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1. The dimensions of he are same as that of (where h = planck's constant and e = charge)

1) Magnetic field induction 2) Magnetic flux

3) Electric field strength 4) Elctric flux

2. A block A is pulled on a smooth horizontal plane with a rope which moves with velocity as shown in figure. The velocity of the block on the plane 'u' is

v

u

smooth

1) cos ec 2) s in 3) cos 4) sec

Pattern of the Entrance Test:-1) The Entrance Test shall consist of one paper containing 180 objective type questions (fouroptions with single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany & Zoology) tobe answered on the specially designed machine-gradable sheet using Ball Point Pen only. Theduration of paper would be 03 hours2) Each item carries 4 marks. For each correct response the candidate will get 4 marks. For eachincorrect response one mark will be deducted from the total score.

NEET PAPER -2PHYSICS

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3. Find the value of p so that ˆ ˆˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ2 , 2 3i j k i j k and ˆˆ ˆ3 5i pj k may be coplanar

1) -8 2) -4 3) 2 4) 44. A stationary body of mass 3kg explodes into three equal pieces. Two of the pieces fly off at

at right angles to each other, one with a velocity ˆ2i ms–1 and the other with a velocityˆ3 j ms–1. If the explosion takes plece in 10–5s, the average force acting on the third piece

in newton is

1) 5ˆ ˆ2 3 10i j 2) 5ˆ ˆ2 3 10i j 3) 5ˆ ˆ3 2 10j i 4) 5ˆ ˆ2 3 10i j

5. A small particle of mass m is released from rest from point A on frictionless hemispheri-cal bowl as shown in figure. The ratio of magnitude of centripetal force and normal reacitonon the particle at any point B is

OA

BR

1) 2/3 2) 1/2 3) 2/3 4) 4/56. A body is projected up a smooth inclined plane with velocity u from the point A as shown

in fig. The height of the inclined plane is 5.4m and the top of the inclind plane is con-nected to a well of diameter 3.6m. the body just manages to cross the well. The value ofu is ( g= 10ms–2)

045

5.4m

3.6m

u

v

1) 20ms–1 2) 12ms–1 3) 30ms–1 4)54ms–1

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7. Two blocks, A of mass 1kg and another B of mass 2kg are shown in figure. A force of 5N isapplied on A. Coefficient of friction between A and B is 0.2 and that between B and hori-zontal surface is zero. Find the time taken for the front face of A to coincide with that of B:

8cmB

A 5N

4cm

1) 2s 2) 83

s 3) 38

s 4) 0.2s

8. When a body is moving vertically up with constant velocity, then match the followingColumn-I Column -II

1) Work done by lifting force is A) Negative2) Total work done byall the forces is B) Positive3) Work done by gravity C) Zero4) Work done by lifting force + work done by gravity D) Higher positive values1) 1 - B, 2 - C, 3 - A, 4 - C 2) 1 - B, 2 - D, 3 - C, 4 - A3) 1 - B, 2 - A, 3 - C, 4 - D 4) 1 - A, 2 - A, 3 - C, 4 - D

9. A ladder of length 6m and mass 40kg rests with its upper end against a smooth wall andlower end on rough ground. Find the minimum coefficient of friction between the groundand the ladder so that the ladder does not slip if the ladder makes an angel of 600 with thehorizontal ( take g =10ms–2)

1) 1

2 3 2) 32

3) 12 4)

13

10. During the vapourization of some amount of water at 373K at atmospheric pressure whichof the following statements is correct ?

a) Work is done by the steam – water system on the atmosphereb) Work is done on the steam – water system by the atmospherec) The internal energy of the steam – water system increasesd) The internal energy of the steam – water system decreases1. a, c only 2. b, d only 3. b, c only 4. a, d only

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11. Which of the following is not correct about the centre of mass?1) It depends on the frame of reference2) The angular momentum of a system about the centre of mass is always zero3) Internal forces do not affect the motion of centre of mass4) Centre of mass may or may not coincide with centre of gravity

12. Two billiard balls of the same size (radius r ) and same mass are in contact on a billiardtable. A third ball also of the same size and mass strikes them symmetrically and remainsat rest after the impact. The coefficient of restitution between the balls is1) 1/3 2) 2/3 3) 1/2 4) 3/4

13. Find the ratio of energy required to raise a satellite upto a height R (radius of earth)from the surface of earth to that required to put it into an orbit at that height.

1) 2/3 2)32 3)

43 4)

34

14. A wire is suspended vertically from a rigid support. When a weight W is hanged from itslower end, in air, the wire extends by 16cm. When the weigth is completely immersed inwater, the extension reduces to 12cm. Then the relative density of the material of theweigth is1) 5gcm–3 2) 8gcm–3 3) 4gcm–3 4) 6gcm–3

15. A small block of wood of specific gravity 0.4 is submerged at a depth of 1.6m in a con-

tainer containing water. The container is accelerated upward with an aceleration 3g

.

Then the time taken by the block to reach the surface when released with zero initialvelocity is1) 0.4s 2) 0.5s 3) 0.1s 4) 0.2s

16. When a liquid is poured, it insists to runs down the side of the can instead of fallingstraight down from the tip as shown in fig. This can be explained by

1) Viscosity 2) Surface tension3) Bernoulli's principle 4) Newton's third law of motion

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17. A flask with open mouth contains air at 270C. Find the temperature at which 25

th mass of

the air escapes the flask.1) 2270C 2) 3000C 3) 2460C 4) 2730C

18. Three rods A, B and C made of the same material and having the same cross-section havelengths 10cm, 20cm and 10cm respectively. Their ends are at temperatures 600C, 600Cand 00C as shown. Then the temperature of the junction D is

AC

BD10cm00C 600C

600C

10cm

20cm

1) 300C 2) 360C 3) 500C 4) 400C19. Three moles of an ideal monoatomic gas perform on cycle as shown. The gas tempera-

tur es in dif fer ent states ar e T 1= 400K, T2= 800K, T3= 2400K & T4=1200K. The workdone by the gas during the cycles is approximately.

