Non-verbal RRB Telugu

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SAKSHI

Statements & Conclusions

Directions (1-5): In each of the qu-estion below are three statements followed by twoconclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be trueeven if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all theconclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from thethree statements disregarding commonly known facts. (CANARA BANK 18-07-2010)

Give answer (1): if only conclusion I follows.

Give answer (2): if only conclusion II follows.

Give answer (3): if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.

Give answer (4): if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.

Give answer (5): if both conclusion I and conclusion II follows.

1. Statements:

All jeeps are cars. All cars are buses. Some buses are trucks.

Conclusions:

I. Some jeeps are trucks. II. All jeeps are buses.

2. Statements:

Some balls are rackets. Some rackets are bats. All bats are nets.

Conclusions:

I. No net is a ball. II. All rackets are nets.

3. Statements:

All computers are printers. All printers are staplers. All staplers are scanners.

Conclusion:

I. All printers are scanners. II. Some staplers are computers.

4. Statements:

No drum is guitar. All guitars are violins. Some violins are flutes.

Conclusions:

I. Some violins are guitars. II. Some drums are flutes.

5. Statements:

All guns are cannons. All arrows are cannons. Some cannons are bows.

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Conclusions:

I. Some guns are arrows. II. Some arrows are bows.

Directions (6-10): In each of the question below are three statements followed by two

conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true ev-

en if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all conclusions and

then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three statements

disregarding commonly known facts. (Syndicate Bank 27-06-2010)


Give answer (2): if only conclusion II follows

Give answer (3): if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows

Give answer (4): if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows

Give answer (5): if both conclusion I and conclusion II follows

6. Statements:

All stars are planets. All planets are moons. No moon is a sun.

Conclusions:

I. All stars are suns. II. No moon is a star.

7. Statements:

Some computers are keyboards.

Some keyboards are wires. Some wires are switches.

Conclusions:

I. Some computers are switches. II. Some wires are computers.

8. Statements:

No cap is a hat. All hats are feathers. All feathers are papers.

Conclusions:

I. All hats are papers. II. All feathers are caps.

9. Statements:

All nylons are cottons. All cottons are wools. Some wools are polyesters.

Conclusions:

I. Some cottons are wools. II. Some wools are nylons.



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10. Statements:

All calculators are watches. All phones are watches. All watches are televisions.

Conclusions:

I. All phones are televisions. II. Some televisions are calculators.

Directions (11-16):

In each of the question below are four statements followed by four conclusions numbered

I, II, III and IV. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem

to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all conclusions and then decide

which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements. Disregarding

commonly known facts. Allahabad Bank (14-03-2010)

11. Statements:

All metals are silvers. All silver are diamonds.

Some diamonds are gold. Some gold are marbles.

Conclusions:

I. Some gold are metals. II. All metals are diamonds.

III. Some silver are marbles. IV. Some gold are silver.

1. Only I follow. 2. Only III follow. 3. Only II follow.

4. Only IV follow. 5. None follows.

12. Statements:

Some carpets are books. All books are pens.

Some pens are cartons. All cartons are notebooks.

Conclusions:

I. Some cartons are carpets. II. Some cartons are books.

III. Some pens are carpets. IV. Some notebooks are pens.

1. Only I and II follows. 2. Only II and III follow.

3. Only III and IV follows. 4. Only I and III follow. 5. None of these.

13. Statements:

Some paints are bottles. Some bottles are brands.

Some brands are colours. All colours are erasers.

Conclusions:

I. Some paints are brands. II. Some erasers are bottles.



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III. Some erasers are brands. IV. Some bottles are colours.

1. None follows. 2. Only III follows.

3. Only II and IV follows. 4. Only IV follows. 5. Only I, II, III follows

14. Statements:

Some boxes are triangles. All spheres are triangles.

All circles are boxes. All triangles are quadrilaterals.

Conclusions:

I. Some quadrilaterals are boxes. II. Some quadrilaterals are triangles.

III. Some triangles are spheres. IV. No circle is quadrilateral.

1. Only I follow. 2. Only II follows. 3. Only I, II, III follows.

4. Only III follows. 5. All follows.

15. Statements:

All plastics are trees. Some trees are buildings.

Some buildings are windows. Some windows are papers.

Conclusions:

I. Some papers are plastics. II. Some buildings are papers.

III. No paper is a tree. IV. Some trees are windows.

1. Only I follow. 2. Only II follow.

3. Only I and IV follow. 4. Only III follow. 5. None follows.

16. Statements:

All rings are phones. All phones are spoons.

Some phones are files. All files are covers.

Conclusions:

I. Some files are rings. II. Some covers are spoons.

III. Some spoons are phones. IV. Some rings are covers.

1. Only II and IV follow. 2. Only I, II and III follows.

3. Only I and II follow. 4. Only II and III follow. 5. None follows.

Directions (17-22):

In each of the question below are given three statements followed by two conclusions

numbered I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem



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to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all conclusions and then decide whi-

ch of the given conclusions logically follows from the three statements disregarding com-

monly known facts.


Give answer (2): if only conclusion II follows

Give answer (3): if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows

Give answer (4): if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows

Give answer (5): if both conclusion I and conclusion II follows

17. Statements:

All jugs are plates. All plates are cups. All cups are bottles.

Conclusions:

I. Some bottles are jugs. II. All plates are bottles.

18. Statements:

Some jungles are mirrors. All mirrors are houses. All houses are roads.

Conclusions:

I. All jungles are mirrors. II. All jungles are houses.

19. Statements:

All pigeons are trees. Some trees are channels. All channels are baskets.

Conclusions:

I. Some baskets are trees. II. Some channels are baskets

20. Statements:

Some tents are ropes. All ropes are lanterns. Some lanterns are boxes.

Conclusions:

I. Some boxes are tents. II. Some lanterns are tents.

21. Statements:

Some bags are clothes. Some clothes are papers. Some papers are glasses.

Conclusions:

I. Some glasses are bags. II. No glass is bag.



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22. Statements:

Some chains are trucks.

No truck is car.

All cars are trains.

Conclusions:

I. Some trains are trucks.

II. Some cars are chains.

Key

1) 2 2) 4 3) 5 4) 1 5) 4 6) 4 7) 4 8) 1

9) 2 10) 5 11) 2 12) 3 13) 2 14) 4 15) 5 16) 4

17) 5 18) 4 19) 1 20) 2 21) 3 22)4





SAKSHI

Statements and ConclusionsDirections (1-5): In these questions, relationship between different eleme-nts is in the

statements. These statements are followed by two conclusions.

Mark Answer If...

1) Only conclusion I follows 2) Only conclusion II follows

3) Either conclusion I or II follows 4) Neither conclusion I nor II follows

5) Both conclusions I and II follows

1. Statement: P ≥ Q = R > S > T

Conclusions: I. P ≥ T II. T < Q

2. Statement: L ≤ M < N > O ≥ P

Conclusions: I. O < M II. P ≤ N

3. Statement: A > B, B ≥ C = D < E

Conclusions: I. C < A II. D ≤ B

4. Statement: H > J = K, K ≤ L ,L > T, T < V

Conclusions: I. K > T II. L ≤ H

5. Statement: A ≤ B = C, D > C = E

Conclusions: I. E ≥ A II. A < D

Directions (6-11): In the following questions, the symbols $, *, %, @, and © are used

with the following meaning as illustrated below:

'P * Q' 'means P is not greater than Q'

'P @ Q' 'means P is neither greater than nor equal to Q'

'P © Q' 'means P is not smaller than Q'

'P % Q' 'means P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q'

'P $ Q' 'means P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q'

Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find

which of the three conclusions I II and III given below them is/are definitely true and

given your answer accordingly.

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6. Statements: R© K, K $ M, M * J

Conclusions: I. J $ K II. M @ R III. M % R

1) None is true 2) only I is true 3) only II is true

4) only either I or III is true 5) only III is true

7. Statements: D @ K, K % F, F © B

Conclusions: I. F $ D II. B @ K III. B % K

1) Only I is true 2) only II is true 3) only III is true

4) only either II or III is true 5) only either II or III & I is true

8. Statements: H * W, W @ N, N % R

Conclusions: I. R $ W II. N $ W III. H @ R

1) Only I and II are true 2) only II and III are true 3) only I and III are true

4) All I, II and III are True 5) None of these

9. Statements: Z % M, M * F, F $ D

Conclusions: I. F % Z II. F $ Z III. D @ Z

1) Only I is true 2) only either I or II is true 3) only II is true

4) only III is true 5) None of these

10. Statements: R $ B, B © N, N @ T

Conclusions: I. N @ R II. T $ B III. T $ R


4) only III is true 5) only I and II are true

11. Statements: W ©K, K $ R, R % N

Conclusions: I.N @ K II.R @ W III.W $ N

1) Only I and II are true 2) only either II or III is true

3) only II and III are true 4) only I and III are true

5) All I, II and III are true

Directions (12-18): In the following questions, the symbols $, %, @, ©, and * are used


'P % Q' 'means P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q'

'P $ Q' 'means P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q'



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'P © Q' 'means P is neither greater than nor equal to Q'

'P * Q' 'means P is not greater than Q'

'P @ Q' 'means P is not smaller than Q'


which of the three conclusions I II and III given below them is/are definitely true and

given your answer accordingly.

12. Statements: V © K, K @ B, B $ M

Conclusions: I. V © K II. M © K III. M © V


4) only III is true 5) only I and III are true

13. Statements:D * R, R % F, F $ T

Conclusions:I. F % D II. F $ D III. T © R

1) Only I is true 2) only II is true 3) only III is true

4) only either I or II is true 5) only either I or II & III are true

14. Statements: N @ D, D * K, K $ A

Conclusions: I. K @ N II. A © D III. N $ A


4) only III is true 5) only II and III is true

15. Statements: K @ T, T $ N, N © R

Conclusions: I. R $ Z II. N * K III. K $ N


4) only III is true 5) only II and III are true

16. Statements: W % K, K © F, D $ F

Conclusions: I. D $ K II. D $ W III. F @ W

1) only I and III are true 2) only I and II true 3) only II and III is true

4) All I, II and III are true 5) None of these

17. Statements: B * K, K © F, F % R

Conclusions: I. R $ K II. R $ B III. F $ B

1) Only I and II are true 2) only I and III are true

3) only II and III are true 4) All I, II and III are true 5) only I and II are true



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18. Statements: H $ M, M % D, D @ K

Conclusions: I. H $ D II. K * M III. K © H

1) Only II is true 2) only II and III are true 3) only I and III are true

4) Only I and II are true 5) All I, II and III are true

Directions (19-23): In the following questions, the symbols @, ©, $, %, and * are used


'P © Q' 'means P is not greater than Q'

'P % Q' 'means P is not smaller than Q'

'P * Q' 'means P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q'

'P @ Q' 'means P is neither greater than nor equal to Q'

'P $ Q' 'means P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q'


which of the three conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true and given

your answer accordingly.

19. Statements: K @ V © N, N % F

Conclusions: I. F @ V II. K @ N

1) if only conclusion I is true 2) if only conclusion II is true

3) if either conclusion I or II is true 4) if neither conclusion I nor II is true

5) if both conclusions I and II is true

20. Statements: H © W, W $ M, M @ B

Conclusions: I. B * H II. M % H




21. Statements: D % B, B * T, T $ M

Conclusions: I. T © D II. M © D






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22. Statements: M * T, T @ K, K © N

Conclusions: I. N * T II. N * M




23. Statements: R $ J, J % D, D * F

Conclusions: I. D $ R II. D @ R




Directions (24-26): In the following questions, the symbols @, $, #, * , and % are used


'A @ B' 'means A is smaller than B'

'A $ B' 'means A is greater than B'

'A # B' 'means A is either smaller than or equal to B'

'A * B' 'means A is either greater than or equal to B'

'A % B' 'means A is neither smaller than nor greater than B'


which of the three conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true and given

your answer accordingly.

24. Statements: H # T, T @ L, L % F

Conclusions: I. F $ H II. H # L




25. Statements:

V $ I, I * M, M # Q

Conclusions: I. I # Q II. I * Q






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26. Statements:

P @ W, W * D, D $ J

Conclusions: I. J @ P II. J @ W




Key

1) 2 2) 4 3) 5 4) 1 5) 5 6) 3 7) 5 8) 49) 2 10) 2 11) 5 12) 3 13) 5 14) 1 15) 4 16) 217) 4 18) 5 19) 2 20) 5 21) 4 22) 1 23) 3 24) 125) 3 26) 2





STATEMENT – ASSUMPTIONS

In each of the following questions a statement is followed by two

assumptions numbered 1 and 2. An assumption is something

that is supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the

statement and the following assumptions and decide which of

the assumptions is implicit in the statement.

Give answer (a) If only assumption 1 is implicit.

Give answer (b) If only assumption 2 is implicit.

Give answer (c) If either assumption1 or 2 is implicit.

Give answer (d) If neither assumption1 nor 2 is implicit.

Give answer (e) If both assumptions 1 and 2 are implicit.

1) Statement : Vitamin E tablets improve circulation, keep

your complexion in a glowing condition.

Assumptions : 1) People like a glowing complexion.

2) Complexion becomes dull in the absence of circulation.

Answer : e.

Explanation : Both assumptions are implicit. Generally, only those good features of a product are highlighted which people crave for. So, 1 is implicit. If circulation is improved, complexion grows. Hence, 2 is also implicit. Statement :

2) Statement : “The function will start at 6 pm.” You are

requested to take your seats before 6 pm.

Assumptions : 1) Function will start as scheduled.

2) If an invitee is not in his seat before 6 pm, the

function will not start.



Answer : a.

Explanation : It is mentioned in the invitation that you are requested

to take your seats

before 6 pm. It means that function will start as scheduled.

Hence, assumption 1 is implicit. It is not given that the function will not

start if invitees do not come in-time.

3) Statement : The X passenger car manufacturing company

announced a sharp reduction in the prices of their luxury cars.

Assumptions : 1) There may be an increase in the sale of their luxury

cars.

2) The other such car manufacturers may also reduce their

prices.

Answer : a.

Explanation : The price of any product is lowered assuming that its

demand will increase. Therefore, assumption 1 is implicit. There is no

information about the other manufacturers, so assumption 2 is not

implicit.

4) Statement : “if you want to give any advertisement, give it in

the newspaper A.” – X tells Y.

Assumptions : 1) Y wants to publicize his products.

2) Newspaper A has a wide circulation.

Answer : b.

Explanation : The word ‘If’ in the statement shows that Y may or may not

want to publicise his products. So, 1 is not implicit. X advised that

advertisements be given in newspaper A. This means that A will help

advertise better i.e. it has wider circulation. So, 2 is implicit.

5) statement : Patient’s condition would improve after this

operation.

Assumptions : 1) The patient can be operated upon in this condition.

2) The patient can’t be operated upon in this condition.

Answer : a



Explanation : It is very much implied in the statement that the patient is

in a position to be operated upon. Therefore, assumption 1 is implicit. But,

assumption 2 is not implicit as it is just opposite to assumption 1.

