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Model Questions for AGET 2018

Q.1 “The driver applied the _______ as soon as she approached the hotel where she wanted

to take a ________.”

The words that best fill the blanks in the above sentence are

(A) brake, break (B) break, break (C) brake, brake (D) break, brake

Q.2 “It is no surprise that every society has had codes of behaviour; however, the nature of

these codes is often _________.”

The word that best fills the blank in the above sentence is

(A) unpredictable (B) simple (C) expected (D) strict

Q.3 Hema’s age is 5 years more than twice Hari’s age. Suresh’s age is 13 years less than 10

times Hari’s age. If Suresh is 3 times as old as Hema, how old is Hema?

(A)14 (B) 17 (C) 18 (D) 19

Q.4 Tower A is 90 m tall and tower B is 140 m tall. They are 100 m apart. A horizontal

skywalk connects the floors at 70 m in both the towers. If a taut rope connects the top of

tower A to the bottom of tower B, at what distance (in meters) from tower A will the rope

intersect the skywalk?

(A) 22.22 (B) 50 (C) 57.87 (D) 77.78

Q.5 A fruit seller sold a basket of fruits at 12.5% loss. Had he sold it for Rs. 108 more, he

would have made a 10% gain. What is the loss in Rupees incurred by the fruit seller?

(A) 48 (B) 52 (C) 60 (D) 108

Q.6 A t the point 𝑥 = 0, the function (𝑥) = 𝑥3 has

(A) local maximum

(B) local minimum

(C) both local maximum and minimum

(D) neither local maximum nor local minimum

Q.7 A column of height h with a rectangular cross-section of size a×2a has a buckling load of

P. If the cross-section is changed to 0.5a × 3a and its height changed to 1.5h, the

buckling load of the redesigned column will be

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(A) P/12 (B) P/4 (C) P/2 (D) 3P/4

Q.8 A steel column of ISHB 350 @72.4 kg/m is subjected to a factored axial compressive

load of 2000 kN. The load is transferred to a concrete pedestal of grade M20 through a

square base plate. Consider bearing strength of concrete as 0.45fck, where fck is the

characteristic strength of concrete. Using limit state method and neglecting the self

weight of base plate and steel column, the length of a side of the base plate to be provided

is

(A) 39 cm (B) 42 cm (C) 45 cm (D) 48 cm

Q. 9 The deformation in concrete due to sustained loading is

(A) creep (B) hydration (C) segregation (D) shrinkage

Q. 10 A square area (on the surface of the earth) with side 100 m and uniform height, appears

as 1 cm2 on a vertical aerial photograph. The topographic map shows that a contour of

650 m passes through the area. If focal length of the camera lens is 150 mm, the height

from which the aerial photograph was taken , is

(A) 800 m (B) 1500 m (C) 2150 m (D) 3150 m

Q. 11 The setting time of cement is determined using

(A) Le Chatelier apparatus (B) Briquette testing apparatus (C) Vicat apparatus

(D) Casagrande’s apparatus

Q. 12 A structural member subjected to compression, has both translation and rotation

restrained at one end, while only translation is restrained at the other end. As per IS 456 :

2000, the effective length factor recommended for design is

(A) 0.50 (B) 0.65 (C) 0.70 (D) 0.80

Q. 13 A flownet below a dam consists of 24 equipotential drops and 7 flow channels. The

difference between the upstream and downstream water levels is 6 m. The length of the

flow line adjacent to the toe of the dam at exit is 1 m. The specific gravity and void ratio

of the soil below the dam are 2.70 and 0.70, respectively. The factor of safety against

piping is

(A) 1.67 (B) 2.5 (C) 3.4 (D) 4

(B)

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Q. 14 The clay mineral, whose structural units are held together by potassium bond is

(A) Halloysite (B) Illite (C) Kaolinite (D) Smectite

Q. 15 D upuit’s assumptions are valid for

(A) artesian aquifer

(B) confined aquifer

(C) leaky aquifer

(D) unconfined aquifer

Q. 16 Probability (up to one decimal place) of consecutively picking 3 red balls without

replacement from a box containing 5 red balls and 1 white ball is ______

Q. 17 The intensity of irrigation for the Kharif season is 50% for an irrigation project with

culturable command area of 50,000 hectares. The duty for the Kharif season is 1000

hectare/cumec. Assuming transmission loss of 10%, the required discharge (in cumec, up

to two decimal places) at the head of the canal is ______

Q. 18 “ When she fell down the _______, she received many _______ but little help.”

The words that best fill the blanks in the above sentence are

(A) stairs, stares (B) stairs, stairs (C) stares, stairs (D) stares, stares

Q.19 Arrange the following three-dimensional objects in the descending order of their

volumes:

