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NEET | 27.03.2019 SECOND 25% PORTION TEST (P, C, B)
II Floor, Sri Ram Plaza, Opp. Thirumathi Poovaiammal Thirumana Mandapam, Rasipuram – 637 408. Mob : 9444331869, Email : [email protected] 1
SECOND 25% PORTION TEST (P,C,B) Time: 3 hrs Max. Marks: 720
TEST SYLLABUS
PHYSICS
Mechanical Properties of Solids
Mechanical Properties of Fluids
Gravitation
Electromagnetic Waves
Ray Optics
Wave Optics
Electronics
CHEMISTRY
Chemical Kinetics
Solution
Thermodynamics
Metallurgy
S-Block Elements
Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids
Polymers
Chemistry in Everyday Life
BIOLOGY
BOTANY
Respiration in Plants
Anatomy of Flowering Plants
Transport in Plants
ZOOLOGY
Human Physiology (Fully)
Organisms and Population
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NEET | 27.03.2019 SECOND 25% PORTION TEST (P, C, B)
II Floor, Sri Ram Plaza, Opp. Thirumathi Poovaiammal Thirumana Mandapam, Rasipuram – 637 408. Mob : 9444331869, Email : [email protected] 2
Part – A (Physics)
1. The adjacent graph shows the extension (∆l) of a wire of length 1 m suspended from the top of a roof at one end and with a load W connected to the other end. If the cross-sectional area of the wire is 10–6 m2, calculate the Young’s modulus of the material of the wire.
(1) 2 × 1011 N/m2 (2) 2 × 10–11 N/m2 (3) 3 × 10–12 N/m2 (4) 2 × 10–13 N/m2
2. An iron rod of length 2m and cross-sectional area of 50 mm2 stretched by 0.5 mm, when a mass of 250 kg is hung from its lower end. Young’s modulus of iron rod is (1) 19.6 × 1020 N/m2 (2) 19.6 × 1018 N/m2 (3) 19.6 × 1010 N/m2 (4) 19.6 × 1015 N/m2
3. For the given graph, Hooke's law is obeyed in the region.
(1) OA (2) OC (3) OE (4) OB
4. The length of an elastic string is 1 m, when the longitudinal tension is 4 N and the length is b m, when the tension is 5 N. When the longitudinal tension is 9 N, the length of the string (in metre) is
(1) 22ab (2) 5 4b a (3) 4 3a b (4) a b
5. Two bars A and B of circular cross-section and of same volume and made of the same material are subjected to tension. If the diameter of A is half that of B and if the force applied to both the rods is the same and it is in the elastic limit, the ratio of extension of A to that of B will be (1) 16 (2) 8 (3) 4 (4) 2
6. A metallic wire is stretched by suspended weight to it. If α is the longitudinal strain and Y its Young's modulus of elasticity, elastic potential energy per unit volume is
(1) 2Y (2) 212
Y (3) 232
Y (4) 2Y
7. A vessel contains oil (density = 0.8 gm/cm3) over mercury (density = 13.6 gm/cm3). A homogeneous sphere floats with half of its volume immersed in mercury and the other half in oil. The density of the material of the sphere in gm/cm3 is (1) 3.3 (2) 6.4 (3) 7.2 (4) 12.8
8. A steel wire is suspended vertically from a rigid support. When loaded with a weight in air, it extends by la and when the weight is immersed completely in water, the extension is reduced to lw. Then the relative density of material of the weight is
(1) a
w
ll
(2) a
a w
ll l
(3)
w
a w
ll l
(4) w
a
ll
9. The work done in blowing a soap bubble of radius 0.2m, given that the surface tension of soap solution is 60 × 10–3 N/M is : (1) 24 ×10–4 J (2) 24 ×10–4 J (3) 96 × 10–4 J (4) 1.92 ×10–4 J
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NEET | 27.03.2019 SECOND 25% PORTION TEST (P, C, B)
II Floor, Sri Ram Plaza, Opp. Thirumathi Poovaiammal Thirumana Mandapam, Rasipuram – 637 408. Mob : 9444331869, Email : [email protected] 3
10. An ice block floats in a liquid whose density is less than water. A part of block is outside the liquid. When whole of ice has melted, the liquid level will (1) rise (2) go down (3) remain same (4) first rise then go down
11. A piece of brass (alloy of copper and zinc) weighs 12.9 g in air. When completely immersed in water it weighs 11.3 g. What is the mass of copper contained in the alloy? (specific gravities of copper and zinc are 8.9 and 7.1 respectively) (1) 7.61 g (2) 8.61 g (3) 9.61 g (4) 10.61 g
12. Two glass plates are separated by water. If surface tension of water is 75 dyne/cm and area of each plate wetted by water is 8 cm2 and the distance between the plates is 0.12 mm, then the force applied to, separate the two plates is (1) 102 dyne (2) 104 dyne (3) 105 dyne (4) 106 dyne
13. The ratio of the radii of two planets r1 and r2 is k. The ratio of acceleration due to gravity on them is r. Then the ratio of the escape velocities from them, will be :
(1)rk
(2)kr
(3)kr (4) kr
14. The value of acceleration due to gravity, at earth surface is g. Its value at the centre of the earth, which we assume as a sphere of radius R and of uniform mass density, will be : (1) 10 R m/s2 (2) zero (3) 5 R m/s (4) 20 R m/s2
15. The distance of neptune and saturn from the sun is nearly 1013 and 1012 meter respectively. Assuming that they move in circular orbits, their periodic times will be in the ratio:
(1) 10 (2) 100 (3) 10 10 (4) 1000 16. Taking the gravitational potential at a point infinite distance away as zero, the gravitational
potential at a point A is –5 unit. If the gravitational potential at point infinite distance away is taken as + 10 units, the potential at point A is (1) – 5 unit (2) + 5 unit (3) + 10 unit (4) + 15 unit
17. A planet in a distant solar system is 10 times more massive than the earth and its radius is 10 times smaller. Given that the escape velocity from the earth is 11 km s–1, the escape velocity from the surface of the planet would be (1) 0.11 km s–1 (2) 1.1 km s–1 (3) 11 km s–1 (4) 110 km s–1
18. The work done in shifting a particle of mass m from centre of earth to the surface of the earth is (where R is the radius of the earth).
