NIFT | UG GAT TIME: 2HRS....NIFT | UG GAT TIME: 2HRS. construction boom ahead of the 2008 Olympics, making metal prices soar all over the world, and sparking inflation in India. 11

NIFT | UG GAT TIME: 2HRS.

Qs. 1-5: Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be one

part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5). (Ignore errors of

punctuation, if any).

1. She insists (1) you say (2) until her husband (3) comes home. (4) No error. (5)

2. I asked the salesman (1) f I could exchange (2) the faulty camera (3) with another one. (4) No error.(5)

3. As you know (1) by my visiting card (2) I am now (3) in Mumbai. (4) No error.(5)

4. It is more better (1) if one of the parents (2) stays at home (3) to look after the children. (4) No error. (5)

5. I don't understand (1) how she could (2) treat him (3) so bad. (4) No error. (5)

Qs. 6-10. Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C) , (D), (E), and (F) in a proper sequence so as to form a

meaningful paragraph. Then answer the questions given below them.

(A) It was further revived by a Boston publishing firm, and from that time Mother Goose continued and grew in

fame and interest till date.

(B) The first collection of verses under her name was published in London in book form by John Newhery.

(C) These were known long before they were designated as Mother Goose rhymes.

(D) Some rhymes can be traced to popular ballads, folk songs and games, political satire, ancient proverbs, cries of

street vendors, real or legendary events.

(E) About twenty five years later the book was reprinted in the United States in Worcester, Massachusetts.

(F) In fact, until the eighteenth century Mother Goose did not have a name in print in English Literature.

6. Which of the following will be the last sentence? (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E

7. Which of the following will be the fifth sentence? (1) F (2) E (3) D (4) C (5) B

8. Which of the following will be the first sentence? (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E

9. Which of the following will be the second sentence? (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E

10. Which of the following will be the fourth sentence? (1) F (2) E (3) D (4) C (5) B

Qs. 11-20: In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are

printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately.

Find out the appropriate word in each case.

After ten years of (11) inflation, prices have spiked 7.5% in the third week of July. This looks scary after all, Indians

had got used to prices crawling up by 2% in the least two years, and a 10-years average inflation rate of about 5%

_but you shouldn't worry. This burst of inflation is the result of three factors that have come together

unexpectedly, are unlikely to (12) for long and are unlikely to (13) up together again: A (14) rise in global oil prices,

a monsoon that arrived late and a spike in global metal prices. North Sea crude has crossed $ 42 per barrel, driven

up by low petroleum (15) and soaring demand in the US as war production heats up. Oil markets are also spooked

by the (16) of Russian oil supplies falling on the back of the Yukos-sibneft probe. There's little that the government

can do to (17) users from soaring oil prices_ indeed, it shouldn't, if it wants to (18) energy efficiency. Higher

transport costs have pushed up rates of vegetables and fruits; farm produce could also get affected by rains that

arrived too late for kharif sowing. China is (19) up steel and other metals from all over the world to (20) a


construction boom ahead of the 2008 Olympics, making metal prices soar all over the world, and sparking inflation

in India.

11. (1) retarding (2) vehement (3) dull (4) mere (5) moderate

12. (1) persist (2) repeat (3) normalize (4) obstinate (5) constitute

13. (1) mount (2) yield (3) crop (4) go (5) scramble

14. (1) horrific (2) erratic (3) favorable (4) sustained (5) suspicious

15. (1) services (2) inventories (3) details (4) lists (5) trades

16. (1) view (2) extent (3) deposit (4) prospect (5) progress

17. (1) propel (2) prolong (3) insulate (4) support (5) ignore

18. (1) process (2) pass (3) form (4) position (5) promote

19. (1) pairing (2) gobbling (3) throwing (4) hurrying (5) passing

20. (1) feed (2) grow (3) fight (4) keep (5) make

Qs. 21-25: Each question below has two blanks. There are five pairs of words below each sentence. Each pair is

numbered. Choose the pair of words which can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the same order so as to

complete the sentence meaningfully.

21. The ___playing of loud music has led the angry residents of this vicinity to file a police complaint and move

court against the organizer's lack of _____ for the people's need for a peaceful neighborhood.

(1) Peaceful, thought (2) abrupt, hope (3) incessant, consideration (4) fashionable, friendliness

(5) Intermittent, interpretation

22. The _____of the chronic balance of payments deficit which has_____ the Finance Ministry under threePrime

Minister is very real.

(1) Temptation, reviled (2) understanding, menaced (3) impact, underestimated (4) obligation, blessed

(5) Dilemma, plagued

23. Britain, for the present, is deeply____in economic troubles, and the economic future, heavily_____ looks

uncertain.

(1) engrossed, responsive (2) ingrained, skeptical (3) saturated, enveloped (4) mired, mortgaged

(5) restrained, participative

24. Our Constitution was based on the belief that the free_____of ideas, people and cultures is essential to the

______of a democratic society.

(1) Selection, concurrence (2) interchange, preservation (3) reversal, upholding (4) dissemination, congruence

(5) distinction, design

25. As this country has become more____, industrial and internationalized, it has like all Western democracies,

experienced a necessary increase in the _____of the executive.

(1) urbanized, role (2) objective, wealth (3) synthesized, efficiency (4) civilized, convenience (5) Concretized, vision


Qs. 26-30: In each question, there is a sentence with a part of the sentence printed in bold. Decide whether this

bold part is correct and fits in the grammatical and contextual framework of the sentence. If it is to be changed,

choose from options (1) to (4) to replace that part, if not, mark (5) as the answer i.e. 'No change required'.

26. If he was to decide to go to college, I, for one, would recommend that he go to Yale University.

(1) If he were to decide to go to Yale University. (2) Had he decided to go to college (3) In the event that he decides

to go to college (4) supposing he was, to decide to go to college (5) No change required

27. Although he is able to make political enemies with this decision, the Prime Minister does not mind doing it for

the sake of public welfare.

