s surface is (Radius of the earth = 6400 km)

(a) 0.9 g (b) 0.99 g (c) 0.8 g (d) 1.01 g

45. At what height from the ground will the value of ‘g’ be the same as that in 10 km deep mine below

the surface of earth

(a) 20 km (b) 10 km (c) 15 km (d) 5 km

46. If the Earth losses its gravity, then for a body

(a) Weight becomes zero, but not the mass

(b) Mass becomes zero, but not the weight

(c) Both mass and weight become zero

(d) Neither mass nor weight become zero

47. The period of a satellite in a circular orbit of radius R is T, the period of another satellite in a

circular orbit of radius 4R is

(a) 4T (b) T/4 (c) 8T (d) T/8

48. Orbit of a planet around a star is

(a) A circle (b) An ellipse (c) A parabola (d) A straight line

49. If a body describes a circular motion under inverse square field, the time taken to complete one

revolution T is related to the radius of the circular orbit as

(a) rT (b) 2rT (c) 32 rT (d) 4rT

50. If the earth is at one-fourth of its present distance from the sun, the duration of the year will be

(a) Half the present year (b) One-eighth the present year

(c) One-fourth the present year (d) One-sixth the present year



FLOATING BODIES

1. If the mass of a body is 12.1 g and the density is 2.2 g/cc, its volume is

(A) 5.5 cm3 (B) 8 cc (C) 11 cc (D) 55 cc

2. Aluminium has a density of 2.7 g/cc. The mass of 15 cc of aluminum is

(A) 45 g (B) 40.5 g (C) 80 g (D) 11g

3. Brine has a density of 1.2 g/cc/ 40 cc of it are mixed with 30 cc of water. The density of solution is

(A) 2.11 g/cc (B) 1.11 g/cc (C) 12.2 g/cc (D) 2.4 g/cc

4. 60 cc of a liquid of relative density 1.4 are mixed with 40 cc of another liquid of relative density

0.8. The density of the mixture is

(A) 1.16 g/cc (B) 2.26 g/cc (C) 11.6 g/cc (D) 116 g/cc

5. If a force of 10 N acts on surfaces of areas in the ratio 1 : 2, then the ratio of thrusts is

(A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 1 (C) 3 : 1 (D) 1 : 1

6. The height of mercury which exerts the same pressure as 20 cm of water column, is

(A) 1.47 cm (B) 14.8 cm (C) 148 cm (D) none of these

7. The buoyant force depends on the

(A) depth of a liquid (B) density of a liquid (C) colour of a liquid (D) none of these

8. The hot air balloon rises because it is

(A) denser than air (B) less dense than air

(C) equally dense than air (D) none

9. A force of 50 N is applied on a nail of area 0.001 sq. cm. Then the thrust is

(A) 50 N (B) 100 N (C) 0.05 N (D) 10 N

10. A body floats with 1

3rd of its volume outside water and

3

4th of its volume outside liquid, then the

density of the liquid is

(A) 3

8g/cc (B)

8

3g/cc (C)

9

4g/cc (D)

4

9g/cc

11. A piece of wood floats in water. What happens to it in alcohol?

(A) floats higher (B) stays as before (C) sinks (D) sinks and rises

12. A boat full of iron nails is floating on water in a lake. When the iron nails are removed, the water

level

(A) rises (B) falls

(C) remains the same (D) nothing can be said

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Meena Samy

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13. An ice cube is floating in a glass of water. What happens to the water level when the ice melts?

(A) rises (B) falls

(C) remains same (D) first rises and then falls

14. A solid weighs 32 gf in air and 28.8 g f in water. The R.D. of the solid is

(A) 8.9 (B) 10 (C) 29.12 (D) 20

15. A body of mass 50 kg has a volume 0.049 m3. The buoyant force on it is

(A) 50 kg f (B) 50 N (C) 49 N (D) 49 kg f

16. If the density of a metal is 8.2 g/cc, its relative density is

(A) 8.2 (B) 1

8.2 (C) 0.82 (D) none of these

17. The SI unit of pressure is

(A) atmosphere (B) dyne/cm2 (C) pascal (D) mm of Hg

18. If two masses A and B have their masses in the ratio 1 : 4 and their volumes are equal, then the

densities have the ratio

(A) 1 : 4 (B) 4 : 1 (C) 2 : 1 (D) 3 : 1

19. The pressure exerted by a liquid of height h is given by (symbols have their usual meanings)

(A) h

dg (B) hdg (C)

h

d (D) hg

20. If the density of a block is 981 kg/m3, it shall

(A) sink in water (B) float in water

(C) float completely immersed in water (D) float completely out of water

21. The R.D. of a metal block is 2.7 × 103 kg/m. It is immersed in water. Then the block

(A) sinks (B) floats

(C) is partially immersed (D) has no part immersed

22. As the density of a series of liquids increases, the upthrust on the iron rod submerged

(A) increases (B) decreases

(C) remains constant (D) nothing can be said

23. A block of wood floats in water with 2

3of its volume submerged. Its relative density is

(A) 1

3 (B)

2

3 (C)

4

3 (D)

1

9

24. The SI unit of thrust is

(A) N (B) dyne (C) kg wt (D) N m–2



25. Pressure cannot be measured in

(A) N m–2

(B) bar (C) Pa (D) kg wt

26. The total force exerted by the body perpendicular to the surface is called

(A) pressure (B) thrust (C) impulse (D) none of these

27. Pascal is the unit for

(A) pressure (B) thrust (C) buoyant force (D) none of these

28. At sea level, atmospheric pressure is

(A) 76 cm of Hg column (B) 76 m of Hg column

(C) 0.76 cm of Hg column (D) 76 cm of water column

29. 1 million is equal to

(A) 100 N m–2

(B) 110 N m–2

(C) 1 N m–2

(D) 1

100N m

–2

30. Atmospheric pressure is measured by a

(A) doctor’s thermometer (B) speedometer

(C) mercury barometer (D) none of these

31. The mercury barometer was invented by

(A) celsius (B) fahrenheit (C) torricelli (D) bernoulli

32. The weather forecasting department uses-as the unit of pressure

(A) bar (B) N m–2

(C) Pa (D) mm of Hg

33. The atmospheric pressure at the surface of the earth is about

(A) 103 N m

–2 (B) 10

5 N m

–2 (C) 10

–3 N m

–2 (D) 10

–5 N m

–2

34. The SI unit of density is

(A) kg m–3

(B) g cm–3

(C) kg wt cm–3

(D) none of water

35. Which of the following physical quantities has no unit?

(A) relative density (B) density (C) pressure (D) thrust

36. The ratio of SI units to CGS units of density is

(A) 103 (B) 10

2 (C) 10

–2 (D) 10

–3

37. The density of water is

(A) 10–3

kg m–3

(B) 10–2

kg m–3

(C) 102 kg m

–3 (D) 10

3 kg m

–3

38. Any solid will sink in water if its relative density is

(A) less than unity (B) equal to unity (C) greater than unity (D) infinite

39. Any solid will not sink in water if its relative density is

(A) less than 1 (B) equal to 1 (C) greater than 1 (D) infinite

40. The buoyant force depends upon

(A) density of the liquid (B) volume of the body inside the liquid

(C) value of g at that place (D) all the above



41. Buoyant force does not depend on

(A) the density of the liquid (B) the density of the body

(C) total volume of the body (D) shape of the body

42. Two stretched membranes of areas 2m2 and 3m

2 are placed in a liquid at the same depth. Then the

ratio of the pressure on them is

(A) 1 : 1 (B) 2 : 3

(C) 2 : 3 (D) nothing can be decided

43. A person is carrying a bucket of water in one hand a piece of plaster in the other. After transferring

the plaster to the bucket (where it floats) the person will carry

(A) same load as before (B) less load as before

(C) more load as before

(D) either less or more load depending on the density of the plaster

44. A raft of wood (density 600 kg/m3) of mass 120 kg floats in water. How much weight can be put

on the raft to make it “just sink”?

(A) 40 kg (B) 80 kg (C) 160 kg (D) 240 kg

45. A wooden cube floats in water partially immersed when 200 g weight is put on the cube, it gets

further immersed by 2 cm. What is the length of side of the cube?

(A) 25 cm (B) 15 cm (C) 10 cm (D) 5 cm

46. A boat having a length of 3 m and breadth 2 m is floating on a lake. The boat sinks by one cm

when a person gets on it. The mass of the person is

(A) 60 kg (B) 120 kg (C) 140 kg (D) none of these

47. Raju is sitting in a boat which is floating on a pond. If Raju drinks some water from the pond, the

level of water in the pond

(A) decrease (B) increases

(C) remains unchanged (D) nothing can be decided

48. A body partly immersed, floats in a liquid contained in a beaker. The beaker is kept inside a lift

falling freely under gravity. The upthrust on the body due to liquid is

(A) zero (B) equal to weight of body in air

(C) equal to weight of liquid displaced (D) equal to weight of immersed part of body

49. The fraction of a floating body of volume V0 and density d0 above the surface of liquid of density

d will be

(A) 0

d

d (B) 0d

d (C) 0d d

d

(D) 0

0

d

d d

50. The most characteristic property of liquids is

(A) elasticity (B) fluidity

(C) formlessness (D) volume conservation

51. A weightless bag is filled with 10 kg of water and then weighed in water. The reading of the

spring balance is

(A) 10 kg wt (B) 5 kg wt (C) 1.6 kg wt. (D) zero



52. Two metallic spheres of different materials immersed in water experience equal upthrust. Then

both the spheres have equal

(A) weights in air (B) densities (C) volumes (D) mass

53. The pressure at a point inside a fluid at rest,

(A) dependent on the height of the fluid column

(B) dependent on the density of the fluid

(C) equal in all directions

(D) all the above are true

54. When an object is made to float in two different liquids of density d1 and d2, the lengths of the

object seen above the liquid surface are l1 and l2 respectively. Which of the following is the correct

alternative?

(A) d2 > d1, if l1 > l2 (B) d1 > d2, if l2 > l1 (C) d1 < d2, if l2 > l1 (D) d2 < d1, if l2 > l1

55. Kerosene lamp glows continuously until the kerosene is exhausted. This is due to the phenomenon

of _____________.

(A) anomalous expansion (B) capillarity

(C) thermal expansion (D) both (A) and (B)

56. A liquid whose density is twice the density of mercury is used as a barometric liquid. Then one

atmosphere pressure equals __________ cm of the liquid.

(A) 76 (B) 38 (C) 152 (D) 380

57. when two liquids ‘A’ and ‘B’ of equal weight are filled inside two identical containers, the height

of the liquid column a is greater than the height of the liquid column B. If PA and PB are the

pressures exerted by A and B at the bottom of the containers respectively, and dA, dB are the

densities of A and B respectively which of the following statements is true?

(A) PA > PB (B) PA < PB (C) PA = PB (D) dA > dB

58. The atmospheric pressure at a given place is dependent on

(A) the height of the air column (B) the temperature

(C) humidity (D) all the above

59. A spring balance shows 100 gf reading when a metallic sphere is suspended from its hook. When

the balance is lowered such that the sphere is immersed in water, the reading shown by the balance

is 75 gf. The relative density of the material of the sphere is

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

60. An object just floats in water. If common salt is added into the water.

(A) the volume of the object immersed in the liquid decrease

(B) the object sinks

(C) the object first sinks and then floats up

(D) cannot be determined

61. A rubber balloon filled with hydrogen gas is left free in air. Then the balloon

(A) escapes into space

(B) ascends upto a certain height in air and floats

(C) ascends upto a certain height and then descends back to ground

(D) ascends upto acertain height and explodes



62. The radius of a press cylinder in a hydraulic press is doublet eh diameter of the pump cylinder.

Then

(A) mechanical advantage is 16

(B) the work done on the load is equal to the work done by the effort

(C) mechanical advantage is 4

(D) both (A) and (B)

63. A substance floats in water, but sinks in coconut oil. The density of the substance

(A) is less than the density of water

(B) is greater than the density of oil

(C) both (A) and (B)

(D) cannot be decided based on the given information

64. The centre of gravity and the centre of buoyancy of a floating body in stable equilibrium

(i) are always same

(ii) are always along a same vertical line

(A) only (i) is true (B) only (ii) is true

(C) both (i) and (ii) are true (D) both (i) and (ii) are false

65. In the case of the liquids that do not wet the walls of the vessel ______________.

(A) cohesive forces are larger than adhesive forces

(B) adhesive forces are larger than cohesive forces

(C) both adhesive and cohesive forces are equal in magnitude

(D) none of the above

66. When an object of weight W is immersed in a liquid, its weight in the liquid is found to be W1.

When it is immersed in water, the weight of the water displaced is found to be W2. The relative

density of the liquid is

(A) 2

1

W

W (B) 1

2

W W

W

(C) 2

1

W

W W (D) 2

1

W W

W

67. The pressure exerted by a liquid column at the bottom of the container at a point inside a fluid is

(A) does not depend on the area of cross-section of container

(B) dependent on the density of the fluid

(C) equal in all directions

(D) all the above are true

68. A manometer is connected to a gas container. Then the mercury level rises by 2 cm in the arm of

the manometer which is not connected to the container. If the atmospheric pressure is 76 cm of Hg

then the pressure of the gas is ___________ cm of Hg.

(A) 80 (B) 76 (C) 72 (D) 78

69. The radius of the press cylinder in a hydraulic press is equal to the diameter of its pump cylinder.

Its mechanical advantage is ______.

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4



70. Among the following liquids, the pressure inside them at a given depth is the highest in

__________ at a constant temperature.

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

71. Which of the following is used to punch holes in thick metallic block?

(A) drilling machine (B) hydraulic press (C) hammer and anvil (D) all the above

72. A liquid whose density is twice the density of mercury is used as a barometric liquid. Then one

atmosphere pressure equals ___________ cm of the liquid.

(A) 76 (B) 38 (C) 152 (D) 380

73. When a force is applied in the downward direction for a short duration on a body floating with its

entire volume in water, the body will then

(A) float with some part of it above the surface of water

(B) oscillate in vertical direction

(C) sink to the bottom

(D) oscillate in horizontal direction

74. When equal quantities of an oil, water and mercury are poured into a baker, the order in which the

liquids arrange themselves from bottom to top is

(A) mercury, water, oil (B) water, mercury, oil

(C) water, oil, mercury (D) mercury, oil, water

75. In a hydrometer, the floatation bulb is large in size compared to the size of the gravity bulb

because

(A) it lowers the centre of gravity (B) it decrease the buoyancy of liquids

(C) it displaces a large amount of liquid and thus does not allow the hydrometer to sink completely

in the liquid

(D) none of these

76. A metal block of volume 500 cm3 and density 2 g cm

–3 is suspended from a spring balance and

one fourth of its volume is immersed in water. The reading on the spring balance is ________N.

(Take g = 10 ms–2

)

(A) 8.575 (B) 10.175 (C) 500 (D) 8.750

77. Sudden fall in atmospheric pressure by a large value indicates_______.

(A) arrival of storm (B) arrival of dust-storm

(C) fair weather (D) none of the above

78. Two stretched membranes of area 10 cm2 and 20 cm

2 are held horizontally in a liquid, at the same

height. The ratio of pressures on them is ___________.

(A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 1 (C) 1 : 4 (D) 1 : 1

79. In a mercury barometer, if a tube containing mercury is tilted, then

(A) vertical height of the mercury column remains same

(B) the length of mercury column in the tube increases

(C) the vertical height of the mercury column decreases

(D) both (A) and (B)

80. At a higher altitudes, the atmospheric pressure is lesser as, at higher altitudes

(A) the length of air column exerting the pressure is less

(B) density of air decreases

(C) acceleration due to gravity decreases

(D) all the above

40. The branch of physics which deals with the study of fluids at rest is called

(A) statistics (B) hydrostatics (C) hydrodynamics (D) none of these

41. The branch of physics which deals with the study of fluids in motion is called

(A) dynamics (B) hydrostatics (C) hydrodynamics (D) none of these



42. The SI units of thrust and pressure are respectively given by

(A) N, Nm2 (B) N, Nm

2 (C) Nm

–1, Nm

–2 (D) Nm

–2, N

43. Pins and nails are made to have pointed ends in order to have …… area of contact between the

pointed ends and the given surface.

(A) infinite (B) least (C) largest (D) none of these

44. The bags and suitcases are provided with …….. handles so that small pressure is exerted on the

hand while carrying them.

(A) broad (B) long (C) small (D) heavy

45. 1 Nm –2

equals

(A) l Pa (B) 0.1 Pa (C) 0.01 Pa (D) 10 Pa

46. It is difficult to walk bare feet on a sandy ground as the sand

(A) flies off (B) yields under our weight

(C) balances our weight (D) reduces our weight

47. SI unit of hydrostatic pressure is

(A) Pa (B) Nm–1

(C) Nm (D) kg wt m–2

48. Pressure is a

(A) scalar quantity (B) vector quantity

(C) normal force (D) all the above are wrong

49. Which of the following is different from others?

(A) bar (B) torr (C) kg wt (D) Pa

50. I torr is equal to

(A) 1 mm of mercury column (B) 1

10 mm of mercury column

(C) 10 mm of mercury column (D) none of these

51. 1 bar is the unit of

(A) blood pressure (B) liquid pressure

(C) atmospheric pressure (D) all the above

52. 1 bar is equal to

(A) 105

Pa (B) 103

Pa (C) 10–3

Pa (D) 10–5

Pa

53. The atmosphere exerts a pressure of P on the surface of the earth. Then P equals

(A) 1.01 × 105 Nm

–2 (B)

1.01 × l0

7 Nm

–2

(C) 1.01 × l0–5

Nm–2

(D) 1.01 × l0–7

Nm–2

54. Atmospheric pressure at sea level is about

(A) l03 Nm

–2 (B) 10

4 Nm

–2 (C) l0

5 Nm

–2 (D) 10

6 Nm

–2

55. The upward force acting on the body immersed in a fluid is called

(A) hydrostatic pressure (B) buoyant force

(C) true weight (D) net force



HEAT

1. A bucket contains 8 kg of water at 25℃ and 2 kg of water at 80℃ is poured into it. Neglecting the

heat absorbed by the bucket, calculate the final temperature of water?

(A) 36° C (B) 40° C

(C) 38° C (D) 56° C

2. Calculate the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 100g of copper from 20℃ to 70℃.

The specific heat capacity of copper is 390 kg℃

(A) 1860 J (B) 1256 J

(C) 1950 J (D) 0 J

3. 45 g water, at 50℃ in a beaker is cooled when 50g of copper at 18℃ is added to it. The content are

stirred till a final temperature is reached. Calculate the final temperature thus obtained. The specific

heat capacity the copper is 0.39 J/g℃ and that water is 0.42 J/g℃. state the assumption used in your

calculation?

(A) 45° C (B) 47° C

(C) 30° C (D) 90° C

4. How much heat energy is required to prapare a water bath of 20 kg. when the cold water at 10℃ is

heated to 40℃? Specific heat capacity of water is 4200 J/kg℃

(A) 2580 KJ (B) 3000 KJ

(C) 2520 KJ (D) 4500 KJ

5. 50g of oil of specific heat capacity 2.2 jg-10 C-1 is cooled from 350℃ to 25℃. Calculate the heat

energy given out by the oil.

(A) 39,004 J (B) 35,750 J

(C) 36000 J (D) 38000 J

6. The SI unit of temperature is

(A) K (B) °C

(C) °F (D) T

7. The temperature of 25°C is ________ in kelvins.

(A) 103 (B) 138

(C) 166 (D) 298

8. The freezing point of water at 1 atm pressure is ________ .

(A) 0°F (B) 0 K

(C) 0°C (D) – 273°C

9. A temperature of 400. K is the same as __________ °F.

(A) 260 (B) 286

(C) 88 (D) 103

10. A temperature of __________ K is the same as 63°F.

(A) 17 (B) 276

(C) 290 (D) 29

11. Expansion during heating

(A) Occurs only in solids

(B) Increases the weight of a material

(C) Decreases the density of a material

(D) Occurs at the same rate for all liquids and solids.