(1) mgR (2) 2
mgR (3) zero (4)
2mgR
19. A projectile is fired vertically upwards from the surface of the Earth with a velocity kυe, where υe is the escape velocity and k < 1. If R is the radius of the Earth, the maximum height to which it will rise measured form the centre of the Earth will be
(1)21 k
R
(2) 21Rk
(3) 21R k (4) 21Rk
20. If the magnetic field of a light wave oscillates parallel to y-axis and is given by By = Bm sin (kz – t), the direction of wave travel and the axis along which the electric vector oscillates is : (1) + ve y – axis, z– axis (2) – ve z – axis, x– axis (3) – ve x – axis, y– axis (4) – ve x – axis, z– axis
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NEET | 27.03.2019 SECOND 25% PORTION TEST (P, C, B)
II Floor, Sri Ram Plaza, Opp. Thirumathi Poovaiammal Thirumana Mandapam, Rasipuram – 637 408. Mob : 9444331869, Email : [email protected] 4
21. Light wave is travelling along y-direction. If the corresponding E
vector at any time
is along the x-axis, the direction of B
vector at that time is along (1) y-axis (2) x-axis (3) + z-axis (4) – z-axis
22. Electromagnetic wave consists of periodically oscillating electric and magnetic vectors (1) in mutually perpendicular planes but vibrating with a phase difference of (2) in mutually perpendicular planes but vibrating with a phase difference of /2 (3) in randomly oriented planes but vibrating in phase (4) in mutually perpendicular planes but vibrating in phase
23. An electromagnetic wave of frequency υ = 3 MHz passes from vacuum into a dielectric medium with permittivity ε = 4. Then (1) wavelength and frequency both become half. (2) wavelength is doubled and frequency remains unchanged. (3) wavelength and frequency both remain unchanged. (4) wavelength is halved and frequency remains unchanged.
24. For electromagnetic wave propagating along x-axis, Emax.= 30 V m–1. What is the maximum value of magnetic field? (1) 10–6 T (2) 10–8 T (3) 10–9 T (4) 10–7 T
25. X-rays are not used for radar purposes, because they are not (1) reflected by target (2) partly absorbed by target (3) electromagnetic waves (4) completely absorbed by target
26. A green light is incident from the water to the air - water interface at the critical angle (θ). Select the correct statement. (1) The entire spectrum of visible light will come out of the water at an angle of 90º to the normal. (2) The spectrum of visible light whose frequency is less than that of green light will come out to the air medium. (3) The spectrum of visible light whose frequency is more than that of green light will come out to the air medium. (4) The entire spectrum of visible light will come out of the water at various angles to the normal.
27. A light ray is incident perpendicularly to one face of a 90° prism and is totally internally reflected at the glass-air interface. If the angle of reflection is 45°, we conclude that the refractive index:
(1)12
n (2) 2n
(3) 12
n (4) 2n
28. A thin glass (refractive index 1.5) lens has optical power of – 5 D in air. Its optical power in a liquid medium with refractive index 1.6 will be (1) – 1D (2) 1 D (3) – 25 D (4) 25 D
29. For a given lens, the magnification was found to be twice as large as when the object was 0.15 m distant from it as when the distance was 0.2 m. The focal length of the lens is (1) 1.5 m (2) 0.20 m (3) 0.10 m (4) 0.05 m
30. A ray of light is incident at an angle of 60° on one face of a prism of angle 30°. The emergent ray of light makes an angle of 30° with incident ray. The angle made by emergent ray with second face of prism be (1) 0° (2) 90° (3) 45° (4) 30°
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31. An object is placed at a distance of 12 cm from a convex lens on its principal axis and a virtual image of certain size is formed. If the object is moved 8 cm away from the lens, a real image of the same size as that of the virtual image is formed. The focal length of the lens is (1) 15 cm (2) 16 cm (3) 18 cm (4) 19 cm
32. A telescope, whose objective lens has an aperture of 1 mm for the wavelength of light 500 Å, then limiting resolving power of the telescope is (1) 2.1 × 10–5 rad (2) 4.1 × 10–5 rad (3) 5.1 × 10–5 rad (4) 6.1 × 10–5 rad
33. A single slit Fraunhoffer diffraction pattern is formed with white light. For what wavelength of light the third secondary maximum in the diffraction pattern coincides with the second secondary maximum in the pattern for red light of wavelength 6500 Å? (1) 4400 Å (2) 4100 Å (3) 4642.8 Å (4) 9100 Å
34. In Young’s double slit experiment, we get 10 fringes in the field of view of monochromatic light of wavelength 4000Å. If we use monochromatic light of wavelength 5000Å, then the number of fringes obtained in the same field of view is (1) 8 (2) 10 (3) 40 (4) 50
35. An astronaut is looking down on earth's surface from a space shuttle an altitude of 400 km. Assuming that the astronaut's pupil diameter is 5 mm and the wavelength of visible light is 500 nm, the astronaut will be able to resolve linear objects of the size of about : (1) 0.5 m (2) 5 m (3) 50 m (4) 500 m
36. A beam of unpolarised light passes through a tourmaline crystal A and then through another such crystal B oriented so that the principal plane is parallel to A. The intensity of emergent light is I0. Now B is rotated by 45º about the ray. The emergent light will have intensity.
(1) I0 / 2 (2) I 0 / 2 (3) I0 2 (4) 2 I0 37. Diffraction pattern is obtained using red light. What will happen if it is replaced by violet light?