6) Statement : The government has decided to allow the

shopping complexes to remain open till midnight to reduce

crowding of shoppers in these complexes during the weekends.

Assumptions : 1) The sales of these shopping complexes may increase

generating revenue for the govt.

2) People may still prefer to shop during the weekends.

Answer : d.

Explanation : The objective of Govt. behind taking this decision is to

facilitate people to shop at their leisure times during the late evening hours

and not to increase its revenue. Hence, 1 is not implicit. No such

information like people are interested to shop during only weekends. So, 2

is also not implicit.

7) statement : The state government has decided to appoint

thousand primary school teachers during next financial year.

Assumptions : 1) There are enough schools in the state to accommodate

four thousand primary school teachers during the next financial year.

2) The eligible candidates may not be interested to apply as

the Govt. may not finally appoint such a large number of primary school

teachers.

Answer : a.

Explanation : As per the requirement of teachers in primary school only,

the Govt. may have taken such decision. So, 1 is implicit. Assumption 2 is

absurd as it is against the govt.’s decision.

8) Statement : Railway officials have started ten new trains and

increased the frequency of fourteen trains.

Assumptions : 1) The existing trains are not sufficient to provide

accommodation to all passengers.

2) The new and additional trains would have sufficient

passengers so that they will be economically viable.

Answer : e.



Explanation : Such decisions are always taken keeping in mind the public

requirements and their economic viability for the concerned department

i.e. railways. So, both 1 and 2 are implicit.

9) Statement : A advises B – ‘If you want to study English, join

institute ‘Y’.

Assumptions : 1) Institute ‘Y’ provides good coaching for English.

2) B listens to A’s advice.

Answer : e.

Explanation : Since A advises B to join institute ‘Y’ to study English,

hence it is assumed that institute ‘Y’ provides good coaching for English.

Secondly, it is also assumed that B listens to A’s advice as it is the objective

behind giving the advice.

10) Statement : In the recently imposed war, global public

opinion was dishonored by the economically strong and

scientifically advanced superpower. Assumptions : 1)

Superpowers need not take any heed of global public opinion.

2) Global public opinion should have been against the

imposition of war.

Answer : d .

Explanation : Dishonouring the global public opinion by the superpower

implies that the speaker must be assuming that global public opinion is

against the imposition of war. But note that 2 says “….should have been…”

hence, not implicit. 1 is not implicit either. It is, in fact, contrary to the

speaker’s assumption.

11) Statement : “Graduates with first-class are eligible to apply

for the admission to MBA courses in our institute.” – An

advertisement by a management institute.

Assumptions : 1) There are plenty of first class graduates who are likely

to apply for admission to MBA.

2) Only those who are first-class graduates can cope up with

the studies for MBA courses.



Answer : a.

Explanation : Assumption 1 is obvious; that is why graduates with first

class only are being considered eligible for the course. 2 is not implicit

because of the word ‘only’.

12) Statement : Traffic jams on most of the roads in the city have

become a regular feature during monsoon.

Assumptions : 1) Material used for road construction cannot withstand

the fury of monsoon resulting into innumerable potholes on the roads.

2) Number of vehicles coming on the roads is much more in

monsoon as compared to other seasons.

Answer : a

Explanation : The problem of traffic jams arises during monsoons not

because of increased number of vehicles but due to slow movement of

traffic on account of bad roads. We can not say directly that number of

vehicles is more in monsoon as compared to other seasons. So, only 1 is

implicit.

13) Statement : If you want to get a good job you must have at

least the basic knowledge of computers.

Assumptions : 1) Computer knowledge has been made an essential

criterion by most of the companies nowadays.

2) All good jobs involve use of computers.

Answer : a.

Explanation : Assumption 1 is implicit. It is this that makes the speaker

say ‘you must have at least the basic knowledge of computers. 2 is not

implicit because of the word ‘All’.

14) Statement : ‘Use ‘Fair and Lovely” fairness cream for fair

complexion.” – an advertisement.

Assumptions : 1) people respond to the advertisements.

2) People like to use cream for fair complexion.

Answer : e.

Explanation : Advertisement has been used assuming that product is

used by people for various uses. Secondly, advertisements are used for

publicity because people respond positively to the advertisements. Hence,

assumption 1 and 2 are implicit.



15) Statement : “This bridge was built at the cost of Rs. 128

crores and even civil bus service is not utilizing it, what a pity to

see it grossly underutilized.” – A citizen’s view on a new flyover

linking east and west sides of suburb.

Assumptions : 1) The building of such bridges does not serve any public

objective.

2) There has to be some accountability and utility of money

spent on public projects.

Answer : b.

Explanation : The citizen’s statement clearly expresses the grave concern

over a newly-built flyover not being utilized by public. This implies that

such projects need to be taken up only after working out their utility and

that the huge expenditure incurred on building such structures is

worthwhile only if they prove useful for the public. Thus, only 2 is implicit.



SAKSHI

Sitting arrangementDirections (1-5): study the following information to answer the given questions.

A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. No Two

males (or) two females are immediate neighbors of each other.

A is wife of H. A sits third to the left of E. F sits second to the right of D. D is not an

immediate neighbor of A or E. H and C are immediate neighbor of each other. F is not an

immediate neighbor of his Wife B.

1. Which of the following is true about G?

1) G is male 2) G sits exactly between Fand H

3) G sits third to the left of E 4) G sits second to the right of B 5) none.

2. Who sits third to the left of B?

1) F 2) H 3) D 4) A 5) None.

3.How many people sit between B&F when counted in anti-clockwise direction from B?

1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four 5) More than four.

4. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way so form a group. Which is the one

that does not belong to that group?

1) H 2) F 3) E 4) G 5) D

5. Which of the following groups consists of only female members of the group?

1) A,B,B 2) G,F,C 3) C,H,G 4) D,H,C 5) None.

Directions (6-10): A, M, D, P, R, T, B and H are sitting around a circle facing at the

centre. M is third to the left of A who is second to the left of T. D is second to the right of

H who is second to the right of T. R is second to the right of B. who is not an immediate

neighbor of T.

6. Which of the following combina-tions represents the First and the Second to the left of

B respectively?

1) MD 2) DH 3) AM 4) AR 5) None

7. Who is to be right of T?

1) D 2) B 3) H 4) M 5) None

8. Who is the immediate left of H?

1) P 2) M 3) T 4) R 5) Data inadequate

9. Who is second to the left of B?

1) D 2) H 3) M 4) Data inadequate 5) None

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10. In which of the following combinations the third person is second to the left of the

second person?

1) BAR 2) DBR 3) TPH 4) PMH 5) None.

Directions (11-15): Eight Friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle

facing the centre. E is to the third to the left of G who is to the immediate right of B who

is third to the left of A. H is second to the right of F who is not an immediate neighbor of

E. D is not an immediate neighbor of B.

11. Who is second to the right of B?

1) F 2) A 3) H 4) D 5) None.

12. Which of the following pairs has the first person to the immediate left of second

person?

1) GB 2) AF 3) CE 4) HD 5) None.

13. Which of the following is the correct position of B with respect to D?

1) Second to the right 2) second to the left

3) Third to the right 4) Third to the left 5) None.

14. Who sit between A and D?

1) F 2) E 3) G 4) B 5) None.

15. What is E's position with respect to 'C'?

1) To the immediate right 2) To the immediate left

3) Second to the right 4) Cannot be determine 5) None

Directions (16-20): P, Q, R, S, T, V, and W are seven members of a family each one of

them has a different profession. Doctor, Teacher, Lawyer, Engineer, Architect, Charted

Accountant and Banker and their incomes are different. There are two married couples in

the group. R is the Doctor and earns more than the Engineer and the Lawyer. T is married

to the Charted Accountant and she earns the least. No lady is either Lawyer or Engineer.

Q the Teacher earns less than P the banker. W is married to Q and he earns more than S

and P. V is not the Lawyer. The charted Accountant earns less than Lawyer but more than

the Banker.

16. Who earns the maximum in the family?

1) V 2) W 3) R 4) S 5) None.

17. Which of the following is a pair of married couple?

1) RT 2) VT 3) QT 4) ST 5) None.



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18. What is P's position from the top when they are arranged in ascending order of their

income?

1) Second 2) Fourth 3) Third 4) Sixth 5) None.

19. What is the profession of V?

1) Engineer 2) Charted Accountant 3) Both A& B 4) Data inadequate 5) None.

20. At least how many male members are there in the family?

1) Two 2) Three 3) Four 4) Five 5) None.

Directions (21-25): Read the follo-wing information and answer the given questions.

(IBPS 15-03-2011)

Four boys, Pawan, Mahesh, Chandu and Ravi, and four girls, Eti, Seema, Hina and

Anita are sitting around a circular table. Two girls and two boys are not facing the centre.

No three girls are sitting together. Chandu is second to the left of Seema, who is not sitting

next to Mahesh. Eti is third to the left of Anita and one of them is not facing the centre.

Pawan left of Anita and one of them is not facing the centre. Pawan is third to the right of

Mahesh, who is facing the centre. Hina and Ravi are facing each other and both are not

sitting next to Mahesh or Anita.

21. Who among the following is sitting between Mahesh and Ravi?

1) Pawan 2) Chandu 3) Hina 4) Anita 5) None.

22. How many boys are sitting between Seema and Eti?

1) Three 2) Two 3) One 4) can't be determine 5) None.

23. Who is sitting third to the left of Pawan?

1) Ravi 2) Mahesh 3) Hina 4) Eti 5) None.

24. Which of the following groups of four students are not facing the centre?

1) Chandu, Ravi, Seema, Pawan 2) Eti, Seema, Pawan, Ravi

3) Pawan, Seema, Eti, Chandu 4) Pawan, Chandu, Anita, Seema 5) None.

25. Who is sitting between Hina and Anita?

1) Eti 2) Pawan 3) Mahesh 4) Seema 5) None

Directions (26-30): Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in a circle not

necessarily in the same order. Four of them are facing outside four of them facing the

centre.

� E faces outside. Both the immediate Neighbors of E face the centre.

� H sits second to the right of E. B sits third to the left of E.



SAKSHI

� D faces the centre. Both the immediate Neighbors of D faces the out side.

� G sits the second to the left of A. B sits third to the right of H.

� F is an immediate Neighbor of D. C is an immediate neighbor of G.

26. Who amongst the following sits to the immediate right of H?

1) A 2) D 3) C 4) G 5) None.

27. Who amongst the following sits third to the right of A?

1) D 2) E 3) F 4) A 5) None.

28. If all the people are made to sit in Alphabetical order, in clockwise direction starting

from A, the position of them whom amongst the following remains the same (Excluding

A)?

1) E 2) F 3) C 4) G 5) None.

29. Who amongst the following sits exactly between F and C (and also their neighbor)?

1) E 2) B 3) G 4) A 5) None.

30. How many people are sitting between A and C (counting clock wise from A)?

1) Two 2) Four 3) None 4) One 5) Three

Directions (31-35): A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are Eight friends Travelling in three

different cars viz. X, Y and Z with at least two in one car to three different places, viz.

Delhi, Chand-igarh and Agra .

There is at least one female member of each car. D is travelling with G to Delhi but not

a car Y. A is travelling with only H in car Z but not to Chandigarh. C is not travelling with

either D or E. F and D is studying in the same only girl's college. H, B and G are studying

in the same only boys college.

31. Which of the following repres-ents the group of females among them?

1) F, C, A 2) F, G, A 3) D, C, A 4) Data inadequate 5) None.

32. Which of the following combin-ations is correct?

1) Delhi-X-C 2) Chandigarh-X-F 3) Agra-Z-E 4) Delhi-Y-E 5) None.

33. In which car are four of them travelling?

1) X or Z 2) Y 3) X or Y 4) Z 5) None.

34. In which of the following cars is 'C' Travelling?

1) X 2) Y 3) Z 4) either X or Y 5) None.

35. Passengers in which car are travelling to Chandigarh?

1) Y 2) X 3) Either X or Y 4) Data inadequate 5) None.



SAKSHI

DIRECTIONS (36-39): A, B, C, D, E and F are six boys each belonging to a different

city, via Delhi, Agra, Kanpur, Lucknow, Pilibhit and Jaipur, not necessarily in the same

order. Each of them got selected in a different bank, via Canara Bank, Syndicate Bank,

UCO Bank, Vijaya Bank, Dena Bank and Central Bank, not necessarily in the same order.

B belongs to Jaipur but did not get selected in either Dena Bank or Canara Bank.

D doesn't belong either to Delhi or to Lucknow but got selected in Syndicate Bank.

The one who got selected in Dena Bank doesn't belong to Jaipur. The one who got

selected in Central Bank belongs to Lucknow. F did not get selected in Dena Bank. Either

C or F got selected in UCO Bank but neither of them belongs to Pilibhit or Lucknow. A

belongs to Kanpur and he got selected in either Canara Bank or UCO Bank. F doesn't

belong to Delhi.

36. Who among the following belongs to Pilibhit?

1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) Can't be determine

37. Who among the following got selected in Dena Bank?

1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) Can't be determine

38. The one who got selected in Vijaya Bank belong to which of the following cities?

1) Delhi 2) Jaipur 3) Pilibhit 4) Agra 5) None.

39. The one who belongs to Agra got selected in which of the follo-wing banks?

1) UCO Bank 2) Dena Bank 3) Either UCO Bank or Dena Bank

4) Vijaya Bank 5) None

Key

1) 4 2) 2 3) 2 4) 4 5) 5 6) 5 7) 4 8) 1

9) 3 10) 2 11) 1 12) 4 13) 3 14) 5 15) 2 16) 3

17) 4 18) 5 19) 1 20) 5 21) 2 22) 4 23) 1 24) 3

25) 2 26) 4 27) 3 28) 2 29) 2 30) 2 31) 4 32) 5

33) 5 34) 2 35) 1 36) 4 37) 3 38) 2 39) 1





SEATING ARRANGEMENT Directions ( 1 – 5 ) : Study the following information to answer the given questions : M, N, O, P, Q and R seated in a circle facing the centre. M and O are seated adjacent to each other and Q and N are also adjacent to each other. N is to the immediate left of R. There are 2 persons between P and Q. M is not seated adjacent to Q. 1) Who is to the immediate left of Q? a) O b) N c) R d) cannot be determined e) None of these 2) How many persons are seated between R and Q if we go anti clock wise from R to Q? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) cannot be determined e) None of these Directions ( 3 – 5 ) : Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their seating positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group? 3) a) OR b) RO c) NM d) NP e) PQ 4) a) PM b) MR c) OQ d) QN e) MO 5) a) NQO b) OMP c) RPM d) PRN e) MPR Explanation : N is to the immediate left of R ─>

Q and N are adjacent to each other ─>



There are 2 persons between P and Q ─>

M and O are seated adjacent to each other and M is not seated adjacent to Q ─>

Answers : 1) a) O. 2) c) 3. 3) d) NP. In the pairs OR, RO, NM and PQ, the persons in the pairs are opposite to each other except the pair NP. 4) b) MR. In all pairs except MR the first person is immediate left of second person whereas in MR first person ( M ) is second right of the second person (R). 5) c) RPM. In all groups except RPM, the persons in the groups are in clockwise direction from left to right while in RPM the persons are in anti clock wise direction from left to right.