12. Water has maximum density at

(A) 0C (B) 32C (C) –4C (D) 4C

Meena Samy

Typewritten Text

Meena Samy

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13. The coefficient of superficial expansion of a solid is 210-5/C. Its coefficient of linear expansion is

(A) 410-5/C (B) 310–5/C (C) 110-5/C (D) 110-5/C

N.T.S.E (2003)

14. When vapour condenses into liquid

(A) It absorbs heat (B) It liberates heat

(C) Its temperature increases (D) Its temperature decreases

15. At NTP water boils at 100C. Deep down the mine. Water will boil at a temperature

(A) 100C (B) > 100C (C) < 100C (D) will not boil at all

16. If specific heat of a substance is infinite, it means

(A) Heat is given out

(B) Heat is taken in

(C) No change in temperature takes place whether heat is taken in or given out

(D) all of the above

17. A gas in an airtight container is heated from 25C to 90C. The density of the gas will

(A) increase slightly (B) increase considerably (C) Remain the same (D)

decrease slightly

18. The latent heat of vaporization of a substance is always

(A) Greater than its latent heat of fusion (B) Greater than its latent heat of sublimation

(C) equal to its latent heat of sublimation (D) less than its latent heat of fusion

19. 540 g of ice at 0C is mixed with 540 kg of water at 80C. The final temperature of the mixture is

(A) 0C (B) 40C J.S.T.E (2004)

(C) 80C (D) Less than 0C

20. Water is used to cool radiators of engines, because

(A) Of its lower density (B) It is easily available

(C) It is cheap (D) It has high specific heat

21. How much heat energy is gained when 5 kg of water at 20C is brought to its boiling point

(Specific heat of water = 4.2 kJ kg-1c-1)

(A) 1680 kJ (B) 1700 kJ (C) 1720 kJ (D) 1740 kJ

22. Melting point of ice

(A) Increases with increasing pressure (B) Decreases with increasing pressure

(C) Is independent of pressure (D) Is proportional to pressure

23. Heat required to convert on e gram of ice at 0C into steam at 100C is (given Lsteam=536 cal/gm)

(A) 100 colorie (B) 0.01 kilocalorie (C) 716 colorie (D) 1 kilocalorie

24. 80 gm of water at 30C are poured on a large block of ice at 0C. The mass of ice that melts is

(A) 30 gm (B) 80 gm (C) 160 gm (D) 150 gm

25. The saturation vapour pressure of water at 100C is

(A) 739 mm of mercury (B) 750 mm of mercury

(C) 760 mm of mercury (D) 712 mm of mercury

26. Work done in converting one gram of ice at –10C into steam at 100C is

(A) 3045 J (B) 6056 J (C) 721 J (D) 616 J

27. If mass energy equivalence is taken into account, when water is cooled to form ice, the mass of

water should

(A) increase (B) remain unchanged

(C) decrease (D) first increase then decrease



28. Compared to a burn due to water at 100C, a burn due to steam at 100C is

(A) More dangerous (B) less dangerous

(C) equally dangerous (D) first increase then decrease

29. Two liquids A and B are at 32C and 24C. When mixed in equal masses the temperature of the

mixture is found to be 28C. Their specific heats are in the ratio f

(A) 3 : 2 (B) 2 : 3 (C) 1 : 1 (D) 4 : 3

30. Amount of heat required to raise the temperature of a body through 1 K is called its

(A) Water equivalent (B) thermal capacity (C) Entropy (D) Specific heat

31. At atmospheric pressure, the water boils at 100C. If pressure is reduced, it will boil at

(A) Higher temperature (B) Lower temperature

(C) At the same temperature (D) At critical temperature

32. The thermal capacity of 40 gm of aluminimum (specific heat = 0.2 cal/gm/C)

(A) 40 cal/C (B) 160 cal/C (C) 200 cal/C (D) 8 cal/C

33. If temperature scale is changed from C t F, the numerical value of specific heat will

(A) increases (B) Decreased (C) remains unchanged (D) none of these

34. By exerting a certain amount of pressure on an ice block, you

(A) Lower its melting point (B) Make it melt at 0C only

(C) Make it melt at a faster rate (D) Raise its melting point

35. A body of mass 5 kg falls from a height of 30 meter. If its all mechanical energy is changed into

heat, then heat produced will be

N.T.S.E (2006)

(A) 350 cal (B) 150 cal (C) 60 cal (D) 6 cal

36. In supplying 400 calories of that to a system, the work done will be

(A) 400 joules (B) 1672 joules (C) 1672 watts (D) 1672 ergs

37. 0.93 watt-hour of energy is supplied to a block of ice weighting 10 gm. Its is found that

(A) half of the block melts

(B) The entire block melts and the water attains a temperature of 4C

(C) the entire block just melts

(D) the block remains unchanged

38. The SI unit of mechanical equivalent of heat is

(A) Joule Calorie (B) Joule / Calorie (C) Calorie Erg (D) Erg / Calorie

39. The mechanical equivalent of heat J is

(A) A constant (B) A physical quantity (C) A conversion factor (D) none of these

40. At 100C, the substance that causes the most server burn, is

(A) Oil (B) Steam (C) Water (D) Hot air

41. Calorimeters are made of which of the following

(A) Glass (B) Metal (C) Wood (D) Either (A) or (C)



42. Triple point of water is

(A) 273.16F (B) 273.16 K (C) 273.16C (D) 273.16 R

43. A liquid boils when its vapour pressure equals

(A) the atmospheric pressure (B) pressure of 76.0 cm

column of mercury

(C) the critical pressure (D) the dew point of the

surroundings

44. The amount of work, which can be obtained by supplying 200 cal of heat, is

(A) 840 dyne (B) 840 W (C) 840 erg (D) 840 J

45. 1 g of a steam at 100C melt how much ice at 0C ? (Latent heat of ice = 80 cal/gm and latent heat

of steam = 540 cal/gm)

(A) 1 gm (B) 2 gm (C) 4 gm (D) 8 gm

46. 5g of ice at 0C dropped in a beaker containing 20g of water at 40C. The final temperature will be

(A) 32C (B) 16C (C) 8C (D) 24C

47. Which of the following is the unit of specific heat

(A) J kgC-1 (B) J / kgC (C) kgC / J (D) J / kgC-2

48. 50 gm of ice at 0C is mixed with 50 gm of water at 80C. Final temperature of mixture will be

(A) 0C (B) 40C (C) 40C (D) 4C

49. The freezing point of the liquid decreases when pressure is increased, if the liquid

(A) Expands while freezing (B) contracts while freezing

(C) does not change in volume while freezing (D) none of these

50. Latent heat of 1 gm of steam is 536 cal/gm, then its value in joule/kg is

(A) 2.25 106 (B) 2.25 103 (C) 2.25 (D) none of these

51. Which of the following has maximum specific heat

(A) Water (B) Alcohol (C) Glycerine (D) Oil



SOUND

1. The wavelength of the vibrations produced on the surface of water is 2 cm. If the wave velocity is

16 m/s, calculate

(i) the number of wave produced in 1 s

(ii) time required to produce 1 wave

(A) (i) 800 Hz, (ii) 0.00125 s (B) (i) 600 Hz, (ii) 0.00120 s

(C) (i) 300 Hz, (ii) 0.00250 s (D) (i) 800 Hz, (ii) 0.00250 s

2. A sound wave has a frequency 1000 Hz and wavelength 34 cm. How long will it take to move

through 1 km ?

(A) 3.84 s (B) 2.94 s (C) 4.50 s (D) 9.00 s

3. Which of the following statement is correct?

(A) Both sound waves and light waves are transverse

(B) Both sound wave and light wave are longitudinal

(C) Sound wave are longitudinal and light waves are transverse

(D) Sound waves are transverse and light wavers are longitudinal

4. A sound of frequency 5 Hz

(A) is of very short wavelength (B) is inaudible

(C) moves very slowly (D) is very loud

5. A sound wave of wavelength 90 cm in glass is refracted in to air. If the speed of sound in glass is

5400 m/s, the wavelength of the wave in air (speed of sound in air = 330 m/s)

(A) 55 cm (B) 5.5 cm (C) 55 m (D) 5.5 m

6. The distance between two consecutive crests in a wave train produced in a string is 5 cm. If two

complete wave pass through a point per second, the speed of the wave is

(A) 15 cm/s (B) 10 cm/s (C) 5 cm/s (D) 2.5 cm/s

7. A beat at anchor is rooted by waves. Whose crests are 100 m apart and whose speed is 25 m.

These waves reach the beat once every

(A) 0.25 s (B) 4.00 s (C) 2500 s (D) 1500 s

8. The frequency of a man’s voice is 200 Hz and its wavelength is 2 m. If the wavelength of the child

voice is 1 m, then the frequency of the child’s voice is

(A) 200 Hz (B) 25 Hz (C) 100 Hz (D) 400 Hz

9. The graph represent the displacement vs time relation for a disturbance traveling with velocity of

1500 m/s. The wavelength of the disturbance is

Dis

pla

cem

ent

(m)

Time (m) 1 2 3 4

(A) 3 10

3 m (B) 4 10

3 m (C) 3 10

4 m (D) 4 10

4 m

10. A echo is returned is 3s. What is the distance of the reflecting surface from the source, given that

the speed of sound is 342 m/s.

(A) 510 m (B) 525 m (C) 513 m (D) 550 m

11. The intensity of sound wave gets reduced by 20% on passing through a slab. The reduction in

intensity on passage through two such consecutive slabs is

(A) 40% (B) 36% (C) 30% (D) 50%



12. If amplitude of sound is doubled and the frequency is reduced to one-fourth. The intensity of

sound at the same point will be

(A) increased by a factor of 2 (B) increased by a factor of 4

(C) decreased by a factor of 2 (D) decreased by a factor of 4

13. A sound wave is approaching a stationary observer with a constant velocity, continuously emitting

a note of frequency n. Then the apparent frequency of wave

(A) increases continuously (B) decreases continuously

(C) remains constant (D) nothing can be predicted

14. Doppler effect will not be applicable when the velocity of sound is

(A) less than velocity of sound

(B) greater than velocity of sound

(C) zero

(D) none of these

15. A submarine emits a sonar pulse, which return from an underwater diff in 1.2 s. If the speed of

sound in salt water is 1530 m/s, how far away is the diff

(A) 856.8 m (B) 892.7 m (C) 932.8 m (D) 876.4 m

16. Pitch of high frequency sound is

(A) zero (B) low (C) high (D) infinity

17. In the curve (see figure) half the wavelength is

A B C D E

(A) AB (B) BD (C) DE (D) AE

18. Before playing the orchestra, in a musical concert, a sitarist tries to adjust the tension and pluck

the string suitable. By doing so, he adjusting

(A) Intensity of sound only (B) Amplitude of sound only

(C) Loudness of sound

(D) Frequency of sitar string with the frequency of other musical instruments

19. In SONAR, we use

(A) ultrasonic wave (B) Infrasonic wave

(C) Radio wave (D) Audible sound wave

20. A rope of 10 m is tied to the hook in a wall

and its other end is held tightly. A sharp jerk

is given to the rope in the upward direction

as shown in figure. The disturbance

produced in rope is

Wall

x

Direction

of jerk

(A) Longitudinal wave (B) Transverse wave (C) Pulse (D) Electromagnetic wave

21. Ultrasonic, Infrasonic and audible waves travel through a medium with speeds iu VV , and aV

respectively, then

(a) iu VV , and aV are nearly equal (b) iau VVV

(c) iau VVV (d) ua VV and iu VV

22. The distance between two consecutive crests in a wave train produced in a string is 5 cm. If 2

complete waves pass through any point per second, the velocity of the wave is

(a) 10 cm/sec (b) 2.5 cm/sec (c) 5 cm/sec (d) 15 cm/sec



23. A tuning fork makes 256 vibrations per second in air. When the velocity of sound is 330 m/s, then

wavelength of the tone emitted is

(a) 0.56 m (b) 0.89 m (c) 1.11 m (d) 1.29 m

24. A man sets his watch by a whistle that is 2 km away. How much will his watch be in error. (speed

of sound in air 330 m/sec)

(a) 3 seconds fast (b) 3 seconds slow (c) 6 seconds fast (d) 6 seconds slow

25. When a sound wave of frequency 300 Hz passes through a medium the maximum displacement

of a particle of the medium is 0.1 cm. The maximum velocity of the particle is equal to

(a) 60 cm/sec (b) 30 cm/sec (c) 30 cm/sec (d) 60 cm/sec

26. Sound waves have the following frequencies that are audible to human beings

(a) 5 c/s (b) 27000 c/s (c) 5000 c/s (d) 50,000 c/s

27. Velocity of sound waves in air is 330 m/sec. For a particular sound in air, a path difference of 40

cm is equivalent to a phase difference of 1.6 . The frequency of this wave is

(a) 165 Hz (b) 150 Hz (c) 660 Hz (d) 330 Hz

28. The wavelength of ultrasonic waves in air is of the order of

(a) cm5105 (b) cm8105 (c) cm5105 (d) cm8105

29. The frequency of a rod is 200 Hz. If the velocity of sound in air is 1340 ms , the wavelength of the

sound produced is

(a) 1.7 cm (b) 6.8 cm (c) 1.7 m (d) 6.8 m

30. Frequency range of the audible sounds is

(a) 0 Hz – 30 Hz (b) 20 Hz – 20 kHz (c) 20 kHz – 20,000 kHz (d) 20 kHz – 20 MHz

31. In a medium sound travels 2 km in 3 sec and in air, it travels 3 km in 10 sec. The ratio of the

wavelengths of sound in the two media is [NTSE ]

(a) 1 : 8 (b) 1 : 18 (c) 8 : 1 (d) 20 : 9

32. A stone is dropped into a lake from a tower 500 metre high. The sound of the splash will be heard

by the man approximately after

(a) 11.5 seconds (b) 21 seconds (c) 10 seconds (d) 14 seconds

33. When sound waves travel from air to water, which of the following remains constant

(a) Velocity (b) Frequency (c) Wavelength (d) All the above

34. A stone is dropped in a well which is 19.6m deep. Echo sound is heard after 2.06 sec (after

dropping) then the velocity of sound is

(a) 332.6 m/sec (b) 326.7 m/sec (c) 300.4 m/sec (d) 290.5 m/sec

35. At what temperature velocity of sound is double than that of at 0°C

(a) 819 K (b) 819°C (c) 600°C (d) 600 K

36. Velocity of sound is maximum in

(a) Air (b) Water (c) Vacuum (d) Steel

37. If velocity of sound in a gas is 360 m/s and the distance between a compression and the nearest

rarefaction is 1m, then the frequency of sound is

(a) 90 Hz (b) 180 Hz (c) 360 Hz (d) 720 Hz



38. If the density of oxygen is 16 times that of hydrogen, what will be the ratio of their corresponding

velocities of sound waves

(a) 1 : 4 (b) 4 : 1 (c) 16 : 1 (d) 1 : 16

39. Speed of sound at constant temperature depends on

(a) Pressure (b) Density of gas (c) Above both (d) None of the above

40. A man standing on a cliff claps his hand hears its echo after 1 sec. If sound is reflected from

another mountain and velocity of sound in air is 340 m/sec. Then the distance between the man

and reflection point is

(a) 680 m (b) 340 m (c) 85 m (d) 170 m

41. What will be the wave velocity, if the radar gives 54 waves per min and wavelength of the given

wave is 10 m

(a) 4 m/sec (b) 6 m/sec (c) 9 m/sec (d) 5 m/sec

42. Sound velocity is maximum in

(a) 2H (b) 2N (c) He (d) 2O

43. The minimum distance of reflector surface from the source for listening the echo of sound is

(a) 28 m (b) 18 m (c) 19 m (d) 16.5 m

44. The type of waves that can be propagated through solid is

(a) Transverse (b) Longitudinal (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these

45. A man stands in front of a hillock and fires a gun. He hears an echo after 1.5 sec. The distance of

the hillock from the man is (velocity of sound in air is 330 m/s)

(a) 220 m (b) 247.5 m (c) 268.5 m (d) 292.5 m

46. Velocity of sound in air

I. Increases with temperature II. Decreases with temperature

III. Increase with pressure IV. Is independent of pressure

V. Is independent of temperature

Choose the correct answer.

(a) Only I and II are true (b) Only I and III are true

(c) Only II and III are true (d) Only I and IV are true

47. The speed of a wave in a medium is 760 m/s. If 3600 waves are passing through a point, in the

medium in 2 minutes, then its wavelength is

(a) 13.8 m (b) 25.3 m (c) 41.5 m (d) 57.2 m

48. If the temperature of the atmosphere is increased the following character of the sound wave is

effected

(a) Amplitude (b) Frequency (c) Velocity (d) Wavelength

49. An underwater sonar source operating at a frequency of 60 KHz directs its beam towards the

surface. If the velocity of sound in air is 330 m/s, the wavelength and frequency of waves in air

are:

(a) 5.5 mm, 60 KHz (b) 330 m, 60 KHz (c) 5.5 mm, 20 KHz (d) 5.5 mm, 80 KHz

50. Two sound waves having a phase difference of 60° have path difference of

(a) 2 (b) /2 (c) /6 (d) /3



51. The periodic time of a vibrating body is 0.01 sec. Its frequency will be

(A) 1.0 c/s (B) 10.0 c/s (C) 100.0 c/s (D) 1000.0 c/s

52. The persistence of hearing for human beings is not more than

(A) 1s (B) 1

s5

(C) 1

s10

(D) 1

s2

53. The speed of electromagnetic waves in air is

(A) 3× 105 km/s (B) 3× 10

6 km/s (C) 3× 10

7 km/s (D) 3× 10

8 km/s

54. The speed of a wave is 340 ms–1

. What is the wavelength of the wave if its frequency is 500 Hz?

(A) 0.68 m (B) 6.8 m (C) 68 m (D) 0.068 m

55. The echo will be heard if the original sound reflected by an obstacle reaches our ears after

(A) 10 s (B) 5 s (C) 1 s (D) 0.1 s

56. Suresh standing symmetrically between two cliffs claps his hands and starts hearing a series of

echoes at intervals of 1 second. If speed of sound in air is 340 m/s, the distance between the

parallel cliffs must be

(A) 320 m (B) 340 m (C) 680 m (D) 760 m

57. If the frequency of a tuning fork is 400 Hz, how far will the sound travel when the fork makes 60

vibrations? Given, velocity of sound = 320 ms–1

(A) 96 m (B) 48 m (C) 24 m (D) 12 m

58. An observer standing at sea coast observes 54 waves per minute. If wavelength of the waves is 10

m, the velocity of waves is

(A) 4 ms–1

(B) 7 ms–1

(C) 19 ms–1

(D) 12 ms–1

59. Velocity of sound in air at NTP is 332 m/s. What will be velocity, when pressure T is double and

temperature is kept constant?

(A) 332 m/s (B) 664 m/s

(C) 999 m/s (D) nothing can be decided

60. In a longitudinal wave there is a state of decided maximum compression at a point. The frequency

of wave is 50 Hz. After what time will the same point be in the state of maximum rarefaction?

(A) 1 s (B) 2 s (C) 0.1 s (D) 0.01 s

61. Which of the following graphs represents variation of velocity V of sound in a gas with the

pressure P?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

62. The wavelength of ultrasonics in air is of the order of

(A) 102 m (B) 01

1 m (C) 10

–2m (D) 10

0 m

63. Velocity of sound is maximum in

(A) O2 (B) N2 (C) H2 (D) He

64. Walls of auditorium should be



(A) good absorber (B) good reflector (C) good amplifier (D) none of these

65. On increasing humidity speed of sound in air


(C) remains same (D) some times increases same times decreases

66. If the speed of air increases the speed of sound in air

(A) (B) (C) (D)

67. Shock waves have

(A) low energy (B) high energy (C) low speed (D) none of these

68. Roaring of lion is a sound of

(A) high pitch (B) high intensity (C) low pitch (D) none

69. The velocity of sound increases on increasing temperature 1oC by

(A) .61 m/s (B) 1.22 m/s (C) 2.8 m/s (D) 332 m/s



ELECTRICITY AND MAGNETISM

1. An electric charge on a body produces

(A) an magnetic field only (B) an electric field only

(C) both electric and magnetic field (D) neither electric nor magnetic field

2. Number of kilowatt hours=

............

1000

volt ampere

(A) time in seconds (B) time in hours

(C) time in minutes (D) time in days

3. The commonly used safety fuse wire is made of

(A) copper (B) lead

(C) nickel (D) an alloy of tin and lead

4. What is the current in the circuit

(A) 1.5A (B) 0.5A

(C) 2.5A (D) none of these

5. If the length of wire is doubled and its cross section is also doubled, then the resistance will

(A) increase eight times (B) decrease four times

(C) become four times (D) remain unchanged

6. In the circuit shown in the figure, the reading of the voltmeter V will be

(A) 4 V (B) 2 V

(C) 6 V (D) 3 V

7. Five identical resistance coils are connected in the network as shown in figure and the resistance

measured between A and B is 1 . Then the individual coils must have a resistance of

(A) 1 (B) 1

4

(C) 7

4 (D)

7

4

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Meena Samy

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8. In figure distance (D) between conductors carrying currents I1 and I2 is varied. Which of the

following graphs correctly represents the variation of force (F) between the conductors and

distance (D)?

9. Which of the following

networks yields maximum

effective resistance between A

and B?



10. What is the resistance between A and B in the given network

(A) 3

4 (B)

4

3

(C) 2 (D) 1

2

11. What is the resistance between A and B in the following circuit

(A) 1 (B) 2

(C) 1

2 (D)

3

2

12. What is the resistance between P and Q?

(A) 3

4 (B)

4

3

(C) 16

3 (D) infinity

13. For a metallic conductor, current versus voltage graph is draw at two different temperatures T1 and

T2. From the graph it follows.

(A) T1 = T2 (B) T1 > T2

(C) T1 < T2 (D) nothing can be decided



14. How much work is done in moving a charge of two coulombs from a point at 118 volts to a point

at 128 volts?

(A) 10 J (B) 20 J

(C) 1

10J (D) none of these

15. In general, when the temperature of a conductor increases, its resistance


(C) remains the same (D) none of these

16. The fact that current is associated with a magnetic field was discovered by

(A) Oersted (B) Maxwell

(C) Faraday (D) Ohm

17. Ampere rule is used to find the

(A) direction of current

(B) direction of magnetic field

(C) direction of motion of the conductor

(D) magnitude of current

18. The phenomenon of electromagnetic induction was discovered

(A) Lenz (B) Maxwell

(C) Fleming (D) Faraday

19. The intensity of a magnetic field is defined as the force experienced by a

(A) Standard compass

(B) unit positive charge

(C) unit negative charge

(D) unit north pole

20. A certain length of wire carries a steady current. It is bent to from a circular coil of one turn. The

same length is now bent more sharp to give a double loop of smaller radius, as shown in figure.

The magnetic field at the centre caused by the same current is

(A) a quarter of its first value

(B) unaltered

(C) four times its first value

(D) one half its first time



21. Two long parallel conductors are placed at right angles to the metre scale, at the 2 cm and 6 cm

marks, as shown

The carry currents of 1 A and 3 A respectively. They will produce zero magnetic field at the

(A) zero mark (B) 10 cm mark

(C) 3 cm mark (D) 6 cm mark

22. Lenz’s law is a consequence of the law of conservation of

(A) energy (B) momentum

(C) angular momentum (D) charge and mass

23. The induced emf due to the motion of conductor in a uniform magnetic field is known as motional

emf. If l is the length of the conductor, V is the speed of conductor and B is the magnetic

induction, then the magnitude of induced emf is given by

(A) Bl

V (B)

BV

l

(C) BiV (D) none of these

24. A metallic rod falls under gravity with its ends pointing east and west. Then

(A) an emf is induced in it as it cuts the magnetic lines of force

(B) no emf is induced at all

(C) two emfs of equal but opposite signs are induced, giving no net emf.

(D) its acceleration is equal to the product of g and the radius of the ring

25. A circular coil and a bar magnet recede from each other with the same velocity. Then

(A) there will be no induced emf in the coil

(B) there will be an induced emf in the coil

(C) an emf will be induced in the magnet

(D) none of these

26. Which of the following figures represents the magnetic lines of force due to an isolated north

pole?