P

T

14

32

O

1) 10kJ 2) 20kJ 3) 30kJ 4) 15kJ20. Assertion (A): Mean free path of the molecule of a gas varies inversely as the density of

the gasReason (R): Mean free path varies inversely as pressure of the gas. 1) A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

2) A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A 3) A is true but R is false 4) A is flase but R is true21. A particle performs SHM with a period of 16s. At time t=2s, the particle passes through

origin (MP), while at t=4s, its velocity is 4ms-1. Its amplitude is ______

1) 32 2

2) 16 3

3) 224 2

4) 162

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22. Speed of sound is 320m/s and frequency of sound wave entering at A is 500Hz. No sound isheard at B as shown in fig. Then the length of the curved path curved path CDE may be

A

C

D

EB

1) 16cm 2) 32cm 3) 48cm 4) 88cm23. A radar sends a radio signal of frequency 99 10 Hz towards an aircraft approaching the

radar. If the reflected wave shows a frequency shift of 33 10 Hz, the speed with which theaircraft is approaching the radar in ms–1 [ Velocity of the radio signal = 3X108ms–1]1) 150 2) 100 3) 50 4) 25

24. Two similar charged spheres are suspended by strings of equal lengths. The strings makean angle of 300 with each other. When suspended in a liquid of density 0.8gm/cc, theangle remains the same. What is the dielectric constant of the liquid ? Given density ofmaterial of the spheres =1.6gm/cc.1) 3 2) 4 3) 2 4) 5

25. The equipotential lines and their positions in x –y plane are shown in figure. Find electricfield internsity in this region

4V 8V 12V

x

y

300 300300

5cm 10cm 15cm

1) 140 V/m 2) 160 V/m 3) 120 V/m 4) 180 V/m26. An electrical dipole is placed at the origin and is directed along the x-axis At a point P,

far away from the dipole, the electric field is parallel to the y- axis. OP makes an angle with the x- axis then

1) tan 3 2) tan 2 3) 045 4) 1tan2

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27. The LED, i.e., light emitting diodea) is made from Ge or Si b) is made from Ga As Pc) is forward biased d) is reverse biased1) a and b are correct 2) b and c are correct3) a, b and c are correct 4) a, b and d are correct

28. Two radioactive materials X1 and X2 have decay constants 10 and respectively. Ifinitially they have the same number of nuclei, then the ratio of the number of nuclei of X1to that of X2 will be 1/e after a time of

1) 1

10 2) 1

11 3) 11

10 4) 1

9

29. Assertion (A): Free electrons in conductors do not acquire infinite velocity even after

infinite time though acceleration is eEam

.

Reason (R): The velocity acquired by them becomes zero after every collision with thelattice sites 1) A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

2) A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A 3) A is true but R is false 4) A is flase but R is true30. Resistance of potentiometer wire AB is 10 . This is in series with a battery of 5V and a

resistance 40R . The length of the potentiometer wire is 5m. The null point is obtainedat 2m from the end A . Find emf 'E'.

40R 5V

A BD

E

1) 2V 2) 0.2V 3) 20mV 4) 0.4V31. A tightly wound long solenoid of the radius r metre and number of turns per metre equal

to n, carries a current of i amp. A paticle of mass m and charge q projected from a point onits axis in a direction at right angle to its axis. Find the maximum velocity of the particleso that it may not touch the solenoid

1) 0nqrim

2) 0

4nqrim

3) 0

2mnri

4) 0

2riqmn

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32. A galvanometer of 25 resistance can read a maximum currect of 6mA. It can be used asa voltmeter to measure maximum of 6V by connecting a resistance to the galvanometer.Identify the correct choice in the given answers.1) 1025 in series 2)1025 in parallel 3) 975 in series 4) 975 in parallel

33. When a current is passed in a circular coil, neutral point is found to be at its centre andBH

at that place is 40.32 10 T . What will be the resultant magnetic field at the centrewhen the plane of the coil is turned though 900 ?1) 40.32 10 T 2) 40.64 10 T 3) 40.45 10 T 4) 40.16 10 T

34. The material suitable for making electromagnets should have:1) High retentivity and high coercivity 2) Low retentivity and high coercivity3) High retentivity and low coercivity 4) Low retentivity and low coercivity

35. The loop PQ, as shwon in figure moves with a velocity . Both loop and velocity are in theplane of paper and a magnetic field B

exists in the region perpendicular to plane anddirected inward. Find the emf induced between P and Q.

PAa QC b

vx x x x x x x

x x x x x x x

x x x x x x x

x x x x x x x

r

1) 2B r 2) 2B a b r 3) B a b r 4) B r

36. In ac a.c circuit, the current flowing is 5sin 100 / 2i t A and the potential difference

is 200sin 100V t V . The power consumption is equal to

1) 100W 2) 40W 3) 20W 4) 0W

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37. In the given circuit each one of the diodes D1 and D2 has forward resistance of 40 ohm andinfinite backward resistance. Each one of the ammeters A1, A2 and A3 has internal resistance5ohm. The readings of A1A2 and A3 are respectively

75

1002D

1D

12V

3A

2A

1A

50

1) 0.06A, Zero, 0.04A 2) Zero, 0.08A, 0.03A3) 0.06A, Zero, 0.06A 4) 0.03A, 0.08A, Zero