(1) Bands will disappear (2) Bands will become narrow (3) Bands will get spaced apart (4) Bands will remain unchanged
38. In Young’s double slit experiment, the slits are 2 mm apart and are illuminated by photons of two wavelengths λ1 = 12000 Å and λ2 = 10000 Å. At what minimum distance from the common central bright fringe on the screen 2 m from the slit will a bright fringe from one interference pattern coincide with a bright fringe from the other? (1) 6 mm (2) 4 mm (3) 3 mm (4) 8 mm
39. A beam of light of wavelength 600 nm from a distanct source falls on a single slit 1.00 mm wide and the resulting diffraction pattern is observed on a screen 2 m away. The distance between first dark fringes on either side of the central bright fringe is (1) 2.4 cm (2) 1.2 cm (3) 2.4 mm (4) 1.2 mm
40. The real time variation of input signals A and B are as shown below. If the inputs are fed into NAND gate, then select the output signal from the following.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
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41. Two ideal diodes are connected to a battery as shown in the circuit. The current supplied by the battery is
(1) 0.75 A (2) 0.5 A (3) 0.25 A (4) zero
42. Truth table for system of four NAND gates as shown in figure is
(1) (2) (3) (4) 43. The peak voltage in the output of a half-wave diode rectifier fed with a sinusoidal signal without
filter is 10V. The d.c. component of the output voltage is
(1) 20/ V (2) 10/ 2 V (3) 10/V (4) 10V 44. In a P -N junction
(1) the potential of P and N sides becomes higher alternately (2) the P side is at higher electrical potential than N side. (3) the N side is at higher electric potential than P side. (4) both P and N sides are at same potential.
45. An n-p-n transistor having ac current gain of 50 is to be used to make an amplifier of power gain of 300. What will be the voltage gain of the amplifier? (1) 8.5 (2) 6 (3) 4 (4) 3
Part – B (Chemistry)
46. Select the rate law that corresponds to the data shown for the following reaction A + B C. Expt. No (A) (B) Initial Rate
1 0.012 0.035 0.10 2 0.024 0.070 0.80 3 0.024 0.035 0.10 4 0.012 0.070 0.80
(1) Rate = k[B]3 (2) Rate = k [B]4 (3) Rate = k [A] [B]3 (4) Rate = k [A]2 [B]2
47. For a first order reaction, to obtain a positive slope, we need to plot {where [A] is the concentration of reactant A}. (1) – log10[A] vs t (2) – loge[A] vs t (3) log10[A] vs log t (4) [A] vs t
48. T50 of first -order reaction is 10 min. Starting with 10 mol L–1, rate after 20 min is (1) 0.0693 mol L–1 min–1 (2) 0.0693 × 2.5 mol L–1 min–1 (3) 0.0693 × 5 mol L–2 min–1 (4) 0.0693 × 10 mol L–1 min–1
49. The rate constant for a first order reaction whose half-life, is 480 seconds is : (1) 2.88 × 10–3 sec–1 (2) 2.72 × 10–3 sec–1 (3) 1.44 × 10–3 sec–1 (4) 1.44 sec–1
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50. Thermal decomposition of HI on gold surface is a (1) 1st order reaction (2) 2nd order reaction (3) 3rd order reaction (4) zero order reaction
51. If 25% of a radioactive element is left after 40 days, then its half life period is (1) 80 days (2) 20 days (3) 4 days (4) 10 days
52. Which observation(s) reflect(s) colligative properties? (i) A 0.5 m NaBr solution has a higher vapour pressure than a 0.5 m BaCl2 solution at the same temperature (ii) Pure water freezes at the higher temperature than pure methanol (iii) a 0.1 m NaOH solution freezes at a lower temperature than pure water Choose the correct answer from the codes given below: (1) (i), (ii) and (iii) (2) (i) and (ii) (3) (ii) and (iii) (4) (i) and (iii)
53. Which of the following 0.10 m aqueous solutions will have the lowest freezing point? (1) Al2(SO4)3 (2) C6H12O6 (3) KCl (4) C12H22O11
54. An aqueous solution of NaCl shows the depression of freezing point of water equal to 0.372 K. The boiling point of BaCl2 solution of same molality will be [Kf (H2O) = 1.86 K kg mol–1; Kb(H2O) = 0.52 K kg mol–1]. (1) 100.52ºC (2) 100.104ºC (3) 101.56ºC (4) 100.156ºC
55. Which of the following liquid pairs shows a positive deviation from Raoult’s law? (1) Water - Nitric acid (2) Benzene – Methanol (3) Water - Hydrochloric acid (4) Acetone – Chloroform
56. The relationship between osmotic pressure at 273 K when 10 g glucose (P1), 10 g urea (P2) and 10 g sucrose (P3) are dissolved in 250 mL of water is (1) P1 > P2 > P3 (2) P3 > P1 > P2 (3) P2 > P1 > P3 (4) P2 > P3 > P1
57. Blood cells retain their normal shape in solution which are (1) hypotonic to blood (2) isotonic to blood (3) hypertonic to blood (4) equi-normal to blood
58. The enthalpy change (∆H) for the reaction, N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) 2NH3 (g) is –92.38 kJ at 298 K. The internal energy change ∆U at 298 K is (1) – 92.38kJ (2) – 87.42 k.J (3) –97.34kJ (4) – 89.9kJ
59. For a reaction to be spontaneous at all temperatures. (1) ∆G – ve, ∆H + ve and ∆S +ve (2) ∆G + ve, ∆H – ve and ∆S +ve (3) ∆G – ve, ∆H –ve and ∆S –ve (4) ∆G – ve, ∆H –ve and ∆S +ve
60. The ∆Hof for CO2 (g), CO (g) and H2O (g) are –393.5, –110.5 and –241.8 kJ mol–1 respectively.
The standard enthalpy change (in kJ) for the reaction CO2 (g) +H2 (g) CO (g)+H2O (g) is (1) 524.1 (2) 41.2 (3) –262.5 (4) – 41.2
61. Which one of the following is correct?
(1) ∆H = ∆G – T∆S (2) ∆S =1T
[∆G – ∆H] (3) ∆S =1T
[∆H – ∆G] (4) – ∆G = ∆H – T∆S
62. Identify the correct statement regarding entropy. (1) At absolute zero of temperature, the entropy of perfectly crystalline substance is +ve. (2) At absolute zero of temperature, the entropy of perfectly crystalline substance is taken to be zero. (3) At 0°C, the entropy of a perfectly crystalline substance is taken to be zero (4) At absolute zero of temperature, the entropy of all crystalline substances is taken to be zero.