27. The wire having a black plastic covering is a

(A) live wire (B) neutral wire

(C) earth wire (D) none of these

28. Which of the following is not associated with Fleming’s left hand rule?

(A) Resistance (B) Magnetic field

(C) Force (D) Current

29. If V be the change in potential between two neighbhouring points r apart, the electric field E is

given by

(A) E V r (B) V

Er

(C) r

EV

(D)

2V

Er

30. A fuse wire is generally made of

(A) silver (B) tin-lead alloy

(C) copper (D) either (A) or (B)



REFLECTION AND REFRACTION

1. An incident ray strike a plane mirror at an angle of 150 with the mirror. The angle between the

incident ray and reflected ray is

(A) 150 (B) 30

0

(C) 1500 (D) none of these

2. In case of a virtual and erect image, the magnification of a mirror is

(A) positive (B) negative

(C) unity (D) infinity

3. A virtual, erect and magnified image of an object is to be produced with a concave mirror of focal

length 12 cm. Which of the following object distance should be chosen for this purpose?

(A) 10 cm (B) 14 cm

(C) 18 cm (D) 24 cm

4. The mirror used in automobiles to see the rear field of view is

(A) concave (B) convex

(C) plane (D) none of these

5. The relation between u,v, and f for a mirror is

(A) uv

fu v

(B) 2u v

fu v

(C) u v

fu v

(D) none of these

6. Which is the wrong statement out of the following

(A) A concave mirror can give a virtual image.

(B) A convex mirror can give a virtual image.

(C) A concave mirror can give a diminished virtual image.

(D) A convex mirror cannot give a real image.

7. When an object is placed between the focus and the pole of a concave mirror, the image formed is

(A) real, inverted and small

(B) real, inverted and same size

(C) real, inverted and enlarged

(D) virtual, erect and enlarged

8. The mirror used by dentists to concentrate light on the tooth to be examined is..........mirror

(A) concave (B) plane or concave

(C) convex (D) plane

9. When an object is kept within the focus of a concave mirror, an enlarged image is formed behind

the mirror. The nature of the image is

(A) real (B) inverted

(C) virtual and inverted (D) virtual and erect.



10. A light year is the unit of

(A) time (B) distance

(C) intensity of light (D) none of these

11. Refer to the mirror formula, 1 1 1

v u f , where the symbols have their usual meanings.

Which of the following graphs correctly depicts this variation?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D) none of these

12. Which of the following correctly depicts the graphical variation in case of a convex mirror?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)



13. The linear magnification for a mirror is the ratio of the size of the image of the object, and is

denoted by m. Then m is equal to (symbols have their usual meanings)

(A) uf

u f (B)

uf

u f

(C) uf

u f (D) none of these

14. An object is placed in front of a convex mirror at a distance of 50 cm. A plane mirror is introduced

covering the lower half of the convex mirror. If the distance between the object and the plane

mirror is 30 cm, it is found that there is no parallax between the image formed by the two mirrors.

What is the radius of curvature of the convex mirror?

(A) 25 cm (B) 7 cm

(C) 18 cm (D) 27 cm

15. The distance between a real object and its image in a convex mirror of focal length 12 cm is 32 cm

find the size of image if the object size is 1 cm.

(A) 2/3 cm (B) 1/3 cm

(C) 1 cm (D) ¼ cm

16. During the 19th

century, light was considered to be a stream of particles called

(A) atoms (B) electrons

(C) corpuscles (D) quantas

17. Albert Einstein used corpuscular theory to explain

(A) E=mc2 (B) photoelectric effect

(C) quantisation of charge (D) none of these

18. The middle vascular coat that darkens the eye chamber and prevents refraction by absorbing the

light rays is

(A) choroid (B) sclera

(C) retina (D) cornea

19. A green leaf placed in a dark room is illuminated by red light. The leaf will appear to be

(A) green (B) red

(C) yellow (D) black

20. The distance v of the real image formed by a convex lens is measured for various object distances

u. A graph is plotted between 1/v and 1/u. Which of the graphs in figure is approximately correct?

(A)



(B)

(C)

(D)

21. How will the image formed by a convex lens be affected if the central portion of the lens is

wrapped in black paper?

(A) no image is formed by the remaining portion of the lens

(B) the central portion of the image will be absent

(C) there will be no effect

(D) the full image will be formed but it will be less bright.

22. The astronomical telescope was invented by

(A) Kepler (B) Galileo

(C) Newton (D) none of these

23. Which of the following pairs of colours is different from the others?

(A) green+magenta (B) blue+yellow

(C) red+cyan (D) blue+red

24. Light of wavelength 500 nm travelling with a speed of 2.0×108 ms

-1 in a certain medium enters

another medium of refractive index 5/4 times that of the first medium. What are the wavelength

and speed in the second medium?

Wavelength (nm) speed (ms-1

)

(A) 400 1.6×108

(B) 400 2.5×108

(C) 500 2.5×108

(D) 625 1.6×108



25. One of the refracting surfaces of a prism of angle 300 is silvered. A ray of light incident at angle

of 600 retraces its path. The refractive index of the material of prism is

(A) 2 (B) 3

(C) 3/2 (D) 2

26. An object 15 cm high is placed 10 cm from the optical centre of a thin lens. Its image is formed

25 cm from the optical centre on the same side of the lens as the object. The height of the image is

(A) 2.5 cm (B) 0.2 cm

(C) 16.7 cm (D) 37.5 cm

27. A convex lens forms an images of an object placed 20 cm away from it at a distance of 20 cm on

the other side of the lens. If the object is moved 5 cm toward the lens, the image will be

(A) 5 cm towards the lens (B) 5 cm away from the lens

(C) 10 cm towards the lens (D) 10 cm away from the lens

28. ACB is right angled prism with other angles as 600 and 30

0. Refractive index of the prism is 1.5

AB has thin layer of liquid on it as shown. Light falls normally on the face AC. For total internal

reflections, maximum refractive index of the liquid is

(A) 1.4 (B) 1.3

(C) 1.2 (D) 1.6

29. A glass prism has refractive index 2 and refracting angle 300. One of the refracting surface of

the prism is silvered. A beam of monochromatic light will retrace it path if its angle of incidence

on the unsilvered refracting surface of the prism is

(A) 0 (B) / 6

(C) / 4 (D) / 3

30. Two point sources S1 and S2 and 24 cm apart. Where should a convex lens of focal length 9 cm be

placed in between them so that the images of both sources are formed at the same place?

(A) 6 cm from S1 (B) 16 cm from S1

(C) 10 cm from S1 (D) 12 cm from S1



SOURCES OF ENERGY

1. The ratio of SI units to CGS units of energy

(A) 105 (B) 10

6

(C) 107 (D) 10

-7

2. Which of the following is different from the others?

(A) Joule (B) Kilowatt hour

(C) Erg (D) Watt

3. One kilowatt approximately equals

(A) 1.34 hp (B) 2.50 hp

(C) 1.56 hp (D) 1.83 hp

4. Which of the following devices transforms light energy into chemical energy?

(A) car dynamo (B) electric motor

(C) Electric fan (D) none of these

5. The momentum of a body increases by 20%. Then the percentage increase in its kinetic energy is

(A) 36 (B) 44

(C) 52 (D) 60

6. The fuel used in a steam engine is

(A) water (B) carbon dioxide

(C) carbon monoxide (D) none of these

7. The petrol engine was invented by

(A) Nikolaus otto (B) James Watt

(C) Rudolph Diesel (D) none of these

8. Joule’s experiment converts

(A) work into heat (B) work into electricity

(C) heat into work (D) electricity into work

9. The efficiency of a heat engine can never be

(A) 10% (B) 20%

(C) 40% (D) 100%

10. One mega joule approximately equals

(A) 240 kcal (B) 2400 kcal

(C) 24 kcal (D) 2.4 kcal

11. The temperature of water at the bottom of a waterfall is higher than that of the water at the top,

because

(A) falling water absorbs heat from the sun

(B) kinetic energy of the falling water is converted into heat

(C) water at the bottom has greater potential energy

(D) the rocks on the river bed give out heat

Meena Samy

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Meena Samy

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Meena Samy

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12. Work done can be converted from joules to calories by (J is mechanical equivalent of heat)

(A) dividing by J (B) subtracting J

(C) multiply by J (D) adding J

13. An example of secondary fuel is

(A) coal (B) water gas

(C) natural gas (D) petroleum

14. Which of the following is an example of fossil fuel?

(A) Coal gas (B) Coke

(C) Natural Gas (D) Producer gas

15. Destructive distillation of coal leads to the formation of

(A) wood (B) kerosene

(C) ammonial liquor (D) charcoal

16. When steam is passed over hot coke, it produces

(A) producer gas (B) water gas

(C) laughing gas (D) coal gas

17. Producer’s gas is a mixture of

(A) carbon monoxide and nitrogen gas

(B) carbon monoxide and hydrogen gas

(C) carbon monoxide and water vapour

(D) carbon monoxide and nitrous oxide

18. The fractional distillation of coaltar yields

(A) carbon disulphide (B) kerosene oil

(C) carbon tetrachloride (B) benzene

19. Which of the following is not obtained on fractional distillation of petroleum?

(A) Paraffin wax (B) Asphalt

(C) Coal gas (D) Petroleum gas

20. Which of the following is formed under the earth by the decomposition of plant matter by

anaerobic bacteria lying under water?

(A) Coal gas (B) Petroleum gas

(C) Natural gas (D) Producer gas

21. Which of the following is not used as a rocket fuel?

(A) synthetic rubber (B) Liquid hydrogen

(C) Paraffin (D) Liquid nitrogen

22. The calorific value of methane in the following reaction is about

4 2 2 22 4 2 4 1780CH O CO H O kJ

(A) 55 kJ/g (B) 110 kJ/g

(C) 110 J/g (D) 55 J/g



23. With the addition of impurities, the resistance of a semi-conductor


(C) first decreases then increases (D) first increases then decreases

24. The first practical solar cell was made in the year

(A) 1947 (B) 1954

(C) 1960 (D) 1972

25. In a nuclear reactor, the moderator is

(A) uranium – 234 (B) uranium – 238

(C) cadmium (D) heavy water

26. Which of the following is a good nuclear fuel?

(A) Uranium – 236 (B) Neptunium-239

(C) Thorium – 236 (D) Plutonium-239

27. When was India’s first critical nuclear reaction carried out?

(A) December, 1941 (B) December, 1964

(C) January, 1950 (D) March, 1971

28. What percentage of energy requirement of India is met by nuclear power station?

(A) 3% (B) 5%

(C) 10% (D) 20%

29. Which of the following components of sunlight facilitates drying of clothes?

(A) Infra-red rays (B) Visible light

(C) Ultra-violet rays (D) All the above

30. India’s uranium supply comes mainly from the Jaduguda mines in

(A) Jharkhand (B) Madhya Pradesh

(C) Maharashtra (D) none of these



QUESTION BANK FOR QUICK REVISION

1. A body is acted upon by a constant force, then it will have a uniform

(A) speed (B) velocity

(C) momentum (D) acceleration

2. A force f1 acts on a particle, so as to accelerate it from rest to a velocity . If the force f1 is

replaced by f2, which decelerates it to rest, then

(A) f1 may be equal to f2

(B) f1 must not be equal to f2

(C) f1 and f2 must be zero

(D) f1 must be equal to f1

3. A car accelerates on a horizontal road due to the force exerted by the

(A) road on the car (B) engine of the car

(C) car on the earth (D) driver of the car

4. A vehicle is moving on a rough road in a straight line with uniform velocity. Then

(A) no force is acting on the vehicle

(B) a force must act on the vehicle

(C) an acceleration is being produced in the vehicle

(D) no work is being done on the vehicle

5. A lead ball and rubber ball having same mass, strike normally on a smooth vertical wall with the

same velocity. The lead ball falls down after striking but the rubber ball bounces back. Then

(A) momentum of lead ball is greater than that of rubber ball

(B) momentum of rubber ball is greater than that of lead ball

(C) the rubber ball suffers a greater change in momentum as compared to lead ball

(D) both the balls suffer an equal change in momentum

6. With increase in temperature, the density of a substance, in general,


(C) first increase then decreases (D) first decreases then increases

7. The average force necessary to stop a hammer with 25 Ns momentum in 0.05 s expressed in nis

(A) 25 (B) 50

(C) 125 (D) 500

8. Physical independence of force is a consequence of

(A) first law of motion

(B) second law of motion

(C) third law of motion

(D) all of these laws

9. You lift a suitcase from the floor and keep it on the table. The work done by you on the suitcase

depends on

(A) the path taken by the suitcase

(B) your weight

(C) the weight of the suitcase

(D) the time taken by you in doing so

10. A body of mass 100 g is rotating in a circular path of radius r with constant speed. The work done

in one complete revolution is

(A) (100r)J (B) r

J100

(C) 100

Jr

(D) zero



11. If the force applied is F and the velocity gained is , then the power developed is

(A) F

(B)

F

(C) F (D) 2F

12. An engine develops 10 kW of power. How much time will it take to lift a mass of 200 kg to a height

of 40 m (g = 10 ms–2

)?

(A) 4s (B) 5s

(C) 8s (D) 10s

13. A man throws balls into the air one after the other, throwing one when other is at the highest point.

How high the balls rise if he throws twice a second?

(A) 2.45 m (B) 1.25 m

(C) 19.6m (D) 4.9m

14. Two spheres of the same size are made of the same metal, but one is hollow and the other is solid.

They are heated to the same temperature. Then

(A) the hollow sphere will expand more

(B) the solid sphere will expand more

(C) both spheres will expand almost equally

(D) only the solid sphere will expand

15. Water evaporates under atmospheric pressure. Without changing the temperature, the same water is

placed in partial vacuum. The rate of evaporation will

(A) increase (B) drop to zero

(C) decrease (D) remain unaffected

16. The area under acceleration-time represents

(A) displacement (B) velocity

(C) change in velocity (D) distance travelled

17. An object is moving with a uniform acceleration which is parallel to its instantaneous direction of

motion. The displacement (S) —velocity (v) graph of this object is

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

18. A body falls freely from rest. It covers as much distance in the last second of its motion as covered

in the first three seconds. The body has fallen for a time of

(A) 3 s (B) 5 s

(C) 7 s (D) 9 s

19. A particle is thrown vertically upwards. The correct graph between its speed (v) and time (t) is

given by (neglecting air resistance)



(A) (B)

(C) (D)

20. A block of wood is floating on water at 0°C, with a certain volume V above water level. The

temperature of water is slowly raised from 0°C. How will the volume V change with the rise of

temperature?

(A) V will be unchanged

(B) V will decrease for 0°C

(C) V will decrease till 4°C and then increase

(D) V will increase till 4°C and then decrease

21. The slope of velocity-time graph for motion with uniform velocity is equal to

(A) final velocity (B) initial velocity

(C) zero (D) none of the above

22. A particle moves in the direction of east for 2s with velocity of 15 ms–1

. Then it moves towards

north for 8s with a velocity of 5 ms"1. The average velocity of the particle is (in ms

-1)

(A) 1 (B) 5

(C) 7 (D) 10

23. An aeroplane moves 400 m towards north, 300 m towards west and then 1200 m vertically upwards.

Then is displacement from the initial position is

(A) 1300m (B) 1400m

(C) 1500m (D) 1600m

24. A person walks on a straight road from his home to a market 3 km away with a speed of 5 km/h.

Finding market closed, he instantaneously turns and walks back with a speed of 6 km/h. The

magnitude of average velocity is

(A) zero (B) 2.73 km/h

(C) 5.45 km/h (D) 5.5 km/h

25. Which of the following displacement time graphs is not possible?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

26. The SI unit for the coefficient of linear expansion i

(A) °C (B) per °C

(C) cm2/°C (D) none of these



27. A train of length 200 m travelling at 30 ms–1

overtakes another train of length 300 m travelling at 20

ms–1

.The time taken by the first train to pass the second is

(A) 30 sec (B) 40 sec

(C) 50 sec (D) 60 sec

28. A car moving with a speed of 25 ms–1

takes a U-turn in 5 seconds, without changing its speed. The

average acceleration during these 5 seconds is

(A) 5 ms–2

(B) 10 ms–2

(C) 2.5 ms–2

(D) 7.5 ms–2

29. Figure below shows the displacement-time curve of the particles A and B. Which of the following

statements is correct?

(A) both A and B move with uniform equal speed

(B) A is accelerated and B is retarded

(C) both A and B move with uniform speeds but the speed of A is more than the speed of B

(D) both A and B move with uniform speeds but the speed of B is more than the speed of .4.

30. Tripling the speed of a motor car multiplies the distance needed for stopping it by

(A) 3 (B) 6

(C) 9 (D) some other number

31. A body cannot have a

(A) zero speed and non-zero acceleration

(B) non-zero speed and zero acceleration

(C) constant velocity and a varying speed

(D) constant speed and a varying velocity

32. Starting from rest, when a body moves with uniform acceleration, then distances covered after 1st,

2nd, 3rd,... seconds are in the ratio

(A) 1 : 2 : 3 : 4... (B) 1 : 4 : 9 : 16...

(C) 1 : 3 : 5 : 7... (D) 2 : 3 : 5 : 7...

33. If a body is moving with a uniform acceleration a1, for time t1, and with uniform acceleration a2 for

time t2, then its average acceleration is

(A) 1 2

1 2

a a

t t

(B) 1 2

1 2

a a

t t

(C) 1 1 2 2

1 2

a t a t

t t

(D) 1 1 2 2

1 2

a t a t

a a

34. When a body is in equilibrium, its acceleration is

(A) unity (B) positive

(C) negative (D) zero

35. Choose the wrong statement:

(A) the accelerated motion may be due to change in magnitude of velocity or direction of velocity

or both.

(B) the velocity and acceleration of a body may not necessarily be in the same direction

(C) the velocity and acceleration of a body may not be zero simultaneously.

(D) when a body falls freely under the action of gravity, its acceleration is zero.



36. A car travels 1/3 of the distance on a straight road with a velocity of 10 km/h, next one-third with a

velocity of 20 km/h and the last one-third with a velocity of 60 km/h. Then the average velocity of

the car (in km/h) during the whole journey is

(A) 30 (B) 20

(C) 18 (D) 15

37. Choose the incorrect statement:

(A) The speedometer of a car measures its instantaneous speed.

(B) The velocity of a body is always greater than the speed of that body.

(C) The position-time graph of a body moving with variable velocity is a curve.

(D) Velocity-time graph of a uniform motion is a straight line parallel to time-axis.


(A) The value of distance travelled by a moving body can never be zero or negative.

(B) The value of displacement can be positive, zero or negative.

(C) The displacement of an object between two points has a unique value.

(D) The value of displacement is always greater than the distance travelled.


(A) The acceleration of a body can be positive, negative or zero.

(B) If the acceleration of a body is zero, then the body is moving with a constant velocity.

(C) Velocity-time graph of a uniformly accelerated motion is a straight line inclined to time-axis.

(D) The area under velocity-time graph of a uniformly accelerated motion gives the average

velocity of the body.

40. For a uniformly accelerated motion, the average acceleration is equal to

(A) unity (B) negative

(C) zero (D) uniform acceleration

41. The force of gravitation between two bodies of mass 1 kg each separated by a distance of 1 m in

vacuum is

(A) 6.67 × l0–9

N (B) 6.67 × l0–10

N

(C) 6.67 × 10–11

N (D) 6.67 × 10–12

N

42. The value of g at moon is th

1

6

of that on earth. A balloon filled with hydrogen will

(A) fall with acceleration g on the moon

(B) rise with acceleration g on the moon

(C) rise with acceleration g/6 on the moon

(D) fall with acceleration g/6 on the moon

43. A body is lying on the surface of earth. Suppose that the earth suddenly loses its power of attraction,

then

(A) the weight of body will become zero

(B) the weight of body will become infinite

(C) the mass of the body will become zero

(D) the body will vanish in air

44. An iron ball and a wooden ball of the same radius are released from the same height in vacuum. The

time taken by both of them to reach the ground are

(A) exactly equal (B) roughly equal

(C) unequal (D) none of the above

45. Coefficient of linear expansion always _______ with the increase in temperature.


(C) remains the same (D) doubles itself

46. Choose the correct statement :



(A) : : ::1:3: 2 (B) : : ::3: 2:1

(C) : : :: 2:3:1 (D) : : ::1: 2:3

47. The evidence to show that there must be force acting on Earth and directed towards the Sun is

(A) phenomenon of day and night

(B) apparent motion of the Sun around the Earth

(C) revolution of Earth around the Sun

(D) deviation of the falling bodies towards east

48. Where will g be greatest when one goes from the centre of earth to an altitude equal to radius of

earth?

(A) at the surface of earth

(B) at the centre of earth

(C) at the highest point


49. Which of the following cannot be used for measuring time in a spaceship orbiting around the earth?

(A) atomic clock (B) quartz watch

(C) electric clock (D) pendulum clock

50. Figure below shows pressure (P) versus volume (V) graphs for a certain mass of a gas at two

constant temperatures T1 and T2. Which of the inferences given below is correct?

(A) T1 = T2 (B) T1 > T2

(C) T1 < T2 (D) none of the above

51. Water is used as a coolant because of its

(A) lower density

(B) easy availability

(C) high specific heat

(D) low specific heat

52. An iron ball is heated. The percentage increase will be largest in

(A) volume (B) diameter

(C) density (D) surface area

53. A metallic ball has spherical cavity at its centre. If the ball is heated, what happens to the cavity?

(A) Its volume decreases.

(B) Its volume remains constant.

(C) Its volume increases,

(D) Nothing can be decided.

54. In a pressure cooker, cooking is faster because the increase of vapour pressure

(A) increases specific heat

(B) decreases specific heat

(C) decreases the boiling point

(D) increases the boiling point.