(1) Liable from (2) of a mind to (3) acknowledging his liability to (4) liable to (5) No change required

28. Had I realized how close I was to failing, I would not have gone to the party.

(1) If I would have realized (2) Had I realize how close (3) When I realized how close (4) If I realized how close

(5) No change required

29. Except for you and I, everyone brought a present to the party.

(1) With the exception of you & I everyone brought (2) Except for you and I, everyone had brought

(3) Except for you and me, everyone brought (4) Exception of you and me, everyone had brought

(5) No change required

30.. Being as I am a realist, I could not accept his statement that supernatural beings has caused the disturbance.

(1) That I am a realist (2) being a realist (3) Being that I am a realist (4) Realist that I am (5) No change required

Directions: Read the passage. Then answer the questions below.

For two months, I have been trying to decide who makes the best ice cream. I have narrowed it down to my four

favorite manufacturers: Randolph Farms, Goodies, Disco, and Twinkle. Let's start with Randolph Farms. Randolph

Farms makes very good ice cream. They have lots of different flavors, but this doesn't really matter to me. That's

because I always get coffee flavor. They make the best coffee ice cream in the world. I've never had hot coffee (the

drink) but people tell me that Randolph Farms coffee ice cream tastes just like the real thing. Also, Randolph Farms

uses all natural ingredients to make their ice cream. This is a good idea, I think.

Second, we have Goodies. Goodies makes excellent ice cream. Like Randolph Farms, Goodies uses all natural

ingredients. They only make three different flavors—strawberry, vanilla, and chocolate—but they make them very

well. The strawberry is amazing. Every bite of it reminds me of the strawberries that I used to pick behind my old

house. The vanilla is wonderful. It is very smooth and has a refreshing, creamy taste. The chocolate is outstanding.

It is made with real cocoa beans from Bolivia. I didn't know where Bolivia is so I decided to look for it on a map.

After hunting awhile, I discovered that it is in South America! That's a long way to go to get cocoa, so it must be

good. I would say that the only drawback to Goodies ice cream is that they only make three different flavors.

Third, we have Disco. Disco ice cream is okay. They don't have many good flavors. Actually, the only Disco flavor I

like is Bubblegum. It is vanilla ice cream with little chunks of bubblegum in it. After you eat the ice cream, you can

blow bubbles with the gum. That's pretty fun. Finally, there is Twinkle. Twinkle ice cream is mediocre. The only

good thing about Twinkle is that it is relatively inexpensive. You can buy a whole carton of twinkle ice cream for

$4.50. That's only two weeks' allowance for me.


31) Which of the following would be the best title for this passage?

A. Strawberry, Vanilla, Chocolate, and Bubblegum Too! B. The Four Top Ice Cream Manufacturers

C. The Finest Ice Cream in the World D. Picking the Best Ice Cream Manufacturer

32) If the author wanted to get a scoop of coffee ice cream, where would he or she probably go?

A. Randolph Farms B. Goodies C. Disco D. Twinkle

33) In paragraph 1, the author uses a colon. A colon (:) looks like two dots, one on top of the other. Colons are

used to separate different parts of a sentence. The part before the colon introduces an idea and can stand alone as

a sentence. The part after the colon gives more detailed information about this idea, often as a list. If the colon

could talk, it would say, "And here they are!" Using this information, it can be understood that which of the

following sentences contains the correct use of a colon?

A. My friends are: sweet, young, and generous. B. I like: to talk on the phone at night.

C. I have three pets: Toto, Spot, and Rover. D. I want a new bicycle: or new roller skates.

34) According to the passage, the author likes Randolph Farms ice cream because it

I. is all natural II. is made in Bolivia III. comes in many flavors

A. I only B. I and II only C. II and III only D. I, II, and III

35) In paragraph 3 the author writes, "That's a long way to go to get cocoa, so it must be good." Using this

information, we can understand that the author believes that

A. Goodies loses money on sales of chocolate ice cream B. Bolivia makes the best cocoa in the world

C. things that are hard to get must be high quality D. cocoa from the United States is not very good


Have you ever wondered what keeps a hot air balloon flying? The same principle that keeps food frozen in the

open chest freezers at the grocery store allows hot air balloons to fly. It's a very basic principle: Hot air rises and

cold air falls. So while the super-cooled air in the grocery store freezer settles down around the food, the hot air in

a hot air balloon pushes up, keeping the balloon floating above the ground. In order to understand more about

how this principle works in hot air balloons, it helps to know more about hot air balloons themselves.

A hot air balloon has three major parts: the basket, the burner, and the envelope. The basket is where passengers

ride. The basket is usually made of wicker. This ensures that it will be comfortable and add little extra weight. The

burner is positioned above the passenger's heads and produces a huge flame to heat the air inside the envelope.

The envelope is the colorful fabric balloon that holds the hot air. When the air inside the envelope is heated, the

balloon rises.

The pilot can control the up-and-down movements of the hot air balloon by regulating the heat in the envelope.

To ascend, the pilot heats the air in the envelope. When the pilot is ready to land, the air in the balloon is allowed

to cool and the balloon becomes heavier than air. This makes the balloon descend. Before the balloon is launched,

the pilot knows which way the wind is blowing. This means that she has a general idea about which way the

balloon will go. But, sometimes the pilot can actually control the direction that the balloon flies while in flight. This

is because the air above the ground is sectioned into layers in which the direction of the wind may be different. So

even though the pilot can't steer the balloon, she can fly or higher or lower into a different layer of air. Some days


the difference between the direction of the wind between layers is negligible. But other days the difference is so

strong that it can actually push the balloon in a completely different direction!

36) According to the passage, balloon pilots control the balloon’s altitude by

A. moving into a different layer of air B. regulating the air temperature inside the balloon

C. adjusting the amount of air in the envelope D. changing the amount of weight contained in the basket

37) As used in paragraph 3, which is the best synonym for ascend?

A. move B. fly C. sink D. climb

38) As used in paragraph 3, which is the best antonym for descend?