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63. When 1 mol of a gas is heated at constant volume, temperature is raised from 298 to 308 K. If heat supplied to the gas is 500 J, then which statement is correct? (1) q = w = 500 J, ∆U = 0 (2) q = ∆U = 500 J, w = 0 (3) q = –w = 500 J, ∆U = 0 (4) ∆U = 0, q = w = –500 J
64. Which statement is correct? (1) Gangues are carefully chosen to combine with the slag present in the ore to produce easily fusible flux to carry away the impurities (2) Slags are carefully chosen to combine with the flux present in the ore to produce easily fusible gangue to carry away the impurities (3) Gangues are carefully chosen to combine with the flux present in the ore to produce easily fusible slag to carry away the impurities (4) Fluxes are carefully chosen to combine with the gangue present in the ore to produce easily fusible slag to carry away the impurities
65. Matte contains mainly (1) Cu2S (2) Fe (3) CuS and Fe2S3 (4) Cu2S and FeS
66. Which of the following is not correct?
(1) 2 2 26732 2heatKLi O Li O Li (2) 2 2 26732 2heat
KK O K O K
(3) 2 2 26732 2heatKNa O Na O Na (4) 2 2 26732 2heat
KRb O Rb O Rb
67. Which one of the alkaline earth metals shows some anomalous behaviour and has same electronegativity as aluminium? (1) Sr (2) Ca (3) Ba (4) Be
68. Which one of the following hydroxide is insoluble in water? (1) Ca(OH)2 (2) Ba(OH)2 (3) Be(OH)2 (4) Mg(OH)2
69. Which of the following statement is not correct? (1) Be and Mg give characteristic colour to the flame (2) Be and Mg have high ionisation energy (3) Sulphates of Be and Mg are readily soluble in water (4) All are correct
70. The low solubility of barium sulphate in water is due to (1) high dissociation energy (2) strong ionic bond (3) low lattice energy (4) low hydration energy
71. Calcium is obtained by the (1) electrolysis of solution of calcium chloride in water (2) electrolysis of molten anhydrous calcium chloride or fused calcium chloride (3) roasting of limestone (4) reduction of calcium chloride with carbon
72. Aldehydes that do not undergo aldol condensation are 1. propanal 2. Trichloroethanal 3. methanal 4. Ethanol 5. Benzaldehyde (1) 3 and 4 only (2) 3 and 5 only (3) 1, 2 and 3 only (4) 2, 3 and 5 only
73. The reaction
is called as (1) Reimer- Tiemann reaction (2) Hell-volhard Zelinsky reaction (3) Cannizzaro reaction (4) Sandmeyer reaction
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74. The final product (III) obtained in the reaction sequence –
(1) (2) (3) (4)
75. 3 2 3 2XCH CH C N CH CH CHO . The compound X is
(1) SnCl2/HCl/H2O, boil (2) H2/Pd –BaSO4 (3) LiAlH4/ether (4) NaBH4/ ether / H3O+
76. Nucleophilic attack on carbonyl carbon changes its hybridisation from (1) sp to sp2 (2) sp2 to sp3 (3) sp3 to sp2 (4) sp to sp3
77. The correct order of acidic strength of (i) Alcohol (ii) Acetic acid (iii) 2,4,6-Trinitrophenol (iv) Phenol is (1) (ii) > (iii) > (iv) > (i) (2) (iii) > (ii) > (iv) > (i) (3) (iii) > (iv) > (ii) > (i) (4) (iv) > (iii) > (ii) > (i)
78. Reaction of ethyl formate with excess of CH3MgI followed by hydrolysis gives (1) n- propyl alcohol (2) isopropyl alcohol (3) acetaldehyde (4) acetone
79. When aniline reacts with oil of bitter almonds (C6H5CHO) condensation takes place and benzal derivative is formed. This is known as (1) Schiff's base (2) Benedict's reagent (3) Millon's base (4) Schiff's reagent
80. Acetone is treated with excess of ethanol in the presence of hydrochloric acid. The product obtained is
(1) (2)
(3) (4) 81. The repeating unit present in Nylon 6 is
(1) — [NH(CH2)6NHCO(CH2)4CO] — (2) — [CO(CH2)5NH] — (3) — [CO (CH2)6NH] — (4) — [CO (CH2)4NH] —
82. Which one of the following is not a condensation polymer? (1) Melamine (2) Glyptal (3) Dacron (4) Neoprene
83. Which one of the following sets forms the biodegradable polymer? (1) CH2 = CH – CN and CH2 = CH – CH = CH2 (2) H2N – CH2 – COOH and H2N–(CH2)5 – COOH
(3) HO – CH2 – CH2 – OH and
(4)
84. A cross-linked polymer is (1) bakelite (2) nylon 6, 6 (3) nylon 6, 10 (4) nylon 6
85. Structures of some common polymers are given. Which one is not correctly presented?
(1) (2) Terylene; (3) Nylon 66; [– NH(CH2)6NHCO(CH2)4CO–]n
(4) Teflon; (–CF2 – CF2 –)n
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86. Which of the following compounds is not an antacid? (1) Phenelzine (2) Ranitidine (3) Aluminium hydroxide (4) Cimetidine
87. Which of the following is used for inducing sleep? (1) paracetamol (2) chloroquine (3) bithional (4) barbituric acid derivatives
88. Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide is a popular (1)anionic detergent (2) cationic detergent (3) non-ionic detergent (4) sweetener
89. Sulpha drugs are used for (1)Precipitating bacteria (2) removing bacteria (3) decreasing the size of bacteria (4) stopping the growth of bacteria
90. Bithional is an example of (1)disinfectant (2) antiseptic (3) antibiotic (4) analgesic
Part – C (Biology)
91. In alcoholic fermentation, NAD+ is produced during the (1) reduction of acetyldehyde to ethanol (2) oxidation of glucose (3) oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl coA (4) hydrolysis of ATP to ADP