(i) A cuboid with dimensions 10 cm, 8 cm and 6 cm

(ii) A cube of side 8 cm

(iii) A cylinder with base radius 7 cm and height 7 cm

(iv) A sphere of radius 7 cm

(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

(B) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)

(C) (iii), (ii), (i), (iv)

(D) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)

Q. 20 A watch uses two electronic circuits (ECs). Each EC has a failure probability of 0.1 in

one year of operation. Both ECs are required for functioning of the watch. The

probability of the watch functioning for one year without failure is

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A) 0.99 (B) 0.90 (C) 0.81 (D) 0.80

Q. 21 The terminal velocity of a spherical particle in gravitational settling under Stokes’ regime

varies

(A) linearly with the particle diameter

(B) linearly with the viscosity of the liquid

(C) directly with the square of particle diameter

(D) inversely with the density of particle

Q. 22 Critical speed of a ball mill depends on

(A) the radius of the mill (shell) and the radius of the particles

(B) the radius of the mill (shell) and the density of the particles

(C) the radius of the balls and the radius of the particles

(D) the radius of the balls and the radius of the mill (shell)

Q. 23 Economy of evaporators used for concentrating sugarcane juice is

(A) kg of concentrated juice produced

kg of steam supplied

(B) kg of steam supplied

kg of sugarcane juice fed

(C) kg of water vaporized

kg of steam supplied

(D) kg of sugarcane juice fed

kg of water vaporized

Q. 24 Polyvinyl chloride is produced by

(A) co-polymerization

(B) addition-type kinetics

(C) reacting chlorine with polyethylene

(D) reacting hydrochloric acid with polyethylene

Q. 25 Consider the following properties:

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(P) temperature (Q) specific gravity

(R) chemical potential (S) volume

The option which lists ALL the intensive properties is

(A) P (B) P and Q (C) P, Q and R (D) P, Q, R and S

Q. 26 In the year 2005, the cost of a shell and tube heat exchanger with 68 m2 heat transfer area

was Rs. 12.6 Lakh. Chemical Engineering Index for cost in 2005 was 509.4 and now the

index is 575.4. Based on index of 0.6 for capacity scaling, the present cost (in Lakhs of

rupees) of a similar heat exchanger having 100 m2 heat transfer area is estimated to be

(A) 17.94 (B) 19.94 (C) 20.94 (D) 22.94

Q. 27 A furnace installed at a cost of Rs. 24 Lakh is expected to serve its useful life of 5 years.

Salvage value of the furnace is Rs. 8 Lakh. The interest rate compounded annually is 8%.

The estimated capitalized cost (in Lakhs of rupees) is

(A) 30 (B) 34.09 (C) 34.9 (D) 58.09

Q. 28 The wall of a pipe of radius 1 m is at a uniform temperature of 200 oC, and is covered by

insulation of thickness 0.1 m. The ambient air outside the insulated pipe is at 20 oC and

has heat transfer coefficient of 10 W m-2 K-1. The thermal conductivity of the insulation

material is 0.05 W m-1 K-1. If the heat transfer occurs at steady state, the temperature (in

oC) of the outer surface of insulation is __________ (rounded off to second decimal

place).

Q. 29 A hot liquid is to be cooled in a 1-1 shell and tube heat exchanger from 80 oC to 50 oC.

Cooling water enters the tube side at 30 oC, and exits at 45 oC. The properties of the

liquids are constant. Also, the overall heat transfer coefficient is same for counter-current

and concurrent modes. The percentage saving in heat transfer area for counter-current

option with respect to the area of co-current option is __________ (rounded off to third

decimal place).

Q. 30 Consider the following C program.

#include<stdio.h>

struct Ournode{

char x,y,z;

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};

int main() {

struct Ournode p = {'1', '0', 'a'+2}; struct Ournode *q = &p; printf ("%c, %c", *((char*)q+1), *((char*)q+2)); return 0;

}

The output of this program is:

(A) 0, c (B) 0, a+2 (C) '0', 'a+2' (D) '0', 'c'

Q. 31 Consider the following processor design characteristics.

I. Register-to-register arithmetic operations only

II. Fixed-length instruction format

III. Hardwired control unit

Which of the characteristics above are used in the design of a RISC processor?

(A) I and II only (B) II and III only (C) I and III only (D) I, II and III

Q. 32 In an Entity-Relationship (ER) model, suppose 𝑅 is a many-to-one relationship from

entity set E1 to entity set E2. Assume that E1 and E2 participate totally in 𝑅 and that the

cardinality of E1 is greater than the cardinality of E2.