Directions ( 6 – 10 ) : Study the following information to answer the given questions : Q, R, S, T, U and V are seated in a straight line facing North. S is second to the right of T and T is second to the right of Q. R is to the left of Q and is second to the left of V. 6) If S : T and T : Q , then U : a) T b) Q c) R d) V e) S 7) What is Q’s position with respect to S? a) Second to left b) Third to left c) Fifth to left d) Immediate next e) None of these 8) How many persons are seated between T and V? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 e) None of these 9) Which of the following represents persons seated at the two extremes? a) SQ b) US c) SR d) RQ e) None of these 10) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their seating positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group? a) UT b) VT c) US d) QV e) RQ Explantion : 6 persons are seated in a straight line facing North ─>

R is left of Q, T is second right of Q and S is second right of T ─>

R is second to the left of V and the only person left ( U) comes between T and S as it is the only place left ─>



Answers : 6) d) V. S is second to the right of T, T is second to the right of Q in the same way U is second to the right of V. 7) e) None of these ( fourth left ). 8) e) None of these (None is there between T and V ). 9) c) SR. 10) a) UT. In all pairs except UT, the first person is sitting immediate left of second person whereas in UT the first person ( U ) sitting immediate right of second person ( T ). Directions ( 11 – 15 ) : Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions. Eight friends M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T are sitting around a circular table in such a way that no adjacent persons face the centre. Four of them are facing the centre, while the rest are facing outward. M, who faces the centre, sits third to the right of R. Q, who faces the centre, is not an immediate neighbor of R. P sits opposite M. Only one person sits between R and S. P sits second to the right of N. O is not an immediate neighbor of M. 11) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? a) O b) S c) R d) P e) T 12) Who sits second to the left of N? a) Q b) M c) P d) T e) None of these 13) What is the position of Q with respect to R? a) Fourth to the left b) Second to the right c) Third to the left d) Third to the right e) None of these



14) Which of the following is not true regarding O? a) O faces the centre b) O sits exactly between Q and P c) O is an immediate neighbor of R d) N is 3rd to the left of O e) None of these 15) Which of the following will come in place of the question mark in the series based upon the given arrangement? SM QO NS OP ? a) TQ b) RT c) RN d) MT e) None of these Explanation : 8 persons sitting around a circular table in such a way that no adjacent persons face the centre ─>

M, who faces the centre, sits third to the right of R ─>

Q, who faces the centre, is not an immediate neighbour of R ─>



P sits opposite M ─>

P is second to the right of N ─>

O is not an immediate neighbour of M and Only one person sits between R and S ─>



Answers : 11) d) P. All persons except P are facing the centre. 12) b) M. 13) c) Third to the left. 14) c) O is an immediate neighbour of R. 15) a) TQ. In all pairs first person is immediate right of second person and there is one person between First pair (SM) and second pair (QO), two persons between second pair (QO) and third pair ( NS) and three persons between third pair (NS) and fourth pair (OP). So, there must be four persons between fourth pair (OP) and the answer pair ( TQ).



Non verbal SeriesThe best way solve the reasoning easily and quickly is practice. Practice makes a

person perfect and intelligent. Practice more and more then see it becomes easy for you

and you solve it magically. Build your mentality and will power strong. Solve all the

previous year's papers of verbal and non-verbal reasoning.

Non-verbal reasoning involves the ability to understand and analyse visual

information and solve problems using visual reasoning.

Analyses and solve complex problems without relying upon or being limited by language

skills

Directions:

Each of the following questions consists of five figures marked A, B, C, D and E called

the Problem Figures followed by five other figures marked 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 called the

Answer Figures. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the

same series as established by the five Problem Figures.

Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series as

established by the five Problem Figures.

1. Problem Figures:

Answer Figures:

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

Ans: 1. One, two, three, one, two, three.....arcs get inverted sequentially. This inversion

takes place in an ACW direction.

2. Problem Figures:

Answer Figures:

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

Ans: 5 In the first step, the lower-most line segment is converted into a curve. In the

second step, the second line segment also gets converted into a curve and the (existing

curve is inverted. In each subsequent step, all the elements (line segments and curves)

move in the sequence

3. Problem Figures:

Answer Figures:

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

Ans: 3 The pin rotates 45oCW and 90oCW alternately and moves one space (each space

is equal to half-a-side of the square) and two spaces CW alternately. The arrow rotates

90oACW and 45oACW alternately and moves two spaces and one space.

4. Problem Figures:

Answer Figures:

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

Ans: 5 In the first step, the ACW end element moves two spaces (each space is equal to

half-a-side of the square boundary) in an ACW direction. In the second step, the CW-

end element moves three spaces ACW. In the third step, the remaining element moves

four spaces ACW. The three steps are repeated to continue the series.

5. Problem Figures:

Answer Figures:

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

Ans: 3 We can label the arcs as shown. The arcs get inverted in the sequence (1 & 2), (3,

4 & 5), (6 & 1), (2, 3 & 4), (5 & 6),...........



6. Problem Figures:

Answer Figures:

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

Ans: 2 In each step, one of the elements gets laterally inverted.

7. Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

Ans: 3 The number of symbols added sequentially is 3, 2, 5, 2, 7, 2, .... These symbols are

added to form a sequence of 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 identical symbols.


(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

Ans: 1. The symbol gets vertically inverted and laterally inverted alternately. It also

moves in ACW direction through distances equal to two half-sides (of square boundary)

and three half-sides alternately.


(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) Ans: 3


(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)



Ans: 5 In one step, the two elements interchange positions and the smaller element gets

enlarged while the larger element gets reduced in size. In the next step, the smaller

element is replaced by a new small element and the larger element is replaced by a new

large element.


(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

Ans: 4 In each step, the CW-end element moves to the ACW-end position.


1 2 3 4 5

Ans: 2 The black dot moves up to down


Ans: 1 Each step one circle is removing


1 2 3 4 5

Ans: 3 The black dot moves clock wise directions

15.Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

1 2 3 4 5

Ans: 3 A cross line is gradually increased to circle. Last step it will become circle.




1 2 3 4 5

Ans: 4 In one step, one of the line segments rotates 45° CW and in the next step, one of

the line segments rotates 45°ACW. The lines get rotated in the sequence.


1 2 3 4 5

Ans: 3 Each step a particular figure reappears, it rotates 1350 anti clock wise direction

and the shading moves one space ahead.


1 2 3 4 5

Ans: 2 In each step one of the elements gets laterally inverted


1 2 3 4 5

Ans: 5. In each step, all the existing elements move to the adjacent side in a clock wise

direction. The number of block circles decreases by one in first, third, fifth steps and the

number of arrows increases by one in second, fourth and sixth steps.


1 2 3 4 5

Ans: 4. A new feature is added at each stem (in a set order)





SAKSHI

INPUT-OUTPUT PROBLEMS

Directions (1-5): Study the follo-wing information to answer the given Questions.

A words and Numbers Arrang-ement machine when given an input line of words

rearranges from the following a particular rule, the following is an illustration of input and

rearrangement.

Input: age road own wire tire ink pen uni dice eat

Step-1: uni age road own wire tire ink pen eat dice

Step-2: uni own age road wire tire ink eat pen dice

Step -3: uni own ink age wire tire eat road pen dice

Step-4: uni own ink eat age wire tire road pen dice

And step four is last step on the rearrangement as, per the rulers followed in the above

steps; find out in each of the following Questions the appropriate steps for the given input.

Input: gem stat ace cast omit fan rate uncut era input

1. Which of the following would be the final arrangement?

a) Cast gem fan stat uncut omit input era ace

b) Uncut omit input era ace cast fan gem rate stat

c) Uncut omit input era ace cast stat rate gem fan cast

d) Uncut omit input era ace stat fan gem rate cast e) None

2. In step-3, which of the following word would be at 6 th position from the left?

a) Rate b) ace c) stat d) gem e) None

3. Which step number would be the following output?

Uncut omit gem stat ace rate era input fan cast

a) 2 b) 3 c) 5 d) 4 e) None

4. Instep-4 of the rearrangement, if omit is related to era and rate is related to fan in a

certain way, to which of the following would ace be related to, following the same

pattern?

a) rate b) input c) stat d) gem e) None

SAKSHI

5. Which of the following would be step-7?

a) uncut omit input era ace stat rate gem fan cast

b) uncut omit input era ace rate stat fan gem cast

c) uncut omit input era ace cast fan gem rate stat

d) uncut omit input era stat ace rate gem fan cast

e) There will be no such step as the input gets rearranged before step-7.

Directions (6-10): Study the following information to answer the given Questions.

A words and Numbers Arrang-ement machine when given an input line of words

rearranges from the following a particular rule, the following is an illustration of input and

rearrangement.

Input: 52 peak 91 snow freeze 46 cold 15 high 31 73 trek

Step-1: 15 52 peak snow freeze 46 cold high 31 73 trek 91

Step-2: 15 31 52 peak snow freeze 46 cold high trek 73 91

Step-3: 15 31 46 peak snow freeze cold high trek 52 73 91

Step-4: 15 31 46 cold peak snow freeze high trek 52 73 91

Step-5: 15 31 46 cold freeze peak snow high trek 52 73 91

Step-6: 15 31 46 cold freeze high peak snow trek 52 73 91

Step-6 is the last of the rearrang-ement. As per the rules followed in the above steps,

find out in each of the following Questions the appropriate steps for the given input.

Input: 67 hot sun 19 best 83 ice 49 ace 77 cut 37

6. How many steps would be need-ed to complete the arrangement?

a) 10 b) 8 c) 9 d) 7 e) None


19 37 49 ace best hot sun ice cut 67 77 83

a) 2 b) 6 c) 5 d) 4 e) None

8. Which of the following would be step-1?

a) 19 37 49 hot sun best ice ace cut 67 77 83

b) 83 67 hot sun best ice 49 ace 77 cut 37 19

c) 19 67 ace best hot sun ice 49 77 cut 37 83

d) 19 67 hot sun best ice 49 ace 77 cut 37 83 e) None of these



SAKSHI

9. Which of the following would be the final arrangement?

a) 67 77 83 ace best cut hot ice sun 19 37 49

b) 19 37 49 ace best cut hot ice sun 67 77 83

c) 19 37 49 67 77 83 ace best cut hot ice sun

d) 19 37 49 ace ice best cut hot sun 67 77 83 e) None of these

10. In step-4, which of the following word/Number would be on 7th position (from the

right)

a) sun b) best c) 67 d) cut e) None

Directions (11-15): Study the follo-wing information to answer the given Questions.

A words and Numbers Arrangement machine when given an input line of words and

numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an

illustration of input and rearrangement.

Input: base 35 or gone 62 49 87 ahead

Step-1: 87 base 35 or gone 62 49 ahead

Step-2: 87 ahead base 35 or gone 62 49

Step-3: 87 ahead 62 base 35 or gone 49

Step-4: 87 ahead 62 base 49 35 or gone

Step-5: 87 ahead 62 base 49 gone 35 or

And step-5 is the last step of the following rearrangement.

11. Input: how was your stay 56 25 36 64

Which of the following will be step-6?

a) 64 how 56 was your stay 25 36 b) 64 how 56 stay 36 was 25 your

c) 64 how 56 stay 36 was your 25 d) There will be no such step

e) None of these

12. Input: power fail now 52 24 75 gate 34

Which of the following steps will be the last but one?

a) 4 b) 5 c) 6 d) 7 e) None

13. step-3 of an input is 91 car 85 14 27 few new house

Which of the following is definitely the input?

a) 85 14 91 car few new house b) Car 91 85 14 27 few new house

c) Car 85 14 27 few new house 91 d) Cannot be determine e)None of these



SAKSHI

14. step-2 of an input is 75 down 16 24 farm eager 62 sky

How many more steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?

a) 4 b) 5 c) 6 d) 7 e) None

15. Input: 14 35 when they came 61 48 home

How many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?

a) Four b) Five c) Six d) Seven e) None.

Directions (16-20): A letter/letter combination arrangement machine when given an input

of letters/letter combinations rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The

following is an illustration of the Input and the steps of rearrangement

Input: choose not for paper te book sir

Step-1: paper choose not for te book sir

Step-2: paper choose book not for te sir

Step-3: paper choose book not for sir te

(Step-3 is the last step for this input)

As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in the given questions the

appropriate step for the given Input

16. Input: the in car as he may me

Which of the following will be the third step for this Input?

a) Car the in as he may me

b) Car may the as in he me

c) Car as may he the in me

d) Car may the in as he me

e) None of these

17. If the second step of an Input is 'clever remand window sales batch tiger never 'which

of the following steps would be last step of that Input?

a) IV b) V c) VI d) VII e) None of these

18. If the Input is 'true se veto be nuke may like 'which of the following will be the IV

step?

a) Veto true nuke like se be my b) be my se like true veto nuke

c) Like nuke true veto be se my d) Be my like se true veto nuke

e) None of these



SAKSHI

19. Input: 'more fights cats cough sough acts idea ' which of the following steps would be

the last step for this Input?

a) IV b) V c) VI d) VII e)None

20. In how many steps the following Input be fully arranged?

INPUT: amis goes to the bar after dinner everyday

a) Four b) Five c) Six d) Seven e) None of these

Directions (21-24): A words and Numbers Arrangement machine when given an input

line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The

following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.

Input: BOOK 96 23 Money 48 will 37 our 62 Eat

Step -1: 23 Book 96 Money 48 will 37 our 62 Eat

Step-2: 23 37 Book 96 Money 48 will our 62 Eat

Step -3: 23 37 96 Book Money 48 will our 62 Eat

Step-4: 23 37 96 62 Book Money 48 will our Eat

Step-5: 23 37 96 62 48 Book Money will our Eat

Step-6: 23 37 96 62 48 Money Book will our Eat

Step-7: 23 37 96 62 48 Money our Book will Eat

Step-8: 23 37 96 62 48 Money our Eat Book will

Step-9: 23 37 96 62 48 Money Our eat will Book

Step 9 is the last step of the rearrangement

As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following Questions

the appropriate step for the Input given below

INPUT: word 24 purchase 17 51 42 running hot 68 33 earn

21. Which of the following would be the last step of the arrangement?

a) VII b) VIII c) IX d) X e) None

22. In step IV, which of the following Numbers/words would be at 7th position from the

left?

a) 24 b) word c) 42 d) purchase e) None



SAKSHI


17 33 51 68 42 24 purchase word running hot earn

a) VI b) VII c) V d) VIII e)None

24. In step VI of the rearrangement, if '68' is related to 'running' in a certain way, which

of the following would '42' be related to, following the same pattern?

a) Purchase b) 51 c) running d) hot e) None

Key

1) c 2) a 3) a 4) d 5) e 6) d 7) c 8) d

9) b 10) a 11) d 12) c 13) d 14) a 15) c 16) b

17) a 18 ) c 19) c 20) b 21) c 22) d 23) b 24) d





Data sufficiency

Directions ( 1 – 15 ) : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II are given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both statements and Give answer A) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question. Give answer B) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question. Give answer C) If the data in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. Give answer D) If the data in both the statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question. Give answer E) if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question. 1) Who among P, Q, R, S, T, V and W is the shortest? I. S is taller than T, P and W and is not the tallest. II. T is shorter than Q but is not the shortest. Answer : D. Explanation : From statement I —> S > T, P and W. S is not the tallest. So, Q or R or V is the tallest. And the shortest may be T or P or W. From statement II —> T < Q, but not the shortest. So, the shortest may be P or W or S or R or V. From both the statements —> The shortest may be T or P or W. So, we can not decide who is the shortest. 2) What is Mrudula’s rank from top in a class of twenty students? I. Radhika is fifth from the top and two ranks above Mrudula. II. Amol is tenth from the bottom and three ranks below Mrudula. Answer : C. Explanation : From statement I —> Mrudula’s rank from the top = 7th ( 5 + 2 ). So, the given data is sufficient to answer the question.