55. A bottle of water at 0°C is opened on the surface of Moon. What happens?

(A) water freezes

(B) water will boil

(C) water decomposes into hydrogen and oxygen



(D) none of these happens

56. If the metal bob of a simple pendulum is replaced by a wooden bob, then its time period will

(A) increase

(B) decrease

(C) remain the same

(D) first increase then decrease

57. If a watch with wound spring is taken to the moon, it

(A) runs faster (B) runs slower

(C) does not work (D) shows no change

58. Water waves are

(A) longitudinal

(B) transverse

(C) both longitudinal and transverse

(D) neither longitudinal nor transverse

59. Sound travels fastest in

(A) water (B) air

(C) steel (D) kerosene oil

60. A graph is plotted taking °C along the Y-axis and °F along the X-axis. It is a/an

(A) parabola (B) straight line

(C) ellipse (D) circle

61. The ratio of the speed of a body to the speed of sound is called

(A) mach number (B) refractive index

(C) sonic index (D) none of these

62. The wavelength of ultrasonics in air is of the order of

(A) 102m (B) 10

1m

(C) 10–2

m (D) 100m

63. The wavelength of intrasonics in air is of the order of

(A) 100 m (B) 10

1m

(C) 10–1

m (D) 10–2

m

64. When a tuning fork vibrates, waves produced in the stem are

(A) longitudinal

(B) transverse

(C) sometimes longitudinal and sometimes transverse


65. If one of the prongs of a tuning fork gets broken, the vibrations

(A) are maintained equally well

(B) are maintained better

(C) cannot be maintained

(D) nothing can be decided

66. In summer, the clocks

(A) become slow

(B) become fast

(C) gives correct time

(D) lose time

67. A tuning fork vibrates with 2 vibrations in 0.4 seconds. Its frequency (in Hz) is

(A) 5 (B) 6

(C) 8 (D) 0.8

68. When a stone is dropped on the surface of still water, waves produced are



(A) transverse

(B) longitudinal

(C) transverse and longitudinal both

(D) neither transverse nor longitudinal

69. Which of the following waves does not require any medium for its propagation?

(A) sound waves

(B) waves on strings

(C) waves on the surface of water

(D) radio waves

70. When temperature is increased by 1°C, velocity of sound in air increases by

(A) 0.61ms–1

(B) 6.1 ms–1

(C) 61ms–1

(D) 610 ms–1

71. The sound heard after reflection from an obstacle is called

(A) noise (B) echo

(C) musical sound (D) none of these

72. There is no atmosphere on moon. Therefore,

(A) no sound can be heard

(B) sound can be easily heard

(C) sound is sometimes heard

(D) all the above statements are correct

73. When a body is charged by induction, then the body

(A) becomes neutral

(B) does not lose any charge

(C) loses whole of the charge on it

(D) loses part of the charge on it

74. Which of the following is best insulator?

(A) carbon (B) paper

(C) ebonite (D) graphite

75. Two charges of 10C and –15C are separated in air by 1 m. The ratio of force exerted by one on the

other is

(A) 1:2 (B) 2:1

(C) 1:1 (D) none of these

76. An ebonite rod acquires a negative charge of 3.2 × 10–10

C. The number of excess electrons it has is

given by

(A) 2 × l09 (B) 2 × l0

–9

(C) 2 × l0–29

(D) 2 × 1029

77. Five balls numbered 1,2,3,4,5 are suspended using reparate threads. The balls (1, 2), (2, 4) and

(4, 1) show electrostatic attraction, while (2,3) and (4,5) show repulsion. Therefore, ball 1 must

be

(A) negatively charged

(B) positively charged

(C) neutral

(D) made of metal

78. Each of the two point charges are doubled and their distance is halved. Force of interaction becomes

n times, where n is

(A) 1 (B) 4

(C) 16 (D) 1

16



79. Two charges are placed a certain distance apart in air. If a glass slab is introduced between them, the

force between them will

(A) increase

(B) decrease

(C) remain the same

(D) become zero

80. Two charges are placed a certain distance apart in air. If a brass plate is introduced between them,

the force between them will

(A) increase

(B) decrease

(C) remain the same

(D) become zero

81. A body has a negative charge of 1 coulomb. It means that it has

(A) lost one electron

(B) acquired one additional electron

(C) lost 6.25 × 1018

electrons

(D) acquired 6.25 × 1018

additional electrons

82. The ratio of electric force between two electrons to two protons separated by the same distance in air

is

(A) 100 (B) 10

6

(C) 104 (D) none of the above

83. A bird sitting on a high power line

(A) gets killed instantly

(B) gets a mild shock

(C) is not affected practically

(D) gets a fatal shock

84. A positively charged rod is brought near an uncharged conductor. If the rod is then suddenly

withdrawn, the charge left on the conductor will be


(C) zero (D) not sure

85. The speed at which the current travels in a conductor, is nearly

(A) 3 × l04ms

–1 (B) 3 × l0

5ms

–1

(C) 4 × l06ms

–1 (D) 3 × l0

8ms

–1

86. A flow of 107 electrons per second in a conducting wire constitutes a current of

(A) 1.6 × 10–26

A (B) 1.6 × 1026

A

(C) 1.6 × 10–12

A (D) 1.6 × l012

A

87. If the electronic charge is 1.6 × 10–19

C, then the number of electrons passing through a section of

wire per second, when the wire carries a current of 2 A, is

(A) 1.25 × l017

(B) 1.6 × l017

(C) 1.25 × 1019

(D) 1.6 × 1019

88. A conductor carries a current of 3 mA. The number of electrons passing through it in 1 minute is

about

(A) 1018

(B) 1020

(C) 1023

(D) 1025

89. If an electric current is passed through a nerve, the man

(A) begins to laugh

(B) begins to weep



(C) is excited

(D) becomes insensitive to pain

90. The length of a conductor is halved, its conductivity will be

(A) halved (B) doubled

(C) quadrupled (D) unchanged

91. The length and area of cross-section of a conductor are doubled, its resistance is

(A) unchanged (B) halved

(C) doubled (D) quadrupled

92. The length of a conductor is doubled and its radius is halved, its specific resistance is

(A) halved (B) doubled

(C) quadrupled (D) unchanged

93. Conductivity of a conductor depends upon

(A) length

(B) volume

(C) area of cross-section

(D) temperature

94. The specific resistance of a rod of copper as compared to that of thin wire of copper is

(A) more

(B) less

(C) same

(D) depends upon the length and area of wire

95. Figure shows that bulbs B1, B2 and B3 are connected to the mains. Suppose B4 is another bulb

added in parallel, then:

(A) The brightness of B1 will increase.

(B) The brightness of B3 will increase.

(C) The brightness of both 5, B1 and B2 will increase.

(D) The brightness of both B1, and B2 will fall.

96. You have three equal resistances r. The maximum possible number of different resistance values

that you can offer is

(A) 4 (B) 5

(C) 6 (D) 7

97. What is the effective resistance between points A and B?

(A) R

3 (B)

4R

3

(C) 2R

3 (D)

R

2

98. What is the effective resistance between points P and Q?



(A) 5 (B) 10

(C) 15 (D) 20

99. What is the effective resistance between points P and Q?

(A) r

2 (B)

r

3

(C) 2r

3 (D)

4r

3

100. The resistivity of alloys is usually

(A) more than its constituents

(B) less than its constituents

(C) equal to its constituents

(D) none of these

101. Which of the following wires, all made of the same material, has the highest resistance?

(A) l = 100 cm, r = 0.1 cm

(B) l = 200 cm, r = 0.2 cm

(C) l = 300 cm, r = 0.3 cm

(D) l = 400 cm, r = 0.4 cm

102. A wire of resistance R is stretched so that its length increases by 10%. The resistance of the wire

increases by

(A) 11% (B) 15%

(C) 21% (D) 28%

103. Two metallic wires whose masses are 12 g and 18 g have lengths in the ratio of 3 : 4. Their

resistances are in the ratio of

(A) 4:3 (B) 9:18

(C) 18:27 (D) 27:32

104. The smallest resistance which can be obtained with ten 0.1 ohm resistors is

(A) l ohm (B) 0.1 ohm

(C) 0.01 ohm (D) 0.001 ohm

105. We have n resistors each of resistance R. The ratio of the combination for maximum and minimum

values is

(A) n (B) n2

(C) n3 (D)

1

n

106. For a given voltage V, if resistance is changed from R to R

n

, power consumed changes from P to

(A) nP (B) P

n

(C) n2p (D)

2

P

n



107. A lamp is marked 60 W, 220 V. If it operates at 200 V, the rate of consumption of energy will

(A) decrease

(B) increase

(C) remain unchanged


108. Watt is equal to

(A) A. (B) A2

(C) A2 (D) A

2r–1

109. Which of the following can be used to express energy? Symbols have their usual meanings for the

units of physical quantities.

(i) Wh (ii) VC

(iii) VAs2 (iv) A

2s

(A) (i), (ii) (B) (ii), (iii), (iv)

(C) (i), (ii), (iv) (D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

110. A heater is marked 1000 W. The energy consumed by it in ten hours is

(A) 10 J (B) 10 KJ

(C) l0 kWh (D) 100 KJ

111. If two heaters, each of power 1 kW are connected in parallel to a 250 V supply, their combined rate

of heating will be

(A) l kW (B) 2 kW

(C) 5 kW (D) 250 W

112. Two bulbs, one of 50 W and another of 25 W, are connected in series to the mains. The current

flowing through them will be in the ratio

(A) 1:1 (B) 1:2

(C) 2:1 (D) 2:3

113. In figure below, all the bulbs are identical. The bulb that lights most brilliantly is

(A) 1 only (B) 2 only

(C) 2 and 4 (D) l and 5

114. When a current flows through a conductor, its temperature


(C) remains same (D) may increase or decrease

115. Appliances based on heating effect of current work on

(A) only a.c. (B) only d.c.

(C) both a.c. and d.c. (D) none of these

116. In charging a battery of motor car, which of the following effect of electric current is used?

(A) heating (B) magnetic

(C) chemical (D) induction

117. The energy resides in a current carrying inductor in the form of

(A) magnetic field

(B) electrostatic field

(C) mechanical work



(D) gravitational field

118. The resistance of an ideal ammeter is

(A) zero (B) low

(C) high (D) infinite

119. The resistance of an ideal voltmeter is

(A) zero (B) high

(C) low (D) infinite

120. Particles which can be added to the nucleus of an atom without changing its chemical properties are

called

(A) neutrons (B) electrons

(C) protons (D) alpha particles

121. The difference between U235

and U238

atoms is that U238

contains

(A) 3 more protons

(B) 3 more protons and 3 more electrons

(C) 3 more neutrons and 3 more electrons

(D) 3 more neutrons

122. Solar energy is due to

(A) fusion reactions

(B) fission reactions

(C) combustion reactions

(D) chemical reactions

123. An atom bomb is an example of

(A) fusion reaction

(B) controlled fission reaction

(C) uncontrolled fission reaction

(D) all the above

124. The density of nuclear matter is

(A) extremely small (B) small

(C) large (D) extremely large

125. The high density of the nucleus suggests

(A) compactness of the nucleus

(B) hollowness of the nucleus

(C) large number of nucleus

(D) none of these

126. The strongest attractive forces are

(A) electrostatic (B) gravitational

(C) nuclear (D) nothing can be decided

127. The main constituent of bio-gas is

(A) carbon monoxide (B) hydrogen

(C) methane (D) carbon dioxide

128. Two plane mirrors subtend an angle . Light incident on one mirror after reflection from the other

mirror returns parallel to the original direction. The angle must be

(A) 30° (B) 45°

(C) 60° (D) 90°

129. When light travels from one medium to another, which are separated by a sharp boundary, the

characteristic which does not change is

(A) frequency (B) wavelength

(C) velocity (D) amplitude



130. If the refractive index of glass is 1.5, the velocity of light in glass is

(A) 1.5 × 108 ms

–1 (B) 2 × l0

8ms

–1

(C) 3 × l08 ms

–1 (D) 4.5 × l0

8ms

–1

131. On heating a liquid, the refractive index generally

(A) decreases

(B) increases

(C) does not change

(D) increases or decreases depending upon rate of heating

132. For an astronaut in a spaceship, the sky appears

(A) white (B) black

(C) green (D) blue

133. In optical fibre, which of the following principles is used?

(A) scattering

(B) refraction

(C) successive reflections

(D) total internal reflection

134. A man standing in a swimming pool looks a stone lying at the bottom. The depth of t swimming

pool is h. At what distance from the surface of water is the image of the stone formed? Take as

refractive index of water,

(A) h (B) h

(C) h

(D)

h

135. A fish in water sees an object 24 cm above the surface of water. The height of object above the

surface of water that will appear to fish is

(A) 8cm (B) 18cm

(C) 24 cm (D) 32 cm

136. The time taken by a ray of light to travel through a glass slab of thickness 2 cm and refractive index

1.5 will be

(A) 10–8

s (B) 10–10

s

(C) 2 × l0–8

s (D) 10–12

s

137. The power of a lens is measured in

(A) watt (B) horse power

(C) dioptre (D) m

138. The image of an object formed by a device is always virtual and small. The device may be

(A) glass plate (B) concave lens

(C) convex lens (D) concave mirror

139. A convex lens of focal length 40 cm is in contact with a concave lens of focal length 25 cm.

The power of the combination is

(A) –6.5 D (B) +6.5D

(C) +6.67D (D) –1.5D

140. A convex lens and a concave lens of unknown powers are given to you. The lens of higher power is

(A) always convex

(B) always concave

(C) determined by the nature of the image formed by lens

(D) determined by colour of light used

141. A person cannot see the objects clearly placed at distance more than 40 cm. He is advised to use

lens of power

(A) –2.5 D (B) +2.5D



(C) –6.25 D (D) +1.5D

142. Myopia is due to

(A) elongation of the eye ball

(B) irregular change in focal length

(C) shortening of eye ball

(D) older age

143. The splitting of white light into several colours on passing through a glass prism is due to

(A) refraction (B) reflection

(C) dispersion (D) none of these

144. A given ray of light suffers minimum deviation in an equilateral prism P. Additional prisms Q

and R of identical shape and of same material as P are now added as shown in figure. The ray will

now suffer

(A) no deviation

(B) greater deviation

(C) same deviation as before

(D) total internal reflection

145. Which of the following mirrors forms an image which is virtual and smaller in size?

(A) convex (B) concave

(C) plane (D) all of these

146. It is very difficult to see through fog because

(A) of scattering of light

(B) of total internal reflection

(C) fog is good absorber of light

(D) refractive index of fog is very large

147. Refractive index of a transparent medium, so that it is invisible in vacuum is

(A) 1 (B) < 1

(C) > 1.33 (D) 1.33

148. Twinkling of stars is due to

(A) variation of refractive index in the earth's atmosphere

(B) the fact that light is not emitted by the stars continuously

(C) the absorption of light by earth's atmosphere

(D) none of these

149. Quantisation of charge implies

(A) charge does not exiet

(B) charge exists on particles.

(C) there is a minimum permissible magnitude of charge

(D) charge can't be created.

150. The conservation of electric charge implies that

(A) charge cannot be created.

(B) charge cannot be destroyed.

(C) the number of charged particles in the universe is constant.

(D) simultaneous creation of equal and opposite charges is permissible.

151. The numerical value of density in SI is n times its value in cgs system. The value of n is



(A) 10 (B) 100 (C) 1000 (D) 1

1000

152. Distance travelled in nth second has the units of

(A) displacement (B) velocity

(C) acceleration (D) momentum

153. Given that force F is given by, F = Pt-1 + Qt, where t is the time. The unit of P is same as that of

(A) velocity (B) acceleration

(C) displacement (D) momentum

154. The ratio of one micron to one nanometre is

(A) 10–3

(B) 103

(C) 10–6

(D) 10–9

155. A laser signal sent towards the moon returns after t seconds. If c is speed of light, then the distance

of the moon from the observer is

(A) ct (B) ct–1

(C) cr2 (D)

ct

2

156. Which of the following distance -time graphs is not possible?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

157. A body is revolving with a uniform speed v in a circle of radius r. The tangential acceleration is

(A) v

r (B)

2v

r

(C) 2

v

r (D) Zero

158. Inertia of a body has direct dependence on

(A) velocity (B) mass

(C) area (D) volume

159. A 60 Kg man goes around the earth in a satellite. In the satellite, his weight will be

(A) 60N (B) 60Kg

(C) 600N (D) Zero

160. A machine gun fires n bullets per second and the mass of each bullet is m. If v is the speed of each

bullet then force exerted on machine gun is

(A) mnV (B) mV2g

(C) mV2n (D) mgV

161. A man of weight mg is moving upwards in a rocket with acceleration 4 g. His apparent weight

inside the rocket will be

(A) l mg (B) 4 mg

(C) 5 mg (D) Zero



162. The graph between linear momentum (p) and Kinetic energy (k) is best represented by

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

163. Two bodies of different masses are dropped from height of 16 m and 25 m respectively. The Ratio

of the time taken by them is

(A) 25

16 (B)

16

25

(C) 5

4 (D)

4

5

164. An aeroplane is flying with a uniform speed of 100 km/h along the circumference of a circle. The

change in velocity in half the revolution will be (in km/h)

(A) 100 (B) 150

(C) 200 (D) 300

165. Which of the following speed (v)- time (t) graphs is not possible in nature?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

166. The minimum number of unequal vectors whose vector sum can be zero is

(A) 1 (B) 2

(C) 3 (D) 4

167. A force of 60 N acting perpendicular to a force of 80 N can produce

(A) 20N (B) 70N

(C) 100N (D) 140N

168. A constant force is acting perpendicular to the velocity of a particle. For this situation, which one of

the following is correct?

(A) velocity is constant

(B) acceleration is constant

(C) momentum will be constant

(D) the particle follows an elliptical path

169. A stretching force of 1 N is applied at one end of a spring balance and an equal stretching force is

applied at the other end at the same time. The reading on the balance will be

(A) zero (B) IN

(C) 2N (D) 0.5 N



170. A force-time graph for a linear motion is shown in figure. The linear momentum gained between 0

and 6 second is

(A) 2Ns (B) 4Ns

(C) 6Ns (D) Zero

171. A body of mass 2 kg collides with a wall with speed 100 ms–1

and rebounds with same speed. If

time of contact was 1

50 sec, the force exerted

(A) 4N (C) 104N

(B) 8N (D) 2 × l04N

172. Work done by centripetal force in revolving a satellite around the earth is

(A) zero (B) unity

(C) infinity (D) nothing can be decided

173. What does the slope of work-time curve at any instant represent?

(A) momentum (B) force

(C) power (D) displacement

174. A body at rest may have


(C) energy (D) momentum

175. A body is under the action of two equal and opposite forces, each of 10 N. The body is displaced by

5 m. The work done is

(A) +50 J (B) -50 J

(C) 100J (D) Zero

176. A, B in the figure are identical lamps. What changes occur in the brightness of the lamps when its

switch S in closed?

(A) brightness of A increases but that of B decreases

(B) brightness of A remains the same but that of B decreases

(C) brightness of both A and B decreases

(D) brightness of A increases but that of B remains the same

177. The length and area of cross - section of a conductor are doubled, then its resistance is

(A) halved (B) unchanged

(C) doubled (D) quadrupled

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178. The reciprocal of resistance is called

(A) major resistance

(B) conductance

(C) specific resistance

(D) none of these

179. In the figure all bulbs are identical. The bulb that lights most brilliantly is

(A) l only (B) 2 only

(C) 2 and 4 (D) l and 5

180. A heater coil is cut in two pairs of equal length and only one of them is used in the heater. The ratio

of the heat produced by this half coil to that by the original coil is

(A) 2 : 1 (B) 1 : 2

(C) 1 : 4 (D) 4 : 1

181. The current I and voltage V graphs for a given metallic wire at two different temperatures T, and T2

are shown in figure.lt is concluded that

(A) T1 > T2

(B) T1 < T2

(C) T1 = T2

(D) Nothing can be decided

182. A wire had a resistance of 12. It is bent in the form of a circle. The effective resistance between

two points on any diameter is

(A) 3 (B) 6

(C) 12 (D) 24

183. Two electric bulbs whose resistances are in the ratio 1:3 are connected in parallel to a constant

voltage source. The powers dissipated in them have the ratio

(A) 1 : 3 (B) 1 : 1 (C) 3 : 1 (D) 1 : 9

184. In the above question, two bulbs are connected in series, the power dissipated in them is in the ratio

(A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 1 (C) 1 : 1 (D) 1 : 4

185. At a neutral point,

(A) field of magnet is zero

(B) field of earth is zero

(C) field of magnet is perpendicular to field of earth


http://figure.lt/



186. A wire of resistance 1 is stretched to double its length. Then its resistance becomes

(A) 1 (B) 2

(C) 4 (D) 1

2

187. A wire X is half the diameter and half the length of a wire Y of similar material. The ratio of

resistance of X to that of Y is

(A) 8 : 1 (B) 4 : 1

(C) 2 : 1 (D) 1 : 1

188. If an increase in length of copper wire is 0.5% due to stretching, the percentage increase in its

resistance will be

(A) 0.1% (B) 0.2%

(C) 1% (D) 2%

189. At a height equal to earth's radius, above the earth's surface, the acceleration due to gravity is

(A) g (B) g

2

(C) g

4 (D)

g

8

190. The gravitational attraction between the two bodies increases when their masses are

(A) reduced and distance is reduced

(B) increased and distance is reduced

(C) reduced and distance is increased

(D) increased and distance is increased

191. The property of metals which allows them to be drawn readily into thin wires beyond their elastic

limit without rupture is known as

(A) elasticity (B) ductility

(C) hardness (D) malleability

192. Solids which break or rupture above the elastic limit are classified as

(A) brittle (B) elastic

(C) ductile (D) malleable

193. A parrot is sitting on the floor of a wire cage which is being carried by a boy, starts flying. The boy

will feel that the box is now

(A) heavier

(B) lighter

(C) shows no change in weight

(D) lighter in the beginning and heavier later

194. An air-tight cage with a parrot sitting in it is suspended from the spring balance. The parrot starts

flying. The reading of the spring balance will

(A) increase (B) decrease

(C) not change (D) be zero

195. A beaker containing water is balanced on the pan of a common balance. A solid of specific gravity 1

and mass 5 g is tied to the arm of the balance and immersed in water contained in the beaker. The

scale pan with the beaker.

(A) goes down

(B) goes up

(C) remains unchanged

(D) none of these



196. Figure shows pressure P-V graph for a certain mass of a gas at two constant temperatures T1 and T2.

Which of the inferences given below is correct?

(A) T1 = T2 (B) T1 > T2

(C) T1 < T2 (D) none of these

197. Sound travels faster in

(A) water (B) air

(C) steel (D) petroleum

198. Energy is not propagated by

(A) stationary waves

(B) electromagnetic waves

(C) longitudinal progressive waves

(D) transverse progressive waves

199. The variation of square of speed of sound (V2) and absolute temperature of a gas (T) is shown

correctly by

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

200. If a watch with wound spring is taken to the moon, it

(A) runs faster (B) runs slower

(C) does not work (D) shows no change

201. The slope of velocity - time graph for motion with uniform velocity is equal to

(A) final velocity (B) initial velocity

(C) zero (D) none of these

202. Which of the following decreases in motion along a straight line with constant retardation?

(A) speed (B) acceleration

(C) displacement (D) none of these

203. Which of the following can be zero when a particle is in motion for some time?

(A) speed (B) displacement

(C) distance (D) none of these



204. The velocity v versus t graph of a body in a straight line is as shown in Fig.

The displacement of the body in five seconds is

(A) 2 m (B) 3m

(C) 4 m (D) 5 m

205. Which of the following time-displacement graphs is not possible in nature?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

206. A machine is delivering constant power to drive a body along a straight line. What is the relation

between the distance travelled (S) by the body against time (t)?

