8
Nepal College of Information Technology BE Entrance Examination 2020 Entrance Roll _______________________________ Date ___________________ Time: 1.5 Hrs General Guidelines to Examinees 1. Occupy your own seat. 2. Write your Entrance Roll Number clearly, both on the Entrance test question booklet and on the entrance test answer sheet. 3. During exam period, you will not be allowed to leave the exam hall without submitting the question/answer sheet. 4. You will not be allowed to disturb other examinees by asking for calculators, pencils, rulers, etc. 5. You are provided with a separate Answer Sheet in which you are required to darken (using a pencil) the appropriate answer lettered choice box against the question number. For example, if the proper answer to question number 5 is choice D, then in the answer sheet provided darken the lettered choice box D against number 5 in the answer sheet. 5. A B C D 6. For correction of a wrong answer choice, crossmark the already darkened wrong answer lettered choice box, and then re-darken the appropriate answer lettered choice box against the question number. For example, later on, if you feel that the proper answers to question number 5 is choice D, not B, then in the answer sheet provided, cross-mark the previously darkened lettered choice box B and then darken the lettered choice box D against number 5 in the answer sheet. 5. A B C D 7. For your rough use, use back side (blank portion) of the answer sheet. You will not be given any extra papers. 8. Subject wise marks distribution are as follows: Name of Subject Marks English 20 Chemistry 25 Physics 45 Mathematics 50 Total Marks 140 Entrance Roll No. ______________________ Programme ____________________ Applicant's Name _______________________________________________________________ Address _______________________________________________________________________ Phone Number ___________________________

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Nepal College of

Information Technology BE Entrance Examination 2020

Entrance Roll _______________________________ Date ___________________

Time: 1.5 Hrs

General Guidelines to Examinees

1. Occupy your own seat.

2. Write your Entrance Roll Number clearly, both on the Entrance test question booklet and on the entrance test answer sheet.

3. During exam period, you will not be allowed to leave the exam hall without submitting the question/answer sheet.

4. You will not be allowed to disturb other examinees by asking for calculators, pencils, rulers, etc.

5. You are provided with a separate Answer Sheet in which you are required to darken (using a pencil) the appropriate answer lettered

choice box against the question number.

For example, if the proper answer to question number 5 is choice D, then in the answer sheet provided darken the lettered choice box D against

number 5 in the answer sheet.

5. A B C D

6. For correction of a wrong answer choice, cross–mark the already darkened wrong answer lettered choice box, and then re-darken the appropriate

answer lettered choice box against the question number.

For example, later on, if you feel that the proper answers to question number 5 is choice D, not B, then in the answer sheet provided, cross-mark the

previously darkened lettered choice box B and then darken the lettered choice box D against number 5 in the answer sheet.

5. A B C D

7. For your rough use, use back side (blank portion) of the answer sheet. You will not be given any extra papers.

8. Subject wise marks distribution are as follows: 9.

Name of Subject Marks

English 20

Chemistry 25

Physics 45

Mathematics 50

Total Marks 140

Entrance Roll No. ______________________ Programme ____________________

Applicant's Name _______________________________________________________________

Address _______________________________________________________________________

Phone Number ___________________________

1 | P a g e

Attempt all Questions

Choose the correct answer and blacken the appropriate bubble using gel pen on answer sheet.

Full Marks: 140

Time: 2 hours

Select the best alternatives:

Section - I (60 1 = 60)

1. Two bodies of masses m and 4m are moving with equal K.E. The ratio of their linear momentum is

A. 4:1 B. 1:1 C. 1:2 D. 1:4

2. Two particles are projected simulatneously in the same vertical plane, from the same point, both with different

speeds and at different angle with horizontal. The path followed by one, as seen by the other is

A. a vertical line

B. a parabola

C. a hyperbola

D. a straight line making a constant angle (≠90) with horizontal

3. Characteristic X-rays are produced due to

A. transfer of momentum in collision of electrons with target atoms

B. transition of electrons from higher to lower electronic orbits in an atom

C. heating of the target

D. transfer of energy in collision of electrons with atoms in the target

4. A slab consists of two portions of different material of same thickness and having conductivities K1 and K2. The

equivalent thermal conductivity of the slab is

A. K1 + K2 B. K1K2

K1+K2 C.