38. The electric field of an electromagnetic wave in a medium is given by Ex= 0, yE =2.5 Vm

6 1 2 1[cos 2 10 10 ]rads t m x , Ez = 0, The wave is

1) Moving along x-direction with frequency 106 Hz and wavelength 100m2) Moving along x-direction with frequency 106 Hz and wavelength 200m3) Moving along -x-direction with frequency 106 Hz and wavelength 200m4) Moving along y-direction with frequency 106 Hz and wavelength 200m

39. An object is placed at a distance of 60cm from the lens. A convex mirror is placed asshown. The image thus formed coincides with the object. The focal length of the lens andmirror are 20cm and 12cm respectively. Find the distance between the lens and the convexmirror

f=12cm

X

60cm

1) 6cm 2) 12cm 3) 24cm 4) 30cm40. A driver uses a lens of power –1.25D for driving a car . The distance of far point of his eye

is:1) 125cm 2) 62.5cm 3) 80cm 4) 150cm

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41. Modulation is required toa) Distinguish different transmissionsb) Ensure that the information may be transmitted over long distancesc) Allow the information accessible for different people1) a and b are true 2) b and c are true 3) c and a are true 4) a, b and c are true

42. A source emits electromagnetic waves of wavelength 3m. One beam reaches the observerdirectly and other after reflection from a water surface, travelling 1.5m extra distanceand with intensity reduced to 1/4 as compared to intensity due to the direct beam alone.The resultant intensity will be1) (1/4) fold 2) (3/4) fold 3) (5/4) fold 4) (9/4) fold

43. A particle of mass m at rest decays into two particles of masses m1 and m2

having non–

zero velocities. The ratio of de broglie wavelengths of the particles 1

2

is

1) 1

2

mm 2) 2

1

mm 3) 1 4) 2

1

mm

44. What is the force exerted by a photon of intensity 1.4kWm–2, if it falls on a perfect absorberof radius 2 metre?1) 55.88 10 N 2) 810 N 3) 48.35 10 N 4) 88.8 10 N

45. If the series limit of lymen series for hydrogen atom is equal to the series limit of Balmerseries for a hydrogen like atom, then atomic number of this hydrogen like atom is

1) 1 2) 2 3) 4 4) 8

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46. Which of the following does not have spherical as well as angular node ?1) 1s 2) 2p 3) 3d 4) 5f

47. Equal masses of H2and He gases mixed in vessel recorded a pressure of 7.5 atm. Thepartial pressure of H2 is1) 4.8 atm 2) 2.4 atm 3) 5 atm 4) 7.5 atm

48. pH of a solution is changed from 2 to 5. What has been done to the solution ?1) 3 times dilution 2) 3 times concentration3) 100 times concentration 4) 1000 times dilution

49. The enthalpy of vaporization of benzene is 30.8 kJ mol-1 at its boiling point (80.10C).Calculate the entropy change in the condensation process.1) +87.3 JK-1 mol-1 2) -87.3 JK-1 mol-1 3) 240 JK-1 mol-1 4) -240 JK-1 mol-1

50. 2-3% gypsum is added to sample for1) increasing hardness 2) decreasing setting time3) increasing setting time 4) making is soft

51. AlCl3 and FeCl3 can be separated from their mixture by using1) NH4OH 2) NaOH 3) H2O 4) magnetic method

52. Which of the following are correct w.r.t D2O?1) It can be used as moderator 2) Its m.p. is 3.820C3) Its b.p. is 101.420C 4) All of these

53. 0.5 molal aqueous solutions of each of NaCl, BaCl2 and AlCl3 have boiling points T1, T2and T3 respectively. Which of the following is correct ?1) T1 > T2 > T3 2) T3 > T2 > T1 3) T2 > T1 > T3 4) T1 > T3 > T2

54. i) P Q A fast

ii) A R B slow

iii) B Q S T fast

are the elementary steps of the reactions,2P Q 2R S T

The rate law of the reaction is:

1) r = k [P] [Q] 2) r = k [P]2 [Q] [R]

33) 1/2 1/3r k P Q R 4) r k P Q R

55. NH3 gives brown precipitate with Nessler’s reagent. The formula of brown compound is :1) K2HgI4 2) 2H N Hg O Hg I

3) 3 2 2Ca P CaC 4) 4 42NH MoO

CHEMISTRY

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56. In which of the following molecules/ions are all the bonds not equal ?

1) XeF4 2) 4BF 3) SF4 4) SiF4

57. If 0P , the d4 is represented as

1 ) 211 02g gt e 2) 111 1

2g gt e 3) 0 222g gt e 4) 1 21

2g gt e

58. CuSO4. H2O is blue in colour but anhydrous CuSO4 is white though in both copperexists as Cu2+ ion with one unpaired electron the reason is :1) CuSO4 (anhydrous) absorbs white light 2) CuSO4 . 5H2O absorbs blue light3) Splitting of d-sub shell occurs in CuSO4 (anhydrous) and absorption of orange red lighttakes place4) Splitting of d-sub shell occurs in CuSO4.5H2O and absorption of orange-red light takes place

59. Which one of the following elements, when present as an impurity in silicon makes it ap-type semiconductor?

1) As 2) P 3) In 4) Sb60. Buna-N synthetic rubber is a copolymer of

1) 2 2CH CH CH CH and 6 5 2C H CH CH

2) 2CH CH CN and 2 2CH CH CH CH

3) 2CH CH CN and 2 2

3

CH CH C CH|CH

4) 2 2

Cl|

CH CH C CH and 2 2CH CH CH CH

61. 0.24 g of a volatile substance displaced 53.78 mL of air at STP. The molecular mass of theof the substance is1) 24g 2) 53.78g 3) 50g 4) 100g

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62. A fixed mass of a gas is subjected to transformation of states from K to L to M to N andback to K as shown