(A) s2 t

3 (B) s

2 t

–3

(C) s3 t

2 (D) s t

3

207. A body is dropped form the top of a tower. It falls through 40 m during the last two seconds of its

fall. The height of tower is (g = 10 ms"2)

(A) 45 m (B) 50m

(C) 60 m (D) 80m

208. If S, v and t respectively denote displacement, velocity and time, then which of the following graphs

represents uniform motion?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)



209. A cyclist moving on a circular track of radius 40 m completes half a revolution in 40 sec. Its average

velocity is

(A) zero (B) 47 m/s

(C) 2 m/s (D) 87m/s

210. Which of the following graphs represents the velocity-time relationship for a falling apple?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

211. A rocket works on the principle of

(A) conservation of mass

(B) conservation of energy

(C) conservation of liner momentum

(D) none of these

212. On a stationary sail boat, air is blown at the sails from a fan attached to the boat. The boat will

(A) remain at rest

(B) spin round

(C) move in the direction in which air is blown

(D) move in a direction opposite to that in which air is blown

213. The displacement of a body as a function of time is shown in figure. The figure indicates that

(A) The body starts with a certain velocity, but the motion is retarded and finally the body stops.

(B) The velocity of the body is constant throughout

(C) The acceleration of the body is constant throughout

(D) The body starts with a constant velocity, the motion is accelerated and finally the body moves

with another constant velocity.

214. What force will change the velocity of a body of mass 1 kg from 20 ms–1

to 30 ms–1

in two seconds?

(A) IN (B) 5N

(C) 10N (D) 25 N

215. The graph between the displacement S and time t for a particle moving in a straight line is shown in

figure. During the interval OA, AB, BC and CD the acceleration of the particle is



OA AB BC CD

(A) + + + +

(B) – 0 + 0

(C) + 0 – +

(D) – 0 – 0

216. When liner momentum of a body becomes n times, its kinetic energy becomes

(A) n2

time (B) (n2 + 1

) times

(C) 2

1

n times (D) (n+1)

2 times

217. Kilowatt hour (kWh) is the unit of

(A) power

(B) energy

(C) momentum per second

(D) none of these

218. Area under power-time curve gives total work done

(A) by the body only

(B) on the body only

(C) both (A) and (B)

(D) neither (A) nor (B)

219. 1 kWh equals

(A) 3.6 × 106 J (B) 3.6 × 10

7 J

(C) 3.6 × 108 J (D) 3.6 × 10

–6 J

220. When a body moves with a constant speed along a circle

(A) no force acts on it

(B) its velocity remains constant

(C) no work is done on it

(D) no acceleration is produced in it

221. The acceleration produced in a body by a force depends only upon its

(A) size (B) shape

(C) mass (D) colour

222. Action and reaction are always equal and opposite and act on

(A) a single body (B) different bodies

(C) regular bodies (D) irregular bodies

223. The gravitational force between two bodies is

(A) repulsive at large distances

(B) attractive at all places

(C) attractive at short distances

(D) repulsive at short distances



224. An iron ball and a wooden ball of the same radius are released from the same height in vacuum. The

times taken by both of them to reach the grounds are

(A) exactly equal (B) roughly equal

(C) unequal (D) nothing can be decided

225. The force of gravitation between two bodies of mass 1 kg each separated by a distance of 1 m in

vacuum is

(A) 6.67 × 10–11

N (B) 6.67 × l0–10

N

(C) 6.67 × l0–9

N (D) 6.67 × l011

N

226. The unit of G

g can be written as

(A) Kg

m (B)

2

Kg

m

(C) 2m

Kg (D)

m

Kg

227. The weight of a person on Earth is 600 N. His weight on Moon will appear as

(A) zero (B) 100N

(C) 600 N (D) 6300N

228. As a person moves from pole to equator the value of its weight will

(A) decrease

(B) increase

(C) remain same


229. If you float on your back on water, your weight is

(A) zero

(B) equal to your normal weight

(C) half of your normal weight

(D) greater than the weight of water displaced by you

230. An atmosphere

(A) is a unit of force

(B) is a unit of pressure

(C) gives us an idea of composition of air

(D) is the height above which there is no air

231. SI unit of pressure is

(A) Nm–1

(B) dyne m–1

(C) Nm–2

(D) Nm–3

232. In Bernoulli's theorem which of the following is conserved?

(A) mass (B) energy

(C) liner momentum (D) all the above

233. According to Boyle's law, PV = constant, at constant temperature. Which of the following graphs

is correct?

(A) (B)



(C) (D)

234. Water waves are

(A) longitudinal

(B) transverse

(C) both longitudinal and transverse


235. With decrease in water vapour content is air, velocity of sound

(A) increases

(B) decreases

(C) remains constant

(D) first decreases then increases

236. Light year is the unit of

(A) time (B) intensity of light

(C) distance (D) none of these

237. The speed at which electric current travels in a conductor is nearly

(A) 3 × K4 ms

–1 (B) 3 × 10

5 ms

–1

(C) 3 × 106 ms

–1 (D) 3 × 10

8 ms

–1

238. The current carriers can have

(A) positive charge only

(B) negative charge only

(C) positive or negative charge

(D) neither positive nor negative charge

239. E.M.F. of a cell is expressed in

(A) volt (B) volt per metre

(C) volt metre (D) none of these

240. Ohm's law is valid for

(A) gases only (B) liquids only

(C) both liquids and gases (D) metallic conductors

241. SI unit of resistivity is

(A) ohm metre (B) ohm metre–1

(C) ohm metre–2

(D) none of these

242. The value of resistivity of super conductor is

(A) zero (B) unity (C) infinity (D) none of these

243. What is the resistance between A and B?

(A) 4.8 (B) 5.2 (C) 3.6 (D) 2.4

Meena Samy

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244. The diameter of aluminum wire is reduced to half its original value, then its resistance will become

(A) four times (B) two times

(C) eight times (D) sixteen times

245. Specific resistance of all metals is mostly affected by

(A) volume (B) pressure

(C) temperature (D) magnetic field

246. What is immaterial for an electric fuse?

(A) Its length

(B) Its radius

(C) Its specific resistance

(D) Current flowing through it

247. l KWh equals

(A) 3.6 × l03 J (B) 3.6 × 10

4 J

(C) 3.6 × 105 J (D) 3.6 × 10

6 J

248. A conductor carries a current of 3mA. The number of electrons passing through it in one minute is

about

(A) 1018

(B) 1020

(C) 1023

(D) 1025

249. The specific resistance of a rod of copper as compared to that of thin wire of copper is

(A) less

(B) more

(C) same

(D) depends upon the length and area of cross-section of wire

250. The power dissipated by a light bulb with 4 ohm resistance when connected in parallel to 12V

battery is

(A) 36 W (B) 3.6 W

(C) 0.36 W (D) 0.036 W

251. A body is acted upon by a constant force, then it will have a uniform


(C) momentum (D) acceleration

252. When a force of IN acts on a body of mass 1 gram, the body receives an acceleration of

(A) 1 ms–2

(B) 9.8 ms–2

(C) 980 ms–2

(D) 1000 ms–2

253. A force f1 acts on a particle, so as to accelerate it from rest to velocity v. If the force f1, is replaced

by f2, which decelerates it to rest, then

(A) f1 and f2 must be zero

(B) f1 must be equal to f2

(C) f1, may be equal to f2

(D) f1 must not be equal to f2

254. A bird is in a wire cage hanging from a spring balance. The reading of the balance is taken when the

bird is flying about in the cage, and when the bird is at rest in the cage. The first reading will

be

(A) much greater than the second

(B) greater than the second

(C) less than the second

(D) same as the second

255. A man is at rest in the middle of a block of smooth ice. He cannot get to the shore by making use of

Newton's



(A) First law of motion (B) second law of motion

(C) third law of motion (D) first and second law of motion

256. When a horse pulls a cart, the force which helps the horse to move forward is the force exerted by

(A) cart on the ground

(B) ground on the cart

(C) house on the ground

(D) ground on the horse

257. Which of the following units can be used to express G?

(A) N Kg–2

(B) Nm–2

Kg2

(C) Nm2Kg

–2 (D) Nm

–2Kg

–2

258. A motor cycle and a car are moving on a horizontal road with the same velocity. If they are brought

to rest by the application of brakes, which provided equal retarding forces, then

(A) motorcycle will stop at shorter distance

(B) car will stop at a shorter distance

(C) both will stop at the same distance

(D) nothing can be predicted

259. A car accelerates on a horizontal road due to the force exerted by the

(A) road on the car (B) engine of the car

(C) car on the earth (D) driver of the car

260. A body cannot have a

(A) zero speed and non-zero acceleration

(B) non-zero speed and zero acceleration

(C) constant velocity and a varying speed

(D) constant speed and a varying velocity

261. A body of mass 5 kg is acted on by a net force F which varies with time t as shown in graph Fig.

Then the net momentum is SI units gained by the body at the end of 10 seconds is

(A) 0 (B) 100

(C) 140 (D) 200

262. A 4 kg mass and 1 kg mass are moving with equal linear momenta. The ratio of their kinetic energies is

(A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 1

(C) 1 : 4 (D) 4 : 1

263. A 4 kg mass and a 1 kg mass are moving with equal kinetic energies. The ratio of their linear

momenta is

(A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 1

(C) 1 : 4 (D) 4 : 1

264. A motor drives a body along a straight line, with constant force. The power P developed by the

motor must vary with time t as

(A) (B)

(C) (D)



265. A ball falls from a height of 10 m. On rebounding, it loses 30% energy. The ball goes upto a height

of

(A) 5 m (B) 7m

(C) 6 m (D) 8 m

266. The increase in kinetic energy for a body whose increase in linear momentum is 50% will be

(A) 100% (B) 125%

(C) 300% (D) 175%

267. The v-t graph of a moving object is given in Fig. The maximum acceleration is

(A) 6 ms

–2 (B) 8 ms

–2

(C) –6 ms–2

(D) none of these

268. The area of the shaded portion of the graph represents

(A) acceleration (B) max. K.E.

(C) momentum (D) distance moved

269. Which one of the following graphs represents distance -time variation of a body released from the

top of a tower?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

270. The rate of change of momentum represents

(A) pressure (B) force

(C) work (D) kinetic energy

271. The ratio of SI to cgs units of force is

(A) 10–5

(B) 105

(C) 10–3

(D) 103



272. An object of mass m is thrown vertically upwards. At what rate will its momentum change?

(A) mg (B) mg2

(C) 2

1

mg (D)

1

mg

273. A constant force acts on a body of mass m at rest. The velocity v acquired in travelling a

specific distance depends on m as

(A) 1

vm

(B) 1

vm

(C) v m (D) v m

274. Which one of the following would a hydrogen balloon find easiest to lift?

(A) 1 kg of steel

(B) 1 kg of water

(C) 1 kg of lightly packed feathers

(D) all the same

275. A body is just floating in a liquid (their densities are equal). If the body is slightly pressed down and

released then it will

(A) sink to the bottom

(B) start oscillating

(C) immediately come back to the same position

(D) all the above are wrong

276. A boy is carrying a bucket of water in one hand and a piece of plaster in the other. After transferring

the plaster piece to the bucket (in which it floats) the body will carry

(A) same load as before

(B) more load than before

(C) less load then before

(D) either less or more load, depending on the density of the plaster.

277. Effective weight of a solid of specific gravity one when immersed in water will be

(A) 1 (B) –1

(C) zero (D) none of these

278. A block of steel of size 5 cm × 5 cm × 5 cm is weighed in water. If the relative density of steel is 7,

its apparent weight is

(A) 6 × 5 × 5 × 5g (B) 4 × 4 × 4 × 7g

(C) 5 × 5 × 5 × 6g (D) 5 × 5 × 5 × 7g

279. A body floats with one third of its volume outside water and 3

4 of its volume outside another liquid.

The density of the other liquid is

(A) 9

g / cc4

(B) 4

g / cc9

(C) 8

g / cc3

(D) 3

g / cc8

280. Which of the following is correct?

(A) 0 K = 273°C (B) 0 K = –273°C

(C) 273 K = –373°C (D) 0 K = –373°C

281. Which of the following temperatures is same on centigrade and Fahrenheit scales?

(A) 0° (B) 40°

(C) –273° (D) –40°



282. Which of the following has the highest specific heat?

(A) copper (B) water

(C) silver (D) hydrogen

283. One gram of ice at 0°C is added to 5 gram of water at 10°C. Final temperature of the mixture is

(A) –5°C (B) 5°C

(C) 0°C (D) none of these

284. An iron ball is heated. The percentage increase will be largest in

(A) density (B) diameter

(C) surface area (D) volume

285. Water is used as a coolant because of its

(A) lower density (B) easy availability

(C) low specific heat (D) high specific heat

286. If temperature scale is changed from C to F, numerical value of specific heat will

(A) increase (B) decrease

(C) remain same (D) nothing can be decided

287. with decrease in water vapour content in air, velocity of sound

(A) increases

(B) decreases

(C) remains constant

(D) first increases then decreases

288. The temperature at which speed of sound in air becomes double its value at 0°C is

(A) 546°C (B) 819°C

(C) 273°C (D) 1092°C

289. The ratio of the speed of a body to the speed of sound is called

(A) mach number (B) refractive index

(C) frequency (D) none of these

290. For every 1°F rise in temperature, the speed of sound in air increases by

(A) 0.61ms–1

(B) 1.22 ms–1

(C) 0.34 ms–1

(D) none of these

291. The walls of the halls build for music concerts should ________ sound.

(A) amplify (B) absorb

(C) transmit (D) reflect

292. Phon is unit of

(A) wavelength (B) loudness

(C) frequency (D) intensity

293. The equivalent resistance of network of three 2 resistors can not be

(A) 0.67 (B) 2

(C) 3 (D) 6

294. The reciprocal of resistance is called

(A) conductance (B) friction

(C) specific resistance (D) reaction

295. SI unit of conductance is

(A) Ohm (B) Siemen

(C) Ohm metre (D) Ohm

metre

296. Three resistances each of 4 are connected in the form of an equilateral triangle. The effective

resistance between any two corners is



(A) 8 (B) 12 (C) 8

3 (D)

3

8

297. A 4 resistance is bent through 180° at its mid point and the two halves are twisted together. Then

the resistance is

(A) 1 (B) 2

(C) 5 (D) 8

298. By increasing the temperature, the specific resistance of a conductor and a semiconductor

(A) decreases for both

(B) increases for both

(C) increases, decreases

(D) decreases, increases

299. Power of a lens of focal length 1 cm is

(A) I D (B) 10 D

(C) 100 D (D) 1

D100

300. The direction of e.m.f. induced in a coil is given by

(A) Faraday's laws

(B) Lenz'slaw

(C) Fleming's left hand rule

(D) any one of the above

301. 1 V equals

(A) 1 J (B) 1 JC–1

(C) 1 CJ–1

(D) 1 JC

302. lVm–1

equals

(A) I N (B) I Nm–1

(C) 1 NC–1

(D) 1 JC

303. The minimum amount of charge observed so far is

(A) 1C (B) 4.8 × 10–13C

(C) 1.6 × 10–19C

(D) 1.6 × l019C

304. The ratio of electric force between two electrons to the gravitational force between them is of the

order

(A) 1042

(B) 1039

(C) 1036

(D) 1

305. Each of the two point charges are doubled and their distance is halved. Force of interaction becomes

P times, where P is

(A) 1 (B) 4

(C) 1

16 (D) 16

306. The force between two charges when placed in free space is 5 N. If they are in a medium of relative

permittivity 5, the force between them will be

(A) I N (B) 25 N

(C) 2.5 N (D) 1

N5

307. 106 electrons are taken out of a pith ball. The positive charge on the pith ball is

(A) 1.6 × l0–13

C (B) 1.6 × l0–19

C

(C) 1.6 × l0–25

C (D) None of the above



308. When electrons are added to an uncharged body, then the body

(A) gets negatively charged

(B) gets positively charged

(C) remains uncharged

(D) gets negatively or positively charged depending upon its size

309. When electrons are removed from an uncharged body, the body

(A) gets negatively charged

(B) gets positively charged

(C) remains uncharged

(D) gets negatively or positively charged depending upon its size

310. Two charges are placed at certain distance apart A metallic sheet is placed between them. What

will happen to the force between the charges?

(A) increases

(B) decreases

(C) remains the same

(D) may increase or decrease depending upon the shape of the metallic sheet

311. Two copper spheres of the same radius, one solid and the other hollow are charged to the same

potential. Which will have more charge?

(A) solid sphere

(B) hollow sphere

(C) both will have an equal charge

(D) nothing can be decided

312. An electron initially at rest is accelerated through a potential difference of one volt. The energy

gained by the electron is

(A) 1J (B) 1.6 × l0–19

J

(C) 10–19

J (D) None of these

313. A polythene piece rubbed with wool is found to have a negative change of 6.4 × 10–19

C. How

many electrons have been transferred during the process?

(A) 4 × l012

(B) 4 × 1011

(C) 4 × 1010

(D) None of these

314. The electric potential of earth is taken as

(A) Zero (B) Infinity

(C) Unity (D) None of these

315. An ebonite rod acquires a negative change of 6.4 × 10–10

C. The number of excess electrons it has is

(A) 4 × 109 (B) 4 × 10

–9

(C) 4 × 10–29

(D) 4×l029



PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

2013

1. In the given circuit voltmeter shows a reading of 4V, then the power developed across R resistance

will be

(A) 15 mW (B) 14 mW (C) 12 mW (D) 10 mW

2. An electric iron draws a current of 15A from a 220 V supply. What is the cost of using iron for 30

min everyday for 15 days if the cost of unit (1 unit = 1 kW hr) is 2 rupees?

(A) Rs. 49.5 (B) Rs. 60 (C) Rs. 40 (D) Rs. 10

3. Two different sources of light A and B have wavelength 0.7m and 0.3m respectively. Then which

of the following statement is true

(A) A has greater energy then B (B) B has greater energy then A

(C) Both has equal energy (D) None of the above

4. The type of radiation absorbed by CO2 molecule in atmosphere are

(A) X-rays (B) Gamma rays (C) Infra-red rays (D) UV-rays

5. The speed-time relation of a car whose weight is 1500 kg as shown in the given graph. How much

braking force has been applied at the end of 7 sec. to stop the car in 2 sec?

(A) 2000 N (B) 1200 N (C) 4800 N (D) 8400 N

6. The distance covered by a body moving along X-axis with initial velocity 'u' and uniform

acceleration 'a' is given by x = ut + 1

2at

2 . This result is a consequence of

(A) Newton's 1st law (B) Newton's list law

(C) Newton's 111st law (D) None of the above

7. A Parachutist of weight W strikes the ground with his legs fixed and come to rest with an upward

acceleration of magnitude 3g. Force exerted on him by the ground during landing is

(A) W (B) 2W

(C) 3W (D) None of the above

8. The speeds of sound in air and sea-water are given to be 340 m/s and 1440 m/s. resp. A ship sends a

strong Signal straight down and detects its echo after 1.5 sees. The depth of the sea at that point is

(A) 2.16 kms (B) 1.08 kms (C) 0.51 kms (D) 0.255 kms

9. Three equal resistors connected in series across a source of e.m.f. dissipate 10 watts of power. What

will be the power dissipated in watts if the same resistors are connected in parallel across the same

source of e.m.f.?

(A) 10 W (B) 30 W (C) 90 W (D) 10

W3



10. Eight identical spherical mercury drops charged to a potential of 20 v each are coalesced into a

single spherical drop

(A) The internal Energy of the system remains the same

(B) The new potential of the drop is 80 v

(C) Internal Energy of the system decreases

(D) The potential remains the same i.e. 20 v

11. A technician has 10 resistors each of resistance 0.1 . The largest and smallest resistance that he can

obtain by combining these resistors are

(A) 10 and 1 resp. (B) 1 and 0.1 resp.

(C) 1 and 0.01 resp. (D) 0.1 and 0.01 resp.