A. fall B. float C. rise D. drop

39) According to the author, wicker is

I. comfortable II. lightweight III. durable

A. I only B. I and II only C. II and III only D. I, II, and III

40) If the hot air balloon pilot wants to change directions during flight, what might he or she do to accomplish

this?

A. head toward a mountain peak B. wait for it to rain

C. fly into a cloud D. fly higher


Claude Monet, a 19th -century French painter, was the most famous artist associated with the movement known as

Impressionism. Monet was born on November 14, 1840, and even as a young man he was known for producing

small portraits in charcoal. In 1858 Monet met the artist Eugène Boudin, who became his mentor and introduced

Monet to painting outdoors, or “en plein air” as it came to be known. In 1859, at the age of 19, Monet moved to

Paris to become a professional artist. Most artists of his time tried to imitate nature realistically, but in his

landscape painting Monet instead sought to portray nature as it appeared to him. In particular, he was interested

in how light affects the ways that we perceive color. In one of his most famous series of works, Monet painted the

cathedral in Rouen, France at several different times of day, showing how changes in natural light make the

cathedral appear to change color. In 1883, Monet moved to a small French town called Giverny, where he built an

elaborate garden. This garden, in particular its water lily ponds, became the chief subject of Monet’s later

paintings. Monet’s paintings of water lilies were extremely influential to 20th -century modern artists. In these

paintings, Monet used the landscape merely as a starting point, creating abstract fields of vibrant color. These

paintings relied on broad, thick brushstrokes. The texture of these brushstrokes gave the canvases a tactile quality

that contrasted sharply with the smooth canvases produced by more traditional artists. Though he struggled

financially throughout his life, when Monet died in 1926, he was one of the most famous and influential painters in

the world.

41) This passage would most likely be found in

A. a newspaper B. an encyclopedia C. a magazine D. a blog

42) Based on information in the passage, it can be inferred that the phrase “a tactile quality” suggests that

Monet’s canvases were


A. colorful B. beautiful C. smooth D. rough

43) According to the passage, Monet moved to Paris in 1859 to

A. join the Impressionism movement B. paint cathedrals

C. become a professional artist D. build an elaborate garden

44) The tone of the passage can best be described as

A. factual B. passionate C. clever D. adoring


It is easy to make a delicious-looking hamburger at home. But would this hamburger still look delicious after it sat

on your kitchen table under very bright lights for six or seven hours? If someone took a picture or made a video of

this hamburger after the seventh hour, would anyone want to eat it? More importantly, do you think you could get

millions of people to pay money for this hamburger? These are the questions that fast food companies worry

about when they produce commercials or print ads for their products. Video and photo shoots often last many

hours. The lights that the photographers use can be extremely hot. These conditions can cause the food to look

quite unappealing to potential consumers. Because of this, the menu items that you see in fast food commercials

are probably not actually edible.

Let’s use the hamburger as an example. The first step towards building the perfect commercial hamburger is the

bun. The food stylist—a person employed by the company to make sure the products look perfect—sorts through

hundreds of buns until he or she finds one with no wrinkles. Next, the stylist carefully rearranges the sesame seeds

on the bun using glue and tweezers for maximum visual appeal. The bun is then sprayed with a waterproofing

solution so that it will not get soggy from contact with other ingredients, the lights, or the humidity in the room.

Next, the food stylist shapes a meat patty into a perfect circle. Only the outside of the meat gets cooked—the

inside is left raw so that the meat remains moist. The food stylist then paints the outside of the meat patty with a

mixture of oil, molasses, and brown food coloring. Grill marks are either painted on or seared into the meat using

hot metal skewers. Finally, the food stylist searches through dozens of tomatoes and heads of lettuce to find the

best-looking produce. One leaf of the crispest lettuce and one center slice of the reddest tomato are selected and

then sprayed with glycerin to keep them looking fresh.

So the next time you see a delectable hamburger in a fast food commercial, remember: you’re actually looking at

glue, paint, raw meat, and glycerin! Are you still hungry?

45) The author’s primary purpose is to

A. convince readers not to eat at fast food restaurants

B. explain how fast food companies make their food look delicious in commercials

C. teach readers how to make delicious-looking food at home

D. criticize fast food companies for lying about their products in commercials

46) According to the passage, fast food companies use things like glue and glycerin on hamburgers that appear in

advertisements because

I. no one actually has to eat the food used in the commercial

II. it is important that people who see these advertisements would pay for the food being advertised


III. filming a commercial or a print ad can take a very long time

A. l only B. I and II only C. II and III only D. I, II, and III

47) As used in paragraph 2, something is edible if it

A. can safely be eaten B. looks very delicious C. seems much smaller in real life D. tastes good

48) According to the passage, a food stylist working on a hamburger commercial might use glue to

A. make sure the meat patty stays attached to the bun

B. keep the sesame seeds on the bun in perfect order

C. arrange the lettuce on the tomato

D. hold the entire hamburger together

49) Based on information in the passage, it is most important for the lettuce and tomato used in a fast food

hamburger commercial to

A. have a great taste B. be the perfect shape and size

C. appear natural D. look fresh

50) Imagine that the author decides to change this passage so that it talks about a cheeseburger instead of a

hamburger. Assume that the cheese goes directly on top of the hamburger patty. If the author wants to include a

paragraph about how the food stylist designs the cheese and places it on the meat patty, this new paragraph

would best fit into the passage

A. between paragraph 2 and paragraph 3 B. between paragraph 3 and paragraph 4

C. between paragraph 4 and paragraph 5 D. between paragraph 5 and paragraph 6


In the early 1920's, settlers came to Alaska looking for gold. They traveled by boat to the coastal towns of Seward

and Knik, and from there by land into the gold fields. The trail they used to travel inland is known today as the

Iditarod Trail, one of the National Historic Trails designated by the Congress of the United States. The Iditarod Trail

quickly became a major thoroughfare in Alaska, as the mail and supplies were carried across this trail. People also

used it to get from place to place, including the priests, ministers, and judges who had to travel between villages.

In the winter, the settlers’ only means of travel down this trail was via dog sled.