N M

PLK

V

The pair of isochoric processes among the transformations of sates is1) K to L and L to M 2) L to M and N to K 3) L to M and M to N 4) M to N and N to K

63. If fraction of space occupied in hcp is 'x' and in fcc is 'y', then1) x > y 2) x < y 3) x = y 4) uncertain

64. The energy of second Bohr's orbit in hydrogen atom is – 328kJ mol–1. The energy of thethird Bohr's orbit of H is1) – 583.11kJ mol–1 2) – 853.11kJ mol–1 3) – 145.78 kJ mol–1 4) – 511.83kJ mol–1

65. Which one of the following constitutes a group of the isoelectronic species ?1) 2 2N ,O , NO ,CO 2) 2

2 2C ,O ,CO, NO 3) 22 2NO ,C ,CN , N 4) 2 2

2 2 2CN , N ,O ,C

66. In which of the following the experimental dipole moment is more than what is expectedfrom theory ?

1)

CH3

CH3

2)

F

OH

3)

Cl

Cl

4) All of these

67. The reaction ,

6 6 2 2 215C H ( ) O g 6CO g 3H O( )2

l l is spontaneous, then which of the following is

correct ?1) H T S 2) H T S 3) H T S 4) H 0 and S 0

68. The dissociation equilibrium of a gas AB2 can be represented as

2 22AB g 2AB g B g

The degree of dissociation is 'x' and is small compared to 1. The expression relating thedegree of dissociation (x) with equilibrium constant Kp and total pressure P is

1) 1/3

p2K / P 2) 1/2

p2K / P 3) pK / P 4) p2K / P

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69. The pH of water at 298 K is 7.0. If water is heated to 350 K, then1) pH will decrease, water will become acidic 2) pH will remain same3) pH will increase, water wil remain neutral 3) pH will decrease, water will remain neutral

70. 1 mole of each of A and B form an ideal solution of vapour pressure 100 mm Hg. Additionof 2 moles of B to it, decrease the vapour pressure by 20 mm Hg. Vapour pressures of Aand B in pure state are respectively1) 100 and 100 mm Hg 2) 100 and 80 mm Hg3) 60 and 140 mm Hg 4) 140 and 60 mm Hg

71. A 4.0 molar aqueous solutio of NaCl is prepared and 500mL of this solution is electrolysed.This leads to the evolution of chlorine gas at one of the electrodes. The total number ofmoles of chlorine gas evolveed is1) 0.5 2) 1.0 3) 2.0 4) 3.0

72. For the given three cells, which of the following is correct?

a) 2 21Zn Zn 1.0M Cu 1.0M Cu;E b) 2 2

2Zn Zn 1.0M Cu 10.0M Cu;E

c) 2 23Zn Zn 10.0M Cu 1.0M Cu;E

1) 1 2 3E E E 2) 3 2 1E E E 3) 2 1 3E E E 4) 1 2 3E E E 73. Which of the following graphs represents the first order reaction ?

1) Rat

e

Conc.

Slope=k 2) Con

c.

Time

3)

log

[A]

Time

Slope=-k

2.303

log[A]0Intercept constant

4) All represent 1st order reaction

74. A colloidal solution is subjected to an electrical field. The particles move towardsanode. The coagulation of same sol is studied using NaCl, BaCl2 and AlC3 solu-tions. Their coasgulating power should be

1) NaCl > BaCl2 > AlCl3 2) BaCl2 > AlCl3 > NaCl3) AlCl3 > BaCl2 > NaCl 4) BaCl2 > NaCl > AlCl3

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75. Which is wrongly reported ?1) Spelter : impure zinc 2) Pig iron : impure iron3) Sphalerite : ZnO 4) Blister Copper : Impure Copper

76. 100 cm3 of a sample of H2O2 gives 1000cm3 of O2 at STP. The given sample is1) 10 volume H2O2 2) 100 volume H2O2 3) 10% H2O2 (W/V) 4) 2.786N

77. Cs2CO3 is highly soluble in water while BaCO3 quite sparingly soluble. Which of thefollowing is correct ?1) hydr . H dominates over lattice energy in case of Cs2CO3 while it is opposite in case of BaCO32) hydr . H dominates over lattice energy in case of BaCO3 while its opposite in case of Cs2CO3

3) Ksp of both Cs2CO3 and BaCO3is high 4) Ksp of both Cs2CO3 and BaCO3is low78. Which of these is not a monomer for a high molecular mass silicon polymer ?

1) 3Me SiCl 2) 3PhSiCl 3) 3MeSiCl 4) 2 2Me SiCl79. In 3

4PO , the bond order of P– O bond and formal charge on O – atom are, respectively1) 0.25, – 0.25 2) 0.50, – 0.50 3) 1.25, – 0.75 4) 0.75, – 1.25

80. Chormite ore 2 3Na CO /airfuseX Y .X and Y aree

1) 2 3 2 2 7Cr O and Na Cr O 2) 2 3 2 2 7FeO.Cr O and Na Cr O3) 2 3 2 4FeO.Cr O and Na CrO 4) 2 3 2 4Cr O and Na CrO

81. Kjeldahl's method can not be used to estimate nitrogen in which of the following com-pounds?

1) N 2) NH2 C NH2

O

3) NH2 4) All of these

82. Which of the following is the most stable carbocation

1) O2N CH2 2) CH2

3) CH3 CH2 4) CH3O CH2

83. How are the following related ?

I)CH3 CH2 CH2 N CH3

HII)

CH3 CH2 N CH3

CH3

III) CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 NH2

1) I and II are position isomers 2) I and III are chain isomers3) I, II and III are metamers 4) I, II and III are functional isomers

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84. Ozonolysis is of (using H2O/Zn) produces

1) 2 2 2HCHO OHC CH CH CH CHO 2) ||

2 2

O

HCHO OHC CH C CH CHO

3) 2 2 2 2 2CO H O OHC CH CH CH CHO 4) ||

2 2 2 2

O

H O CO OHC CH C CH CHO

85. Which of the following is a chain initiation step in the chlorination of CH4?

1) hvCl Cl 2 C l.