Which one of the following is true about 𝑅?

(A) Every entity in E1 is associated with exactly one entity in E2.

(B) Some entity in E1 is associated with more than one entity in E2.

(C) Every entity in E2 is associated with exactly one entity in E1.

(D) Every entity in E2 is associated with at most one entity in E1.

Q. 33 Consider the following two tables and four queries in SQL.

Book (isbn, bname), Stock (isbn, copies)

Query 1: SELECT B.isbn, S.copies

FROM Book B INNER JOIN Stock S

ON B.isbn = S.isbn;

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Query 2: SELECT B.isbn, S.copies

FROM Book B LEFT OUTER JOIN Stock S

ON B.isbn = S.isbn;

Query 3: SELECT B.isbn, S.copies

FROM Book B RIGHT OUTER JOIN Stock S

ON B.isbn = S.isbn;

Query 4: SELECT B.isbn, S.copies

FROM Book B FULL OUTER JOIN Stock S

ON B.isbn = S.isbn;

Which one of the queries above is certain to have an output that is a superset of the

outputs of the other three queries?

(A) Query 1 (B) Query 2 (C) Query 3 (D) Query 4

Q. 34 L et G be a finite group on 84 elements. The size of a largest possible proper subgroup of

G is ________.

Q. 35 Let N be the set of natural numbers. Consider the following sets.

P: Set of Rational numbers (positive and negative)

Q: Set of functions from {0, 1} to N

R: Set of functions from N to {0, 1}

S: Set of finite subsets of N.

Which of the sets above are countable?

(A) Q and S only (B) P and S only (C) P and R only (D) P, Q and S only

Q. 36 The instruction pipeline of a RISC processor has the following stages: Instruction Fetch

(IF), Instruction Decode (ID), Operand Fetch (OF), Perform Operation (PO) and

Writeback (WB). The IF, ID, OF and WB stages take 1 clock cycle each for every

instruction. Consider a sequence of 100 instructions. In the PO stage, 40 instructions take

3 clock cycles each, 35 instructions take 2 clock cycles each, and the remaining 25

instructions take 1 clock cycle each. Assume that there are no data hazards and no control

hazards. The number of clock cycles required for completion of execution of the

sequence of instructions is ______.

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Q. 37 Consider an IP packet with a length of 4,500 bytes that includes a 20-byte IPv4 header

and a 40-byte TCP header. The packet is forwarded to an IPv4 router that supports a

Maximum Transmission Unit (MTU) of 600 bytes. Assume that the length of the IP

header in all the outgoing fragments of this packet is 20 bytes. Assume that the

fragmentation offset value stored in the first fragment is 0.

The fragmentation offset value stored in the third fragment is _______.

Q. 38 A good transimpedance amplifier has

(A) low input impedance and high output impedance.

(B) high input impedance and high output impedance.

(C) high input impedance and low output impedance.

(D) low input impedance and low output impedance.

Q. 39 The Nyquist stability criterion and the Routh criterion both are powerful analysis tools

for determining the stability of feedback controllers. Identify which of the following

statements is FALSE:

(A) Both the criteria provide information relative to the stable gain range of the system.

(B) The general shape of the Nyquist plot is readily obtained from the Bode magnitude

plot for all minimum-phase systems.

(C) The Routh criterion is not applicable in the condition of transport lag, which can be

readily handled by the Nyquist criterion.

(D) The closed-loop frequency response for a unity feedback system cannot be obtained

from the Nyquist plot.

Q. 40 Consider (𝑠) = 𝑠3 + 𝑎2𝑠2 + 𝑎1𝑠 + 𝑎0 with all real coefficients. It is known that its

derivative 𝑝′(𝑠) has no real roots. The number of real roots of (𝑠) is

(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3

Q. 41 In a p-n junction diode at equilibrium, which one of the following statements is

NOT TRUE?

(A) The hole and electron diffusion current components are in the same direction.

(B) The hole and electron drift current components are in the same direction.

(C) On an average, holes and electrons drift in opposite direction.

(D) On an average, electrons drift and diffuse in the same direction.

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Q. 42 Let M be a real 44 matrix. Consider the following statements:

S1: M has 4 linearly independent eigenvectors.

S2: M has 4 distinct eigenvalues.

S3: M is non-singular (invertible).

Which one among the following is TRUE?