2K1K2

K1+K2 D. K1 + K2

5. Quality of two sounds is different because

A. Their frequencies are different B. Their intensities are different

C. Their amplitudes are different D. Different overtones are present in them

6. If null point is observed at the equatorial line of a bar magnet then the north pole of bar magnet must have faced

A. geographical north pole B. geographical south pole

C. east D. west

7. Three charges 2q, -q and –q are located at the vertices of an equilateral triangle. At the center of the triangle

A. the field is zero but potential is non zero B. the field is non zero but potential is zero

C. both field and potential are zero D. both field and potential are non zero

8. A ray of light strikes a glass plate at an angle of 60°. If the reflected and refracted rays are perpendicular to each

other, the index of refraction of glass is

A. 1

2 B.

3

2 C.

3

2 D. 1.732

9. Bohr’s postulates correctly measures

A. radius of an atom B. angular momentum

C. Rydberg’s constant D. None

10. Boron rods in a nuclear reactors are used for

A. absorb excess electrons B. absorb alpha particle

C. slow down reaction D. speed of reaction

11. Two waves y1 = a sin (ωt -kx) and y2 = a cos (ωt -kx) are superposed. Then amplitude of resultant wave is

A. 2a B. 0 C. a D. 2 a

2 | P a g e

12. A glass convex lens placed in liquid behaves like a concave lens. If μg and μl be the refractive indices of glass and

liquid w .r .t. air respectively , then

A. μg =μl B. μg > μl C. μg < μl D. μg = 2μl

13. A particle of charge q and mass m is suspended from a massless string in a horizontal electric field of magnitude

E, then angle made by string with vertical is

A. cot-1

qE

mg B. tan–1

qE

mg C. tan–1

qE

m D. tan–1

mg

qE

14. In a circuit, the value of alternating current measured by ammeter is 10A. It's amplitude will be

A. 10A B. 20A C. 14.14A D. 7.07A

15. If the magnetic moment of the atoms of substance is zero, then the substance is called

A. diamagnetic B. ferromagnetic

C. paramagnetic D. antiferromagnetic

16. An intrinsic semiconductor is doped with acceptor impurities, then

A. Electron concentration increases. B. Electron concentration decreases.

C. Hole of concentration increases. D. Hole concentration decreases.

17. Bohr's atomic theory can be applied to

A. Hydrogen atom only

B. Hydrogen and singly ionized Helium atom

C. Hydrogen and its isotopes

D. all types of atoms

18. Organic compounds are very large in number. This is due to

A. small size of carbon B. valency of carbon

C. special property of carbon known as catenation D. all of these

19. IUPAC name of

H

|

H – C = CHCN is

A. Ethenenitrile B. Vinyl cyanide

C. Cyanoethene D. 2-propenenitrile

20. Number of isomeric forms of C7H9N having benzene ring will be

A. 7 B 6 C. 5 D. 4

21. For which of the following species Bohr's theory is not applicable?

A. Be3+ B. Li2+ C. He2+ D. H

22. Which of the following is largest ion?

A. Na+ B. Mg2+ C. O2 D. F

23. The oxidation number of cobalt in K [Co(CO)4] is

A. +1 B. -1 C. +3 D. -6

24. When one ampere current flows for 1 second through a conductor the quantity of electricity is called.

A. Faraday B. Coulomb C. EMF D. 1 ohm

25. What is the volume of water to be added to N

2 HCI to prepare 500cm3 of

N

10 solution?

A. 200cm3 B. 300cm3 C. 400cm3 D. 500cm3

26. Which of the following oxide is more acidic?

A. CO B. CO2 C. SO2 D. SO3

27. Water can be tested by

A. smell B. taste C. hydrated CuSO4 D. anhydrous CoCl2

3 | P a g e

28. Which metal can't obtained by electrolysis of its aqueous solution?

A. Cu B. Mg C. Cr D. Ni

29. The general solutions of 2sin2x + sin22x = 2

A. (2n +1)

4 B. n +

3 C. n +

2 D.

n

4

30. If f(x) = 1 +x

x and g(x) = 0 then fg(x) =

A. 1 +x2 +2x B. 1 +x2

x C. 0 D. not defined

31. The number of real roots of x2 + |x| - 12 = 0 are

A. 4 B. 2 C. 0 D. 1

32.

a+pd a+qd a+rd

p q r

d d d =

A. 0 B. apqrd C. 1 D. (p +q +r)

33. The value of lim

x tan

1

x is equals to

A. -1 B. 0 C. 1 D. not defined

34. If f(x) = |cos x| then f

3

4 =

A. -1

2 B.

3

2 C. –1 D.

1

5

35.