92. Which of the following representation correctly explain the function of mitochondrion?
(1) (2) (3) (4) 93. Which of the metabolites is common to respiration mediated breakdown of fats, carbohydrates
and proteins? (1) Fructose 1, 6 – bisphosphate (2) Pyruvic acid (3) Acetyl CoA (4) Glucose - 6 – phosphate
94. Which of the following is the connecting link between glycolysis and Krebs cycle? (1) Acetyl CoA (2) Oxalosuccinic acid (3) Pyruvic acid (4) Citric acid
95. Pyruvate kinase enzyme catalyses (1) first irreversible step of glycolysis (2) second irreversible step of glycolysis (3) third irreversible step of glycolysis (4) fourth irreversible step of glycolysis
96. Which of the following is coenzyme-II? (1) NAD (2) NADP (3) FAD (4) None of these
97. Common phase in aerobic and anaerobic respiration is (1) Krebs' Cycle (2) glycolysis (3) glycogenolysis (4) ETC
98. The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on the (1) nature of enzymes involved (2) nature of the substrate (3) amount of carbon dioxide released (4) amount of oxygen utilised
99. During which stage in the complete oxidation of glucose are the greatest number of ATP molecules formed from ADP? (1) Conversion of pyruvic acid to acetyl Co-A (2) Electron transport chain (3) Glycolysis (4) Krebs cycle
100. Which of the following statement is true? (1) Pepsin cannot digest casein (2) Trypsin can digest collagen (3) Pepsin cannot digest collagen (4) Chymotrypsin can digest casein
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101. If for some reason the parietal cells of the gut epithelium become partially non-funcitonal, what is likely to happen? (1) The pancreatic enzymes and specially the trypsin and lipase will not work efficiently (2) The pH of stomach will fall abruptly (3) Steapsin will be more effective (4) Proteins will not be adequately hydrolysed by pepsin into proteoses and peptones
102. Parotid salivary glands are present (1) Below the tongue (2) Below the cheeks (3) In the angle between two jaws (4) Below the eye orbits
103. Which one of the following pairs of the kind of cells and their secretion are correctly matched? (1) Oxyntic cells – A secretion with pH between 2.0 and 3.0 (2) Alpha cells of (Nutrition) islets – Secretion of Langerhans that decreases blood sugar level (3) Kupffer cells – A digestive enzyme that hydrolyses nucleic acids (4) Sebaceous glands – A secretion that evaporates for cooling
104. Lathyrism is caused by excessive consumption of (1) khesari dal (2) mustard oil (3) polished rice (4) mushrooms
105. Which group of three of the following five statements (A - E) contains all three correct statements regarding beri-beri? (A) A crippling disease prevalent among the native population of sub-Sahara Africa. (B) A deficiency disease caused by lack of thiamine (vitamin-B1). (C) A nutritional disorder in infants and young children when the diet is persistently deficient in essential protein. (D) Occurs in those countries where the staple diet is polished rice. (E) The symptoms are pain from neuritis, paralysis, muscle wasting, progressive oedema, mental deterioration and finally heart failure. (1) A, B and D (2) B, C and E (3) A, C and E (4) B, D and E
106. A patient is generally advised to specially, consume more meat, lentils, milk and eggs in diet only when he suffers from (1) kwashiorkor (2) rickets (3) anaemia (4) scurvy
107. Secretin and cholecystokinin are digestive hormones. They are secreted in (1) Pyloric stomach (2) Duodenum (3) Ileum (4) Oesophagus
108. Identify the correct set, which shows the name of the enzyme from where it is secreted and substrate upon which it acts. (1) Ptyalin - Intestine – Maltose (2) Ptyalin - Pancreas – Lipid (3) Pepsin - Stomach wall – Caesin (4) Chymotrypsin - Salivary gland – Lactose
109. During oxygen transport the oxyhaemoglobin at the tissue level liberates oxygen to the cells because in tissue (1) O2 concentration is high and CO2 is low (2) O2 concentration is low and CO2 is high (3) O2 tension is high and CO2 tension is low (4) O2 tension is low and CO2 tension is high
110. The presence of CO2 in blood will lower Ph because CO2 combines with____, with the rate of reaction increased by_____. (1) H2O to form H+ and HCO3
–, carbonic anhydrase (2) H2O to form only HCO3
–, carbonic anhydrase (3) H2O to form only H+, carbonic ions (4) H+ to form HCO3
–, oxyhaemoglobin
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NEET | 27.03.2019 SECOND 25% PORTION TEST (P, C, B)
II Floor, Sri Ram Plaza, Opp. Thirumathi Poovaiammal Thirumana Mandapam, Rasipuram – 637 408. Mob : 9444331869, Email : [email protected] 12
111. Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS) (1) is caused by a variant of Pneumococcus pneumoniae. (2) is caused by a variant of the common cold virus (corona virus). (3) is an acute form of asthma. (4) affects non-vegetarians much faster than the vegetarians.
112. The diagram below represents part of a capillary in a specific region of the human body. The region labelled X represents part of
(1) a glomerulus (2) an alveolus (3) a villus (4) the liver
113. Which of the following enzymes is absent in mitochondria? (1) Aconitase (2) Malic dehydrogenase (3) Hexokinase (4) None of these
114. Occupational lung diseases that occur in humans, among those given below is (1) dyspnea (2) anthracosis (3) atelectasis (4) cyanosis
115. Pneumotoxic centre which can moderate the functions of the respiratory rhythm centre is present at (1) pons region in brain (2) thalamus (3) spinal cord (4) right cerebral hemisphere
116. The 'blue baby' syndrome results from (1) Excess of dissolved oxygen (2) Excess of TDS (total dissolved solids) (3) Excess of chloride (4) Methaemoglobin
117. In lungs, there is definite exchange of ions between RBC and plasma. Removal of CO2 from blood involves (1) Influx of Cl– ions into RBC (2) Influx of HCO3
– ions into RBC (3) Efflux of Cl– ions into RBC (4) Efflux of HCO3
– ions into RBC 118. Which enzyme induces lysis of fibrinogen to fibrin during fibrinolysis?