Once the gold rush ended, many gold-seekers went back to where they had come from, and suddenly there was

much less travel on the Iditarod Trail. The introduction of the airplane in the late 1920’s meant dog teams were no

longer the standard mode of transportation, and of course with the airplane carrying the mail and supplies, there

was less need for land travel in general. The final blow to the use of the dog teams was the appearance of

snowmobiles. By the mid 1960's, most Alaskans didn’t even know the Iditarod Trail existed, or that dog teams had

played a crucial role in Alaska’s early settlements. Dorothy G. Page, a self-made historian, recognized how few

people knew about the former use of sled dogs as working animals and about the Iditarod Trail’s role in Alaska’s

colorful history. To raise awareness about this aspect of Alaskan history, she came up with the idea to have a dog

sled race over the Iditarod Trail. She presented her idea to an enthusiastic musher, as dog sled drivers are known,

named Joe Redington, Sr. Soon the Pages and the Redingtons were working together to promote the idea of the

Iditarod race.


Many people worked to make the first Iditarod Trail Sled Dog Race a reality in 1967. The Aurora Dog Mushers Club,

along with men from the Adult Camp in Sutton, helped clear years of overgrowth from the first nine miles of the

Iditarod Trail. To raise interest in the race, a $25,000 purse was offered, with Joe Redington donating one acre of

his land to help raise the funds. The short race, approximately 27 miles long, was put on a second time in 1969.

After these first two successful races, the goal was to lengthen the race a little further to the ghost town of

Iditarod by 1973. However in 1972, the U.S. Army reopened the trail as a winter exercise, and so in 1973, the

decision was made to take the race all the way to the city of Nome—over 1,000 miles. There were many who

believed it could not be done and that it was crazy to send a bunch of mushers out into the vast, uninhabited

Alaskan wilderness. But the race went! 22 mushers finished that year, and to date over 400 people have

completed it.

51) The primary purpose of this passage is to

A. recount the history of the Iditarod trail and the race that memorializes it

B. describe the obstacles involved in founding the Iditarod race

C. outline the circumstances that led to the establishment of the Iditarod Trail

D. reestablish the important place of the Iditarod Trail in Alaska’s history

52) Based on information in the passage, it can be inferred that all of the following contributed to the disuse of the

Iditarod Trail except

A. more modern forms of transportation B. depleted gold mines

C. highway routes to ghost towns D. reduced demand for land travel

53) As used in paragraph 2, which is the best definition for mode?

A. formula B. way C. preference D. option

54) According to the passage, the initial Iditarod race

A. was funded through the sale of musher entrance fees

B. was founded by an advocate for Alaskan history

C. ended at the ghost town of Iditarod

D. boasted a total of 400 entrants

55) As used in paragraph 3, the phrase “self-made historian” implies that Dorothy G. Page

A. was employed by the state to keep its dog sled history alive

B. was determined to honor the glories of the gold rush in spite of her questionable credentials

C. had pursued the study of Alaska’s history out of her own interest

D. had personally educated others about Alaska’s history


It is bad to have food stuck between your teeth for long periods of time. This is because food


attracts germs, germs produce acid, and acid hurts your teeth and gums. Flossing helps to remove the food that

gets stuck between your teeth. This explains why flossing helps to keep your mouth healthy, but some doctors say

that flossing can be also good for your heart. It may seem strange that something you do for your teeth can have

any effect on your heart. Doctors have come up with a few ideas about how flossing works to keep your heart

healthy. One idea is that the germs that hurt your teeth can leave the mouth and travel into your blood. Germs

that get into the blood can then attack your heart. Another idea is based on the fact that when there are too many

germs in your mouth, the body tries to fight against these germs. For some reason, the way the body fights these

mouth germs may end up weakening the heart over time.

Not every doctor agrees about these ideas. Some doctors think that the link between good flossing habits and

good heart health is only a coincidence. A coincidence is the occurrence of two or more events at one time

apparently by mere chance. The incidence of these events is completely random, as they do not admit of any

reliable cause and effect relationship between them. For example, every time I wash my car, it rains. This does not

mean that when I wash my car, I somehow change the weather. This is only a coincidence. Likewise, some doctors

think that people who have bad flossing habits just happen to also have heart problems, and people who have

good flossing habits just happen to have healthy hearts.

The theory that flossing your teeth helps to keep your heart healthy might not be true. But every doctor agrees

that flossing is a great way to keep your teeth healthy. So even if flossing does not help your heart, it is sure to help

your teeth. This is enough of a reason for everyone to floss their teeth every day.

56) Which of the following would be the best title for this passage?

A. Why Doctors Disagree about Flossing B. How to Keep Your Teeth Healthy

C. Flossing Your Way to a Healthy Heart D. Flossing by Coincidence

57) Flossing effectively helps to keep your mouth healthy by preventing

A. germs from producing acid B. food from entering your body

C. germs from entering into your blood D. acid from contacting your teeth and gums

58) In paragraph 2, the author introduces ideas about how flossing works to keep your heart healthy. Exactly how

many of these ideas does the author put forth in this paragraph?

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

59) Based on information in paragraph 2, it can be understood that germs in the mouth may harm your heart by

I. getting into the blood that flows to the heart II. forcing the body to fight against too many of them

III. causing food to get stuck in the arteries


60) In paragraph 2, the author explains how having too many germs in your mouth can "end up

weakening the heart." Using the passage as a guide, it can be understood that with respect to the

actual way in which this occurs, doctors are

A. reluctant to hypothesize B. confident in their estimations

C. extremely knowledgeable D. uncertain but speculative



Most human beings are awake during the day and sleep all night. Owls live the opposite way. Owls are nocturnal.

This means that they sleep all day and stay awake at night. Because owls are nocturnal, this means they must eat

at night. But finding food in the dark is difficult. To help them, they have special eyes and ears. Owls have very

large eyes. These eyes absorb more light than normal. Since there is little light during the night, it is helpful to be

able to absorb more of it. This helps owls find food in the dark. Owls also have very good hearing. Even when owls

are in the trees, they can hear small animals moving in the grass below. This helps owls catch their prey even when

it is very dark.