2x

1+4x dx =

A. (22x) + c B. tan-1 (2x) +c C. sin–1(2x)

2 + c D.

tan–1(2x)

log 2 + c

36. If the sum of the distances of a point from two perpendicular lines in a plane is 1, then the locus of a point is

A. circle B. st .line C. parabola D. square

37. a

( b

+ c

) + b

( c

+ a

) + c

( a

+ b

) =

A. a

+ b

+ c

B. 2( a

b

) C. 0 D. –1

38. The angle between the diagonals of a cube is

A. cos-11

2 B. cos–1

1

3 C. cos–1

1

3 D.

3

39. If tan−1 2x + tan−1 3x =π

4 then x =

A. 1

2 B. 1 C.

1

3 D.

1

6

40. Let f(x) = x3 + sinx then f(x) is

A. an even function B. an odd function

C. periodic function D. neither even nor odd function

41. If A and B are square matrix of same order 3 and |A| = -1 and |B| = 2, then |4AB| =

A. -64 B. 128 C. 64 D. -128

42. If Cr − C378 = C2

7 then r =

A. 3 B. 3 or 5 C. 5 or 7 D. 7

43. loga x is defined for a > 0

A. all real x B. all negative x ≠ 1 C. all positive real x ≠0 D. a ≥ e

4 | P a g e

44. limx→∞ 1 +2

x

x

=

A. e B. e2 C. 1

e D. e3

45. d

dx sech−1 x =

A. −1

x 1+x2 B.

−1

x 1−x2 C.

−1

x x2−1 D.

−x

x2−1

46. ax da=

A. ax

log e a+c B. ax loge a + c C.

ax +1

(x+1)+ c D. xax−1 + c

47. The angles between the lines represented by 4x2 − 24xy + 11y2 = 0 is

A. tan−1(±1

2) B. tan−1(

4

3) C. tan−1(

5

2) D. tan−1(

1

3)

48. The slope of tangent to the circle x2 + y2 + 2gx + 2fy + c = 0 is

A. x1+g

y1+f B. −

x1+g

y1+f C.

x1g

y1 f D. −

x1y1

gf

49. A person who is more than eighty years old.

A. octogenarian B. pantomime C. pantheism D. philanthropist

50. Find out the incorrect expression.

A. he gave up smoking B. he gave it up C. he gave smoking up D. he gave up it

51. He dies _____ a car accident.

A. of B. in C. from D. by

52. Pick out the correct conditional sentence:

A. If I had saved my money. I would not have been poor now

B. If I saved money, I would not be poor now

C. If I had saved my money, I would not be poor now

D. If I had saved my money, I would not have poor now.

53. Everyone should do ______ best.

A. their B. your C. our D. his/her

54. Can you tell me …..

A. what are the causes of climate change? B. what the causes of climate change are?

C. what the causes are of climate change? D. what the causes of are climate change?

55. It ____ for two hours.

A. rains B. has been raining C. has rained D. rained

56. He rained into his best friend at the airport

A. discovered B. met unexpectedly C. demanded D. interviewed

57. Which of the following word does not have the phoneme |f|?

A. laugh B. graph C. safe D. of

58. What is the antonym of ‘acquitted’?

A. criminated B. sincere C. released D. awarded

59. The passive form of ‚It needs watering‛, is

A. water is needed by it B. it is needed water C. the plant needs water D. none

60. You are not ____________ for scholarship.

A. illigible B. eligible C. legible D. igible

5 | P a g e

Select the best alternatives:

Section - II (40 2 = 80)