12. Two masses of 1 gm and 4 gm are moving with equal kinetic energies. The ratio of the magnitudes

of their linear moments is

(A) 4 : 1 (B) 2 :1 (C) 1 : 1 (D) 1 : 6

2014

13. The velocity-time graph of a body falling from rest under gravity and rebounding from a solid

surface is represented by :

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

14. The gravitational force between two objects of mass 1 kg each, separated by a distance of 1m in

vacuum will be :

(A) zero (B) 6.675 × 10–11

N

(C) 13.350 × 10–11

N (D) 3.337 × 10–11

N

15. The force F is acting on an object of mass m. The direction of displacement ( r ) and force ( F ) of the

object is shown by an arrow to the right side. Work done by the force will be :


(C) zero (D) either positive or negative

16. The value of current I and voltage V in the given circuit will be :

(A) 2A, 4V (B) 4A, 2V (C) 1A, 2V (D) 2A, 1V



17. Lenz’s law is a consequence of the law of conservation of

(A) momentum (B) charge (C) angular momentum

(D) energy

18. For hearing distinct echoes, the minimum distance of the obstacle from the source of sound must be

(Given velocity of sound = 344 m/s)

(A) 17.2 m (B) 34.4 m (C) 172 m (D) 344 m

19. Three equal resistors connected in series across a source of V voltage together dissipates 5W power.

If the same resistors are connected in parallel across the same source of voltage V, the power

dissipated will be :

(A) 20 W (B) 25 W (C) 40 W (D) 45 W

20. Every hot object emits

(A) infrared rays (B) visible rays

(C) X-rays (D) ultraviolet rays

21. A bullet of mass 10 g travelling horizontally with a velocity of 160 ms–1

strikes a stationary wooden

block and comes to rest in 0.02 s. The distance of penetration of the bullet into the block will be :

(A) 1.20 m (B) 1.60 m (C) 2.00 m (D) 2.40 m

22. The correct relation between u, v and r for a lens will be (symbols represent traditional meaning)

(A) 2uv

ru v

(B) uv

r2(u v)

(C) 1

ru v

(D) 1 1 1

r u v

23. When a body is immersed in a liquid, the buoyant force that acts on the body will be :

(A) vertically downwards (B) vertically upwards

(C) horizontally right side (D) horizontally left side

24. The distance between the objective lens and the eye-piece of an astronomical telescope will be :

(A) 0

e

f

f (B) e

0

f

f (C) f0 + fe (D) f0 – fe



Answer Key

MOTION

1. (b)

2. (c)

3. (d)

4. (a)

5. (a)

6. (a)

7. (a)

8. (d)

9. (b)

10. (a)

11. (b)

12. (c)

13. (b)

14. (a)

15. (b)

16. (d)

17. (c)

18. (a)

19. (c)

20. (b)

21. (a)

22. (c)

23. (a)

24. (d)

25. (c)

26. (b)

27. (c)

28. (d)

29. (c)

30. (a)

31. (c)

32. (a)

33. (d)

34. (a)

35. (b)

36. (b)

37. (a)

38. (d)

39. (b)

40. (c)

41. (c)

42. (a)

43. (b)

44. (b)

45. (c)

46. (a)

47. (b)

48. (c)

49. (b)

50. (a)

FORCE

1. (B)

2. (D)

3. (B)

4. (B)

5. (D)

6. (A)

7. (C)

8. (C)

9. (C)

10. (C)

11. (C)

12. (B)

13. (C)

14. (D)

15. (A)

16. (A)

17. (D)

18. (C)

19. (B)

20. (D)

21. (D)

22. (D)

23. (A)

24. (A)

25. (D)

26. (B)

27. (B)

28. (A)

29. (A)

30. (D)

31. (D)

32. (B)

33. (D)

34. (B)

35. (D)

36. (D)

37. (B)

38. (A)

39. (C)

40. (D)

41. (C)

42. (C)

43. (C)

44. (A)

45. (C)


1. (C)

2. (A)

3. (D)

4. (D)

5. (D)

6. (D)

7. (C)

8. (B)

9. (C)

10. (C)

11. (D)

12. (C)

13. (D)

14. (A)

15. (B)

16. (B)

17. (C)

18. (A)

19. (A)

20. (C)

21. (C)

22. (B)

23. (C)

24. (C)

25. (C)

26. (D)

27. (C)

28. (A)

29. (D)

30. (D)

31. (A)

32. (B)

33. (A)

34. (D)

35. (A)

36. (C)

37. (C)

38. (A)

39. (C)

40. (B)

41. (D)

42. (D)

43. (A)

44. (D)

45. (A)

46. (A)

47. (B)

48. (C)

49. (A)

50. (C)



GRAVITATION

1 (C)

2 (A)

3 (C)

4 (A)

5 (B)

6 (A)

7 (B)

8 (B)

9 (A)

10 (A)

11 (A)

12 (A)

13 (C)

14 (B)

15 (A)

16 (A)

17 (B)

18 (A)

19 (D)

20 (D)

21 (D)

22 (B)

23 (C)

24 (A)

25 (B)

26 (B)

27 (A)

28 (A)

29 (D)

30 (B)

31 (A)

32 (C)

33 (C)

34 (C)

35 (A)

36 (D)

37 (A)

38 (C)

39 (D)

40 (B)

41 (C)

42 (B)

43 (C)

44 (B)

45 (A)

46 (A)

47 (C)

48 (B)

49 (C)

50 (B)

Floating Bodies

1. (A)

2. (B)

3. (B)

4. (A)

5 (D)

6. (A)

7. (B)

8. (B)

9. (A)

10. (B)

11. (C)

12. (B)

13. (C)

14. (B)

15. (D)

16. (A)

17. (C)

18. (A)

19. (B)

20. (B)

21. (A)

22. (A)

23. (B)

24. (A)

25. (D)

26. (B)

27. (A)

28. (A)

29. (A)

30. (B)

31. (C)

32. (A)

33. (B)

34. (A)

35. (A)

36. (D)

37. (D)

38. (C)

39. (A)

40. (D)

41. (B)

42. (A)

43. (A)

44. (B)

45. (C)

46. (A)

47. (C)

48. (A)

49. (C)

50. (D)

51. (D)

52. (C)

53. (D)

54. (C)

55. (B)

56. (B)

57. (C)

58. (D)

59. (D)

60. (A)

61. (B)

62. (D)

63. (C)

64. (D)

65. (A)

66. (B)

67. (D)

68. (A)

69. (D)

70. (C)

71. (B)

72. (B)

73. (C)

74. (A)

75. (C)

76. (D)

77. (A)

78. (D)

79. (D)

80. (D)

40. (B)

41. (C)

42. (B)

43. (B)

44. (A)

45. (A)

46. (B)

47. (A)

48. (A)

49. (C)

50. (A)

51. (C)

52. (A)

53. (A)

54. (C)

55. (B)

NTSE 2016 Physics


HEAT

1. (A)

2. (C)

3. (B)

4. (C)

5. (B)

6. (A)

7. (D)

8. (C)

9. (A)

10. (C)

11. (C)

12. (D)

13. (D)

14. (B)

15. (B)

16. (C)

17. (C)

18. (A)

19. (C)

20. (D)

21. (A)

22. (B)

23. (C)

24. (A)

25. (C)

26. (A)

27. (B)

28. (A)

29. (C)

30. (B)

31. (B)

32. (D)

33. (B)

34. (A)

35. (A)

36. (B)

37. (C)

38. (B)

39. (C)

40. (B)

41. (B)

42. (B)

43. (A)

44. (D)

45. (D)

46. (B)

47. (A)

48. (A)

49. (A)

50. (A)

51. (A)

Sound

1 (A)

2 (B)

3 (C)

4 (B)

5 (B)

6 (B)

7 (B)

8 (D)

9 (A)

10 (C)

11 (B)

12 (D)

13 (C)

14 (B)

15 (A)

16 (C)

17 (B)

18 (D)

19 (A)

20 (C)

21 (A)

22 (A)

23 (D)

24 (D)

25 (A)

26 (C)

27 (C)

28 (A)

29 (C)

30 (B)

31 (D)

32 (A)

33 (B)

34 (B)

35 (B)

36 (D)

37 (B)

38 (A)

39 (D)

40 (D)

41 (C)

42 (A)

43 (D)

44 (C)

45 (B)

46 (D)

47 (B)

48 (C)

49 (A)

50 (C)

51 (C)

52 (C)

53 (A)

54 (A)

55 (D)

56 (B)

57 (B)

58 (C)

59 (C)

60 (A)

61 (D)

62 (D)

63 (D)

64 (A)

65 (A)

66 (A)

67 (B)

68 (B)

69 (A)

ELECTRICITY AND MAGNETISM

1 B

2 C

3 D

4 A

5 D

6 A

7 C

8 A

9 A

10 B

11 A

12 C

13 B

14 B

15 A

16 A

17 B

18 D

19 D

20 C

21 C

22 A

23 C

24 A

25 A

26 A

27 B

28 A

29 B

30 B

NTSE 2016 Physics



1 C

2 A

3 A

4 B

5 C

6 C

7 D

8 A

9 D

10 B

11 D

12 C

13 D

14 A

15 B

16 C

17 B

18 A

19 D

20 B

21 D

22 A

23 D

24 A

25 B

26 D

27 D

28 B

29 C

30 A

SOURCE OF ENERGY

1 C

2 D

3 A

4 D

5 B

6 D

7 A

8 A

9 D

10 A

11 B

12 A

13 B

14 C

15 C

16 B

17 A

18 D

19 C

20 C

21 D

22 A

23 B

24 B

25 D

26 D

27 A

28 A

29 A

30 A

QUESTION BANK FOR QUICK REVISION

1. (D)

2. (A)

3. (A)

4. (B)

5. (C)

6. (B)

7. (D)

8. (A)

9. (C)

10. (D)

11. (C)

12. (C)

13. (B)

14. (C)

15. (B)

16. (C)

17. (C)

18. (B)

19. (C)

20. (D)

21. (C)

22. (B)

23. (A)

24. (A)

25. (C)

26. (D)

27. (C)

28. (B)

29. (C)

30. (C)

31. (C)

32. (C)

33. (C)

34. (D)

35. (D)

36. (C)

37. (B)

38. (D)

39. (D)

40. (D)

41. (C)

42. (D)

43. (A)

44. (A)

45. (C)

46. (D)

47. (C)

48. (A)

49. (D)

50. (C)

51. (C)

52. (A)

53. (C)

54. (D)

55. (B)

56. (C)

57. (D)

58. (C)

59. (C)

60. (B)

61. (A)

62. (C)

63. (B)

64. (A)

65. (C)

66. (A)

67. (A)

68. (A)

69. (D)

70. (A)

71. (B)

72. (A)

73. (B)

74. (C)

75. (C)

76. (A)

77. (C)

78. (C)

79. (B)

80. (D)

81. (D)

82. (A)

83. (C)

84. (C)

85. (D)

86. (C)

87. (C)

88. (A)

89. (C)

90. (B)

91. (A)

92. (D)

93. (D)

94. (C)

95. (B)

96. (A)

97. (A)

98. (A)

99. (A)

100. (A)

101. (A)

102. (C)

103. (D)

104. (C)

105. (B)

106. (A)

107. (A)

108. (B)

109. (C)

110. (C)

111. (B)

112. (A)

113. (D)

114. (A)

115. (C)

116. (C)

117. (A)

118. (A)

119. (D)

120. (A)

121. (D)

122. (A)

123. (C)

124. (D)

125. (A)

126. (C)

127. (C)

128. (D)

129. (A)

130. (B)

131. (A)

132. (B)

133. (D)

134. (C)

135. (D)

136. (B)

137. (C)

138. (B)

NTSE 2017 Physics


139. (D)

140. (C)

141. (A)

142. (A)

143. (A)

144. (C)

145. (A)

146. (A)

147. (A)

148. (A)

149. (C)

150. (C)

151. (C)

152. (B)

153. (D)

154. (B)

155. (D)

156. (C)

157. (D)

158. (B)

159. (D)

160. (A)

161. (C)

162. (A)

163. (D)

164. (C)

165. (B)

166. (C)

167. (C)

168. (B)

169. (B)

170. (B)

171. (D)

172. (A)

173. (C)

174. (C)

175. (D)

176. (A)

177. (B)

178. (B)

179. (D)

180. (A)

181. (A)

182. (A)

183. (C)

184. (A)

185. (D)

186. (C)

187. (C)

188. (C)

189. (D)

190. (B)

191. (B)

192. (A)

193. (B)

194. (C)

195. (C)

196. (C)

197. (C)

198. (A)

199. (B)

200. (D)

201. (C)

202. (A)

203. (B)

204. (B)

205. (B)

206. (A)

207. (A)

208. (A)

209. (C)

210. (B)

211. (C)

212. (A)

213. (A)

214. (B)

215. (B)

216. (A)

217. (B)

218. (C)

219. (A)

220. (C)

221. (C)

222. (B)

223. (B)

224. (A)

225. (A)

226. (C)

227. (B)

228. (A)

229. (A)

230. (A)

231. (C)

232. (B)

233. (D)

234. (C)

235. (B)

236. (C)

237. (D)

238. (C)

239. (A)

240. (D)

241. (A)

242. (A)

243. (C)

244. (D)

245. (C)

246. (A)

247. (D)

248. (A)

249. (C)

250. (A)

251. (D)

252. (D)

253. (C)

254 (C)

255. (D)

256. (D)

257. (C)

258. (C)

259. (A)

260. (C)

261. (C)

262. (C)

263. (B)

264. (D)

265. (B)

266. (B)

267. (A)

268. (D)

269. (D)

270. (B)

271. (B)

272. (A)

273. (B)

274. (C)

275. (A)

276. (A)

277. (C)

278. (A)

279. (C)

280. (B)

281. (D)

282. (D)

283. (A)

284. (D)

285. (D)

286. (B)

287. (D)

288. (B)

289. (A)

290. (C)

291. (B)

292. (B)

293. (B)

294. (A)

295. (B)

296. (C)

297. (A)

298. (C)

299. (C)

300. (B)

301. (B)

302. (A)

303. (C)

304. (A)

305. (D)

306. (A)

307. (A)

308. (A)

309. (B)

310. (B)

311. (C)

312. (B)

313. (C)

314. (A)

315. (A)

Previous Year Questions

1. (C)

2. (A)

3. (B)

4. (C)

5. Wrong

6. (D)

7. (D)

8. (B)

9. (C)

10. (B)

11. (C)

12. (C)

13. (C)

14. (B)

15. (C)

16. (A)

17. (D)

18. (A)

19. (D)

20. (A)

21. (B)

22. (A)

23. (B)

24. (C)

NTSE 2017 Physics


Hints and Solutions

MOTION

1. (b) As 2

2

1atutS aaS 50)10(

2

1 21 .....(i)

atuvAs velocity acquired by particle in 10 sec 10 av

For next 10 sec , 22 )10()(

2

110)10( aaS

2S a150 .....(ii)

From (i) and (ii) 3/21 SS

2. (c) Acceleration 22

2

2adt

xd

3. (d) Velocity along X-axis atdt

dxv x 2

Velocity along Y-axis btdt

dyv y 2

Magnitude of velocity of the particle,

2222 2 batvvv yx

4. (a) mktdtktdtvS 9922

1

2

13

0

23

0

3

0

5. (a) 3ktS ktdt

Sda 6

2

2

i.e. ta

6. (a)

7. (a) From 2

2

1tautS

21 )1(

2

1 PaS and 2

22

1PaS 0[ uAs ]

From )12(2

na

uS n

1)1(22

2

)1( 2

PPa

S thPP 122

2

2 PPa

It is clear that 21)1( 2 SSS thPP

8. (d) m

Fa

. If 0F

then 0a

.

9. (b) ttv 24 3 (given) 212 2 tdt

dva

and 24

0

3

0)24( ttdtttdtvx

tt

When particle is at 2m from the origin 224 tt

0224 tt 0)1()2( 22 tt sec2t

Acceleration at sec2t given by,

212 2 ta 2212 = 2/22 sm

10. (a)

x

vxdx

dt

2

12

dt

dx

dx

dv

dt

dva .

NTSE 2017 Physics


32

22..2

)2(

2.vvv

x

v

dx

dvva

Retardation 32 v

11. (b) Let 321 ,, uuu and 4u be velocities at time )(,,0 211 tttt and )( 321 ttt respectively and acceleration is

a then 2

and2

,2

433

322

211

uuv

uuv

uuv

Also )(, 2113112 ttauuatuu

and )( 32114 tttauu

By solving, we get )(

)(

32

21

32

21

tt

tt

vv

vv

12. (c) Acceleration tana , where is the angle of tangent drawn on the graph with the time axis.

13. (b) If acceleration is variable (depends on time) then

dtfuv )( dttau )(2

2tau

14. (a) )12(2

na

uSn meter1)152(2

210

15. (b) From aSuv 222 aSu 20 2

222

/20102

)20(

2sm

S

ua

16. (d) sec/184210 matuv

17. (c) If particle starts from rest and moves with constant acceleration then in successive equal interval

of time the ratio of distance covered by it will be

7:5:3:1 ..... )12( n

i.e. ratio of x and y will be 3:1 i.e. 3

1

y

x xy 3

18. (a) 122

na

uSn

mS th 251871522

47

5 .

19. (c) Acceleration tdt

dva 21.0 t2.0

Which is time dependent i.e. non-uniform acceleration.

20. (b) Constant velocity means constant speed as well as same direction throughout.

21. (a) Distance travelled in 4 sec

162

1424 au …(i)

Distance travelled in total 8 sec

642

1888 au …(ii)

After solving (i) and (ii), we get 1u m/s.

22. (c) 66)63( 2 tttdt

d

dt

dxvx . At 0,1 xvt

22)2( 2 tttdt

d

dt

dyvy . At 0,1 yvt

Hence 022 yx vvv

23. (a) Distance travelled in thn second )12(2

na

u

Meena Samy

Typewritten Text


NTSE 2017 Physics


Distance travelled in th5 second 1522

80 =36m

24. (d) 2222 )1000()9000(2 asuv 42 a

27 /10 sma Now a

uvt

sect 4

7108

10

10009000

25. (c) Initial relative velocity 21 vv , Final relative velocity 0

From asuv 222 savv 2)(0 221

a

vvs

2

)( 221

If the distance between two cars is 's' then collision will take place. To avoid collision sd

a

vvd

2

)( 221

where d actual initial distance between two cars.

26. (b) 2/34102 secmaaatuv

27. (c) mStatuS xxxx 481662

1

2

1 2

mStatuS yyyy 641682

1

2

1 2

mSSS yx 8022

28. (d) 2uS . If u becomes 3 times then S will become 9 times i.e. m180209

29. (c) 42 dtctbtay

342 dtctbdt

dyv and 2122 dtc

dt

dva

Hence, at t = 0, vinitial = b and ainitial = 2c.

30. (a) 2uS 2

2

1

2

1

u

u

S

S mS

S8

4

122

2

31. (c) )(

2

ag

ht

sec7.049.0

11

4.5

)2.18.9(

7.22

As 0u and lift is moving upward with acceleration

32. (a) Displacement 52 2 ttx

Velocity 14 tdt

dx

Acceleration 42

2

dt

xd i.e. independent of time

Hence acceleration 2/4 sm

33. (d) Both trains will travel a distance of 1 km before to come in rest. In this case by using asuv 222

10002)40(0 2 a 2/8.0 sma

34. (a) smvatuv /501050

35. (b) Let 'a' be the retardation of boggy then distance covered by it be S. If u is the initial velocity of

boggy after detaching from train (i.e. uniform speed of train)

a

usasuasuv b

2202

2222

Time taken by boggy to stop

a

utatuatuv 0

NTSE 2017 Physics


In this time t distance travelled by traina

uutst

2

Hence ratio 2

1

t

b

s

s

36. (b) Time of flight secg

u20

10

10022

37. (a) mgth 80)4(102

1

2

1 22

38. (d) Let the body after time 2/t be at x from the top, then

842

1 22 gttgx …(i)

2

2

1gth …(ii)

Eliminate t from (i) and (ii), we get 4

hx

Height of the body from the ground 4

3

4

hhh

39. (b) By applying law of conservation of energy

RgvmvmgR 22

1 2

40. (c) Acceleration of body along AB is cosg

Distance travelled in time t sec = 2)cos(2

1tgAB

From 2cos2

1cos2;cos2, tgRRABABC

g

Rt

42 or g

Rt 2

41. (c) Force down the plane sinmg

Acceleration down the plane sing

Since 2sin2

10 tgl

g

ht

g

h

g

lt

2

sin

1

sin

2

sin

22

2

42. (a) 22

2

328096

2

1ttgtuth

20652 ttt sec or 3 sec

43. (b) sec/32132 fttgv

44. (b) ghuv 222 g

uhghuu

222 4

2)()3(

45. (c) g

ht

2 and h and g are same.

46. (a) Displacement = Summation of all the area with sign )()()( 321 AAA )22()22()42(

3

0 1

2 3 4

5

1 2

2 4 6

t(sec)

V(m

/s) A1

A2

A3

NTSE 2017 Physics


Displacement = 8 m

Distance =Summation of all the areas without sign

|4||4||8||||||| 321 AAA = 448

Distance = 16 m.

47. (b) Between time interval 20 sec to 40 sec, there is non-zero acceleration and retardation. Hence

distance travelled during this interval

= Area between time interval 20 sec to 40 sec

= 1203202

1 = 30 + 20 = 50 m.

48. (c)

49. (b) 4

1

1022

1102102

2

1

1022

1

)(

)(

7

)2(

s

slast

S

S

50. (a) Distance = Area covered between graph and displacement axis meter20010)1030(2

1 .

FORCE

1. (B)

Force = 50 N

Mass = 20 kg

a = 50 N

20 kg = 2.5 m/s

2

Force is retarding then, a = 2.5 m/s2

We know, v = u + at

0 = 15 + (2.5)t t = 6 s

2. (D)

Given, mass = 0.2 kg

vi = 20 m/s, v = 0

t = 0.4 s

Thus, 2ov v 0 2050m / s

t 0.4

Force = mass acceleration = (0.2 kg) (50 m/s2) = 10 N

3. (B)

1 2F F F

2 22 2

1 2F F F 8 6 10 N

F = ma 10 N = (5 kg). a

a = 2 m/s2

F1

F2

F

4. (B)

v = vo + at

0 = 20 + a(0.1)

a = 200 m/s2 (ve sign shows retardation)

F = ma = (0.2) (200) = 40 N

NTSE 2017 Physics


Impulse of force ft = (40)(0.1) = 4 N s

5. (D)

Initial momentum = mv1 = (10)(1000) = 10000 kg m/s

Increase in momentum is 1000 kg m/s

Then new momentum = 10000 + 1000 = 11000 kg m/s

New velocity of car = 11000/1000 = 11 m/s

6. (A)

Total force acting on system = total mass common acceleration

= (24 kg + 8 kg + 4 kg) (2 m/s) = 72 m/s

7. (C)

According to Einstein’s theory of relativity, mass (m) becomes a variable quantity when the

velocity of mass approaches the velocity of light.

The relation is, o

2

2

mm

v1

c

, where c = speed of light, v = velocity of mass m.

Hence, Newton’s 2nd

law valid for all velocities is

d mv dv dm

F m vdt dt dt

8. (C)

Acceleration is downward, then

mg – T = 6 a

6g – T = 6 a (1)

and T = 4a

Put the value of T in equation (1),

6g – 4a = 6a

60 = 10 a a = 6 m/s2

T 4 kg

6 kg

T

mg

a

9. (C)

F – W = ma

F – W = (W/g)2g (given a = 2g)

F = W + 2W = 3W

W ma

10. (C)

T1 =(12 + 8)(9.8) = 240 N

8 kg

12 kg

T1

T2

a

11. (C)

F

F F

F

Net forces = 0

So body is stationary.

12. (B)

NTSE 2017 Physics


Due to law of inertia, body continues to move in initial direction of motion. As, bus takes sudden

change passengers experienced force in initial direction of velocity.