2) 4 3CH Cl CH HCl

. .

3) 3 2 3CH Cl CH Cl Cl

. . 4)

3 3 3 3C H C H CH CH. .

86. Ethanal is treated with HCN and the resulting compound on hydrolysis followed bypolymerisation gives 'X'. 'X' is used as / in1) Orthopedic devices 2) Making capsules3) Post operative stitches 4) Photo films

87. 3 2 2 3 3 2 2 3CH CH OH CH CH CH andCH CH CHOH CH CH

can be distinguished by

1) 2HCl / ZnCl 2) 2 4Br / CCl 3) 4KMnO / H 4) 2I / NaOH

88.

23

3

i O /AlCl2 2 3 ii H O

Cl CH CH CH P Q Phenol

The major product P and Q are

1) and CH3-CH2-CHO 2) and CH3-CH2-CHO

3) and CH3COCH34) and CH3-CH2-CHO

89. Which will oxidise glucose to gluconic acid ?1) Br2 water 2) Benedict solution 3) Tollens'reagent 4) All of these

90. In the titration of Oxalic acid solution with KMnO4, the substance working as catalyst is1) KMnO4 2) MnO2 3) Oxalic acid 4) MnSO4

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91. In the five kingdom classification, Chlamydomonas and Chlorella have been included in1) Protista 2) Algae 3) Plantae 4) Monera

92. Maximum nutritional diversity is found in which of the following groups1) Fungi 2) Animalia 3) Monera 4) Plantae

93. The given figures show thalli of a liverwort. Identify the parts labelled as A, B, C, D inthat

a) b)

1) A - gemma cup ; B - rhizoids ; C- Roots ; D - Archegoniophore2) A - sporophyte ; B: rhizoids ; C - archegoniophore ; D - antheridiophore3) A - gemma cup ; B - rhizoids ; C - archegoniophore ; D - antheridiophore4) A - gemma cup ; B - roots ; C - archegoniophore ; D - antheridiophore

94. Consider the following statements regarding gymnosperms and choose the correctoption.A) In gymnosperms, the male and female gametophytes have an independent existence2) The multicellular female gametophyte is called endosperm3) The gymnosperms are heterosporous1) A and B are true but C is false 2) A and C are true but B is false3) B and C are false but A is true 4) B and C are true but A is false

95. How many plants in the list given below have tap root modifications - Banyan, Vanda,Turnip, Sweet potato, Groundnut, Sugarcane, Monstera1) Four 2) Two 3) Three 4) Five

BOTANY

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96. Aerial roots are modified for both absorption and assimilation in this genus1) Vanda 2) Monstera 3) Banyan 4) Taeniophyllum

97. The structure which contains vascular bundle and is the modification of stem is1) Spine 2) Trichome 3) Thorn 4) Prickle

98. Green leaf like modified branches with a single internode are called1) Phyllode 2) Phylloclade 3) Bulbils 4) Cladode

99. Find the correct match:1) Mustard plant : leaves are opposite2) Guava plant : leaves are alternate3) Nerium plant : leaves are whorled4) Calotropis plant : leaves are alternate

100. Which of the following is not a tendril climber1) Smilax 2) Pisum 3) Grape vine 4) Bean

101. Cup shaped structure in the flower of guava is1) Thalamus 2) Peduncle 3) Bracts 4) Ovary

102. A character not applicable to chinarose is1) Alternate phyllotaxy2) Twisted aestivation in the second whorl of flower3) Cohesion in the third whorl of flower 4) Solitary, terminal inflorescence

103. Identify the types of placentations in the diagrams A, B, C, D given below respectively

1) Marginal, axile, parietal, basal 2) Marginal, axile, parietal, parietal3) Marginal, parietal, parietal, axile 4) Parietal, axile, parietal, marginal

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104. Fleshy fruits that develop from inferior ovaries are found in1) Sunflower, apple, cucumber 2) Apple, cucumber, citrus3) Tomato, grapes, guava 4) Guava, apple, cucumber

105. Apomictic embryos in Citrus arise from1) Synergids 2) Maternal sporophytic tissue in ovule3) Antipodal cells 4) Diploid egg

106. Incorrect statement among the following1) In mustard flower stamens have no adhesion or cohesion2) In thorn apple stamens have adhesion, but not cohesion3) In sunhemp stamens have cohesion, but not adhesion4) In lily stamens have both cohesion and adhesion

107. Which of the following is wrongly matched:1) Aloe - medicine 2) Sesbania - green manure3) Thorn apple - fumigatory 4) Asparagus - vegetable

108. Which of the following biomolecules is correctly characterised ?1) Lecithin - a phosphorylated glyceride found in cell membrane2) Palmitic acid - an unsaturated fatty acid with 18 carbon atoms3) Adenylic acid - adenosine with glucose phosphate molecule4) Alanine amino acid - contains an amino group and acidic group anywhere in the molecule.