From statement II —> Mrudula’s rank from the top = Amol’s rank from the top ( 11th ) – 3 = 8th (Amol’s rank from the bottom —> 10th , and 10 students are there above Amol. So, his rank is 11th from the top.) Second statement alone is also sufficient to answer the question. 3) What is T’s position with respect of W when T, W, R, J and M are sitting around a circle facing the centre? I. R is second to the left of M and second to the right of W. II. J is not an immediate neighbour of M. Answer : E. Explanation : From statement I ─>

From statement I & II ─>

Hence, from both the statements we can say T is second to the left or third to the right of W. 4) Who among P, Q, R, S and T is the shortest? I. R, though not the shortest, is shorter than only Q. II. S, though not as tall as P, is not the shortest.



Answer : E. Explanation: From statement I ─> Q > R > _ > _ > _. ( R is shorter than only Q means only Q is taller R and P, S & T are shorter than R.) From statement II ─> P > S > _ > _ > _ or _ > P > S > _ > _ or _ > _ > P > S > _ . From both the statements I & II ─> Q > R > P > S > _. ─> Q > R > P > S > T. So, T is the shortest. 5) Who among M, N, O, P and Q is the youngest? I. N, the second youngest, is younger than Q, O and M. II. O, the second oldest, is older than N. Answer : A. Explanation : From statement I ─> Q, O and M are older than N and N is the second youngest. So, the other person P is the youngest. The order may be Q > O > M > N > P. From statement II ─> _ > O > N > _ > _. So, there is no clue about the youngest. 6) What does ‘pe’ mean in a code language? I. ‘Na si la lo’ means ‘you may go now’ and ‘ne si na pe’ means ‘he may go there’ in that code language. II. ‘Ki se pe bo’ means ‘come there and see’ and ‘se ni bo ki’ means ‘come here and see’ in that code language. Answer: B. Explanation : From statement I na si la lo ─> you may go now ne si na pe ─> he may go there na si = may go ne pe = he there. So, pe = he or there. From statement II Ki se pe bo ─> come there and see se ni bo ki ─> come here and see ki se bo = come and see So, pe = there. 7) How many siblings does Rukmini have? I. Rukmini has only one brother. II. Rukmini is the only daughter of her parents.



Answer : C. Explanation : “Rukmini has only one brother” means Rukmini has only one sibling. So, we can answer the question by using statement I. “Rukmini is the only daughter of her parents” means Rukmini has no sibling. So, we can answer the question by using statement II also. 8) B is brother of A . How is A related to M? I. M has two sons and one daughter. II. M has three children, out of which one is B. Answer : D. Explanation : From both I and II , M is a parent , he or she has 3 children, among them B is a brother of A. Here, gender of A is not given. So, A is either son or daughter to M. Both data are not sufficient to answer the question. 9) What does ‘ta’ mean in a code language? I. ‘pa ta ja’ means ‘over and above’ in that code language. II. ‘ho ka pa’ means ‘come over here’ in that code language. Answer : D. Explanation : From explanation I and II ─> pa ta ja ─> over and above ho ka pa ─> come over here ‘pa’ means ‘over’ and ta means ‘and’ or ‘above’. So, we can not answer the question by using both statements. 10) Pole X is in which direction with respect to pole Y? I. Pole H is to the north-east of pole X and to the north of pole Y. II. Pole R is to the east of pole X and to the north of pole Y. Answer : B. Explanation : Base diagram



Statement I ─>

So, We can not decide the direction of X with respect of Y. Statement II ─>

So, we can decide the direction of X with respect of Y by using the statement II.



CODING – DECODING

1) In a certain code, DEEP is written as 60 and HAIR is written as 72. How is RABIT written in that code? a) 90 b) 100 c) 110 d) 98 e) None of these Answer : b) 100. Explanation : A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 DEEP ─> 4 + 5 + 5 + 16 ─> 30 × 2 = 60. HAIR ─> 8 + 1 + 9 + 18 ─> 36 × 2 = 72 RABIT ─> 18 + 1 + 2 + 9 + 20 = 50 × 2 = 100. 2) In a certain code, GUEST is written as 53@$2 and MEAN is written as 6@4#. How is SAME written in that code? a) $36@ b) $46@ c) 5$6@ d) 4$6@ e) $46# Answer : b) $46@ . Explanation :

So, 3) In a certain code SHOULDER is written as VPITQDCK. How is MORNINGS written in that code? a) OSPNHMFR b) NPSORFMH c) OSPNSFEM d) OSPNRFMH e) None of these Answer : d) OSPNRFMH . Explanation : ‘SHOULDER’ is divided into 2 parts ‘SHOU’ and ‘LDER’ and they are written in reverse order and then the letters next to the letters in the first part are written the letters preceding to the letters in the second part are written.



4) In a certain code language ‘over and above’ is written as ‘da pa ta’ and ‘old and beautiful’ is written as ‘sa na pa’. How is ‘over’ written in that code language? a) ta b) da c) na d) da or ta e) None of these Answer : d) da or ta . Explanation : over and above ─> da pa ta ( the codes are given randomly ) old and beautiful ─> sa na pa In the given two statements the word ‘and’ is repeated, so the one code word must be repeated in the given code words. Hence, ‘pa’ means ‘and’. The code for ‘over’ may be either ‘da’ or ‘ta’. 5) In a certain code ‘DONE’ is written as ‘5139’ and ‘SEAL’ is written as ‘8942’. How is ‘LOAD’ written in that code? a) 2145 b) 2415 c) 2182 d) 2945 e) None of these Answer : a) 2145 . Explanation :

, So, 6) In a certain code, LAWN is written as JCUP. How will SLIT be coded in that code? a) QJGV b) QNVG c) QNGV d) NJVG e) NJGV Answer : c) QNGV . Explanation :



So, 7) In a certain code language COMBINE is written as XLNYRMV. How will TOWARDS be written in that code language? a) FLDZIWJ b) GLDZIWH c) GLEZJWH d) FLEZIWH e) None of these Answer : b) GLDZIWH . Explanation : Complementary pairs are given. ‘C’ is third element in ‘A – Z’ and ‘X’ is also third element in ‘Z – A’, ‘O’ is 12th in ‘Z – A’ and ‘L’ is 12th in ‘A – Z’ and so on.

So, 8) In a certain code language letters immediate next to vowels are replaced with D, all other consonants with preceding letters and the vowels are replaced with Z. How will the word STANDING be written in that code language? a) RSZMCZMF b) TSZMCZFM c) RSZMCZDF d) TUZOCZFM e) None of these Answer : a) RSZMCZMF . Explanation : vowels ─> A E I O U letters immediate to vowels ─> B F J P V . And these letters should be replaced with D in the given word ‘STANDING’. But there is no such letter in the given word. Consonants in ‘STANDING’ ─> STNDG Preceding letters to STNDG ─> RSMCF Vowels in ‘STANDING’ ─> A I ( We have to write Z in the place of these vowels) So, the new code word for ‘STANDING’ is ─> ‘RSZMCZMF’ 9) In a certain code language ‘la ke ta’ means ‘go and swim’ and ‘ne la se’ means ‘you swim here’ and ‘pe ke ne ta’ means ‘he and you go’. Which of the following is the code for ‘here’ in that code language? a) la b) ne c) la or se d) can not be determined e) None of these



Answer : e) None of these ( se) . Explanation : la ke ta ─> go and swim (1) ne la se ─> you swim here (2) pe ke ne ta ─> he and you go (3) The word that is repeated in (1) and (2) is ‘swim’ and its code word is ‘la’. The word that is repeated in (2) and (3) is ‘you’ and its code word is ‘ne’ So, the code word for ‘here’ is ‘se’. 10) If ‘green’ is called ‘white’, ‘white’ is called ‘yellow’, ‘yellow’ is called ‘blue’, ‘blue’ is called ‘pink’ and ‘pink’ is called ‘black’, then what is the colour of sky? a) pink b) blue c) green d) white e) yellow Answer : a) pink . Explanation : The colour of the sky is blue. In our code language, ‘blue’ is called ‘pink. So, in new code, the colour of the sky is ‘pink’. irections ( Q. 11 – 17 ) : In each question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of digits/symbols coded (a), (b), (c) and (d). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters based on the following digit/symbol code of each letter and the conditions that follow and mark the number of that combination as your answer. If none of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters, give (e), ie ‘None of these’, as your answer. Letter

P M E K R A T W I J U B F H N

Digit/Symbol 5 6 # 2 $ 8

% 1 ©

7 @

9 3 4 *

Conditions : (i) If both the first and the last letters in the group are vowels, both are not to be coded as the code for the last letter. (ii) If both the first and the last letters in the group are consonants, both are to be coded as the code for the first letter. (iii) If the first letter in the group is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel codes for the first and the last letters are to be interchanged. 11) TMWEIKB a) %61#©2% b) %61#©29 c) 961#©29 d) 961#©2% e) None of these 12) AHNRMUF



a) 84*$6@8 b) 34*$6@3 c) 84*$6@3 d) 34*$6@8 e) None of these 13) BNAWJPI a) 9*8175© b) ©*18759 c) *8175© d) ©*81759 e) None of these 14) EPMNJKA a) #56*728 b) 856*728 c) #56*72# d) 85672*8 e) None of these 15) JBRWIAH a) 79$1©84 b) 49$1©84 c) 49$1©87 d) 791$8©7 e) None of these 16) ITUHKRP a) ©%@42$5 b) ©%@42$© c) 5%@42$5 d) 5%@42$© e) None of these 17) NKBUFHI a) *29@34© b) *29@34* c) ©23@94* d) ©29@34* e) None of these 11) Answer : a) %61#©2% . Explanation : Both the first and the last letters are consonants here. So, the second condition is applicable. Code for ‘T’ i.e. ‘%’ will be written in the places of ‘T’ and ‘B’. For remaining, we have to follow the table. 12) Answer : c) 84*$6@3 . Explanation : First letter is a vowel and last letter is a consonant. So, no condition is applicable. 13) Answer : d) ©*81759 . Explanation : First letter is the consonant and the last is a vowel. So, the third condition is applicable. The codes for the first and the last letters are ‘9’ and ‘©’. And these are to be interchanged. 14) Answer : c) #56*72# . Explanation : Both first and last letters are vowels. So, the first condition is applicable. Both are not to be coded as ‘8’ ( code for ‘A’ ). 15) Answer : d) 791$8©7 . Explanation : Both are consonants. So, the second condition is applicable. Code for ‘J’ i.e. ‘7’ will be written in the places of ‘J’ and ‘H’. 16) Answer : a) ©%@42$5 .



Answer : First is a vowel and last is a consonant. So, no condition is applicable here. We have to follow the table. 17) Answer : d) ©29@34* . Explanation : First letter is a consonant and last letter is a vowel. So, the last condition is applicable. The codes for the first and the last letters are ‘*’ and ‘©’. And there are to be interchanged.



SAKSHI

Coding and Decoding

Directions (1-5): In each of these Questions a group of letters is given followed by four

combinations of number/ symbol numbered (1), (2), (3), (4). Letters are to be coded as per

the scheme and conditions given below. You have to find out the serial number of the

combinations, which represents the letter group serial number of that combination is your

answer. If none of the combinations is correct, your answer is (5) i.e., none of these.

Conditions:

i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last a vowel, both are to be coded as for the

vowel.

ii) If the first letter is a vowel and the last a constant, both are to be coded as for the two

are to be interchanged

iii) If both, the first and the last letters are consonants, both are to be coded as ∂.

iv) If there are more than two vowels in the group of letters of the letters all vowels are to

be coded as §

1. IQCPWF

1) 9*6#78 2) 9*6#79 3) ∂*6#7∂ 4) 8*6#79 5) None

2. KAWIPL

1) 2379#4 2) ∂379#∂ 3) 4379#2 4) 2379#2 5) None

3. IKBQFA

1) 92$8*3 2) 923$*8 3) 92*838 4) §2$8*§ 5) None

4. IBTNAE

1) §$@©§§ 2) $9@©35 3) $@9©35 4)§@$©§§ 5) None

5. TCKAPE

1) @623#@ 2) @623#5 3) 5623#5 4) 5623#@ 5) None

Directions(6-10): In each question below is given a group of letters followed by four

combinations of digits/symbols numbered (1),(2),(3) and (4). You have to find out which

of the combinations correctly repres-ents the group of letters based on the following

coding system and the conditions and mark the number of that combinations as that as

your ans-wer. If none of the four combinations correctly represents the group of letters,

give (5). i.e. none of these as the answer.

SAKSHI

CONDITIONS:

i) If the First letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, their codes are to be

interchanged.

ii) If both the First and last letters are vowels, both are to be coded as *.

iii) If the First letter is a vowel and the last letter is consonant. Both are to be coded as the

code for the consonant.

6. TUKDIP

1) 1©4627 2) 1©4621 3) 7©4621 4) 1©6427 5) None

7. EFDMKA

1) $%6548 2) $%654$ 3) *%654* 4) 8%6548 5) None

8. APWTUH

1) *7@1©* 2) 87@1©3 3) 37@1©8 4) 87@1©8 5) None

9. MARTWE

1) 58#1@$ 2) 58#1@5 3) $8#1@5 4) $8#1@5 5) None

10. HEMKZI

1) 2$5493 2) 3#5492 3) 3$5493 4) 2$5492 5) None

Directions (11-15): In a certain code

'a friend of mine 'is written as '4 9 1 6 '

'mine lots of metal' is written as '3 1 0 9 ' and

'a piece of metal 'is written as '7 1 6 3 '?

11.What is the code for 'piece '?

1) 3 2) 2 3) 1 4) 7 5) None.

12. What does '9' stands for?

1) Of 2) mine 3) friend 4) lots 5) metal

13. Which of the following may represent 'a pleasure of mine'?

1) 6 3 0 9 2) 5 2 1 6 3) 9 2 1 6 4) 3 6 9 4 5) 5 0 4 1

14. What does '0' stands for?

1) Mine 2) metal 3) of 4) lots 5) a

15. '873' would mean?