Cultural norms have existed ever since the conscience of human being was developed from the time immemorial, the

etiquette of table manners have been of great concern. The tradition of showing careful responses the food served and

to the manners while being served with food has been of great importance. People, nowadays, too keep the lain-dawn

a tradition from their ancestors but in a slightly modified ways. Modern equipment though have played a great role in

transforming the tradition, but the manners at the table always seem to have been unchanged. People have to be

aware and should show the civilized character of appreciating the dishes served at any occasions, not just ignore or

chuckle or make fun of

61. The passage is mainly about

A. cultural taboo B. traditional dishes

C. traditional of behaving eating D. etiquette

62. Through new equipment has been developed, the manners at the table seem to have been

A. changed a lot B. modified C. unchanged D. forgotten

63. The meaning of the word 'etiquette' in the passage is

A. eating habits B. taboo C. cultural tradition D. polite behaviour

64. People should always ....... the dishes served to them.

A. appreciate B. leave eating if not tasty C. comment bad D. analyze

65. In order to oscillate at 10Hz, a mass of 20g should be suspended from a spring of spring constant

A. 2.5 N/m B. 9.9 N/m C. 12.6 N/m D. 79 N/m

66. A neutron of mass 1 unit hits a nucleus of carbon 12 at rest. The % of energy given to carbon if collision is elastic