13. (C)

We can say

T2 = (2 + 3)g = 5g

3 kg

2 kg

5kg

T2

T2

14. (D)

Body moves downward with acceleration ‘a’ due to 8 N force.

then a = N

16 kg

= 0.2 m/s

2

Now, same body has to accelerate with a = 0.2 m/s2 in the upward direction.

Then, Fx – 8 = 16 (0.2)

Fx = 8 + 8 = 16 N

F = 3 N

a

Fx

15. (A)

m = 2 104 kg

F = 5 105 N

t = 20 s

Then acceleration = F/M= 5

4

5 1025m / s

2 10

Let v be the velocity at the end of 20 s, then v = vo + at = 0 + (25 20) = 500 m/s

16. (A)

x = pt + qt2 + rt

3

2 3

2d pt qt rtdx

v p 2q 3rtdt dt

and a = 2d p 2q 3rtdv

2q 6rtdt dt

Put the value of g, a,r and t

Then a = 2(4 m/s2) + 6 (5 m/s

2)(2 s) = 68 m/s

2

Thus, F = ma (2 kg)(68 m/s2) = 136 N

17. (D)

When F 0 then dP

0dt

or P = constant

From Newton’s 3rd

law, AB ABF F , which also leads to momentum conservation.

18. (C)

22 22o

0 90v va 6750m / s

2s 2 0.6

F = ma = (0.04 6 + 50) = 270 N

19. (B)

NTSE 2017 Physics


Initial momentum of the shell = (40 20) kg m/s = 800 kg m/s

Final momentum = 15 0 + 25 V = 25v

25v = 800 (conservation of momentum : m1v1 = m2v2)

v = 32 m/s

20. (D)

81

v 27m / s3

From v = vo + at

2ov v 27a 9 m / s

t 3

Clearly, F = ma = 16 9 = 144 N

21. (d) As the apparent weight increase therefore we can say that acceleration of the lift is in upward

direction.

)( agmR )(48.4 agg

2/96.12.0 smga

22. (d) NagmT 90000)510(6000)(

23. (a) maF Nt

vm40

1.0

202.0

24. (a) Ndt

dvmF 5000

1.0

5100

25. (d)

26. (b) NagmF 43 1028)410(1020)(

27. (b) 2

3

)(

agm

mg 3/ga

28. (a) NagmT 6000)210(500)(

29. (a)

dt

dmuF skg

u

F

dt

dm/7.0

300

210

51 (d) mgggmagmR 2)()(

31. (d) NS

vumF 1800

10122

)120(1030

2

)(2

2322

32. (b) smkgdtFdp /1001010

33. (d) )1010()( magmR zero

34. (b) Force exerted by the ball

Ndt

dvmF 30

1.0

2015.0

35. (d) If rope of lift breaks suddenly, acceleration becomes equal to g so that tension, 0)( ggmT

36. (d) wtkgNagmR 60600)210(50)(

37. (b) Ndt

dmuF 251050500 3

38. (a) mutS 645.1Horizontal

mtm

FatS 8161

2

1

2

1

2

1 22Vertical

mS 1086 22Net

NTSE 2017 Physics


39. (c) NagmT 10800)18.9(1000)(

40. (d) The effective acceleration of ball observed by observer on earth = (a – a0)

As ,0 aa hence net acceleration is in downward direction.

41. (c) Due to relative motion, acceleration of ball observed by observer in lift = (g – a) and for man

on earth the acceleration remains g.

42. (c) For accelerated upward motion

NagmR 1200)510(80)(

43. (c) Tension the string )( agm Breaking force

gag 25)(20 2/5.24/ smga

44. (a) sF

pt

t

pF 2.0

2

4.0

||

||

45. (c) Rate of change of momentum of the bullet in forward direction = Force required to hold the

gun.

NnmvF 2430010204 3


1. (C)

ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ. (5 3 ).(2 ) W F s i j i j = 10 – 3 = 7 J

2. (A)

23 8 3 dx

v t tdt

0 3 /v m s and 4 19 /v m s

2 2

4 0

1( )

2 W m v v (According to work energy theorem)

2 210.03 (19 3 ) 5.28

2 J

3. (D)

As the body moves in the direction of force therefore work done by gravitational force will be

positive.

10 9.8 10 980 W Fs mgh J

4. (D)

2

4

ts

2

tds dt

2 2 2

2 2

63

4

md s d tF ma N

dt dt

Now

22

2 22 2

0 00

3 33 (2) (0) 3

2 2 2 4

t tW F ds dt J

5. (D)

Net force on body2 24 3 5 N

NTSE 2017 Physics


2/ 5 /10 1/ 2 / a F m m s

Kinetic energy = 21

2mv 21

( ) 1252

m at Joule

6. (D)

2 10 10

102 2 0.5 10

us m

g

7. (C)

Force constant of a spring

2

1 10

2 10

F mgk

x x 500 /k N m

Increment in the length = 60 – 50 = 10 cm

2 2 21 1500(10 10 ) 2.5

2 2

U kx J

8. (B)

2 2 2 2 4

2 1

1 1( ) 800 (15 5 ) 10

2 2

W k x x 8 J

9. (C)

21100

2 kx (given)

2 2 2 2

2 1

1 1( ) [(2 ) ]

2 2 W k x x k x x 21

3 3 100 3002

kx J

10. (C)

2

2

PE

m if bodies possess equal linear momenta then

1

Em

i.e. 1 2

2 1

E m

E m

11. (D)

2s u i.e. if speed becomes double then stopping distance will become four times i.e.8 4 32 m

12. (C)

Kinetic energy = 21

2mv K.E. v

2

If velocity is doubled then kinetic energy will become four times.

13. (D)

2P mE 1 1

2 2

P m

P m (if E = constant)

1

2

3

1

P

P

14. (A)

2

.2

P

Em

If m is constant then 2E P

2 2

2 2

1 1

1.21.44

E P P

E P P

2 1 1 11.44 0.44 E E E E ; 2 1 44% E E of 1E

NTSE 2017 Physics


i.e. the kinetic energy will increase by 44%

15. (B)

2 .P mE P m 1

2

1 1

16 4

P

P

31. (a) The ball rebounds with the same speed. So change in it's Kinetic energy will

be zero i.e. work done by the ball on the wall is zero.

32. (b) JjikjirFW 7310)ˆˆ2).(ˆ2ˆ3ˆ5(.

33. (a) K.E. acquired by the body = work done on the body

FsmvEK 2

2

1.. i.e. it does not depend upon the mass of the body although velocity depends upon the

mass

m

v12 [If F and s are constant]

34. (d) )ˆ6ˆ0ˆ3).(ˆ0ˆ5ˆ4(. kjikjisFW 34 units

35. (a) As surface is smooth so work done against friction is zero. Also the

displacement and force of gravity are perpendicular so work done against gravity is zero.

36. (c) Opposing force in vertical pulling = mg

But opposing force on an inclined plane is mg sin, which is less than mg.

37. (c) Velocity of fall is independent of the mass of the falling body.

38. (a) Work done sF.

Jjiji 162181236)ˆˆ3()ˆ2ˆ6(

39. (c) When the ball is released from the top of tower then ratio of distances

covered by the ball in first, second and third second

:5:3:1:: IIIIII hhh [because )]12( nhn

Ratio of work done IIIIII mghmghmgh :: = 1:3:5

40. (b) .2

2

m

PE If momentum are same then

mE

1

1

22

1

2

2

1 m

m

m

m

E

E

41. (d) .2mEP If kinetic energy are equal then mP

i.e., heavier body posses large momentum

As 21 MM therefore 2211 VMVM

42. (d) Condition for vertical looping cmrh 52

5 r = 2 cm

43. (a) Max. K.E. of the system = Max. P.E. of the system

2

2

1kx = J222 102)105()16(

2

1

44. (d) m

pE

2

2

E

m1

(If momentum are constant)

4

1

1

2

2

1 E

E

m

m

45. (a) mEP 2 EP i.e. if kinetic energy becomes four time then new

momentum will become twice.

NTSE 2017 Physics


46. (a) .2

2

m

PE If P = constant then

mE

1

i.e. kinetic energy of heavier body will be less. As the mass of gun is more than bullet therefore it

possess less kinetic energy.

47. (b) Potential energy of water = kinetic energy at turbine

2

2

1mvmgh smghv /6.196.198.922

48. (c) mEp 2 1

4

1

8

1

2

2

1

2

1

2

1 E

E

m

m

p

p

49. (a) The bomb of mass 12kg divides into two masses

m1 and m2 then 1221 mm …(i)

and 3

1

2

1 m

m …(ii)

by solving we get kgm 31 and kgm 92

Kinetic energy of smaller part = Jvm 2162

1 211

3

221621

v smv /121

So its momentum = skgvm /m-3612311

As both parts possess same momentum therefore momentum of each part is smkg /-36

50. (c) .2mEP If E are const. then 1

4

2

1

2

1 m

m

P

P= 2

NTSE 2017 Physics


Gravitation

1. (C)

1 2

2

m mF G

r

11 11

2

1 16.675 10 6.675 10

1

N

2. (A)

Gravitational force does not depend on the medium

3. (C)

4. (A)

5. (B)

2 21

9100

g R Rh R

g R h R h

6. (A)

2

24

9

2

R Rg g g g

RR hR

4 4

' 72 329 9

W W N

7. (B)

As 2

GM

gR

therefore 1% decrease in mass will decreases the value of g by 1%.

But 1% decrease in radius will increase the value of g by 2%.

As a whole value of g increase by 1%.

8. (B)

2ev gR and 0 v gR 02 ev v

9. (A)

10. (A)

1

.vr

If orbital radius becomes 4 times then orbital velocity will become half.

i.e. 7

3.5 /2 km s

11. (A)

12. (A)

Escape velocity is same for all angles of projection.

13. (C)

3/2 3/2

1 12 1

2 2

84

T R RT T

T R R

14. (B)

15. S.I unit of G = Nm2/kg2 …(i)

C.G.S unit of G = dyne cm2/gm2 … (ii)

Now equation 1/2

25

2

10 dyne 100cm

1000gm

23

2

dyne cm/ 10

gm

NTSE 2016 Physics


16. We know that 2

GMmF

r

2

1F

r … (i)

But here r = 1

2

Therefore equation (A) becomes

2

1F 4

1/ 2 .

Thus, force of gravitation increases 4 times.

17. F m1m2 F mass F 2 (mass)

F is doubled if m1 or m2 is doubled

18. F becomes 1

4 times the original value if distance (r) is doubled and F becomes

1

9 times the

original value if r is tripled.

19. F Mm F 2M × 2m F 4 (Mm)

F becomes four times the original value if both m1 and m2 are doubled.

20. The gravitational force of attraction between the woman and her child is given by 2

GMmF

r

Mass of the mother, M = 50 kg

Mass of the child, m = 12 kg

Distance, r = 2 m

Therefore,

11

8

2

6.67 10 50 12F 1.0 10 N

2

.

21. In the first case 1 21 2

Gm mF

r

In the second case

1 2

2 2

G 2m 2mF

r / 2 F2 = 16F1.

23. The magnitude of gravitational force between the earth and the body is given by

1 2

2

Fm mF

r where, m1 = 1 kg; m2 = 6 × 1024 kg (mass of the earth)

r = 6.4 × 106 m

G = 6.67 × 10–11 Nm2 kg–2

11 2 2 24

26

6.67 10 Nm kg 1kg 6 10 kgF

6.4 10 m

= 9.8N

Thus, a body of mass 1 kg is attracted by the earth with a force of 9.8 N.

31. (a)

32. (c) For the condition of weightlessness at equator

R

g srad/

800

1

10640

13

NTSE 2016 Physics


33. (c) 2r

GMg . Since M and r are constant, so 2/8.9 smg

34. (c) 2R

GMg and 3

3

4RM

RG

g

R

GRg

4

.3

3

42

3

35. (a) Because value of g decreases when we move either in coal mine or

at the top of mountain.

36. (d) GRg 3

4

22

11

2

1

R

R

g

g

37. (a) 2R

GMg (Given )5.3,81 meme RRMM

Substituting the above values, 15.0e

m

g

g

38. (c) Value of g decreases when we go from poles to equator.

39. (d)

40. (b) Because value of g decreases with increasing height.

41. c) Mass does not vary from place to place.

42. (b) 2R

GMg

g

GMR

Substituting the above values we get .1087.1 6 mR

43. (c) Weight of the body at equator = 5

3 of initial weight

gg5

3' (because mass remains constant)

22 cos' Rgg )0(cos5

3 22 Rgg

R

g

5

22 31064005

102

5

2

R

g

= sec

108.7 4 rad

44. (b) kmh 32 , kmR 6400 , so Rh

R

hgg

21

6400

3221g ggg 99.0

100

99

45. (a) Same change in the value of g can be observed at a depth x and

height 2x

given kmxhkmxd 20210

46. (a)

47. (c) 12

2/32/3

2

1

2

1 84

TTR

R

R

R

T

T

48. (b)

49. (c)

Meena Samy

Typewritten Text

Meena Samy

Typewritten Text


NTSE 2016 Physics


50. (b) Since 32 rT TTT

T

8

1

4

132

Floating Bodies

7. Buoyant force depends on the density of the liquid.

12. As the boat is unloaded, it will come up and the level of water falls down. It is so because

the volume of water displaced by the boat for the given pieces of iron nails is more than

the volume of nails.

17. SI unit of pressure is Pascal.

1 Pascal = 1 Nm–2

25. Kg wt is the unit of force.

1 Kg wt = 9.8 N

33. At S.T.P. the value of atmospheric pressure is 1.01 × 105 Nm

–2.

36. 3

3

SI unit of density Kg m

cgs unit of density g cm

3 2 310 (10 )

–310

46. Weight of person = Weight of water displaced

= volume × density × g

313 2 10 g

100

= 60 Kg wt

So, mass of the person is 60 Kg.

51. As weight of bag with water equals weight the weight of water displaced, apparent

weight is zero. So, the reading of spring balance is zero.

67. Pressure in a fluid P = h g

P h,p and ‘P’ is equal in all directions at a point.

68. If the rise in the level of mercury in the arm of the manometer which is not connected to

the gas container is 2 cm, the depression in the level of mercury in the other arm that is

connected to the gas container is also 2 cm. thus the difference in the level of the mercury

in both the arms = 2 + 2 = 4 cm

The pressure of gas = the atmospheric pressure + pressure due to 4 cm of Hg

= 76 cm of Hg + 4 cm of Hg = 80 cm of Hg

69. Mechanical advantage of a hydraulic press (M.A.)

2

2

(Radius of press cylinder)

(Radius of pump cylinder)

Bur rpress = (diameter)pump = 2 rpump

NTSE 2016 Physics


rpress / rpump =2

2

2

(2)M.A. 4

(1)

70. Among sea water, petrol fresh water and alcohol, sea water has more density. At a

given depth sea water has more pressure.

71. An ordinary punch machine, as a hammer or an anvil cannot be used to punch holes into

thick metallic sheets. It is done by a hydraulic press.

72. 1 1 2 2 2 1h h but 2

1 1 1 1 12

2 1

h h h 76h cm 38cm

2 2 2

73. A body just floats that means its density is equal to the density of the liquid and thus its

upthrust is equal to the weight of the liquid displaced. So a momentary force on the body

in the downward direction makes the body sink in the liquid.

74. oil water Hg Thus, arrange in the order of oil toplayer, watermiddle layer,

mercury bottom layer

75. If the size of the floatation bulb is small, only a small volume of the liquid is displaced

and the hydrometer may sink into the liquid. Thus to allow a large volume of the liquid.

Thus to allow a large volume of the liquid to be displaced, the hydrometer floatation bulb

is made large and this avoids sinking of the hydrometer in the liquid.

76. Apparent weight = weight – upthrust

ww

dvvdg d g vg d

4 4

3

6 3 1 10500 10 10 2 10

4

3 3

5 8 10 10500 10 8.750N

4

77. A sudden fall in atmospheric pressure by a large amount indicates a storm

78. Since the two membranes are the same depth, the pressures acting on them are equal. The

pressure on the membranes does not depend on their area.

79. When a mercury barometer is tilted, then the vertical height remains constant but length

of mercury column increases.

80. As we move up, the air pressure decrease because the length of air column which exerts

pressure, decreases.

NTSE 2016 Physics


Also, on moving up, the density of air and acceleration due to gravity decrease. Thus, the

decrease in pressure is due to decrease in length of air column, density of air and

acceleration due to gravity.

HEAT

1 let final temp. is T and specify heat capacity of water =s Heat gain = Heat loss 8 × S × (T – 25) = 2 × S (80 – T) T = 36°C 2 Q = mst Q = 0.1 × 390× (70-20) = 1950J. 4: Q = ms T = 20 ×4200× (40-10)= 2520,000 J 7: °C = 273 + K 9: (F-32)/9 = (K-273)/5 10: (F-32)/9 = (K-273)/5

13. 2

52 10

/ C2 2

51 10 / C

16. H mC

HC

m

H

m

H0

m

there is no changing in temp.

19. Heat lost = Heat ground

f f540000 1 80 540 80 540 1 0

f f1000 80 540 80

f f1000 80 1000 80

f80000 1001

NTSE 2016 Physics


f

8000080 C

1001

21. OH = ms = 5 9.2 (100-20)

= 400 4.2 = 1680 kJ

23. H = mLfusion + mLsteam + ms(2 + 1)

1 80 1 536 1 1 100 0

80 536 100 716 calories

24. Heat lost = Heat gained

80 1 30 0 m 80

m 30

26. fusion steam 2 1W J mL mL m s

J 1 80 1 536 1 1 100 0

J 716 calories 4.2 716joule = 3045J

29. Heat gained = Heat lost

2 f 1 fmS 32 mS 24

2 1S 32 28 S 28 24

1

2

S4

4 S

32. Thermal capacity = m.s

40gm 0.2cal / gm/ C

8 cal/°C

33. 9 f 32

;5 9

9 c = 5K – 32;

5F 9c 32

34. H = mgh = 5 ´ 9.8 ´ 30 J = 5 9.8 30

column 350colmns4.2

36. W = JH = 4.2´ 400 = 1672 joules

44. W = JH = 4.2´ 200 joule = 840 J

NTSE 2016 Physics



1 540 1 1x 100 0 m 80

540 100 m 80

640 m 80

640

m 8gram80

46. Heat lost = heat gained

f f20 1 40 400 5

f f20 40 400 5

f800 20 f 400 5

f800 40 25

f

40016 C

25

47. 1HS joule kg C J / kg C J / kg C.

m.


f f50 1 80 50 80 50 0

f f80 80

f80 80 2

f

00 C

2

50. 536cal/gm = 3

3

536 4.2 J536 4.2 10 J / kg

10 kg

62.25 10 J / kg

SOUND

1. (A)

Number of wave produced = = v/ = 16/0.02 = 800 Hz

Time required to produce 1 wave = T = 1/ = 1/800 = 0.00125 s

2. (B)

Frequency of wave = n = 1000 Hz

NTSE 2016 Physics


= 34 cm = 0.34 m

Speed of sound wave = v = n = 1000 0.34 = 340 m/s

Time taken to move through 1 km = 1000 m

t = d/v = 1000/340 = 2.94 s

3. (C)

4. (B)

Range of frequency which is audible is 20 Hz to 20 kHz

5 H < 20 Hz, hence this frequency is not audible.

5. (B)

In glass glass = 0.9 m

vglass = 5400 m/s

v = glass

glass

v 54006000Hz

0.9m

In air, v = 6000 Hz (a v does not change with change of medium)

vair = 330 m/s

air = vair/v = (330 m/s) / (6000 Hz) = 5.5 cm

6. (B)

As = 5 cm ad n = 2, v = n = 2 5 = 10 cm/s

7. (B)

= 100 m

v = 25 m/s

n = v/ = (25/100) = 0.25 s-1

T = 1.n = 1/0.25 = 4 s

8. (D)

v = n

1 2

2 1

n

n

2

200 1

n 2 n2 = 400 Hz

9. (A)

Time period = 2 106

s

Frequency of the wave = 1/T = 6

1

2 10 = 5 10

5 Hz

as v = n then = v/n = 5

1500m / s

5 10 = 3 10

3 m

10. If d is the distance between the source and the reflecting surface then distance covered by

sound in time t = d + d = 2d.

Distance = speed time

2d = (342 m/s) (3 s) = 512 m

11. (B)

Suppose x is the initial intensity, then passing through a slab it reduced by 20% so

remaining is

20

x x 0.8x100

NTSE 2016 Physics


Again passing the sound wave through such slab, it becomes 20

x 0.8x 0.64x100

So reduction in intensity = x 0.642

100 36%x

12. (D)

2I A

2I

So, 2 2I A

reduced by 1/4 = /4

A increased by 2 times A = 2A

2

2I ' 4A .16

2 2AI '

4

I

I '4

Intensity reduced by a factor of 4.

13. (C)

No change in frequency, so frequency remains constant.

14. (B)

Velocity of sound must be less than the velocity of sound in vacuum.

15. (A)

t = 1.12, v = 1530 m/s

d = v t (where d = distance of the diff)

Distance traveled by sonar pulse = 2d

2d = 1530 1.12 = 1713.6 m

Distance of the diff d = 1713.6

856.8m2

16. (C)

High frequency sound has high pitch.

17. (B)

AE is full wavelength

As BO is half part of AE

So, BD is the half wavelength

18. (D)

With changing the length of the sitar string, tension between string changes which causes

the change in frequency.

19. (A)

SONAR stands for Sound Navigation And Ranging.

It is device which uses ultrasonic wave to measure distance, direction and speed of

underwater object. 20. (C)

20 A pulse is produced and moves towards the wall.

Pulse

21. (a)

22. (a) 1052 nv cm/sec

NTSE 2016 Physics


23. (d) nv n

v m29.1

256

330

24. (d) Time lost in covering the distance of 2 km by the sound waves 06.6330

2000

v

dt sec 6

sec

25. (a) sec/6030021.02max cmnaav

26. (c) Audiable range of frequency is 20Hz to 20kHz

27. (c) Phase difference =

2 path difference

402

6.1

50 cm = 0.5m

nv Hznn 6605.0330

28. (a) Hznn

v000,50; , 330v m/sec m

50000

330

cmcm 55 105106.6

29. (c) 7.1200

340

n

v m

30. (b)

31. (d) v 9

20

10/3

3/2

2

1

2

1 v

v

32. (a) The time taken by the stone to reach the lake

secg

ht 10

10

500221

(Using 2

2

1tguth )

Now time taken by sound from lake to the man

sec5.1340

5002

v

ht

Total time .sec5.115.11021 tt

33. (b) When medium changes, velocity and wavelength changes but frequency remains

constant.