Like owls, mice are also nocturnal animals. Mice have an excellent sense of smell. This helps them find food in the

dark. Being nocturnal helps mice to hide from the many different animals that want to eat them. Most of the

birds, snakes, and lizards that like to eat mice sleep at night—except, of course, owls!

61) In paragraph 1, we learn that "Owls are nocturnal." The word diurnal is the opposite of the word nocturnal.

Using information in the passage as a guide, we can understand that an animal that is diurnal

A. sleeps at night and is awake during the day

B. hunts during the day and is awake at night

C. sleeps every other night and is awake during the day

D. hunts during the day and night

62) Based on information in paragraph 2, it can be understood that an animal with small eyes

A. must be diurnal B. has trouble seeing in the dark

C. can see very well at night D. is likely to be eaten by an owl

63) According to the passage, owls can find food in the dark using their sense of

I. sight II. sound III. smell


64) In paragraph 3 the author writes, "This helps owls catch their prey even when it is very dark." Based on its use

in the passage, we can understand that prey is

A. a noise that an animal makes during the night B. a small animal such as a pet dog or cat

C. an animal that is hunted by other animals D. an animals that hunts other animals

65) Based on information in the final paragraph, it can be understood that mice sleep during the day in order to

A. find food that other animals can not B. keep themselves safe

C. store energy for night time activities D. release stress


To Whom it May Concern:

On March 5, 2010, I bought a Perfect Muffin Kit from your store at Midfield Mall. The cashier who assisted me

was George. George was very friendly and assured me that the Perfect Muffin Kit would live up to the guarantee

on the box: “Perfect Muffins Every Time!”


Unfortunately, this product did not live up to its claim. Although the box promised, as I stated above, to provide

“Perfect Muffins Every Time,” the muffins I made were far from perfect. I followed the directions included in the

package very carefully. First, I removed the bag of mix from the box. Then, I poured it into a bowl. Next, I added

the correct amount of water to the mix and stirred it. The directions said that after stirring the mixture, I could,

and I quote, “add half a cup of raisins, nuts, berries, or another favorite ingredient.” My favorite ingredient

happens to be hot sauce. I find that a dash of hot sauce makes pizza, pasta, and soup taste very delicious. So,

continuing to follow the directions, I added half a cup of hot sauce to the mix and stirred it. Finally, I poured the

mix into muffin tins and baked it in the oven at 350 degrees for exactly 20 minutes.

When the muffins finished baking, I was very excited to eat the “Perfect Muffins” as promised on the box. You can

imagine my disappointment when, upon tasting the muffins, I discovered that they were not perfect. These

muffins were, in fact, absolutely terrible. Not even my dog was interested in eating these supposedly “perfect”

muffins.

I would appreciate a full refund ($3.99) for this product as soon as possible. Enclosed are the receipt, the empty

box, and one of the un-perfect muffins so that you can experience it for yourself. Thank you for your prompt

attention to this matter.

Sincerely,

Michelle Bauer

66) This letter is most likely addressed to

A. the owner of the muffin mix company B. a local storeowner

C. the clerk at a local muffin bakery D. George, the cashier who sold Michelle the muffin mix

67) The tone of the author can best be described as

A. furious B. disgusted C. embarrassed D. frustrated

68) As used in paragraph 1, which is the best synonym for guarantee?

A. lie B. warning C. promise D. sentence

69) Which of the following best describes the organization of paragraph 2?

A. The paragraph follows chronological order, in which events are presented in the sequence that they occur.

B. The author explains a problem and then proposes a solution to that problem.

C. The author makes an argument and then provides evidence to support that argument.

D. The paragraph follows a cause-and-effect order, in which a series of causes are given, followed by their effects.

70) It can be understood that the author is disappointed by the product because

A. it was worth less money than she paid for it

B. it did not fulfill the promise made on the box

C. the directions included with the product contained a mistake

D. the directions included with the product were too difficult to follow


Qs.71-72: In a family there are three men, three women, two young girls and a boy. There are three couples. One

of the couples has one son only. Samar is Sarla's grandson. Bhagwati Prasad is Pramod's father-in-law. Sarita is

Vinti's aunt. Anita is Rohini's mother. Kausar is Samar's father.

71. How is Kausar related to Sarla?

(1) Grandson (2) son (3) brother (4) husband (5) son-in-law

72. Which one of the following is a pair of sisters?

(1) Sarla & Sarita (2) Vinti & Anita (3) Sarla & Rohini (4) Anita & Sarita (5) Sarla & Anita

Qs 73-76: Three young men Mohan, Deepak and saurabh and their girl-friends Mrinal, Asha and shailley sat round

a table with one boy one girl arrangement and ordered ice-creams. Each Youngman sat facing his girl-friend.

Person to the right of Asha had vanilla.Mrinal sat between Deepak and Mohan. Mohan's girl- friend had

kulfi.Person sitting to the right of Saurabh had kesar-pista. None of the girls wanted strawberry or cassata. Asha

was not near Mohan. Deepak did not want strawberry. Girl to the right of Mohan had butterscotch.

73. Who is saurabh's girl-friend and which ice-cream did she have?

(1)Shailley-butterscotch (2) Mrinal-vanilla (3) Asha-kulfi (4) Mrinal-butterscotch (5) Asha-kesar-pista

74. Who ordered vanilla?

(1) Saurabh (2) Deepak (3) Shailley (4) Mrinal (5) None of these

75. Who sat to the left of Asha?

(1) Mohan (2) Mrinal (3) Deepak (4) Saurabh (5) Cannot say

76. Who sat to the left of the person who had strawberry?

(1) Saurabh (2) Deepak (3) shailley (4) Asha (5) Mohan

Qs. 77-79: Seven girls, A, B, C, D, E, F and G stood facing the audience and sang Vande Mataram. C was to the right

of A. E was to the left of B. G was neither at any corner nor near F or D. D and B had one person between them.