1) a metal piece 2) metal for friend 3) piece of advice

4) Friend of mine 5) large metal piece.



SAKSHI

Directions (16-20): In a certain code

'ze lo ka gi' is code for 'must save some money'

'fe ka so ni' is a code for 'he made good money'

'ni to da so' is a code for 'he must be good'

And 'we so ze da' is a code for 'be good save grace'

16. Which of the following is the code of 'must'?

1) so 2) da 3) lo 4) ni 5) None.

17. What does the code 'ze stand for'?

1) Some 2) must 3) be 4) grace 5) None.

18. Which of the following is the code of "good"?

1) so 2) we 3) ze 4) lo 5) fe.

19. 'grace' of money' may be coded as?

1) ka da fe 2) we ka so 3) ja da we 4) ka we yo 5) ja ka ze

20. Which of the following is the code of 'gi'?

1) must 2) some 3) be 4) grace 5) None

Directions (21-25): study the following information to answer the given questions.

(IBPS POs-2011)

In a certain code language,

'summer is not pleasant always' is written as 'mo ra tic su na'

'pleasant season is spring' is written as 'dic ra nic mo'

'always likes spring' is written as 'phi su nic' And

'hot summer season' is written as 'tic ga dic'?

21. Which of the following is the code for 'not'?

1) mo 2) ra 3) na 4) tic 5) None

22. What does 'dic' stand for?

1) pleasant 2) spring 3) season 4) is 5) not.

23. Which of the following represe-nts the code for 'spring is hot'?

1) mo ga nic 2) tic ga mo 3) nic dic su 4) ga nic su 5) None.

24. 'tic phi dic' is the code for which of the following?

1) spring is a season 2) likes summer season 3) pleasant season is

4) hot season summer 5) None.



SAKSHI

25. Which of the following may represent 'nobody likes hot season'?

1) zo dic ga tic 2) nic ye ga dic 3) phi nic da ra

4) phi zo ga dic 5) None.

Directions (26-30): In each question below is given a group of letters followed by four

combinations of digits/symbols numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4) . You have to find out which

of the four combinations correctly represents the group of letters based on the following

coding system and the conditions and mark the number of that combination as your

answer. If none of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters, mark (5) i.e.'

None of these' as your answer

(IBPS CWT - 2011)

CONDITIONS:

i) If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant, the codes are to be

interchanged.

ii)If the first letter is consonant and the last letter is a vowel, both are to be coded as the

code for the vowel.

iii) If both the first and the last letters are vowels, both are to be coded as '∂'.

26. HFIMED

1) 4*36@9 2) 93*6@4 3) 43*6@4 4) 93*6@9 5) None.

27. EYBEJA

1) @$8@17 2) 7$8@1∂ 3) ∂$8@1∂ 4) 7$8@1@ 5) None.

28. BMJKPU

1) 8615#% 2) %615#% 3) %615#8 4) 8615#8 5) None.

29. ABJFEP

1) 7813@7 2) #813@7 3) 7813@# 4) #183@7 5) None.

30. MEAPTD

1) 9@7#@6 2) 6@7#©6 3) 67@#©9 4) 6@7#©9 5) None.

ANSWERS

1) 4 2) 2 3) 5 4) 1 5) 3 6) 1 7) 3 8) 3

9) 3 10) 1 11) 4 12) 2 13) 3 14) 4 15) 5 16) 3

17) 5 18) 1 19) 4 20) 2 21) 3 22) 3 23) 5 24) 2

25) 4 26) 5 27) 3 28) 2 29) 2 30) 4





CODED RELATIONS

Directions(1 – 5 ): These questions are based on the following

information.

‘P = Q’ means ‘Q is the father of P’

‘P # Q’ means ‘P is the sister of Q’

‘P ? Q’ means ‘Q is the mother of P’

‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is the brother of Q’

‘P £ Q’ means ‘Q is the son of P’

‘P × Q’ means ‘P is the daughter of Q’

1) Which of the following is not correct?

1) L £ M # O means O is the sister of L 2) M # O £ P = Q means Q and O

are husband & wife

3) P = Q ? R means R is the grandmother of P 4) R × S ? T means R is the

granddaughter of T

5) All are correct

Answer : 1) L £ M # O means O is the sister of L.

Explanation : 1) L £ M # O ―> M is son of L, M is sister of O ―> M is a male

here, he can not become sister to O. So, this is not correct.

2) Which of the following is correct?

1) L £ M $ R means R is the paternal uncle of L 2) M $ R # D ? V means M

is the son of V

3) D ? V × T means D is the granddaughter of T 4) V × T # P means P is the

maternal uncle of V 5) None is correct:

Answer : 2) M $ R # D ? V means M is the son of V

Explanation : 1) L £ M $ R ―> M is son of L, M is brother of R ―> R is not

paternal uncle of L, R is either son or daughter to L.



2) M $ R # D ? V ―> M is brother of R, R is sister of D, V is mother of D . V is

mother of M, R and D. So, M is son of V.

3) Which of the following indicates ‘A is the grandfather of B’?

1) M × A = N = B 2) B $ L × Q × A 3) L # B = S $ Q = A 4) B × L × A

5) None of these

Answer : 3) L # B = S $ Q = A .

Explanation : A is grand father of B means A must be a male. In 1, 2 and 4

options there is no confirmation of A’s gender. In all these options A is either

male or female. So, all these options can be eliminated. But in third option A is a

male. So we have to check that option.

L # B = S $ Q = A ―> L and B are children to S and S and Q are children to A.

4) Which of the following means ‘F is the paternal uncle of G’?

1) L = F $ Q £ G 2) G × M # F $ L 3) N $ F $ L × G 4) G × L $ F $ N 5)

None of these

Answer : 4) G × L $ F $ N .

Explanation : F is paternal uncle of G means F must be a male. In all options F is

male.



G × L $ F $ N ―> L, F and N are siblings and G is L’s daughter. And F is

paternal uncle of G.

5) ‘S × M # B = F $ D’ reveals which of the following relations?

1) M is the maternal uncle of F 2) S is the granddaughter of F 3) B is the

paternal uncle of S 4) F and B are brother and sister 5) None of the above

relations gets revealed

Answer : 2) S is the granddaughter of F .

Explanation : S × M # B = F $ D ―> S is daughter of M and M is mother

of S and sister of B. B and M are children of F and F is brother of D. So, S is

grand daughter of F and F is maternal grand father of S. D is maternal grand

mother or grand father to S.

Directions(6-8): These questions are based on the following

information.

A) ‘P × Q’ means ‘P is father of Q’

B) ‘P – Q’ means ‘P is sister of Q’

C) ‘P + Q’ means ‘P is mother of Q’

D) ‘P ÷ Q’ means ‘P is brother of Q’



6) In the expression B + D × M ÷ N, how is M related to B?

1) granddaughter 2) son 3) grandson 4) granddaughter or grandson 5)

None of these

Answer : 3) grandson .

Explanation : B + D × M ÷ N ―> B is mother of D, D is father of M and M is

brother of N.

B is M’s father’s mother. So, M is grand son of B.

7) Which of the following represents ‘J is son of F’

1) J ÷ R – T × F 2) J + R – T × F 3) J ÷ M – N × F 4) can’t be determined 5)

None of these

Answer : 5) None of these .

Explanation : J is son F means J must be a male. If ‘J’ is followed by ‘÷’ or ‘×’ ,

then F must be a male. So, we can eliminate 2nd option.

J ÷ R – T × F ―> J is brother of R , R is sister of T and T is father of F. Here, J is

paternal uncle of F.

J ÷ M – N × F ―> J is brother of M, M is sister of N and N is father of F. Here, J

is paternal uncle of F.

8) Which of the following represents ‘R is niece of M’?

1) M ÷ K × T – R 2) M – J + R – N 3) R – M × T ÷ W 4) can’t be determined

5) None of these



Answer : 2) M – J + R – N .

Explanation : R is niece of M means R must be a female. If R is followed by ‘―’

or ‘+’, then R must be a female. So, we can eliminate 1st option.

M – J + R – N ―> M is sister of J, J is mother of R, R is sister of N. Here, M is

maternal aunt to R and R is niece of M ( M’s sister’s daughter ).

Directions(9-13): These questions are based on the following

information.

‘P © Q’ means ‘Q is the brother of P’

‘P # Q’ means ‘P is the daughter of Q’

‘P = Q’ means ‘Q is the sister of P’

‘P £ Q’ means ‘P is the son of Q’

‘P * Q’ means ‘P is the father of Q’

‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is the mother of Q’

9) Which of the following can be a correct conclusion drawn from the

expression ‘Q £ N @ S © M = P’?

1) S is the brother of P 2) N has two sons and two daughters 3) S is the

sister of Q 4) P is the sister of Q 5) None of these

Answer : 4) P is the sister of Q .

Explanation : Q £ N @ S © M = P —> Q is son of N, N is mother of S, M is

brother of S and P is sister of M. N is the mother and she has 4 children among

whom Q and M are sons, P is daughter and S is son or daughter.



10) What does the expression ‘P @ R = S © T £ V’ mean?

1) V is the husband of P 2) R is the son of V 3) R is the daughter of V 4) V is

the wife of P 5) None of these

Answer : 1) V is the husband of P.

Explanation : P @ R = S © T £ V ─> P is mother of R, S is sister of R, T is

brother of S and T is the son of V. P and V are wife and husband and their

children are R, S and T among whom S is their daughter, T is their son and R is

their son or daughter.

11) Which of the following indicates that ‘C is the paternal uncle of D’?

1) C £ V # N @ L © D 2) C £ V £ L @ N © D 3) D £ L £ N @ V © C 4)

D £ N # V @ L © C 5) None of these

Answer : 3) D £ L £ N @ V © C .

Explanation : C is the paternal uncle of D means C must be a male.

D £ L £ N @ V © C ─> D is son of L, L is son of N, N is mother of V and C is

brother of V .

N is the mother and N has 3 children among whom L and C are her sons and V is

her son or daughter. D is son of L and V is D’s paternal uncle or aunt and C is D’s

paternal uncle and D is nephew to V and C.



12) Which of the following indicates that ‘Q is the daughter of N’?

1) Q * P # C @ N @ V 2) N * P # C @ Q @ V 3) M @ N # R * Q 4) M

© Q = V # N

5) None of these

Answer : 2) N * P # C @ Q @ V .

Explanation : Q is the daughter of N means Q must be a female. 1, 3 and 4

options are eliminated.

N * P # C @ Q @ V ─> N is the father of P, P is the daughter of C, C is mother of

Q and Q is mother of V. N and C are husband and wife. Their daughters are P

and Q. Q is mother of V.

13) Which of the following can be the correct conclusion drawn from

the expression

‘L = M # N © P * Q’?

1) Q is the grandson of M 2) L is the uncle of N 3) N is the uncle of Q 4) Q is

the niece of N 5) None of these



Answer : 5) None of these

Explanation : L = M # N © P * Q ─> M is sister of L, M is daughter of N, P

is brother of N and P is father of Q. Here, N is wife and her husband is P. Their

children are M, L and Q.



CODED INEQUALITIES

Directions(1-5): In the following questions, the symbols @, #, %, $ and * are

used with the following meaning as illustrated below.

‘A @ B’ means ‘A Is not smaller than B’

‘A # B’ means ‘A is neither smaller than nor equal to B’

‘A % B’ means ‘A is neither smaller than nor greater than B’

‘A $ B’ means ‘A is not greater than B’

‘A * B’ means ‘A is neither greater than nor equal to B’

1) Statements : T @ V, V # M, M % F

Conclusions : a) T # M

b) T @ F

2) Statements : L $ N, N * F, R % L

Conclusions : a) F # R

b) R $ N

3) Statements : H # I, I @ J, J $ P

Conclusions : a) H # J

b) H # P

4) Statements : L * D, D # K, K $ J

Conclusions : a) L * K

b) D $ J

5) Statements : Q $ W, W % E, E @ K

Conclusions : a) Q $ K

b) W @ K

Now in each of the following the questions assuming the given statements to be true,

find which of the two conclusions a and b given below is/are definitely true?

Give answer a) : If only conclusion a is true

Give answer b) : If only conclusion b is true

Give answer c) : If either conclusion a or b is true

Give answer d) : If neither conclusion a nor b is true

Give answer e) : If both conclusions a and b are true ( Options are same for all

questions (1-15) )



Explanation :

‘A @ B’ means ‘A Is not smaller than B’ → A ≥ B

‘A # B’ means ‘A is neither smaller than nor equal to B’ → A > B

‘A % B’ means ‘A is neither smaller than nor greater than B’ → A = B

‘A $ B’ means ‘A is not greater than B’ → A ≤ B

‘A * B’ means ‘A is neither greater than nor equal to B’ → A < B

1) Answer : a) : If only conclusion a is true

Explanation : T @ V, V # M, M % F → T ≥ V, V > M, M = F → T ≥ V > M = F

Conclusion a → T # M → T > M

The relation between T and M in the statement T ≥ V > M = F : T > M. So, it is true.

Conclusion b → T @ F → T ≥ F

The relation between T and F in the statement T ≥ V > M = F : T > F. So, it is not

true.

( T > M = F → T > F )

2) Answer : e) : If both conclusions a and b are true

Explanation : L $ N, N * F, R % L → L ≤ N, N < F, R = L → R = L ≤ N < F

Conclusion a → F # R → F > R

The relation between F and R in the statement R = L ≤ N < F : R < F. So, it is true.

( R ≤ N < F → R < F )

Conclusion b → R $ N → R ≤ N

The relation between R and N in the statement R = L ≤ N < F : R ≤ N. So, it is true.

3) Answer : a) : If only conclusion a is true .

Explanation : H # I, I @ J, J $ P → H > I, I ≥ J, J ≤ P → H > I ≥ J ≤ P

Conclusion a → H # J → H > J

The relation between H and J in the statement H > I ≥ J ≤ P : H > J. So, it is true.

Conclusion b → H # P → H > P

The relation between H and P in the statement H > I ≥ J ≤ P : H > P or H < P or H = P.

So, it is not true

4) Answer : d) : If neither conclusion a nor b is true .

Explanation : L * D, D # K, K $ J → L < D, D > K, K ≤ J → L < D > K ≤ J

Conclusion a → L * K → L < K

The relation between L and K in the statement L < D > K ≤ J : L = K or L > K or L <

K. So, it is not

true.

Conclusion b → D $ J → D ≤ J



The relation between D and J in the statement L < D > K ≤ J : D = J or D > J or D <

J. So, it is not true.

5) Answer : b) : If only conclusion b is true .

Explanation : Q $ W, W % E, E @ K → Q ≤ W, W = E, E ≥ K → Q ≤ W = E ≥ K

Conclusion a → Q $ K → Q ≤ K

The relation between Q and K in the statement Q ≤ W = E ≥ K : Q = K or Q > K or Q

< K. So, it is not true.

Conclusion b → W @ K → W ≥ K

The relation between W and K in the statement Q ≤ W = E ≥ K : W ≥ K. So, it is true.