109. Identify the amino acids n-2, n-1, n, n+1 in the following representation of primarystructure a hypothetical protein

O H

2CH2 2 2CH OH CH CH

HN CH CO NH CH C O NH C H CO NH CH CO

2CHSH

2CH CO OH

n-2 n-1 n n+1

1) Glutamic acid, Tyrosine, Cysteine, Serine 2) Serine, cystine, Tyrosine, Glutamic acid3) Serine, Tyrosine, Glutamic acid, Cystine 4) Serine, Cystein, Tyrosine, Glutamic acid

ROUGH

110. What is true about ribosomes1) The prokaryotic ribosomes are 80 S, where "S" stands for sedimentation co-efficient2) These are composed of ribonucleic acid and protein3) These are found only in eukaryotic cells4) These are self - splicing introns of some ribozymes

111. If mitotic division is restricted in the G1-Phase of a cell cycle then the condition isknown as1) S-Phase 2) G2-Phase 3) M-Phase 4) G0-Phase

112. In the following diagram of phloem identify the parts labelled as A, B, C, D

1) A - Sieve pore, B - Sieve tube element, C-companion cell, D-Phloem parenchyma2) A - Sieve pore, B-sieve tube element, C-Phloem parenchyma, D-Companion cell3) A-perforation plate, B-Sieve element, C-Phloem parenchyma, D-companion cell4) A-Sieve pore, B-companion cell, C-sieve tube element, D- Phloem parenchyma

113. Which of the following statements is correct for secondary succession1) It begins on a bare rock 2) It occurs on a deforested site3) It follows primary succession4) It takes place slowly than that of primary succession

114. A cell is equally permeable to sucrose solution and NaCl solution. First the cell is putin 0.6 M sucrose solution, there is no change in size but when put in 0.6 M NaCl solutionthe size will1) Increase 2) Decrease 3) Remain same 4) Can't be said

115. Stomata open at night in1) hydrophytes 2) Succulents 3) mesophytes 4) halophytes

ROUGH

116. In the illustration of mass flow by Munch, identify A, B, C, D respectively

A BDC

1) A- dilute solution, B- concentrated solution, C-sink, D- source2) A- dilute solution, B- concentrated solution, C-source, D-sink3) A-concentrated solution, B-dilute solution, C- sink, D-pure water4) A- dilute solution, B-concentrated solution, C- sink, D-purewater

117. Which inhibitors are often used in the control of bacterial pathogens1) Feed back inhibitors 2) Non competitive inhibitors3) Competitive inhibitors 4) Allosteric inhibitors

118. Photosynthesis in C4 plants is relatively less effected by atmospheric CO2 levels because1) Effective pumping of CO2 into bundle sheath cells2) Rubisco in C4

plants has higher affinity for CO2

3) Four carbon acids are primary initial CO2 fixation products

4) The primary fixation of CO2 is mediated via PEP carboxylase

119. During the operation of non-cyclic photophosphorylation, the immediate source ofelectrons to P700 is1) Cyt f 2) PC 3) PQ 4) Fd

ROUGH

120. The following diagram represents ATP synthesis through chemiosmosis. Identify A, B,C, D parts labelled in it

Thylakoidmembrane

Stroma

ADP ATP

NADPH

NADP+

H+

Lumen

H2O

H+

H+

H+

H+

A CB

D

A B C D1) Photosystem –I Cytochrome b and f Photosystem –II ATP synthase2) Photosystem–II cytochrome b and f Photosystem –I CF0

3) Photosystem –II Cytochrome b and f Photosystem –I ATP synthase4) Photosystem –II ATP synthase Photosystem–I CFI

121. Assimilatory power used in bundlesheath cells of maize for the net production of oneglucose molecule is1) 30ATP, 12NADPH+H+ 2) 12ATP, 6NADPH+H+

3) 18ATP, 12NADPH+H+ 4) 30ATP, 18NADPH+H+

122. ATP produced in the mitochondria per one glucose molecule is (both substratephosphorylation and oxidation of all reduced coenzymes produced in cytoplasm andmatrix)1) 34 2) 32 3) 30 4) 24

ROUGH

123.

C

A

D

B

NADH+H +

NAD+

NA D +

NADH +

NADH+H+

NA D +

Glucose

CO 2+H 2OPyruvic acid

3 PGA

+CO 2

A, B, C, D in the above representation of respiration areA B C D

1) PGAL Lactic acid Ethanol Aerobic respiration2) 1,3 bis PGA Ethanol Lactic acid Krebs cycle3) G-3-P Ethanol Lactic acid Aerobic respiration4) F, 1,6 bis P Ethanol Lactic acid Aerobic respiration124. Bacteria with a tuft of flagella at one pole is known as

1) Lophotrichous 2) Monotrichous 3) Amphitrichous 4) Peritrichous125. Mendel found that the reciprocal crosses yielded identical results, from this he

concluded that1) These is no independent assortment of traits2) These is no dominance of any trait3) Gametes are always pure for a particular trait4) Sex has no influence on the dominance of traits

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126. Mendel's principle of seggregation means germ cells always receive1) One pair of alleles 2) One quarter of the genes3) One of the paired alleles 4) Any pair of alleles

127. Select the correct statement from the ones given below with respect to dihybrid cross1) Tightly linked genes on the same chromosomes show higher recombinations2) Genes far apart on the same chromosome show very few recombinations3) Genes loosely linked on the same chromosome show similar recombinations4) Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome show very few recombinations

128. In the history of biology human genome project led to the development of1) Biotechnology 2) Biomonitoring 3) Bioinformatics 4) Biosystematics

129. The purpose of polymerase chain reaction is1) DNA modification 2) DNA amplification3) DNA replication 4) DNA visualisation

130. Match the codons with their respective aminoacids and choose correct answerColum –I Colum –IIA. UUU 1. SerineB. GGG 2. MethionineC. UCU 3. PhenylalanineD. CCC 4. GlycineE. AUG 5. Proline1) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-5, E-2 2) A-3, B-1, D-4, D-5, E-23) A-3, B-4, C-5, D-1, E-2 4) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-5, E-3

131. Mutations which alter nucleotide sequence with in a gene are1) Frame shift mutation 2) Base pair substitution3) Both a and b 4) None of these