There are one girl between F and A.

77. E was between:

(1) B & A (2) B & C (3) B & D (4) B & F (5) B & G

78. Who were at the two corners?

(1) D & F (2) A & D (3) B & F (4) A & F (5) D & E

79. Who was exactly in the middle?

(1) C (2) A (3) B (4) D (5) G

Qs. (80-82) A started from his house, went two km south, turned left and walked 1 km, again turned right and

walked 1 km, and finally turned left and after walking 1 km reached point P. B started from his house towards east,

after going 1 km he turned right and walked for 2 km, again he turned right and after covering 3 km reached point

Q which is 1 km to the north of P. B started from his house towards east, after going 1 km he turned right and

walked for 2 km, again he turned right and after covering 3 km reached point Q which is 1 km to the north of P.

80. How far is A's house from point Q as the crow flies?


(1) Square root of 13 (2) Square root of 10 (3) Square root of 8 (4) 4km (5) Square root of 17

81. How far is A's house from B's house?

(1) 1 km (2) 2 km (3) 3 km (4) 4 km (5) 5 km

82. If both started at 7 A.M., A at a pace of 6 km per hour and B at 5 km per hour and after stopping at point P for

15 minutes A started again and met B at Q, for how much time did B had to wait for Q?

(1) 2 mts (2) 3 mts (3) 5 mts (4) 7 mts (5) None of these

Qs. 83-84: The average age of Uma, her husband Navin and their children Praveen and Deepa is 28 years. Praveen

was 3 years old when Deepa was born. Uma had her second child at the age of 27.Navin is 3 years older than his

wife.

83. How old is Navin now?

(1) 37 years (2) 40 years (3) 43 years (4) 45 years (5) None of these

84. How old would be Uma when Deepak would be half her age?

(1) 50 years (2) 48 years (3) 44 years (4) 42 years (5) None of these

Qs. 85-86: Among six friends A, B, C, D, E and FE is 3 years younger than D. C is 6 years younger than E. F is 7 years

younger than D. B is 5 years older than A. D is 2 years younger than B. If C is 14:

85. (1) C and A, 18 years (2) A and E, 20 years (3) D and A, 22 years (4) E and F, 16 years (5) none of these

86. What is the age of D and how does he stand age wise from the top?

(1) 23 years; 2nd (2) 20 years; 3rd (3) 22 years; 3rd (4) 21 years; 4th (5) None of these

87. Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence.

1. Rainbow 2. Rain 3. Sun 4. Happy 5. Child

A. 2, 1, 4, 3, 5 B. 2, 3, 1, 5, 4 C. 4, 2, 3, 5, 1 D. 4, 5, 1, 2, 3

88. Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence.

1. Income 2. Status 3. Education 4. Well-being 5. Job

A. 3, 1, 5, 2, 4 B. 1, 3, 2, 5, 4 C. 1, 2, 5, 3, 4 D. 3, 5, 1, 2, 4

89. Choose the word which is different from the rest.

A. Polyester B. Cotton C. Terylene D. Nylon

90. Six girls are sitting in a circle facing to the centre of the circle. They are P, Q, R, S, T and V. T is not between Q

and S but some other one. P is next to the left of V. R is 4th to the right of P.

What is the position of T ?

A. Just next to the right of Q B. Second to the left of P C. Between Q and R D. To the immediate right of V

91. Choose the word which is different from the rest.

A. Tomato B. Cucumber C. Brinjal D. Carrot E. Gourd


92. Choose the odd one out.

A. abcq B. pqrB C. mnpC D. xyzT E. efgP

93. Choose the missing terms out of the given alternatives.

T, R, P, N, L, ?, ?

A. J, G B. J, H C. K, H D. K, I

94. An enterprising businessman earns an income of Re. 1 on the first day of his business. On every subsequent

day, he earns an income which is just double of that made on the previous day. One the 10th day of business, his

income is

A. Rs. 29 B. Rs. 210 C. Rs. 10 D. Rs. 102

95. In a family, a couple has a son and a daughter. The age of the father is three times that of his daughter and the

age of the son is half of that of his mother. The wife is 9 years younger to her husband and the brother is seven

years older than his sister. What is the age of the mother ?

A. 40 years B. 45 years C. 50 years D. 60 years

96. A cube is cut in two equal parts along a plane parallel to one of its faces. One piece is then coloured red on the

two larger faces and green on the remaining, while the other is coloured green on two smaller adjacent faces and

red on the remaining. Each is then cut into 32 cubes of same size and mixed up.

How many cubes have each one red and another green ?

A. 0 B. 8 C. 16 D. 24

97. Mr. Johnson was to earn £ 300 and a free holiday for seven weeks' work. He worked for only 4 weeks and

earned £ 30 and a free holiday. What was the value of the holiday?

A. £ 300 B. £ 330 C. £ 360 D. £ 420

98. A is 3 years older to B and 3 years younger to C, while B and D are twins. How many years older is C to D?

A. 2 B. 3 C. 6 D. 12

99. One morning after sunrise, Vimal started to walk. During this walking he met Stephen who was coming from

opposite direction. Vimal watch that the shadow of Stephen to the right of him (Vimal). To Which direction Vimal

was facing?

A. East B. West C. South D. Data inadequate

100. After walking 6 km, I turned to the right and then walked 2 km. After then I turned to the left and walked 10

km. In the end, I was moving towards the North. From which direction did I start my journey?