Directions(6-10): In the following questions, the symbols @, #, $, © and %

are used with the following meaning as illustrated below.

‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’

‘P # Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’

‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’

‘P © Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’

‘P % Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’

6) Statements : V $ W, W @ T, T # H

Conclusions : a) V © T

b) H % W

7) Statements : H © M, M @ E, E $ C

Conclusions : a) C © M

b) H © E

8) Statements : N @ J, J % R, R © H

Conclusions : a) R # N

b) N © H

9) Statements : L @ K, K © A, A $ W

Conclusions : a) W $ L

b) L # W

10) Statements : J # R, R © D, D @ F

Conclusions : a) F $ R

b) F % R



Explanation :

‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’ → P ≥ Q

‘P # Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’ → P ≤ Q

‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’ → P < Q

‘P © Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’ → P > Q

‘P % Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’ → P = Q


Explanation : V $ W, W @ T, T # H → V < W, W ≥ T, T ≤ H → V < W ≥ T ≤ H

Conclusion a → V © T → V > T

The relation between V and T in the statement V < W ≥ T ≤ H : V = T or V > T or V

< T. So, it is not true.

Conclusion b → H % W → H = W

The relation between H and W in the statement V < W ≥ T ≤ H → H = W or H > W

or H < W. So, it is not true.


Explanation : H © M, M @ E, E $ C → H > M, M ≥ E, E < C → H > M ≥ E < C

Conclusion a → C © M → C > M

The relation between C and M in the statement H > M ≥ E < C → M > C. So, it is not

true.

Conclusion b → H © E → H > E

The relation between H and E in the statement H > M ≥ E < C → H > E. So, it is true.

8) Answer : e) : If both conclusions a and b are true .

Explanation : N @ J, J % R, R © H → N ≥ J, J = R, R > H → N ≥ J = R > H

Conclusion a → R # N → R ≤ N

The relation between R and N in the statement N ≥ J = R > H : N ≥ R. So, it is true.

Conclusion b → N © H → N > H

The relation between N and H in the statement N ≥ J = R > H : N > H. So, it is true.


Explanation : L @ K, K © A, A $ W → L ≥ K, K > A, A < W → L ≥ K > A < W

Conclusion a → W $ L → W < L

The relation between W and L in the statement L ≥ K > A < W : W = L or W > L or

W < L . So, it is not true.

Conclusion b → L # W → L ≤ W

The relation between L and W in the statement L ≥ K > A < W : L = W or L < W or

L > W. So, it is not true.



10) Answer : a) : If only conclusion a is true .

Explanation : J # R, R © D, D @ F → J ≤ R, R > D, D ≥ F → J ≤ R > D ≥ F

Conclusion a → F $ R → F < R

The relation between F and R in the statement J ≤ R > D ≥ F : R > F. So, it is true.

Conclusion b → F % R → F = R

The relation between F and R in the statement J ≤ R > D ≥ F : R > F. So, it is not true.

Directions(11-15): In the following questions, the symbols @, ©, %, $ and #

are used with the following meaning as illustrated below.

‘P % Q’ means ‘P is either smaller than or equal to Q’

‘P © Q’ means ‘P is grater than Q’

‘P # Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’

‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is smaller than Q’

‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is either greater than or equal to Q’

11) Statements : B # F, F $ H, H © K

Conclusions :a) H @ B

b) K $ B

12) Statements : H @ T, T © N, N $ W

Conclusions : a) N $ H

b) W $ H

13) Statements : H $ F, F % M, M © J

Conclusions : a) J $ F

b) M © H

14) Statements : M $ T, T % R, M © N

Conclusions : a) M $ R

b) N $ T

15) Statements : D $ T, T % B, B @ F

Conclusions : a) D # T

b) D @ F

Explanation :

‘P % Q’ means ‘P is either smaller than or equal to Q’ → P ≤ Q

‘P © Q’ means ‘P is greater than Q’ → P > Q

‘P # Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’ → P = Q

‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is smaller than Q’ → P < Q



‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is either greater than or equal to Q’ → P ≥ Q


Explanation : B # F, F $ H, H © K → B = F, F < H, H > K → B = F < H > K

Conclusion a → H @ B → H ≥ B

The relation between H and B in the statement B = F < H > K : B < H. So, it is not

true.

Conclusion b → K $ B → K < B

The relation between K and B in the statement B = F < H > K : K = B or K > B or K

< B. So, it is not true.

12) Answer : a) : If only conclusion a is true.

Explanation : H @ T, T © N, N $ W → H ≥ T, T > N, N < W → H ≥ T > N < W

Conclusion a → N $ H → N < H

The relation between N and H in the statement H ≥ T > N < W : H > N. So, it is

true.

Conclusion b → W $ H → W < H

The relation between W and H in the statement H ≥ T > N < W : W = H or W > H or

W < H. So, it is not true.


Explanation : H $ F, F % M, M © J → H < F, F ≤ M, M > J → H < F ≤ M > J

Conclusion a → J $ F → J < F

The relation between J and F in the statement H < F ≤ M > J : J = F or J < F or J >

F. So, it is not true.

Conclusion b → M © H → M > H

The relation between M and H in the statement H < F ≤ M > J : M > H. So, it is true.

14) Answer : e) : If both conclusions a and b are true .

Explanation : M $ T, T % R, M © N → M < T, T ≤ R, M > N → N < M < T ≤ R

Conclusion a → M $ R → M < R

The relation between M and R in the statement N < M < T ≤ R : M < R. So, it is true.

Conclusion b → N $ T → N < T

The relation between N and T in the statement N < M < T ≤ R : N < T. So, it is true.


Explanation : D $ T, T % B, B @ F → D < T, T ≤ B, B ≥ F → D < T ≤ B ≥ F

Conclusion a → D # T → D = T

The relation between D and T in the statement D < T ≤ B ≥ F : D < T. So, it is not true.

Conclusion b → D @ F → D ≥ F

The relation between D and F in the statement D < T ≤ B ≥ F : D < F. So, it is not true.



CLASSIFICATION

1) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group.

Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

a) Petal b) leaf c) flower d) fruit e) tree

Answer : e) tree.

Explanation : All others ( petal, leaf, flower and fruit ) are parts of a tree.



a) 24 b) 32 c) 64 d) 48 e) 72

Answer : c) 64

Explanation : 64 is a perfect square and remaining all are not perfect

squares.



a) Radish b) Carrot c) Garlic d) Ginger e)

Brinjal

Answer : e) brinjal

Explanation : Brinjal grows above the ground and remaining all grow

below the ground.



a) Niece b) Father c) Aunt d) Mother e)

Uncle

Answer : a) Niece.

Explanation: Father, aunt, mother and uncle belong to one generation but

niece belongs to the next generation.



a) January b) July c) May d) June e)

December

Answer : c) May.



Explanation : Except ‘may’ remaining all months are either followed by a

month of 31 days or preceded by a month of 31 days. ‘May’ is neither

followed by a month of 31 days ( June – 31 days) nor preceded by a month

of 31 days ( April – 30 days ).



a) Desk b) Blackboard c) Chalk d) Classroom

e) Bench.

Answer: d) Classroom.

Explanation : Classroom is different from others. Remaining all are part of a

classroom.



a) Shirt b) Frock c) Skirt d) Trousers

e) Clothes

Answer : e) clothes.

Explanation: Shirt, frock, skirt and trousers are different type of clothes.



a) Lotus b) Rose c) Marigold d) Tulip e)

Hibiscus

Answer : a) Lotus.

Explanation : Lotus grows in water and remaining grow on land.



a) Earth b) Uranium c) Moon d) Mars e) Jupiter

Answer : b) Uranium.

Explanation : Except uranium, all others are celestial bodies.



a) 41 b) 29 c) 51 d) 17 e) 19

Answer : c) 51.



Explanation : Except 51, all others are prime numbers whereas 51 is a

composite number.



a) 16 b) 144 c) 196 d) 36 e)

38

Answer : e) 38.

Explanation : Except 38 all others are perfect squares. ( 42 = 16, 122 = 144,

142 = 196, 62 = 36 )



a) Clutch b) Wheel c) Break d) Car e) Gear

Answer : d) Car.

Explanation : All others are parts of the car.



a) Hibiscus b) Rose c) Sunflower d) Jasmine e)

Mustard

Answer: e) mustard.

Explanation : All others are flowers. ‘Mustard’ is not a flower and from it oil

can be extracted.



a) 132 b) 99 c) 88 d) 126 e) 143

Answer : d) 126.

Explanation : Except 126, all are divisible by 11.



a) Gourd b) Brinjal c) Cucumber d) Cabbage e)

Papaya

Answer : e) papaya.

Explanation : Except papaya, all are vegetables whereas papaya is a fruit.





a) 36 b) 49 c) 625 d) 225 e) 100

Answer : b) 49.

Explanation : All are perfect squares. But, 49 is a prime number square

whereas remaining are composite numbers squares.



a) 37 b) 101 c) 65 d) 224 e) 626

Answer : d) 224.

Explanation : Except 224, all are in the form of n2 + 1 where n is a natural

number. ( 37 = 62 + 1 , 101 =

102 + 1, 65 = 82 + 1 and 626 = 252 +1. But, 224 = 152 – 1 )



a) Table b) Desk c) Computer d) Chair e)

Wardrobe

Answer : c) Computer.

Explanation : Except computer, all are furniture items whereas computer is

a electronic item.



a) Orange b) Guava c) Apple d) Papaya e) Mango

Answer : a) Orange.

Explanation : Orange is a citrus fruit. Remaining all are non citrus fruits.



a) FH b) JM c) PR d) CE e) KM

Answer : b) JM.

Explanation : , , ,

But, .





BLOOD RELATIONS

Cousin → Mother’s or father’s brothers or sister’s son or daughter

Or

Parents’ siblings’ son or daughter (or) Uncle’s or aunt’s son or

daughter.

Nephew → Brother’s or sister’s son.

Niece → Brother’s or sister’s daughter.

Uncle → Father’s or mother’s brother.

Aunt → Father’s or mother’s sister.

Father – in – law → Spouse’s father (or) wife’s or husband’s father.

Mother – in – law → Spouse’s mother (or) wife’s or husband’s mother.

Son – in – law → Daughter’s husband.

Daughter – in – law → Son’s wife.

Brother – in – law → Spouse’s brother (or) Sister’s husband.

Sister – in – law → Spouse’s sister (or) Brother’s wife.

Maternal = of or related to mother.

Paternal = of or related to father.

Siblings = brothers or sisters.

Spouse = husband or wife.

Note : Cousin is a common gender. There are no such words cousin brother and

cousin sister.

Generations - Persons or relations

-2 generation - Grand father and grand mother ( maternal & paternal ).

-1 generation - Mother, father, uncle& aunt (maternal & paternal ),

father-in-law, mother-in-law..

0 generation - I, spouse, brother, sister, brother-in-law, sister-in-law,

cousin.

+1 generation - son, daughter, son-in-law, daughter-in-law, nephew,

niece.

+2 generation - grand sons and grand daughters.



Important points to remember :

1) If the question is “how is A related to B”, we must know the gender of A to

answer this question.

Without knowing A’s gender, we can not determine the relation from A to B.

2) If a person is uncle or aunt to ‘A’, A is that person’s nephew ( if A is a male) or

niece (if A is a female)

3) Cousin is a common gender.

Example : A says to B, “ you are the son of my grand father’s only

son”.

Q 1) How is B related to A?

Q 2) How is A related to B?

Explanation :

A 1) B is brother to A.

My grand father’s only son = A’s father ( grand father’s only son means only

one son…no other son and no daughter also)

A 2) A is either brother or sister to B. A and B are siblings. B is brother to A as we

know the gender of B. But we do not know the gender of A.

Some of the previous questions

1) The mother of Sukesh is the only daughter of Saritha’s father. How

Saritha is related to Sukesh?

a) Sister b) Mother c) Aunt d) Data

inadequate e) None of these

Answer : b) Mother.

Explanation : Only daughter of Saritha’s father = Saritha only. The mother of

Sukesh is Saritha. So, Saritha is mother to Sukesh.



2) B is son of C’s grand father’s only daughter. How is C’s father

related to B?

a) Grand father b) Uncle c) Father d) cant not

determine e) None of these

Answer : c) Father.

Explanation : C’s grand father’s only daughter means C’s mother. B is son of C’s

mother. So, B and C are siblings. C’s father is B’s father too.

3) Pointing to a boy Uma said, “He is the son of my mother-in-law’s

only child”. How is the boy related to Uma?

a) son b) Grandson c) Nephew d) brother e)

None of these

Answer : a) son.

Explanation : my mother-in-law’s only child = Uma’s mother-in-law’s only

child = uma’s husband. The boy is the son of Uma’s husband. So, Uma is mother

to that boy and that boy is son to Uma.



4) B is husband of C. A is sister of B. D is sister of C. How is D related

to B?

a) Son b) uncle c) Father-in-law d) Sister-in-law e)

None of these

Answer : d) sister-in-law.

Explanation : B is husband and C is his wife. A is sister of B means A is sister-

in-law of C ( husband’s sister). And D is sister of C means D is sister-in-law of B (

wife’s sister).

5) Pointing towards a girl, a teacher said, “She is the only daughter of

the only son of the wife of the father-in-law of my wife”. How is the

girl related to the teacher?

a) Niece b) Daughter c) Sister d) Daughter-in-law

e) None of these

Answer : b) Daughter.

Explanation : father-in-law of my wife = father-in-law of teacher’s wife =

teacher’s father.

Wife of the father-in-law of my wife = wife of teacher’s father = teacher’s

mother.

Only son of teacher’s mother = teacher ( teacher’s parents do not have any other

child ).

So, she is only daughter of teacher as the teacher does not have any other

children.



6) Pointing towards Bhavan, Mrunalini said, “He is the son of only

son of my father”. How is the mother of Bhavan related to Mrunalini?

a) Daughter b) Sister-in-law c) Sister d) Aunt

e) None of these

Answer : b) Sister-in-law.

Explanation : My father → Mrunalini’s father

Only son of Mrunalini’s father → Mrunalini’s only brother

He(Bhavan) is the son of Mrunalini’s only brother → Bhavan is

Mrunalini’s nephew. Mother of Bhavan is Mrunalini’s only brother’s wife →

Mrunalini’s sister-in-law.

7) A’s father is B’s son-in-law. C, A’s sister, is the daughter of P. How is

P related to B?

a) Daughter b) Daughter-in-law c) Son-in-law d) Cannot be

determined e) None of these



Answer ; d) Cannot be determined.

Explanation : A’s father is B’s son-in-law → A’s mother is B’s daughter.

C is daughter of P means P is either Father or Mother of A and C. And P is either

son or daughter to B. So, P is either daughter or son-in-law to B.

Or

8) Nandini is the only daughter of Madan’s sister Sangita’s brother.

How is Nandini related to Madan?

a) Daughter b) Niece c) Cousin d) Niece or daughter

e) None of these

Answer : d) Niece or daughter .