132. Restriction endonucleases are enzymes which1) Make cut at specific positions within the DNA molecule2) Recognise a specific nucleotide sequence for binding of DNA ligase3) Restrict the action of the enzyme DNA polymerase4) Remove nucleotides from the ends of the DNA molecule

ROUGH

133. Which of the following is a wrong match for a microbe and its industrial product1) Yeast - statins 2) Acetobacter aceti - acetic acid3) Clostridium butylicum - lactic acid 4) Aspergillus niger - citric acid

134. Bacillus thuringiensis forms protein crystals which contain insecticidal protein. Thisprotein1) Is coded by several genes including the gene cry2) Does not kill the carrier bacterium which is itself resistant to the toxin3) Is activated by acidic pH in the foregut of insect pest4) Binds with epithelial cells of midgut in the insect pest ultimately killing it

135. Which of the following is a eukaryotic biofertilizer1) Nostoc 2) NPV 3) Rhizobium 4) Glomus

ROUGH

136. In the case of suspected filarial patients, blood samples are collected during nighttime because the1) patients do not feel much pain2) filarial worms enter into blood from lymph during night time3) microfilariae exhibit nocturnal periodicity4) adult worms are active in blood circulation during night time

137. The drug cocaine produces a sense of euphoria and increased energy levels as it1)acts as amphetamine 2)stimulates adrenal glands to produce steroids3)causes the inhibition of cholinergic nerves 4)interferes with the transport of dopamine

138. Which of the following is not a symptom of chronic malaria?1)Splenomegaly 2)Hypertrophy of RBC3)Cirrhosis of liver 4)Anaemia

139. In cockroach, the structures that help in locomotion on smooth surface are1)claws and arolium 2)pulvillus and bristles of podomeres3)plantulae on tarsus 4)plantulae, claws

140. Incorrect statement about the mushroom shaped gland of Periplaneta americana fromthe following1)Helps in storage and excretion of uric acid2)Secretes the innermost layer of spermatophore3)Stores the sperms in the form of spermatophores4)Nourishes the sperms

141. In a biological community Gauses principle explains1)competition among different species under unlimited resources2)competitive exclusion of an inferior species due to the limited natural resources3)coexistence of closely related species due to resource partitioning4)intra specific competition due to limited natural resources

142. In India, grassland ecosystems are found mainly in1)Ladakh region 2)Himalayan region3)Deccan plateau 4)Western ghats

ZOOLOGY

ROUGH

143. The influence of light on non-directional movement of animals is known as1)phototaxis 2)photoperiodism 3)photokinesis 4)phototropism

144. According to the study of molecular systematics, the kingdom replaced by the twokingdoms bacteria and archebacteria is1)Fungi 2)Protista 3)Monera 4)Metaphyta

145. Identify the correct match from the following1)Earth summit-Johannesburg, South Africa2)Biosphere reserves-Norman Myers3)Jim Corbett National park-first Indian national park in Gujarat4)Cryopreservation-ex-situ conservation

146. In humans mucous connective tissue is present mainly in the1)mucosa lining of gut 2)lining of alveoli of lungs3)umbilical chord of newly born infants4)walls of trachea, bronchi and bronchioles

147. Cardiac muscles are highly resistant to fatigue mainly due to the presence of1)intercalated discs 2)branched muscle fibres and communication junctions3)specialised autorhythmic muscle fibres4)numerous sarcosomes and myoglobin molecules

148. Identify the correct combination from the followingScientific name Respiratory organs Excretory organs1)Astacus Dermal branchiae Green glands2)Aplysia Ctenidia Meta nephridia3)Aphrodite Parapodia Protonephridia4)Ascidian Pharyngeal gill slits Proboscis gland

149. Echinoderm with elongated body and without arms,spines is1)Gorgonocephalus 2)Thyone 3)Clypeaster 4)Antedon

150. Incorrect statement about "great white shark" from the following1)Sharks exhibit physiological uraemia2)They have placoid scales and heteroceracal caudal fin3)Fertilization internal and viviparous in nature4)Lobe finned fishes with air bladder acting as hydrostatic organ

ROUGH

151. Identify the correct match from the following1)Gavialis-Vascular cloacal wall 2)Corvus-Urinary bladder present3)Cervus-Intra abdominal testes 4)Trichechus-Six cervical vertebrae

152. Identify the uricotelic animal from the following1)Land leech 2)Land snail 3)Desert fox 4)Camel

153. Incorrect match from the following1)Paneth cells-lysozyme 2)Schawnn cells-myelin sheath3)Dendritic cells-afferent neurons 4)Mast cells-inflammation

154. Which of the following is an exotic carp?1)Tunas 2)Common carp 3)Cat fish 4)Oil sardine

155. Follicular hyperkeratosis is a/an1)sex influenced trait 2)holandric character3)sexlinked dominant trait 4)autosomal recessive character

156. Amniocentesis test is developed mainly to1)confirm the pregnancy 2)determin the sex of the foetus3)detect the chromosomal abnormalities 4)findout the correct position of foetus

157. Which of the following disorder is not caused by trisomy(2n+1) in human beings?1)Down syndrome 2)Turner's syndrome3)Kline felter syndrome 4)Patau syndrome

158. In a family, blood groups of children are entirely different from that of parents only ifthe blood groups of the parents are1)A and B 2)AB and AB 3)AB and O 4)O and A or B

159. Correct match from the following1)Mutation theory-Bateson 2)Survival of the fittest-Herbert Spencer3)Principles of geology-Alfred Wallace 4)Biochemical recapitulation -Ernst Haeckel

160. The first human like being frugivorous in habit and hunted with sharp stony objectswas named1)Australopithecus 2)Homo neanderthalensis3)Homo habilis 4)Homo erectus