(1) Plasmin (2) Thrombin (3) Fibrin (4) Trypsin 119. An artificial pace maker is implanted subcutaneously and connected to the heart in patients
(1) having 90% blockage of the three main coronary arteries. (2) having a very high blood pressure. (3) with irregularity in the heart rhythm. (4) suffering from arteriosclerosis.
120. Which one of the following is a matching pair? (1) Lubb - Sharp closure of AV valves at the beginning of ventricular systole. (2) Dup - Sudden opening of semilunar valves at the beginning of ventricular diastole. (3) Pulsation of the radial artery valves in the blood vessels. (4) Purkinje fibres-Initiation of the heart beat.
121. With reference to the blood in a normal person, which one of the following statements is correct? (1) Compared to arteries, veins are less numerous and hold less of the body’s blood at any given time. (2) Blood cells constitute about 70 percent of the total volume of the blood. (3) White blood cells (WBC) are made by lymph nodes only. (4) The blood has more platelets than WBC.
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NEET | 27.03.2019 SECOND 25% PORTION TEST (P, C, B)
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122. You are required to draw blood from a patient and to keep the blood in a test tube for analysis of corpuscles and plasma. You are also provided with the following four types of test tubes. Which of them will you not use for the purpose? (1) Test tube containing calcium bicarbonate (2) Chilled test-tube (3) Test-tube containing heparin (4) Test-tube containing sodium oxalate
123. Compared to those of humans, the erythrocytes in frog are (1) Without nucleus but with haemoglobin (2) Nucleated and with haemoglobin (3) Very much smaller and fewer (4) Nucleated and without haemoglobin
124. During chloride shift or Hamburger phenomenon, when the whole blood is saturated with CO2, following changes occurs. Which one of them is not correct? (1) Bicarbonate content of plasma and corpuscles increase (2) Chloride content of plasma is diminished and that of the cell is increased (3) Total base of blood remains unchanged (4) Water content and volume of corpuscles decrease.
125. In cardiac cycle, maximum time is taken by (1) atria systole (2) atria diastole (3) ventricle systole (4) ventricle diastole
126. Faster breathing in high fever is due to the (1) additional requirement of O2 for the invader germs (2) high temperature of the body (3) mental worry of a patient (4) loss of appetite
127. In ornithine cycle, enzyme arginase breaks down arginine into (1) Citrulline and ammonia (2) Ornithine and ammonia (3) Ornithine and urea (4) Citrulline and urea
128. If Henle’s loop were absent from mammalian nephron which of the following is to be expected (1) there will be no urine formation (2) there will be hardly any change in the quality and quantity of urine formed (3) the urine will be more concentrated (4) the urine will be more dilute.
129. Which one of the following statements in regard to the excretion by the human kidneys is correct? (1) Ascending limb of Loop of Henle is impermeable to electrolytes (2) Descending limb of Loop of Henle is impermeable to water (3) Distal convoluted tubule is incapable of reabsorbing HCO3
–
(4) Nearly 99 per cent of the glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed by the renal tubules 130. In which of the following minimum content of urea is present?
(1) Hepatic portal vein (2) Portal vein (3) Renal vein (4) Vena cava 131. Duct of Bellini is concerned with
(1) Filtration of urine (2) Purification of urine (3) Conduction of urine (4) All the above
132. During urine formation, which of the following processes create high osmotic pressure in the uriniferous tubule? (1) Active Na+ absorption, followed by absorption of Cl– (2) Active Cl– absorption, followed by absorption of Na+
(3) Active secretion of Na+ into efferent arteriole followed by absorption of Cl– into efferent renal arteriole (4) Active secretion of Cl– and absorption of Na+ into efferent renal arteriole
133. Sea gulls excrete excess of NaCl from (1) liver (2) lungs (3) nasal cavity (4) kidney
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NEET | 27.03.2019 SECOND 25% PORTION TEST (P, C, B)
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134. A person is undergoing prolonged fasting. His urine will be found to contain abnormal quantities of (1) fats (2) ketones (3) amino acids (4) glucose
135. In ornithine cycle, which of the following wastes are removed from the blood? (1) Urea and urine (2) Ammonia and urea (3) CO2 and ammonia (4) CO2 and urea
136. The given figure represents the cross bridge cycle in skeletal muscle. What does the step B in the figure represents?
(1) Attachment of myosin head to actin forming cross bridge. (2) Release of phosphate. Myosin changes shape to pull actin. (3) Attachment of new ATP to myosin head. The cross bridge detaches. (4) Splitting of ATP into ADP and Pi. Myosin cocks into its high energy conformation.T
137. Sesamoid bone is derived from- (1) Cartilage (2) Areolar tissue (3) Tendon (4) Ligament
138. A cricket player is fast chasing a ball in the field. Which one of the following groups of bones are directly contributing in this movement? (1) Femur, malleus, tibia, metatarsals (2) Pelvis, ulna, patella, tarsals (3) Sternum, femur, tibia, fibula (4) Tarsals, femur, metatarsals, tibia
139. Assertion : Arthritis or inflammation of a joint makes the joint painful. Reason : Some toxic substances are deposited at the joint. (1) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. (2) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion. (3) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. (4) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
140. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched? (1) Cartilaginous - Skull bones joint (2) Hinge joint - Between vertebrae (3) Fibrous joint - Between phalanges (4) Gliding join - Between zygapophyses of the successive vertebrae
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NEET | 27.03.2019 SECOND 25% PORTION TEST (P, C, B)
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141. Total number of bones in the hindlimb of a man is (1) 14 (2) 21 (3) 24 (4) 30
142. Which of the following disorder is an outcome of irregularities in metabolism of the nitrogenous waste? (1) Osteoporosis (2) Gouty arthritis (3) Osteoarthritis (4) Rheumatoid arthritis
143. The strongest muscle in the human is (1) biceps (2) gluteus maximus (3) stapedius (4) masseter
144. Epiphyseal plates at the extremities of long bones help in (1) bone moulding (2) elongation of bone (3) bone formation (4) formation of Haversian canal
145. Which endocrine gland is called ‘the Throne of immunity’? (1) Spleen (2) Thymus (3) Pineal (4) Adrenal medulla
146. Which of the following hormone acts upon the renal tubule and blood capillaries? (1) Glucagon (2) Aldosterone (3) Vasopressin (4) Glucocorticoids
147. Select the correct option describing gonadotropin activity in a normal pregnant female: (1) High level of FSH and LH stimulate the thickening of endometrium. (2) High level of FSH and LH facilitate implantation of the embryo. (3) High level of hCG stimulates the synthesis of estrogen and progesterone. (4) High level of hCG stimulates the thickening of endometrium.