Explanation : Madan’s sister sangitha’s brother → Either Madan or Madan’s

brother.So, Nandini is the daughter of Madan or Madan’s brother (Niece)



( Nandini is Madan’s Niece)

Or

(Nandini is Madan’s daughter)



SAKSHI

Arrangement of numbers/symbols/lettersDirections (1-5): study the following Arrangement carefully and answer the Questions

given below.

4 2 6 1 3 8 9 5 8 1 6 5 1 5 8 5 3 9 4 9 2 3 2 1 5 7 2 6 2 4 2 7 4

1. If all the even digits are deleted from the above Arrangement, which of the following

will be seventh from the right end of the Arrangement?

a) 3 b) 5 c) 1 d) 9 e) 7

2. How many such 2's are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately

preceded by an odd digit and also immediately followed by an odd digit?

a) None b) one c) Two d) Three e) More than three

3. How many such 1's are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately

preceded by a perfect square?

a) None b) one c) Two d) Three e) More than Three

4. If one is added to each of the even digits and two is added to each odd digits given in

BOLD in the above Arrangement, how many digits will appear twice in the New

Number thus formed?

a) None b) one c) Two d) Three e) More than Three

5. Which of the following is seventh to the right of the nineteenth digit from the right end

of the arrangement?

a) 3 b) 5 c) 1 d) 7 e) None

Directions (6-10): study the following Arrangement carefully and answer the Questions

given below.

F 4 © J 2 E % M P 5 W 9 @ I Q R 6 U H 3 Z 7 * A T B 8 V # $ Y

D

6. Four of the following five alike in a certain way based on their positions in the group

arrange-ment and so form a group which is the one that does not belong to that group?

a) ©24 b) PWM c) R16 d) RUQ e) VG8

7. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the

above Arrangement? JEM 59I RU3 ?

a) 7 A B b) 7 A T c) * 7 8 d) A B V e) None

SAKSHI

8. How many such consonants are there in the above Arrangement each of which is

immediately preceded by a number but not immediately followed by a number?


9. Which of the following is the tenth to the right of the ninete-enth from the right end of

the above Arrangement?

a) M b) T c) # d) 2 e) None

10. If all the symbols are dropped from the above Arrangement which of the following

will be the fourteenth from the left end?

a) R b) Q c) U d) 3 e) None

11. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is

immediately preceded by a number and imme-diately followed by a letter?


Directions (12-18): study the follo-wing Arrangement carefully and answer the Questions

given below.

B 4 @ D A © 7 9 F % 2 R 5 H 6 E * N $ 1 U W 3 P T 8 δ V # Y I

12. Which of the following is the 12th to the left of the twenty-first from the left end of

the above arrangement?

a) R b) 1 c) 5 d) $ e) None

13. If all the numbers from the above arrangement are dropped, which of the following

will be fifteenth from the right end?

a) W b) 6 c) * d) R e) None

14. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement, each of which is

immediately preceded by a symbol and imme-diately followed by a vowel?

a) None b) one c) Two d) Three e) Four

15. In which of the following combinations the first element is in between the second and

the third elements in the above Arrangement?

a) 2 % F b) 9 © 7 c) 5 H 6 d) T P 3 e) * E N

16. Four of the following five are a like in a certain way based on their position in the

above arrangement and so from a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that

group?

a) 5 6 2 b) W P U c) © 9 D d) δ # T e) U # $



SAKSHI

17. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is

immediately preceded by a consonant and immediately followed by a number?

a) None b) one c) Two d) Three e) More Than three

18. How many such Numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is

immediately preceded by a letter and immedi-ately followed by a symbol?

a) None b) One c) Two d) Three e) More Than Three

Directions (19-25): study the follo-wing arrangement carefully and answer the Questions

given below.

# 6 B G @ I L 7 3 H A % © D F K E J Q 1 * V T U 2 $ W

19. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is

immediately followed by a constant but not preceded by another symbol?

a) None b) One c) Two d) Three e) Four

20. How many such symbols vowels are there in the above arrange-ment each of which is

immed-iately followed by a symbol and also immediately preceded by a consonant?


21. Four of the following five are a like in a certain way based on the positions of their

elements in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the does not belong

to that group?

a) IL b) AH% c) KFC d) QJI e) V*T

22. Which element is sixth to the right of fifteenth from the right in the arrangement?

a) Q b) I c) J d) 3 e) NONE

23. BG:L7::A%: ?

a) EK b) DF c) KF d) FK e) NONE

24. If all the numbers are dropped from the above arrangement which element will be fifth

to the left of eleventh from the left?

a) I b) H c) T d)* e) NONE

25. What will come in place of the question mark(?) in the follow-ing series based on the

above arrangement? 6@ LH %F ?

a)K8 b)KJ c)EJ d)EQ e) NONE



SAKSHI

Directions(26-30): 3 D 6 $ C 4 E 8 # N 5 F 1 A P * 9 M @ K 2 B % T H U

26. Based on the above arrange-ment,$51 is related to NFA in the same as P9@is related

to which of the following groups of letter/number/symbol?

a) KBT b) MRA c) *M2 d) RM@ e) NONE

27. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is

immediately preceded by a number but not immediately followed by another

consonant?

a) One b) Two c) Four d) Five e) None

28. Four of the following are alike a certain way based on their posit-ions in the above

arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?


29. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement and so form a group

which is the one that does not belong to that group?


30. Which of the following is exactly in the middle of the 17th from the right and 18th

from the left of the arrangement?

a) A b) I c) F d) % e) None

Directions (31-35):GN=8 L @ C R β ↑δ 2 5 H # 7 E J $ 4 + Y 3 6 ? F 9 *M

31. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is either

immedi-ately followed by a letter or imm-ediately preceded by a number?

a) Nil b) Three c) Four d) Five e) None

32. C @ R L is to 36 Y? in the same way as H2↑c is to?

a) J4+3 b) E4+3 c) J$+3 d) J4+6 e) None


above arrangement and hence from a group. Which is the one that does not belong to

the group?

a) @8βr b) 7HSJ c) 2β#H d) 4J3Y e) ?3*9

34. How many such letters are there in the above arrangement each of which is either

immediately preceded by a number or imme-diately followed by a symbol?

a)Three b) Two c) Five d) Four e) None



SAKSHI

35. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is either

immedi-ately preceded by a letter imme-diately followed by a symbol?

a) Five b) Three c) Two d) Four e) None

DIRECTIONS(36-40):

B A 5 D % R I * F H 6 # V 9 $ 3 E 7 G 1 ÷2 M K X 8 U F W Z N

36. Which of the following is exactly in the middle of the eleventh from the left end and

the fifteenth from the right end?

a)V b) $ c) 7 d) E e) None


above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that

group?

a) EG$ b) RFD c) 127 d) XUM e) H#*

38. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is

immediately preceded by a consonant and not immediately followed by a symbol?

a) None b) One c) Two d) Three e) More than three

39. What should come in the place of question mark (?) in following series based on the

above arrangement? ADI F69 37÷ ?

a) B5% b) EG2 c) K8Z d) UWN e) None of these

40. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is

immediately followed by a consonant but not immediately preceded by a digit?

a) None b) One c) Two d) Three e) More than three

Key

1) d 2) c 3) a 4) c 5) a 6) c 7) a 8) b

9) b 10) e 11) d 12) e 13) d 14) b 15) e 16) b

17) c 18) c 19) d 20) b 21) a 22) a 23) d 24) e

25) d 26) e 27) d 28) b 29) c 30) a 31) c 32) a

33) d 34) d 35) d 36) e 37) b 38) b 39) b 40) e





Analytical Reasoning Generally 3 to 5 questions are covered from this topic. Here some previous questions are there. Directions (1 to 5): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions: (Corporation Bank PO 2011) One of the Seven subjects Viz. Math’s, Zoology, Botany, Chemistry, Physics,

English and Statistics is taught on one day in a week starting from Monday

and ending on Sunday. Chemistry is taught on Thursday. English is taught

the day immediately next to the day when Zoology is taught. English is

neither taught on Tuesday nor Saturday. Only one lecture is held between

Chemistry and Botany. Two Lectures are scheduled between Maths and

Zoology. Statistics is neither taught on Monday nor Sunday.

1. On which of the following days is Physics taught? (a) Monday (b) Tuesday

(c) Wednesday (d) Thursday

(e) Friday

2. How many subjects are taught between Botany and Zoology?

(a) None (b) One (c) Two (d) Three (e) Four 3. Which of the following subjects is taught on Saturday? (a) Botany (b) Statistics

(c) Zoology (d) Maths (e) Physics

4. On which of the following days is Statistics taught? (a) Tuesday (b) Wednesday

(c) Thursday (d) Friday

(e) Cannot be determined.



5. If Statistics is related to Zoology and Physics is related to Botany in a

certain way, then to which of the following would Chemistry be

related to, following the same pattern?

(a) Maths (b) Statistics

(c) Physics (c) English

(e) Cannot be determined

Key ( 1 to 5)

Days Subject

Monday Physics

Tuesday Botany

Wednesday Maths

Thursday Chemistry

Friday Statistics

Saturday Zoology

Sunday English

1. (a) Physics is taught on Monday.

2. (d) Three subjects are taught between Botany and Zoology

3. (c) Zoology is taught on Saturday

4. (d) Statistics is taught on Friday

5. (e) Zoology is taught on the next day on Statistics. Statistics is

taught on the next day of Chemistry.

Directions (6 to 8): Study the following information carefully and answer

the given questions: (United Bank of India PO 2010)

In a seven-storey building, having floors numbered one to seven,

P,Q,R,S,T and V each live on a different floor. (The Ground Floor is

numbered floor No.1, the floor above it floor No.2 and so on) . One of the

floors in the building is vacant. P lives on the fifth floor. No floor below fifth



floor is vacant; also no add numbered floor is vacant. Only S lives

between ‘T’ and V. T does not live on an odd numbered floor. T does

not live on a floor immediately above or immediately above or immediately

below R’s floor. Q does not live on the bottom most floor.

6. Who lives on the top most floor?

(a) Q (b) S (c) R (d) V

(e) No one as it is vacant. 7. On which of the following floors does R Live?

(a) Seventh (b) Sixth (c) Third (d) Second (e) First

8. Which of the following floors is vacant ?

(a) Seventh (b) Sixth (c) Third

(d) Second (e) Fourth

Key

Floor No Living Person

7 Q 6 Vacant 5 P 4 T 3 S 2 V 1 R

6. ( a ) Q lives on the topmost floor 7. ( e ) R lives on the first floor 8. ( b ) Sixth floor is vacant Directions (9 to 13): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions: (United Bank of India PO 2010)

In a sports event, different games are scheduled to be held on seven

days, starting on Monday and ending on Sunday. Two games are scheduled

to be held on Saturday as well as on Sunday and one game on each of the



remaining five days. The games to be held in these seven days are:

Basketball, Football, Boxing, Sprinting, Swimming, shooting, weightlifting ,

wrestling , and cycling, but not necessarily in the same order.

Shooting is scheduled to be held on Thursday. Boxing and Cycling are

scheduled to be held on the same day. Wrestling is scheduled to be held

three days before basketball, i.e. two sports are scheduled between wrestling

and basketball. Wrestling is not scheduled to be held on Wednesday.

Weightlifting is scheduled immediately after the day boxing is scheduled.

Football is scheduled immediately after the day wrestling is scheduled.

Swimming is not scheduled on Monday.

9. Which of the following games is scheduled to be held on Friday?

(a) Basketball (b) Wrestling

(c ) Swimming (d) Weightlifting

(e) Sprinting

10. Which of the following games is scheduled to be held on Sunday?

(a) Football (b) Wrestling

(c) Basketball (d) Cycling

(e) Swimming.

11. On which of the following days is sprinting scheduled?

(a) Saturday (b) Friday

(c) Wednesday (d) Monday

(e) Cannot be determined.

12. On which of the following days is weightlifting scheduled?

(a) Monday (b) Tuesday

(c ) Wednesday (d) Friday

(e) Sunday



13. Shooting is related to Basketball in the same way as Wrestling is

related to

(a) Sprinting (b) Football

(c) Shooting (d) Weightlifting

(e) Boxing

Key

Day Games

Monday Sprinting

Tuesday Wrestling

Wednesday Football

Thursday Shooting

Friday Basketball

Saturday Boxing, Cycling

Sunday Swimming, Weightlifting

9. ( a ) Basketball is scheduled to be held on Friday.

10. ( e ) Swimming is scheduled to be held on Sunday.

11. ( d ) On Monday is Sprinting scheduled.

12. ( e ) On Sunday is Weightlifting scheduled.

13. ( b ) Basketball is scheduled immediately after the day Shooting is scheduled in the same way as Football is scheduled immediately after the day Shooting is scheduled Wrestling.

Directions (14 to 18): Study the following information to answer the

questions: (Central Bank of India PO 2010)

(a) Six plays are to be organized from Monday to Sunday – One Play each

day with one day when there is no play: “No Play” day is not Monday

or Sunday.

(b) The Plays are held in sets of 3 plays each in such a way that 3 plays

are held without any break i.e. 3 plays are held in such a way, that



there is no ‘No Play’ day between them but immediately before this

set or immediately after this set it is ‘No play’ day.

(c) Play Z is held on 26th and play X was held on 31st of the same month.

(d) Play B was not held immediately after play A (but was held after A,

not necessarily immediately) and play M was held immediately

before Q.

(e) All the six plays were held in the same month. 14. Which Play was organized on Monday?

(a) Z (b) M

(c) Q (d) Cannot be determined.

(e) None of these

15. Which day was play Z Organized ?

(a) Tuesday (b) Monday

(c) Wednesday (d) Cannot be determined

(e) None of these.

16. Which date was a “No Play” day?

(a) 26th (b) 28th

(c ) 29th (d) Cannot be determined

(e) None of these.

17. Which of the following is true?

(a) Play B is held immediately before Play M.

(b) Play Z is held after play B

(c) There was a gap after 2 plays and then 4 plays were

organized.

(d) First play was organized on the 25th .

(e) Play B was held on Friday.

18. Which day was play Q organized?

(a) Friday (b) Wednesday

(c) Saturday (d) Cannot be determined.



(e) None of these.

Key

(14-18):

Day Date Play

Monday 26th A

Tuesday 26th Z

Wednesday 27th B

Thursday 28th No play

Friday 29th M

Saturday 30th Q

Sunday 31st X

14. (e) Play A was organized on Monday

15. (a) Play Z was organized on Tuesday

16. (b) 28th was ‘No Play’ day.

17. (d) First Play was organized on 25th

18. (c) Play Q was organized on Saturday.

Direction (19-23): Study the following information and answer the

questions given below it. CANARA BANK – 2009:

Seven Members H, I, J, K, L, M and N are working in different cities

Ahmadabad, Bangalore, Chennai, Hyderabad, Kolkata, Delhi and Mumbai not

necessarily in the same order, Each one has a different mother tongue

Tamil, Kannada, Telugu, Hindi, Marathi, Punjabi and Bangla not necessarily

in the same order.