34. (b) 06.26.19

8.9

6.1922

vv

h

g

ht

7.326v sm /

35. (b) Tv 1

2

1

2

T

T

v

v

)0273(2 2

T

CKT o819109242732

36. (d) Velocity of sound in steel is maximum out of the given materials water and air. In

vacuum sound cannot travel, it's speed is zero.

37. b) Distance between a compression and the nearest rarefaction is .12

m

Hence

Hzv

n 1802

360

.

NTSE 2016 Physics


38. (a) 4

1

16

1

2

2

2

2 o

H

H

O

v

vPv

39. (d) Speed do sound, doesn’t depend up on pressure and density medium.

40. (d) If d is the distance between man and reflecting surface of sound then for hearing

echo

mdtvd 1702

13402

41. (c) mHzn 10,60

54 smnv /9 .

42. (a) M

RTv

Mv

1 . Since M is minimum for 2H so sound velocity is maximum

in H2.

43. (d) tvd 2 , where v velocity of sound = 332 sm /

t = Persistence of hearing = sec10

1.

5.162

10

1332

2

tv

d m

44. (c) Since solid has both the properties (rigidity and elasticity)

45. (b) If d is the distance between man and reflecting surface of sound then for hearing

echo

5.2472

5.13302

dtvd m

46. (d) Speed of sound Tv and it is independent of pressure.

47. (b) Frequency of wave is Hzn602

3600

3.25

30

760

n

v m.

48. (c) Since M

RTv

i.e., Tv

49. (a) Frequency of waves remains same, i.e. 60 Hz

and wavelength 31060

330

n

v = 5.5 mm.

50. (c) Path difference 6322

51. 1 1

n 100.0 c / sT 0.01

53. in air EMW travels with a speed 3 × 108 m/s.

54. v v 340 17

n .68mn 500 25

.

56. Let S be distance of Suresh each cliff.

We have, S + S = v × t = 340 × 1

or S = 170 m

NTSE 2016 Physics


Distance between cliffs = 2S

= 340 m

57. v 320 8

.8n 400 10

x 60 .8

= 48 m

58. Number of waves reaching per second,

54

n 0.9Hz60

10m

Using v n , we have

V = 0.9 × 10 = 3 m/s

59. Velocity will 332 m/s, as there is no effect of change in pressure when temperature is

constant.

60. Time interval between a compression and adjoining rarefaction

T 1 1

0.01s2 2n 2 50

61. The speed of sound in a gas does not depend upon change in pressure of the gas, till

temperature remains constant.

62. In case of ultrasonics, frequency n > 20,000 Hz

2v 33010 m

m 20,000

However, for infrasonics, frequency n < 20 Hz

v 330

15 mn 20

110 m

63. Velocity of sound, rP

v

rRT

,M

where M is molecular mass

or 1

vM

64. Walls of auditorium should be good absorbers of sound to ensure optimum value of

reverberation time.

NTSE 2016 Physics



14. The plane mirror will form erect and virtual image of same size at a distance of 30 cm

behind it, So, the distance of image formed by plane mirror from convex mirror will be

(30-20) =10

U=-50 cm, v= + 10cm

Using mirror formula

F=12.5 cm

R=25 cm

15. Let x and y magnitude of object & image distances

(x+y)=32 cm ............(i)

Also, u=-x, and v= +y

1 1 1

..................12

iix y

Using mirror formula u=-24 cm & v=+8 cm

8 1

, 124 3

so I

24.

1 11 2

2 2

8

21 2 2 2

1

5 2 10 500,

4

cn

c

nNow n

n c

25.

0

2

0 0

1 1

1

1

0

30 60

sin3

sin

r

r A and i

l

r

Question bank for quick revision

1. Force = mass x acceleration

when force is constant, then acceleration is also constant because mass is constant.

2. According to condition of motion under two forces, f1 and f2 must be acting in opposite

directions and may be equal, not necessarily must be equal.

3. Car moves on the road due to a reaction force of the road on the car.

4. When a vehicle is moving on a rough road, an opposing force is acting on the vehicle. To

maintain the velocity, a force must be acting to overcome the opposing force.

5. Since the rubber ball will rebound back, hence will suffer greater change in momentum.

7. Impulse

ForceTime

NTSE 2016 Physics


= 25

500N0.05

8. Newton's first law of motion is related to physical independence of force.

9. Work done depends only on the weight of the suitcase.

10. W = FS cos 90° = 0

11. W = FS

FS

Power Ft

12. W

Pt

Or W mgh

tP P

= 200 10 40

8s10,000

13. Time taken by the ball to reach the highest point

= 1

sec2

Using, u at

1

o u 102

1u 5ms

Also, 2 2u 2aS

Or 20 (5) 2( 10)S

S = 1.25 m

16. Area under acceleration-time graph

= acceleration × time

= change in velocity.

17. 2 = u

2 + 2aS

If u = 0, then 2 = 2aS

It is the equation of a parabola symmetrical to displacement (S) axis. The correct variation

is shown by (C).

18. nth

gS u (2n 1)

2

= 10

0 (2n 1)2

= 5(2n 1)

23

10S 0 (3) 45

2

Given : nth 3S S

5(2n 1) 45

Which given n = 5.

19. During upward motion, velocity of particle ai time / is given by,

v = u – gt i.e., velocity decreases linearly with time and finally becomes zero.

During downward motion, v = u + gt = gt

NTSE 2016 Physics


In this case, the velocity increases with time linearly.

21. Slope of velocity-time graph is acceleration, which is zero in case of uniform velocity.

22. Displacement towards east, x = 15 × 2 = 30m

Displacement towards north, y = 5 × 8 = 40m

Displacement in 10 sec = 2 2x y = 2 2(30) (40) 50m

Average velocity = 50

10 = 5 ms

– 1

23. x = 400m, y = 300m, z = 1200m

2 2 2r x y z

2 2 2

400 300 1200

= 100 16 9 144 1300m

24. In this case, displacement is zero. Hence, average velocity is zero.

25. Distance travelled can not be negative.

27. Total distance travelled = (300 + 200) m = 500m

Relative velocity = (30 – 20) ms-1

= 10 ms–1

Time taken = 500

50s10

28. Average acceleration = Change in velocity

time taken

= 225 ( 25)10ms

5

29. Because x – t graph is a straight line in either case, velocity of both is uniform. As the slope

of S – 1 graph for A is greater, velocity of A is greater than that of B.

30. As F × S = 1

2 mv

2, we have 2S

when is tripled, S becomes 9 times.

31. Constant velocity means constant speed in a particular direction.

32. nth

aS u (2n 1)

2

36. Average velocity = Total distance

Total time

= 3S

S S S

10 20 60

= 3S

18km / h10S

60

41. 1 22

Gm mF

r

= 11

2

6.67 10 1 1

(1)

= 116.67 10 N

NTSE 2016 Physics


42. On moon, since there is no atmosphere, everybody when left will fall towards the moon

with an acceleration due to gravity of moon.

44. When two bodies are dropped from the same height in vacuum, both will be accelerated

equally by the gravitational pull of earth and both will reach the ground simultaneously.

49. In a spaceship orbiting around the earth, g = 0. Therefore, a pendulum clock cannot be used

for measuring time.

50. For a given volume V, pressure at curve T1 will be lower than that at curve T2.

Therefore, P2 > P1, and T2 > T1

51. Water has high specific heat. It means for a particular change in temperature, it would draw

maximum heat.

52. 34V r

3

Since volume involves maximum power of r, therefore, percentage increase in volume will

be maximum.

53. Volume of the cavity increases because of expansion of metallic ball.

54. Increase of vapour pressure increases the boiling point of water.

55. Water will boil because pressure of air on the surface of moon is almost zero.

56. The time period of simple pendulum is independent of mass of bob.

57. Time period of stretched spring is independent of'g', so there will be no change in time

period.

59. Sound travels fastest in steel because elasticity of steel is much greater as compared to

other media.

61. speed of body

mach numberspeed of sound

62. For ultrasonic’s, frequency n > 20,000 c/s

233010 m

n 20,000

63. For infrasonics, frequency n

133015m 10 m

20

67. Frequency = 2

5Hz0.4

69. Radio waves do not require any material medium for their propagation.

75. Both the charges exert equal and opposite forces on each other.

76. 10

19

q 3.2 10n

e 1.6 10

= 92 10

77. If ball 1 is neutral, ball 2 may be +, ball 3 may be +, ball 4 may be negative and ball 5 may

be negative. This would satisfy the conditions of the question.

78. 1 22 2

q q (2)(2)F times 16times

r (1/ 2)

81. Number of electrons acquired,

q

ne

NTSE 2016 Physics


18

19

16.2 10

1.6 10

82. p

Fe

F= 10° = 1, because force depends only on

charges, distance and nature of medium.

83. The bird is not affected practically because no current flows through its body, the circuit

being incomplete.

86. q

It

7 1910 1.6 10

1

121.6 10 A

87. q

It

ne

t

Or It

ne

19

19

2 11.25 10

1.6 10

88. It

ne

3

18

19

3 10 6010

1.6 10

90. Conductivity depends on the nature of material of conductor.

91. RA

l

(2 )

R R(2A)

l

94. Since specific resistance only depends up the nature of material of wire.

95. On adding B4 which is in parallel, the resistance of the circuit decreases. Hence the current

increases. So, the brightness of B3 will increase.

96. The four different values are 3r, r 3r

,3 2

and 2r

3

97. The resistances in the circuit are in parallel.

1 1 1 1 3

R R R R R

So, R

R3

98. 1 1 1 1

R 12 15 20

5 4 3 12

60 60

NTSE 2016 Physics


R R

99. 1 1 1 1

R 2r 2r r

= 1 1 2 2

2r r

r

R2

101. Since 2

l

A( r ) is maximum for l = 100 cm,

therefore, its value is maximum.

102. 1 1A Al l

Or 11

100A A A

110

l

l

But RA

l

1

110 110 121R

100 100A 100 A

ll

= 21%(increase)

103. 2 Ad 12l

And 14lA d 18

1 1

3A 2 A 8or

4A 3 A 9

Now, 1 1

2

R A3

R A 2

l

l

= 3 9 27

4 8 32

104. All the ten resistances are connected in parallel.

106. 2V

PR

, when R

Rn

then

2 2V V

P n n(R/ n) R

107. 2 2V (220)

R ,P 60

where R is resistance of the lamp.

Rate of consumption when used at

2

2

(200) 60W200 V 60W

(220)

108. 1W = 1A × 1V=A2 109. Electric energy (E) = Power × time

Also, E = voltage × charge

And E = (Current)2 × resistance × time

111. In parallel combination,

total power (P) = P1 + P2

NTSE 2016 Physics


112. In series combination, same current flows in each bulb, irrespective of their power.

113. A bulb will glow with maximum brilliancy, for which current is maximum and the

maximum current flows in bulbs 1 and 5.

128. If angle of incident of first mirror and angle of reflection from second mirror are equal,

then the two mirrors are perpendicular to each other.

129. Colour and energy depend on frequency and frequency does not change.

130. c

c

= 8

8 13 102 10 ms

1.5

131. When a liquid is heated it expands and velocity of light in it increases and hence its

refractive index decreases.

132. Space has no atmosphere, hence no scattering takes place.

134. As = real depth

apparent depth

real depth h

apparent depth

135. 4

h 24 cm3

96

cm 32cm3

136. 8

8 13 102 10 ms

1.5

2

10

8

2 10t 10 s

2 10

139. 1

100P 2.5D

40

2

100P 4D

25

1 2P P P

2.5D – 4D 1.5D

141. Since u = and = –40 cm, using the lens

formula, f = –40 cm

Also, P = 100

40D = –2.5D

153. F and Pt–1

have the same units.

F = Pt–1

or P = Ft or P = m × a × t = mv

154. 6

3

9

One micron 10 m10

One manometer 10 m

155. 2S = ct or S = ct

2, where S is the required distance.

156. Distance travelled by a body can not be negative.

NTSE 2016 Physics


159. The person in a satellite orbiting around the earth is in weightlessness condition, hence his

weight is zero.

160. Momentum of each bullet = mV. Since n bullets are fired per second, force exerted = mnV.

161. R – mg = ma or R = mg + ma But a = 4g

R = 5mg

164. In half revolution, the position of aeroplane will be opposite to the initial direction of

motion.

Change in velocity = 100 – (–100)

= 200km/h.

165. The particle can have only one speed at one time and it cannot have two speeds at one

point.

167. Resultant = 2 2(60) (80) 100N

170. Momentum gained = Force × time = Algebraic sum of the areas enclosed by force – time

graphs with time – axis.

171. F × t = change in momentum or F = 400 × 50N= 2 × 104N

174. A body at reat cannot have speed, velocity and momentum, but it can have energy (except

K.E. only).

175. Whatever be displacement, net work done (W) = FS + (–F) S = 0

176. When the key is closed, the effective resistance of the circuit decreases, hence current in A

increases. So A glows with more intensity. When B is shunted, its glow decreases.

179. The bulb will glow with maximum brilliancy, for which current is maximum and the

maximum current flows in bulbs 1 and 5.

180. 2 2 2

LA

V V V A 1P i.e. P

R L L

183. Power dissipated, 2V 1

P or RR P

184. In series, the current is same in two bulbs. Potential drop, V = IR i.e. V R

189. 2

2

g R

g (R h)

, But h = T

gg

4

196. For a given volume V, pressure at curve T1 will be lower than at curve T2

2 1P P , hence 2 1T T

201. Velocity – time graph for a uniform motion is a straight line parallel to time-axis Hence its

slope is zero.

202. When a body moves along a steaight line with constant retardation, its speed goes on

decreasing.

204. Displacement = algebraic sum of areas

1 12 23 2 1 2 1 1

3 –1 1

3m

205. At a particular time, two values of displacement are not possible.

206. 2

work F S S sPower m

time t tt

NTSE 2016 Physics


2

2 3

3

SPower or S t

t

207. nth

aS u (2n 1)

2 . Total distance travelled in the last 2 seconds of fall,

n n 1S S S

= g g

0 (2n 1) 0 2(n 1) 12 2

= g g

(2n 1) (2n 3)2 2

= g

(2n 4)2

Or 10

40 (2n 4)2

, which given n = 3s

S = 21ut gt

2

= 210 10 (3)

2 = 45 m

208. Since displacement increases uniformly with time, (A) is correct.

209. Displacement

Average velocitytime

= 1 12 40ms 2ms

40

212. The sail boat and fan form a system and the forces acting will be action and reaction forces

in the form of internal forces, so the system remains stationary.

213. Slope is initially decreasing and then remains constant. So, velocity is initially decreasing

i.e. the body undergoes retardation and ultimately stops. The body must have obviously

started with some velocity.

215. In portion OA, Slope of S–t graph is decreasing, so velocity is decreasing and acceleration

is negative. In portion AB, v = a = o. In portion BC, slope of S–t is increasing, hence v is

increasing and acceleration is positive. In portion CD, slope is constant, hence v = constant

and acceleration = 0

220. In case of circular motion, the force acts along the radius and displacement at a location is

perpendicular to the radius i.e. = 90° and work done = F S cos 90° = 0

224. In vacuum both the bodies will be accelerated equally by the gravitational pull of earth and

both will reach the ground simultaneously.

226. 2 2 2 2 2 2

2 2

G Nm kg kgms m kg m

g kgmh ms

227. Weight on moon = mgm = emg

6

= 600N

100N6

229. When you float, your body weight is neutalised by buoyancy of water.

237. The speed at which current travels through the conductor means the speed of electric effect

travelling through a conductor which is at a speed of light.

NTSE 2016 Physics


243. It is a case of balanced wheatstone bridge. No current flows through 5. So, the circle is

equivalent to

248. Q ne

It t

Or 3

18

19

1t 3 10 6010

e 1.6 10

250. 2 2V (12)

P 36WR 4

253. According to conditions of motion under two forces, f1 and f2 must be action in opposite

directions and may be equal, not necessarily must be equal.

254. When the bird is flying in a wire cage, the air pressed by the wings of the bird will go out

of cage, hence the spring balance will record less reading.

255. At a particular time, two values of displacement are not possible.

256. Horse moves on the road due to a component of reaction (force) of ground on horse acting

horizontally.

258. 2 2v u 2aS

Or 2 2v u

S2a

, which is independent of mass.

Therefore, both will stop at the same distance.

261. Momentum gained by the body

= 1

2 × 4 × 20 + 4 × 20 +

1

2 × 2 × 20

= (40 + 80 + 20) SI units

= 140 SI units

262. 1 21 1 2 2

2 1

v m 1m v m v or

v m 4

221

1 11 221

2 2 22

m vE 4 1 1

E 1 4 4m v

263. E1 = E2

Or 2 21 1 2 2

1 1m v m v

2 2

Or 1 2

2 1

v m

v m

1 1 1

2 2 2

p m v 4 1 2

p m v 1 4 1

264. The body undergoes constant acceleration under the application of a constant force.

Therefore, the velocity of the body goes on increasing.

We know, P = F × v

NTSE 2016 Physics


So, power goes on increasing with time.

266. 1 2

3p mv and p mv

2

KE becomes 9

4 times. 4

Also, increase in K.E. becomes 5

4 times

= 5

100% 125%4

267. Max. acceleration

= Slope of BC = 2(80 20)6ms

(40 30)

268. Area of shaded portion

= velocity × time = distance covered

269. S = 1

2 gt

2 or S t

2

272. Rate of change of momentum

= force applied = mg

273. Work done = change in K. E. = constant

1

2 mv

2 =

constant

Or 1

vm

276. Buoyant force will act only on the body immersed in water and will not affect the total load

on the scale pan.

278. Weight of block of steel in air = (5 × 5 × 5) × 7 × g

Weight of water displaced = (5 × 5 × 5) × 1 × g

Apparent weight = (5 × 5 × 5) × 7 × g – (5 × 5 × 5) × l × g = (5 × 5 × 5 × 6)g

279. Let V be the volume of the body.

Weight of body = weight of water displaced

2

Vg3

Weight of the body in another liquid

1

V g4

2 1

Vg V g3 4

Or 8

g / cc.3

283. Using method of mixtures, 1 ( 80) 5 1 10

= (1 + 5) × 1 ×

Or 30 6

Or 5 C

NTSE 2016 Physics


285. Water has high specific heat. It means for a particular change in temperature, it would draw

maximum heat.

286. Since magnitude of 1°F is equal to 5

9 of magnitude of 1°C, the numerical value of specific

heat will decrease.

293. Three resistances each of resistance 2. can not produce a resistance equivalent to the

individual resistance.

When in parallel, their effective resistance will be 2

3 = 0.67 .

In series, the effective resistance

= 3 × 2 = 6

Two resistances in parallel which are in series with one resistance gives 2 2

2 32 2

Previous Year Questions

1. (3)

6 = 1 × 2000

1 = 6

2000

P = VI

= 4 × 3 mW = 12 mW = 12 mW

2. (1)

1 = 15A, V = 220V, t = 30 min

Energy = P × t = VI t

= 220 × 15 × 30

60 × 15

= 3300 × 1

2 × 15 Whr

= 3.3 kWx 7.5 hr = 24.75 kW hr

Cost = 24.75 x 2 = 49.50 Rs.

3. (2)

6A 0.7 10 m ,

1B 0.3 10 m

hc

E

A B

Hence A BE E

4. (3)

CO2 in the atmosphere does not allow infrared rays from the earth to escape causing green

house effect.

NTSE 2016 Physics


5. No option is matching

Correct answer is 9000 N

Slope = 2126m / s

2

F = 1500 × 6 = 9000 N

6. (4)

It is the fundamental equation of motion so it is not the consequence of Newton's Laws of

motion.

7. (4)

Mg = W

N – W = 3mg

N – W = 3W

N = 4W

8. (2)

air waterV 340m / s, V 1440m / s

2d 1440 1.5

1440 d 1080.0 1.08 kms1.5 2

9. (3)

R1 = 3R , P = 10W,

2 2 2

series

V V VP 10 30

R 3R R

2 2V V

P 3 3 30 90WR / 3 R

10. (2)

kq

V 20Vr

2 34 4R 8 r R 2r

3 3

Q 8q

kQ K 8q 4kq

V 4 20R 2r r

V 80V

11. (3)

Rs =10 × 0.1 = 1 (largest)

Rp = 0.1

10 = 0.01 (smallest)

12. (3)

2 21K mv mv 2K

2

2P 2Km

P 2Km P m

1 1

2 2

P m 1 1

P m 4 2

NTSE 2016 Physics


13. (3)

Sol. Slope of velocity-time graph gives acceleration which is constant and equal to ‘g’ in the

situation given so graph should be a straight line.

14. (2)

Sol. As we know,

1 22

–11

2

–11

GM MF

r

6.67 10 1 1

(1)

6.67 10 n

15. (3)

Sol. As F is perpendicular to , r r so work done is zero.

16. (1)

Sol.

as per question Req = 3

0

121 4A

3

4

1 2A2

So, 2V 1 (2)

2 2 4Volt

17. (4)

Sol. Lenz’s law is based on law of conservation of energy

18. (1)

Sol. To hear an echo, we have

min persistence of hum2d 1

an rV 10

ea

mind 17.2 m

19. (4)

Sol. As per question P = 2V

5W3R

…(i)

2 2V 3V

PR / 3 R

…(ii)

From (i) and (ii)

P = 45 W

20. (1)

Sol. Every hot object emits infrared rays

21. (2)

Sol. As per question v = u + at

0 = 160 + a(0.02)

a = 21608000 m / s

0.02

So, now S = 21U at

2

NTSE 2016 Physics


= 160 × 0.02 – 21(8000) (0.02)

2

= 3.2 – 1.6 = 1.6 m

22. (1)

Sol. As we know Len’s formula is

1 1 1 2

v u f F

2uv

ru v

23. (2)

Sol. Buoyant force acts vertically upwards

24. (3)

Sol. The distance between the objective lens and the eye-piece of an astronomical telescope is

f0 + fe

Meena Samy

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NTSE (2016-17) Physics PHYSICS NTSE 2017-18...21. A particle moving with a uniform acceleration travels 24 m and 64 m in the first two consecutive intervals of 4 sec each. Its initial