A. North B. South C. East D. West

101. Which company introduced lubricant under the brand name of MAK?

(a) Castrol India (b) BPCL (c) HPCL (d) Indian Oil

102. Name the country to which India exported salt for the first time:

(a) China (b) USA (c) Australia (d) UK


103. Name the official slogan launched by Union Tourism Ministry to publicise tourist spots:

(a) Visit India (b) Incredible darshan (c) Incredible India (d) Visit India the heritage country

104. Name the city which has been ranked at number one on food security index:

(a) Bangalore (b) Delhi (c) Nagpur (d) Pune

104. When do we celebrate World Computer Literacy Day?

(a) October 16 (b) October 22(c) October 30 (d) October 3

105. Name the first fully implantable artificial heart in a human being which has no wires or tubes passing through

the skin:

(a) Aablaquin (b) Lsortio (c) Abio car (d) Hertofro

106. Name the publishing company owned by Rupert Murdoch:

(a) TV 18 (b) CNBC (c) Harper Collins (d) Penguin

107. Name the first female to endorse "Thums Up" brand:

(a) Aishwarya Rai (b) Bipasha Basu (c) sushmita Sen (d) Rani Mukherjee

108. Name the country which has launched the first driverless train of world:

(a) UK (b) Singapore © Japan (d) USA

109. What does FDCI stand for?

(a) Faculty Development Center of India (b) Footwear & Diamond Center of India

(c) Fashion Design Council of India (d) Fashion Development Center of India

110. Who among these is not a famous Fashion Designer?

(a) Ritu Kumar (b) Nainika Karan (c) Kunal Mehta (d) Sabyasachi Mukherjee

111. Who is the present Textiles Minister of India?

(a) Kashiram Rana (b) Sharad Pawar (c) Kavuri Sambasiva Rao (d) Anbumani Ramados

112. percentage of Oxygen in atmosphere is A. 18% B. 21% C. 78% D. 39%

113. Aryabhatta was A. Doctor B. painter C. astrologer D. Scientist

114. Which of the following state produce maximum Rubber ?

A. Tamil Nadu B. Andhra Pradesh C. Kerala D. Maharashtra

115. Which of the following is the 2nd language of the uttar pradesh? A. English B. Bhojpur C. Urdu D. Hindi

116. The currency name of the Brittan is A. dollar B. pond C. Dinaar D. Frank

117. Which of the following is the border state of the uttar pradesh ?

A. Rajasthan B. Punjab C. West Bengal D. Andhra Pradesh

118. Which of the following currency have maximum value in comparison to Indian rupee INR ?


A. yen B. Australian Dollar C. US Dollar D. British pond

119. Time duration of collecting Census of population in India A. 5 year B. 7 year C. 10 years D. 8 years

120. Minimum age limit criteria for Indian Prime minister is A. 21 years B. 25 years C. 30 years D. 35 years

121. Writer of Satanic Verses is A. Salman rushdi B. Samoor M hursh C. George Arvel D. J M bery

122. Which of the following Gas Liquid is used in refrigerators

A. Ammonia B. carbon di-Oxide C. Chlorine D. Hydrogen

123. Nagarjun project Establisehd on following river A. Gandak B. Kosi C. Krishna D. Mahanadi

124. Swtambar and Digambr related to A. Baudhamat B. Jainmat C. Hindutva D. Siksha mat

125. Which of the signature found on note of rs 50

A. Governor of Reserve bank B. Prime Minister C. President D. Financé minister

126. India's first indigenously built submarine was

A. INS Savitri B. INS Shalki C. INS Delhi D. INS Vibhuti

127. The 2002 Commonwealth Games were held in

A. Canada B. UK C. Australia D. Malaysia

128. Rana Pratap Sagar (Rajasthan) is famous for

A. nuclear power station B. aluminum industry C. brassware D. sports goods

129. Which of the following crops needs maximum water per hectare?

A. Barley B. Maize C. Sugarcane D. Wheat

130. Sir C.V. Raman was awarded Nobel Prize for his work connected with which of the following phenomenon of

radiation?

A. Scattering B. Diffraction C. Interference D. Polarization

131. Group the given figures into three classes using each figure only once.

A. 1,3,9 ; 2,5,6 ; 4,7,8

B. 1,3,9 ; 2,7,8 ; 4,5,6

C. 1,2,4 ; 3,5,7 ; 6,8,9

D. 1,3,6 ; 2,4,8 ; 5,7,9

132. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series as established by the

five Problem Figures.

Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)


A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5

133. Group the given figures into three classes using each figure only once.

A. 1,3,9 ; 2,5,8 ; 4,6,7

B. 1,5,8 ; 4,6,7 ; 2,3,9

C. 2,5,9 ; 1,3,8 ; 2,6,7

D. 1,8,9 ; 4,6,7 ; 2,3,5

134. Select a figure from the given four alternatives which fits exactly into Figure-X to form a complete square.

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

135. What is the minimum number of colours required to fill the spaces in the given diagram without any two

adjacent spaces having the same colour?

A. 6 B. 5 C. 4 D. 3

136. Find out from amongst the four alternatives as to how the pattern would appear when the transparent sheet

is folded at the dotted line.

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

137. Select a suitable figure from the Answer Figures that would replace the question mark (?).


(A) (B) (C) (D) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5


138. Select a suitable figure from the Answer Figures that would replace the question mark (?).


(A) (B) (C) (D) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5

139. Find out which of the figures (1), (2), (3) and (4) can be formed from the pieces given in figure (X).

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

140. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the mirror image of the given combination.

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

141. The minute and the hour hand of a watch meet every 65 minutes. How much does the watch lose or gain

time? (a) 25 seconds (b) 27 seconds(c) 27.16 seconds (d) 30 seconds

142. At the start of a seminar, the ratio of the number of male participants to the number of female participants

was 3:1. During tea break 16 participants left and 6 more female participants registered. The ratio of male to

female participants became 2: 1. What was total number of participants at the start of the seminar?