is

A. 25% B. 26% C. 27% D. 28%

67. Two stars each of mass 2 × 1030 kg approaching each other for head on collision. They are 109 km apart and their

speed are negligible then speed during collision is, if radius is 104 km

A. 1.29 × 106 m/s B. 2.58 × 106 m/s C. 3.87 × 106 m/s D. 5.16 × 106 m/s

68. The fall in temperature of helium gas initially at 15°C when suddenly expanded to 8 times the original volume is

A. 72°C B. 162°C C. 216°C D. 324°C

69. A clock keep correct time at 20°C. If room temperature is 25°C and linear expansivity of metal is 1.2 × 10–5/°C

then loss in time in 20 hrs will be

A. 1.29 s B. 2.16 s C. 1.18 s D. 2.59 s

70. A Whistle of 1 Khz is sounded in a car travelling at 18 m/s towards a cliff. The apparent frequency of echo heard

by driver of car is, if velocity of sound is 330 m/s is

A. 1120 Hz B. 1511 Hz C. 1115 Hz D. 897 Hz

71. Angular diameter of sun when observed from earth is 32'. The diameter of real image formed by a convex lens of

focal length 25 cm is

A. 2.15 mm B. 2.22 mm C. 2.33 mm D. 2.45 mm

72. In Young's double slit experiment when wavelength used is 6000 Å and the screen is at 40 cm from the slit the

fringes are 0.012 cm a part. The distance between slit is

A. 0.024 cm B. 2.4 cm C. 0.24 cm D. 0.2 cm

73. A 12 V battery of internal resistance 1.5 is connected to a 6.5 resistance then Pd across the battery will be

A. 9.75 V B. 10 V C. 6.75 D. 8.75 V

74. When 100 V dc is supplied across a solenoid then a current of 1 A flows in it, when 100 V, 50 Hz ac is applied

across the same coil then current drops to 0.5A. The inductance of coil is

A. 5 H B. 0.45 H C. 0.55 H D. 0.65 H

6 | P a g e

75. The no of electrons put on the spherical conductor of radius 0.1 m to produce an electric field of 0.036 N/c just

above the surface of it is

A. 2.7 × 105 B. 2.6 × 105 C. 2.5 × 105 D. 2.4 × 105

76. A coil has an induced emf of 0.05V when a current is changing at the rate of 5 mA/s. The self inductance of coil is

A. 0.1 H B. 0.1 mH C. 10 H D. 10 mH

77. The wavelength of first line of Lyman series is 1216 Å then series limit of Balmer series will be

A. 1216 Å B. 2432 Å C. 3648 Å D. 4864 Å

78. The half life of Radon is 3.8 days. The time after which 40% of sample remain undecayed is

A. 3.8 days B. 4 days C. 5 days D. 6 days

79. One atom of an element weights 6.644 × 10–23 g. The number of gram atom in 40 kg of it.

A. 10 g B. 100 g C. 1000 g D. 10000 g

80. You are given 100 g of each HCl and NaOH and they are mixed together. How much NaCl would be formed?

A. 14.625 g B. 146.25 g C. 1.4625 g D. 1462.5 g

81. Product of aqua regia react with Hg and this product also reacts with excess of KI to give

A. K2[HgI4] B. Hg + Hg(NH2)Cl C. HgI2 D. KClO3 + I2

82. When vapour of benzene are passed over vanadium pentoxide catalyst at 500°C in presence of air, it is oxidized

into

A. Benzoic acid B. Carbon dioxide and water C. Glyoxal D. Maleic anhydride

83. Calculate pH at which Mg(OH)2 begins to precipitate from a solution containing 0.10 MMg++ ions Ksp of

Mg(OH)2 = 1 × 10–11

A. 3 B. 11 C. 13 D. 14

84. 2.014 g of a sample of check were dissolved in 50 ml of 1 N HCl, the excess of unchanged acid is titrated with 1N

NaOH, 10.7 ml being required. Find the % of CaCO3 in the chalk?

A. 63.5% B. 75% C. 87.5% D. 97.56%

85. Which of the following represents the correct sets of the four quantum numbers of a 4d electrons?

A. 4, 3, 2, + 2

1 B. 4, 2, 1, 0 C. 4, 3, –2, +

2

1 D. 4, 2, 1, –

2

1

86. If ex= y + 2+1 y , then y equals

A. 2

+ –xx ee B.

2

– –xx ee C. ex + e-x D. ex – e-x

87. If x2 + y2 + z2 = r2, then tan-1

yr

zx

xr

yz

zr

xy 1–1– tan+tan+ equals

A. 0 B. 4

π C.

2

π D. π

88. If x 6 , y 6 , c 6 are any three unit vectors with x 6 + y 6 + c 6 = 0

A. 0

π B.

3

π C.

3

2π D.

4

89. The number of ways in which 3 prizes can be distributed among 4 boys if no boy gets all the prizes is

A. 64 B. 60 C. 4 D. 144

90. If (1 + x)n = c0 + c1x + c2x2 + c3x3 + ... + cnxn, then the value of n

n

cn

cccc1+

2+...+

4

2+

3

2+

2

2+2

1+

3

4

2

3

1

2

0 is

A. 1+

3 1+

n

n

B. 1+2n C. 1+

1+3 1+

n

n

D. 1+

1–3 1+

n

n

91. If three unequal numbers a, b, c are in A.P. and b – a, c – b a are in G.P, then a : b : c equals

A. 2 : 3 : 4 B. 1 : 2 : 3 C. 3 : 4 : 5 D. 4 : 5 : 6

7 | P a g e

92. is an imaginary cube root of unity. If (1 + 2)m = (1 + 4)m, then least positive integral value of m is

A. 6 B. 5 C. 4 D. 3

93. If the pair of straight lines xy – x – y + 1 = 0 and the line ax + 2y – 3 = 0 are concurrent, then the value of a is

A. –1 B. 0 C. 1 D. 3

94. If the tangent to the parabola y2 = ax makes an angle of 45° with x-axis, then the point of contact is

A. 2

,2

aa B.

4,

4

aa C.

4,

2

aa D.

2,

4

aa

95. A plane is at unit distance from origin. It cut the coordinate axes at P, Q, R respectively. If the locus of the

centroid of the PQR is ,=1

+1

+1

222 kzyx

then K equals

A. 3 B. 9 C. 2 D. 1

96. If f(x) = 0=,

0≠,sin 1

xK

xx x is continuous at x = 0 then value of K is

A. 1 B. –1 C. 0 D. 2

97. If x = sin–1(3t – 4t3) and y = cos–1 ,–1 2t then 2

2

dx

yd equals

A. 2

1 B. 3

1 C. 0 D. 4

1

98. If the function f(x) = x3 + x2 + x + 1 has local maximum value of x = 0 and a local minimum value at x = 1, then

A. = 2, = 0 B. = 2

3, = 0 C. = 0, = 2

3 D. = 1, = –2

99. dxex

∫ equals

A. ce x + B. cx

e x

+2

C. ( ) cex x +1–2 D. ( ) cex x +1–

100. Let y be a function which passes through the point (1, 2) having slope 2x + 1. The area bounded between the

curve and x-axis is

A. 6 sq. units B. unitssq.6

5 C. unitssq.

6

1 D. 5 sq. units