ROUGH

161. Incorrect match from the following1)MRI-aneurysm 2)EEG-epilepsy3)PSA test-cervical cancer 4)PCR-HIV detection

162. The technique of attenuating or weakening of a microbe was developed by1)Edward Jenner 2)Alexander Fleming 3)Louis Pasteur 4)Jonas Salk

163. Ampulla of vater is formed by the union of1)common hepatic duct and pancreatic duct 2)common bile duct and pancreatic duct3)cystic duct and common hepatic duct 4)infundibulum and isthmus of fallopian tube

164. Adenoids are present in1)nasopharynx 2)oropharynx3)below the tongue 4)laryngophrynx

165. In human development, most of the organ systems are developed by the end of1)first month 2)24 weeks 3)first trimester 4)8 weeks

166. The cells that provide nutrition to developing spermatozoa in testes are called1)Kupffer cells 2)Leydig cells 3)Sertoli cells 4)Oxyntic cells

167. Rima glottidis is the narrow space between the1)true vocal folds and false vocal cords 2)true vocal cords and arytenoids3)corniculate cartilages and cuneiform cartilages 4)arytenoids and thyroid cartilages

168. Pneumoconiosis is caused by the1)bacterium Streptococcus pneumoniae2)inhalation of coal dust and sulphur particles3)release of vasodilator substances due to allergens4)deposition of iron particles in alveoli of lungs

169. The specialised myocytes present in inner ventricular walls of heart beneathendocardium are called1)Chorde tendinae 2)Papillary muscles 3)Purkinje fibres 4)Columnae carneae

170. In human heart, the non functional valve in the right atrium is present at the openingof1)coronary sinus 2)superior venacava3)inferior venacava 4)right atrioventricular aperture

ROUGH

171. Which of the following hormones are not antagonistic to each other in their actions?1)Parathormone and calcitonin 2)Somatocrinin and somatostatin3)Cortisol and Catecholamines 4)Aldosterone and atrial natriuretic peptide

172. Prostaglandins are derivatives of1)tryptophan 2)tyrosine 3)glycoproteins 4)eicosanoids

173. The vestibular apparatus concerned with body equilibrium is constituted by1)saccule and utricle 2)ampullae and cristae3)maculae and vestibule 4)semicircular canals and otolith organ

174. Inter ventricular foramina are connecting the1)atria and ventricles in heart 2)paracoels and diocoel in brain3)3rd and 4th ventricles of brain 4)right and left ventricles of heart

175. Joint between two adjacent vertebrae of mammals is an example of1)symphysis and synarthrosis 2)synchondrosis and syndesmosis3)diarthrose and syndesmosis 4)symphysis and amphiarthrosis

176. Hensen's disc is1)part of primitive streak 2)part of sarcomere made of only myosin3)primitive knot through which chordamesodermal cells involute to form notochord4)bilaminar embryonic disc with epiblast and hypoblast

177. Autoimmune disease from the following1)Glomerulo nephritis 2)Osteo arthritis3)Rheumatoid arthritis 4)Meningitis

178. In the conduction of nerve impulse, relative refractory period coincides with the phaseof1)depolarisation 2)repolarisation 3)hyperpolarisation 4)polarisation

179. In kidneys, renal columns are made of1)renal calyces 2)medullary pyramids3)renal cortex 4)renal papillae

180. In the process of urine formation, selective reabsorption is minimum in this part ofnephron1)Proximal convoluted tubule 2)Distal convoluted tubule3)Henle's loop 4)Collecting duct

NEET PAPER – 2 KEY SHEET

PHYSICS

1) 2 2) 1 3) 2 4) 2 5) 3 6) 2 7) 4 8) 1 9) 1 10) 1

11) 1 12) 2 13) 1 14) 3 15) 1 16) 2 17) 1 18) 2 19) 2 20) 2

21) 1 22) 4 23) 3 24) 3 25) 2 26) 2 27) 2 28) 4 29) 1 30) 4

31) 1 32) 3 33) 3 34) 4 35) 2 36) 4 37) 3 38) 2 39) 1 40) 3

41) 4 42) 4 43) 3 44) 1 45) 2

CHEMISTRY

46) 1 47) 3 48) 4 49) 2 50) 3 51) 2 52) 4 53) 2 54) 4 55) 2

56) 3 57) 2 58) 4 59) 3 60) 2 61) 4 62) 2 63) 3 64) 3 65) 3

66) 2 67) 1 68) 1 69) 4 70) 4 71) 2 72) 3 73) 4 74) 3 75) 3

76) 1 77) 1 78) 1 79) 3 80) 3 81) 1 82) 1 83) 4 84) 2 85) 1

86) 3 87) 4 88) 3 89) 4 90) 4

BOTANY

91) 1 92) 3 93) 3 94) 4 95) 2 96) 4 97) 3 98) 4 99) 3 100) 4

101) 1 102) 4 103) 2 104) 4 105) 2 106) 4 107) 3 108) 1 109) 4 110) 2

111) 4 112) 2 113) 2 114) 2 115) 2 116) 1 117) 3 118) 4 119) 2 120) 3

121) 3 122) 1 123) 3 124) 1 125) 4 126) 3 127) 4 128) 3 129) 2 130) 1

131) 3 132) 1 133) 3 134) 4 135) 4

ZOOLOGY 136)

3 137) 4 138) 3 139) 3 140) 3 141) 2 142) 2 143) 3 144) 3 145) 4

146) 3 147) 4 148) 2 149) 2 150) 4 151) 4 152) 2 153) 3 154) 2 155) 3

156) 3 157) 2 158) 3 159) 2 160) 3 161) 3 162) 3 163) 2 164) 1 165) 3

166) 3 167) 2 168) 4 169) 3 170) 3 171) 3 172) 4 173) 4 174) 2 175) 4

176) 2 177) 3 178) 3 179) 3 180) 3