148. Which of the following hormones have antagonistic (opposing) effects? (1) Thyroxine and calcitonin (2) Insulin and glucagon (3) Growth hormone and epinephrine (4) ACTH and glucocorticoids
149. In the homeostatic control of blood sugar level, which organs function respectively as modulator and effector. (1) Liver and islets of langerhans (2) Hypothalamus and liver (3) Hypothalamus and islets of langerhans (4) Islets of langerhans and hypothalamus
150. Toxic agents present in food which interfere with thyroxine synthesis lead to the development of : (1) toxic goitre (2) cretinism (3) simple goitre (4) thyrotoxicosis
151. Match the following Columns. Column I Column II (Disease) (Related Hormone) A. Cretinism I. Glucocorticoid B. Cushing's syndrome II. Testosterone C. Diabetes insipidus III. Thyroid D. Eunuchoidism IV. ADH (1) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II (2) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I (3) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II (4) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II
152. Which one of the following hormones is released by posterior lobe of pituitary gland? (1) FSH (2) ADH (3) ACTH (4) MSH
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NEET | 27.03.2019 SECOND 25% PORTION TEST (P, C, B)
II Floor, Sri Ram Plaza, Opp. Thirumathi Poovaiammal Thirumana Mandapam, Rasipuram – 637 408. Mob : 9444331869, Email : [email protected] 16
153. Match the biological molecule listed under column I with their biological function listed under column II. Choose the answer which gives correct combination of alphabets of the two columns. Column - I Column - II
(Biological Molecule) (Function) A. Glycogen I. Hormone B. Globulin II. Biocatalyst C. Steroid III. Antibody D. Thrombin IV. Storage product (1) A – III; B – II; C – IV; D – I (2) A – IV; B – II; C – I; D – III (3) A – II; B – IV; C – III; D – I (4) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II
154. In Urn shaped age pyramid of the population the trend of growth is (1) Rapid (2) Stable (3) Declining (4) Stationary
155. The figure given below is a diagrammatic representation of response of organisms to abiotic factors. What do A, B and C represent respectively?
A B C
(1) conformer regulator partial regulator (2) regulator partial regulator conformer (3) partial regulator regulator conformer (4) regulator conformer partial regulator
156. If 4 individuals in a laboratory population of 40 fruit flies died during a specified time interval (i.e., a week), the death rate in the population during that period is (1) 1 (2) 0.1 (3) 0.01 (4) 0.4
157. The plants which can withstand narrow range of temperature tolerance are called (1) stenothermal (2) eurythermal (3) mesothermal (4) monothermal
158. The equation n
t
N BN
represents which of the following:
(1) Natality (2) Growth rate (3) Mortality (4) All of these 159. Viscum album grows on trees. This is an example of
(1) symbiosis (2) parasitism (3) commensalism (4) predation 160. Which of the following is not true for a species?
(1) Members of a species can interbreed (2) Variations occur among members of species (3) Each species is reproductively isolated from every other species (4) Gene flow does not occur between the populations of a species
161. Select the incorrect statement. (1) Stellar's sea cow and passenger pigeon got extinct due to over exploitation by men (2) The mitotic convention on biological diversity was held in 1992 (3) Species diversity increase as we move away from the equator towards the poles (4) Lantana and Eichhornia are invasive weed species in India
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NEET | 27.03.2019 SECOND 25% PORTION TEST (P, C, B)
II Floor, Sri Ram Plaza, Opp. Thirumathi Poovaiammal Thirumana Mandapam, Rasipuram – 637 408. Mob : 9444331869, Email : [email protected] 17
162. Small fish get stuck near the bottom of a shark and derives its nutrition from it. This kind of association is called as (1) antibiosis (2) commensalism (3) predation (4) parasitism
163. In stems, the protoxylem lies towards the _____________ and the metaxylem lies towards the ____________ of the organ. (1) centre; periphery (2) periphery; centre (3) periphery; periphery (4) centre; centre
164. Meristematic tissue responsible for increase in girth of tree trunk is (1) Apical meristem (2) Intercalary meristem (3) Lateral meristem (4) Phellogen
165. Contractile tissues have the following features (i) Mesodermal in origin (ii) They contain stretch receptors. (iii) Rhythmic contractions are seen in them (iv) They do not fatigue during the life of the animal Which of the above are characteristics of sphincters? (1) All the four (2) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) (3) Only (i), (ii) and (iv) (4) Only (i), (iii) and (iv)
166. Grafting is successful in dicots but not in monocots because the dicots have (1) vascular bundles arranged in a ring (2) cambium for secondary growth (3) vessels with elements arranged end to end (4) cork cambium
167. In a woody dicotyledonous tree, which of the following parts will mainly consist of primary tissues? (1) Stem and root (2) All parts (3) Shoot tips and root tips (4) Flowers, frutis and leaves
168. Transition of radial vascular bundle in root to conjoint vascular bundle in stem occurs in which zone? (1) Epicotyl (2) Hypocotyl (3) Meristem (4) At base of stem
169. The length of different internodes in a culm of sugarcane is variable because (1) size of leaf lamina at the node below each internode (2) intercalary meristem (3) shoot apical meristem (4) position of axillary buds
170. Duramen is present in (1) inner region of secondary wood (2) part of sap wood (3) outer region of secondary wood (4) region of pericycle
171. Tyloses, an outgrowth from ray or axial parenchyma cell into the lumen of a vessel which partially or completely blocks the cavity are present in (1) periderm (2) heart wood (3) sap wood (4) secondary cortex
172. A boy is studying transport of a certain type of molecules into cell. He finds that transport slows down when the cells are poisoned with a chemical that inhibits energy production. Under normal circumstances, the molecules studied by the boy is probably transported by (1) simple diffusion (2) osmosis (3) active transport (4) facilitated diffusion
173. A botanist discovered a mutant plant that was unable to produce materials that form casparian strip. This plant would be (1) unable to transport water or solutes to the leaves. (2) unable to use its sugar as a sugar sink. (3) able to exert greater root pressure than the normal plant. (4) unable to control amounts of water and solutes it absorbs.