(a) 64 (b) 48 (c) 54 (d) 72

143. A positive integer which, when added to 100 gives a sum which is greater than when it is multiplied by 1000.

This positive integer is: (a) 1 (b) 5 (c) 7 (d) 3

144. Three friends divided some bullets equally. After all of them shot 4 bullets the total no. of bullets remaining is

equal to the bullets each had after division. Find the original number of bullets. (a) 15 (b) 17 (c) 20 (d) 18

145. Of the 120 people in the room, 3/5 are women. If 2/3 of the people are married, what is the maximum

number of women in the room who could be unmarried? (a) 40 (b) 20 (c) 30 (d) 60

146. A worker earns a 5% raise. A year later, the worker receives a 2.5% cut in pay, and now his salary is Rs.

22702.68. What was his salary to begin with? (a) Rs 22000 (b) Rs 22176 © Rs 25000 (d) Rs 22193

147. There are 20 poles with a constant distance between each pole. A car takes 24 seconds to reach the 12th

pole. How much more time will it take to reach the last pole? (a) 25.25 sec (b) 17.45 sec © 35.75 sec (d) 41.45 sec


148. In a triangle ABC, the lengths of the sides AB, AC and BC are 3, 5 and 6 cm respectively. If a point D on BC is

drawn such that the line AD bisects the angle DA internally. What is the length of BD?

(a) 2 cm (b) 2.25 cm (c) 2.5 cm (d) 3 cm

149. A person with some money spends 1/3 on clothes, 1/5 of the remaining on food & ¼ of the remaining on

travel. He is left with Rs. 100. How much did he have with him in the beginning?

(a) Rs 200 (b) Rs 250 © Rs 300 (d) Rs 450

150. Suresh is half his father's age. After 20 years, his father's age will be one and a half times his. What is his

father's age now? (a) 40 (b) 20 © 26 (d) 30

151. 1/3 rd of the contents of a container evaporated on the 1st day. 3/4th of the remaining contents of the

container evaporated on the 2nd day. What part of the contents of the container is left at the end of the 2nd day?

(a) 1/4 (b) 1/2 (c) 1/18 (d) 1/6

152. The jogging track in a sports complex is 726 meter in circumference. Suresh and his wife start from the same

point and walk in opposite directions at 4.5 km/h and 3.75 km/h respectively. They will meet for the first time in:

(a) 5.5 min (b) 6.0 min (c) 5.28 min (d) 4.9 min

153. A man received a cheque. The rupee has been transposed for paise and vice versa. After spending 5 rupees 42

paise, he discovered that he now had exactly six times the value of the correct cheque amount. What amount

should he have received? (a) Rs 6.44 (b) 3.22 © Rs 18.25 (d) Rs 8.36

154. Mohan ate half a pizza on Monday. He followed this pattern for 1 week. How much of the pizza would he has

eaten during the week? (a) 99.22% (b) 95% © 98.22% (d) 100%

155. All the students of a batch opted Psychology, Business, or both. 73% of students opted Psychology and 62%

opted Business. If there are 220 students, how many of them opted for both Psychology &Business?

(a) 60 (b) 100 (c) 70 (d) 77

156. A horse is placed for grazing inside a rectangular field of 70 m by 52 m and is tethered to one corner by a rope

21m long. On how much area can it graze? (a) 386.5 m2 (b) 325.5 m2 © 346.5 m2 (d) 246.5 m2

157. Silu and menu were walking on the road. Silu said, "I weigh 51 kgs. How much do you weigh?" Meenu replied

that she wouldn't reveal her weight directly as she was overweight. But she said, "I weigh 29 kgs plus half of my

weight." How much does Meenu weigh? (a) 52 kg (b) 58 kg © 63 kg (d) 57 kg

158. How many squares are there in a 5 inch by 5 inch square grid, if the grid is made up of one inch by one inch

squares? (a) 50 (b) 150 © 55 (d) 25

159. My friend collects antique stamps. She purchased two, but found that she needed to raise money urgently. So

she sold them for Rs 8000 each. On one she made 20% and on the other she lost 20%. How much did she gain or

lose in the entire transaction? (a) No Loss/profit (b) Rs 667 Loss © Rs 667 profit (d) None of these

160. 3 chairs and 2 tables cost Rs 700 and 5 chairs and 3 tables cost Rs 1100. What is the cost of 2 chairs and 2

tables? (a) Rs 300 (b) Rs 350 © Rs 450 (d) Rs 600

161. Kamya purchased an item of Rs. 46,000 and sold it at loss of 12 per cent. With that amount she purchased

another item and sold it at a gain of 12 per cent. What was her overall gain/loss?

(A) Loss of Rs. 662.40 (B) Profit of Rs. 662.40 (C) Loss of Rs. 642.80 (D) Profit Rs. 642.80 (E) None of these

162. The sum of six consecutive even numbers of set-A is 402. What is the sum of another set-B of four

consecutive numbers whose lowest number is 15 less than double the lowest number of set- A?


(A) 444 (B) 442 (C) 440 (D) 446 (E) None of these

163. Call rate of a sim company-A is 1 paisa for every 3 seconds. Another sim company-B charges 45 paisa per

minute. A man talked 591 seconds from Sim Company-A and 780 seconds from sim company-B. What would be

the total amount he spent?

(A) Rs. 7.80 (B) Rs. 7.40 (C) Rs. 7.46 (D) Rs. 7.82 (E) Rs. 8.46

164. A 280 metre long train moving with an average speed of 108 km/hr crosses a platform in 12 seconds. A man

crosses the same platform in 10 seconds. What is the speed of the man in meter / second?

(A) 5 m/s (B) 8 m/s (C) 12 m/s (D) Cannot be determined (E) None of these

165. The ratio between the three angles of a quadrilateral is 13 : 9 : 5 respectively. The value of the fourth angle of

the quadrilateral is 36°. What is the difference between the largest and the second smallest angles of the

quadrilateral? (A) 104° (B) 108° (C) 72° (D) 96° (E) None of these

Directions-(Q.166-170) What will come in place of question-mark (?) in the following number series?

166. 958, 833, 733, 658, 608, (?)


167. 11, 10, 18, 51, 200, (?)


168. 25, 48, 94, 186, 370, (?)


169. 14, 24, 43, 71, 108, (?)


170. 144, 173, 140, 169, 136, (?)


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NIFT | UG GAT TIME: 2HRS....NIFT | UG GAT TIME: 2HRS. construction boom ahead of the 2008 Olympics, making metal prices soar all over the world, and sparking inflation in India. 11