J works in Bangalore and his mother tongue is not Tamil or Marathi.

K’s mother tongue is Punjabi and he works in Ahmadabad. L and M do not



work in Chennai and none of them has Marathi mother tongue. I works in

Hyderabad and his mother tongue is telugu. The one who works in Delhi has

Bangla Mother tongue. N works in Mumbai and his mother tongue is

Hindi. L does not work in Kolkata.

19. What is J’s mother tongue? (a) Telugu (b) Hindi

(c ) Bangla (d) Kannada

(e) None of these

20. Who works in Chennai?

(a) H (b) L

(c ) M (d) L or M

(e) None of these

21. Which of the following combination is correct?

(a) Marathi –I- Hyderabad (b) Tamil-M-Kolkata

(c ) Marathi-I-Chennai (d) Punjabi-K-Delhi

(e) None of these.

22. Who works in Delhi?

( a ) H ( b ) M

( c ) L ( d ) K

( e ) None of these

23. What is M’s mother tongue?

( a ) Bangla ( b ) Marathi

( c ) Telugu ( d ) Cannot be determined

( e ) None of these

(19-23):

Member City Mother Tongue

H Chennai Marathi

I Hyderabad Telugu

J Bangalore Kannada

K Ahmadabad Punjabi



L Delhi Bangla

M Kolkata Tamil

N Mumbai Hindi

19. ( d) J’s mother tongue is Kannada

20. ( a ) H works in Chenni

21. ( b ) Tamil – M – Kolkata is correct

22. ( c ) L works in Delhi

23. ( e ) M’s mother tongue is Tamil

Directions (24-28): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: ANDHRA BANK PO 2009:

P, Q, R, S, T and M are six students of a school, one each studies in

Class I-VI, Each of them has a favourite colour from red, black, blue, yellow,

pink and green, not necessarily in the same order.

Q likes black and does not study in Class IV or V. The one who

studies in class IV does not like green. P studies in Class II. M likes blue

and does not study in class IV. The one who likes yellow studies in class VI. S

likes pink and studies in class I. R does not study in class VI.

24. In which class does R Study ?

(a) V (b) III (c) IV (d) Data inadequate (e) None of these.

25. Which colour does R like?

(a) Black (b) Yellow (c) Green (d) blue (e) None of these

26. Which colour does P like?

(a) Green (b) Yellow (c ) Red (d) Data inadequate (d) None of these



27. Which of the following combinations is correct ?

(a) P-II-Yellow (b) Q-III-Green (c ) S-I-Black (d) T-V-Yellow (d) None of these

28. In which class does M Study?

(a) IV (b) III (c ) II (d) V (e) None of these.

Key (24 to 28)

Student Class Favourite Colour

P II Green

Q III Black

R IV Red

S I Pink

T VI Yellow

M V Blue

24. ( c ) R studies in class IV

25. ( e ) R likes Red Colour

26. ( a ) P likes Green colour

27. ( e ) None of these is correct

28. ( d ) M studies in class V

Directions (29 to 33 ): Study the following information carefully and

answer the questions given below: United Bank of India PO 2009

P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are seven students of a college. Each of them has a

favourite subject from Physics, Chemistry, English, Biology, History,



Geography and Philosophy, not necessarily in the same order. Each of them

also has a favourite sport from Football, Cricket, Hockey, Volleyball,

Badminton, Table Tennis and Basketball, not necessarily in the same order.

R like Philosophy and favourite sport is Hockey. The one who likes Football

likes English. T’s favourite sport is not Badminton or Table Tennis. V does not

like either History or Biology. The one whose favourite sport is Basketball

does not like Physics. W likes Chemistry and his favourable sport is

Volleyball. S likes Geography. Q’s favourite sport is Badminton. V does

not like English and his favourite sport is not Basketball. P’s favourable

sport is Cricket. The one whose favourite sport is Badminton does not like

Biology.

29. Which subject does P like ?

(a) History (b) Biology

(c) Chemistry (d) Data inadequate

(e) None of these.

30. Who Likes History?

(a) P (b) R

(c) Q (d) V

(e) Data inadequate.

31. What is Q’s favourite sport?

(a) Cricket (b) Table Tennis

(c) Football (d) Badminton

(e) None of these.

32. Whose favourite sport is Basketball ?

(a) S (b) W



(c ) Q (d) Data inadequate

(e) None of these

33. Which subject does T like?

(a) Biology (b) Physics (c ) Chemistry

(d) Data inadequate (e) None of these

Key 29 to 33.

Subject Sport

P Biology Cricket

Q History Badminton

R Philosophy Hockey

S Geography Basketball

T English Football

V Physics Table Tennis

W Chemistry Volleyball

29. ( b ) P likes Biology

30. ( c ) Q likes History

31. ( d ) Q is favourite sport is Badminton

32. ( a ) S’s favourite sport is Basketball

33. ( e ) T likes English

Directions: ( 34 to 38): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: (RBI Grade ‘B’ Officer Examination 2009)

P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are seven students of a school. Each of them studies in different standard from Standard IV to Standard X not necessarily in the same order. Each of them has favourite subject from



English, Science, History, Geography, Mathematics, Hindi and Sanskrit not necessarily in the same order.

Q studies in VII Standard and does not like either Mathematics or Geography. R likes English and does not study either in V or in IX. T studies in VIII Standard and likes Hindi. The one who likes Science studies in X standard S studies in IV Standard. W likes Sanskrit . P does not study in X standard . The one who likes Geography studies in V standard.

34. In which standard does W study? (a) VII (b) IX (c ) X (d) Data inadequate (e) None of these.

35. Which Subject does P like ? (a) Geography (b) Mathematics (c ) English (d) History (e) None of these

36. Which subject does S Like ? (a) History (b) Geography (c ) Mathematics (d) Data inadequate (e) None of these

37. In which standard does P study? (a) IV (b) VII (c ) IX (d) X (e) None of these

38. Which of the following combinations of student-standard-subject is correct?

(a) T-VIII-Mathematics (b) W-VII-Sanskrit (c ) Q-VII- Geography (d) V-X-Science (e) None of these

Key (34 to 38):

STUDENT STANDARD FAVOURITE SUBJECT

P V Geography

Q VII History

R VI English

S IV Mathematics



T VIII Hindi

V X Science

W IX Sanskrit

34. ( b ) W studies in Standard IX.

35. ( a ) P likes Geography.

36. ( c ) S likes Mathematics

37. ( e ) P Studies in Standard V.

38. ( d ) The Combination V-X – Science is correct.



Reasoning

One of the important topic in Bank Po’s is nonverbal analytical reasoning. Now we will discuss

some examples.

1. Find the minimum number of straight lines required to make the given figure.

The figure may be labeled as shown.

The horizontal lines are IJ, AB, EF, MN, HG, DC and LK i.e. 7 in number.

The vertical lines are AD, EH, IL, FG, BC and JK i.e. 6 in number.

Thus, there are 7 + 6 = 13 straight lines in the figure.


.The figure may be labelled as shown.

The horizontal lines are IK, AB, HG and DC i.e. 4 in number.



The vertical lines are AD, EH, JM, FG and BC i.e. 5 in number.

The slanting lines are IE, JE, JF, KF, DE, DH, FC and GC i.e. 8 is number.

Thus, there are 4 + 5 + 8 = 17 straight lines in the figure.

3. Find the number of triangles in the given figure.

The figure may be labelled as shown.

The simplest triangles are AHB, GHI, BJC, GFE, GIE, IJE, CEJ and CDE i.e. 8 in number.

The triangles composed of two components each are HEG, BEC, HBE, JGE and ICE i.e. 5 in number.

The triangles composed of three components each are FHE, GCE and BED i.e. 3 in number.

There is only one triangle i.e. AGC composed of four components.

There is only one triangle i.e. AFD composed of nine components.

Thus, there are 8 + 5 + 3 + 1 + 1 = 18 triangles in the given figure.





The simplest triangles are IJO, BCJ, CDK, KQL, MLQ, GFM, GHN and NIO i.e. 8 in number.

The triangles composed of two components each are ABO, AHO, NIJ, IGP, ICP, DEQ, FEQ, KLM, LCP and LGP i.e.10 in number.

The triangles composed of four components each are HAB, DEF, LGI, GIC, ICL and GLG i.e. 6 in number.

Total number of triangles in the figure = 8 + 10 + 6 = 24.



The simplest triangles are AGE, EGC, GFC, BGF, DGB and ADG i.e. 6 in number.

The triangles composed of two components each are AGC, BGC and ABG i.e. 3 in number.

The triangles composed of three components each are AFC, BEC, BDC, ABF, ABE and DAC i.e. 6 in number.

There is only one triangle i.e. ABC composed of six components.

Thus, there are 6 + 3 + 6 + 1 = 16 triangles in the given figure.





The simplest triangles are AKI, AIL, EKD, LFB, DJC, BJC, DHC and BCG i.e. 8 in number.

The triangles composed of two components each are AKL, ADJ, AJB and DBC i.e. 4 in number.

The triangles composed of the three components each are ADC and ABC i.e. 2 in number.

There is only one triangle i.e. ADB composed of four components.

Thus, there are 8+ 4 + 2 + 1= 15 triangles in the figure.



The simplest triangles are APQ, AEQ, QTU, QRU, BGS, BHS, RSU, SUV, TUW, UWX, NWD, WDM, UVY, UXY, JCY and YKC i.e. 16 in number.

The triangles composed of two components each are QUW, QSU, SYU and UWY i.e. 4 in number.

The triangles composed of three components each are AOU, AFU, FBU, BIU, UIC, ULC, ULD and OUD i.e. 8 in number.

The triangles composed of four components each are QYW, QSW, QSY and SYW i.e. 4 in number.

The triangles composed of six components each are AUD, ABU, BUC and DUC i.e. 4 in number.

The triangles composed of seven components each are QMC, ANY, EBW, PSD, CQH, AGY, DSK and BJW i.e. 8 in number.

The triangles composed of twelve components each are ABD, ABC, BCD and ACD i.e. 4 in number.



Thus, there are 16 + 4 + 8 + 4 + 4 + 8 + 4 = 48 triangles in the figure.



The horizontal lines are DE, FH, IL and BC i.e. 4 in number.

The slanting lines are AC, DO, FN, IM, AB, EM and HN i.e. 7 in number.

Thus, there are 4 + 7 = 11 straight lines in the figure.

9. What is the number of straight lines and the number of triangles in the given figure?


The Horizontal lines are DF and BC i.e. 2 in number.

The Vertical lines are DG, AH and FI i.e. 3 in number.

The Slanting lines are AB, AC, BF and DC i.e. 4 in number.




Now, we shall count the number of triangles in the figure.

The simplest triangles are ADE, AEF, DEK, EFK, DJK, FLK, DJB, FLC, BJG and LIC i.e. 10 in number.

The triangles composed of two components each are ADF, AFK, DFK, ADK, DKB, FCK, BKH, KHC, DGB and FIC i.e. 10 in number.

The triangles composed of three components each are DFJ and DFL i.e. 2 in number.

The triangles composed of four components each are ABK, ACK, BFI, CDG, DFB, DFC and BKC i.e. 7 in number.

The triangles composed of six components each are ABH, ACH, ABF, ACD, BFC and CDB i.e. 6 in number.

There is only one triangle i.e. ABC composed of twelve components.

There are 10 + 10 + 2 + 7 + 6+ 1 = 36 triangles in the figure.



The simplest triangles are GLK, DLJ, DJM, HMN, QRE, IRA, IPA and FPO i.e. 8 in number.

The triangles having two components each are BDO, CDQ, DLM, PRA, KFI, NEI, HJI, GJI, DKI and DNI i.e. 10 in number.

The triangles having four components each are DIE, DFI, DOA, DQA andGHI i.e. 5 in number.

The triangles having six components each are DCA and DBA i.e. 2 in number.

DEF is the only triangle having eight components.

ABC is the only triangle having twelve components.



Thus, there are 8+10+ 5 + 2+1 + 1 = 27 triangles in the figure.



The horizontal lines are AK, BJ, CI, DH and EG i.e. 5 in number.

The vertical lines are AE, LF and KG i.e. 3 in number.

The slanting lines are LC, CF, FI, LI, EK and AG i.e. 6 in number.




The simplest triangles are AML, LRK, KWD, DWJ, JXI, IYC, CYH, HTG, GOB, BOF, FNE and EMA i.e. 12 in number.

The triangles composed of two components each are AEL, KDJ, HIC and FBG i.e. 4 in number.



The triangles composed of three components each are APF, EQB, BQH, GVC, CVJ, IUD, DUL and KPA i.e. 8 in number.

The triangles composed of six components each are ASB, BSG, CSD, DSA, AKF, EBH, GGJ and IDL i.e. 8 in number.

The triangles composed of twelve components each are ADB, ABC, BCD and CDA i.e. 4 in number.

Total number of triangles in the figure = 12 + 4 + 8 + 8 + 4 = 36.

13. What is the number of triangles that can be formed whose vertices are the vertices of an

octagon but have only one side common with that of octagon?

When the triangles are drawn in an octagon with vertices same as those of the octagon and having one side common to that of the octagon, the figure will appear as shown in (Fig. 1).

Now, we shall first consider the triangles having only one side AB common with octagon ABCDEFGH and having vertices common with the octagon (See Fig. 2).Such triangles are ABD, ABE, ABF and ABG i.e. 4 in number.



Similarly, the triangles having only one side BC common with the octagon and also having vertices common with the octagon are BCE, BCF, BCG and BCH (as shown in Fig. 3). i.e. There are 4 such triangles.

This way, we have 4 triangles for each side of the octagon. Thus, there are 8 x 4 = 32 such triangles.



The simplest triangles are BFG, CGH, EFM, FMG, GMN, GHN, HNI, LMK, MNK and KNJ i.e. 10 in number.

The triangles composed of three components each are FAK and HKD i.e. 2 in number.

The triangles composed of four components each are BEN, CMI, GLJ and FHK i.e. 4 in number.

The triangles composed of eight components each are BAJ and OLD i.e. 2 in number.

Thus, there are 10 + 2 + 4 + 2 = 18 triangles in the given figure.



The simplest triangles are AHL, LHG, GHM, HMB, GMF, BMF, BIF, CIF, FNC, CNJ, FNE, NEJ, EKJ and JKD i.e. 14 in number.



The triangles composed of two components each are AGH, BHG, HBF, BFG, HFG, BCF, CJF, CJE, JEF, CFE and JED i.e. 11 in number.

The triangles composed of four components each are ABG, CBG, BCE and CED i.e. 4 in number.

Total number of triangles in the given figure = 14 + 11 + 4 = 29.


The figure may be labeled as shown.

The simplest triangles are ABJ, ACJ, BDH, DHF, CIE and GIE i.e. 6 in number.

The triangles composed of two components each are ABC, BDF, CEG, BHJ, JHK, JKI and CJI i.e. 7 in number.

There is only one triangle JHI which is composed of four components.

Thus, there are 6 + 7 + 1 = 14 triangles in the given figure

Next issue we will discuss other analytical problem solving questions.

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