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NEET | 27.03.2019 SECOND 25% PORTION TEST (P, C, B)
II Floor, Sri Ram Plaza, Opp. Thirumathi Poovaiammal Thirumana Mandapam, Rasipuram – 637 408. Mob : 9444331869, Email : [email protected] 18
174. Minerals are known to enter the plant root by means of a number of mechanisms, including all except one of the following. Which one of the following is NOT a mechanism for moving minerals into roots? (1) Foliar feeding (2) Active transport (3) Proton (H+) pump (4) Cation exchange
175. Seed increase in its volume by the adsorption of water through (1) Osmosis (2) Plasmolysis (3) Imbibition (4) Diffusion
176. In rainy season, the doors get swell due to (1) Imbibition (2) Absorption (3) Diffusion (4) Endosmosis
177. The rupture and fractionation do not usually occur in water column in vessel/tracheids during the ascent of sap because of (1) lignified thick walls (2) cohesion and adhesion (3) weak gravitational pull (4) transpiration pull
178. Root hair absorbs water from soil through (1) turgor pressure (2) ion exchange (3) osmosis (4) DPD
179. Two cells A and B are contigous. Cell A has osmotic pressure 10 atm, turgor pressure 7 atm and diffusion pressure deficit 3 atm. Cell B has osmotic pressure 8 atm, turgor pressure 3 atm and diffusion pressure deficit 5 atm. The result will be (1) movement of water from cell B to A (2) no movement of water (3) equilibrium between the two (4) movement of water from cell A to B
180. Which of the following theory gives the latest explanation for the closure of stomata? (1) ABA theory (2) Munch theory (3) Starch glucose theory (4) Active K+ transport theory
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NEET | 27.03.2019 SECOND 25% PORTION TEST (P, C, B)
II Floor, Sri Ram Plaza, Opp. Thirumathi Poovaiammal Thirumana Mandapam, Rasipuram – 637 408. Mob : 9444331869, Email : [email protected] 19
ANSWER KEY – 03.02.2019 PART – A (PHYSICS)
Q.No 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 Ans 1 3 3 2 1 2 3 2 4 2
Q.No 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 Ans 1 3 4 2 3 2 4 2 2 2
Q.No 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 Ans 3 4 4 4 1 2 2 2 3 2
Q.No 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 Ans 2 4 3 1 3 1 2 1 3 2
Q.No 41 42 43 44 45 Ans 2 1 3 2 2
PART – B (CHEMISTRY) Q.No 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 Ans 1 2 2 3 4 2 4 1 4 2
Q.No 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 Ans 3 2 2 4 2 3 2 2 4 4
Q.No 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 Ans 1 4 3 1 4 2 4 2 1 1
Q.No 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 Ans 2 1 3 1 4 2 4 2 1 1
Q.No 86 87 88 89 90 Ans 1 4 2 4 2
PART – C (BIOLOGY) Q.No 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 Ans 1 1 3 1 3 2 2 2 2 4
Q.No 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 Ans 4 2 1 1 4 1 2 3 2, 4 1
Q.No 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 Ans 2 2 3 2 1 4 1, 4 2 3 1
Q.No 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 Ans 4 1 2 4 4 2 3 4 4 3
Q.No 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 Ans 3 1 3 2 3 2 3 4 3 4
Q.No 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 Ans 4 2 4 2 2 3 3 2 3 3
Q.No 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 Ans 4 2 4 3 4 2 1 2 2 4
Q.No 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 Ans 3 2 1 3 2 2 3 2 2 1
Q.No 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 Ans 2 3 4 1 3 1 1 3 4 4
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NEET | 27.03.2019 SECOND 25% PORTION TEST (P, C, B)
II Floor, Sri Ram Plaza, Opp. Thirumathi Poovaiammal Thirumana Mandapam, Rasipuram – 637 408. Mob : 9444331869, Email : [email protected] 20
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NEET | 27.03.2019 SECOND 25% PORTION TEST (P, C, B)
II Floor, Sri Ram Plaza, Opp. Thirumathi Poovaiammal Thirumana Mandapam, Rasipuram – 637 408. Mob : 9444331869, Email : [email protected] 21
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NEET | 27.03.2019 SECOND 25% PORTION TEST (P, C, B)
II Floor, Sri Ram Plaza, Opp. Thirumathi Poovaiammal Thirumana Mandapam, Rasipuram – 637 408. Mob : 9444331869, Email : [email protected] 22
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NEET | 27.03.2019 SECOND 25% PORTION TEST (P, C, B)
II Floor, Sri Ram Plaza, Opp. Thirumathi Poovaiammal Thirumana Mandapam, Rasipuram – 637 408. Mob : 9444331869, Email : [email protected] 23
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NEET | 27.03.2019 SECOND 25% PORTION TEST (P, C, B)
II Floor, Sri Ram Plaza, Opp. Thirumathi Poovaiammal Thirumana Mandapam, Rasipuram – 637 408. Mob : 9444331869, Email : [email protected] 24
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