(A) S1 implies S2 (B) S1 implies S3 (C) S2 implies S1 (D) S3 implies S2

Q. 43 Consider a binary channel code in which each codeword has a fixed length of 5 bits. The

Hamming distance between any pair of distinct codewords in this code is at least 2. The

maximum number of codewords such a code can contain is _________.

Q. 44 A traffic signal cycles from GREEN to YELLOW, YELLOW to RED and RED to

GREEN. In each cycle, GREEN is turned on for 70 seconds, YELLOW is turned on for

5 seconds and the RED is turned on for 75 seconds. This traffic light has to be

implemented using a finite state machine (FSM). The only input to this FSM is a clock of

5 second period. The minimum number of flip-flops required to implement this FSM is

_______.

Q. 45 L et 1 X , 2 X , 3 X and 4 X be independent normal random variables with zero mean and

unit variance. The probability that 4 X is the smallest among the four is _______.

Q. 46 Red (R), Green (G) and Blue (B) Light Emitting Diodes (LEDs) were fabricated using

p-n junctions of three different inorganic semiconductors having different band-gaps. The

built-in voltages of red, green and blue diodes are VR, VG and VB, respectively. Assume

donor and acceptor doping to be the same (NA and ND, respectively) in the p and n sides

of all the three diodes.

Which one of the following relationships about the built-in voltages is TRUE?

(A) VR > VG > VB

(B) VR < VG < VB

(C) VR = VG = VB

(D) VR > VG < VB

Q. 47 The distance (in meters) a wave has to propagate in a medium having a skin depth of 0.1

m so that the amplitude of the wave attenuates by 20 dB, is

(A) 0.12 (B) 0.23 (C) 0.46 (D) 2.3

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Q. 48 Let 𝑟 = 𝑥2 + 𝑦 − 𝑧 and 𝑧3 − 𝑥𝑦 + 𝑦𝑧 + 𝑦3 = 1. Assume that 𝑥 and 𝑦 are

independent variables. At (𝑥, 𝑦, 𝑧) = (2, −1,1), the value (correct to two decimal

places) of 𝜕𝑟 is _____________. 𝜕𝑥

Q. 49 A single-phase 100 kVA, 1000 V / 100 V, 50 Hz transformer has a voltage drop of 5%

across its series impedance at full load. Of this, 3% is due to resistance. The percentage

regulation of the transformer at full load with 0.8 lagging power factor is

(A) 4.8 (B) 6.8 (C) 8.8 (D) 10.8

Q. 50 I n a salient pole synchronous motor, the developed reluctance torque attains the

maximum value when the load angle in electrical degrees is

(A) 0 (B) 45 (C) 60 (D) 90

Q.51 Two wattmeter method is used for measurement of power in a balanced three-phase load

supplied from a balanced three-phase system. If one of the wattmeters reads half of the

other (both positive), then the power factor of the load is

(A) 0.532 (B) 0.632 (C) 0.707 (D) 0.866

Q. 52 The graph of a network has 8 nodes and 5 independent loops. The number of branches of

the graph is

(A) 11 (B) 12 (C) 13 (D) 14

Q.53 The positive, negative and zero sequence impedances of a 125 MVA, three-phase, 15.5

kV, star-grounded, 50 Hz generator are 𝑗0.1 pu,𝑗0.05 pu and 𝑗0.01 pu respectively

on the machine rating base. The machine is unloaded and working at the rated terminal

voltage. If the grounding impedance of the generator is 𝑗0.01 pu, then the magnitude of

fault current for a b-phase to ground fault (in kA) is __________ (up to 2 decimal

places).

Q. 54 A 1000 × 1000 bus admittance matrix for an electric power system has 8000 non-zero

elements. The minimum number of branches (transmission lines and transformers) in this

system are _____ (up to 2 decimal places).

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Q.55 A 0-1 Ampere moving iron ammeter has an internal resistance of 50 mΩ and inductance

of 0.1 mH. A shunt coil is connected to extend its range to 0-10 Ampere for all operating

frequencies. The time constant in milliseconds and resistance in mΩ of the shunt coil

respectively are

(A) 2, 5.55 (B) 2, 1 (C) 2.18, 0.55 (D) 11.1, 2

Q. 56 A 200 V DC series motor, when operating from rated voltage while driving a certain

load, draws 10 A current and runs at 1000 r.p.m. The total series resistance is 1 Ω. The

magnetic circuit is assumed to be linear. At the same supply voltage, the load torque is

increased by 44%. The speed of the motor in r.p.m. (rounded to the nearest integer) is

________ .

Q. 57 Four red balls, four green balls and four blue balls are put in a box. Three balls are pulled

out of the box at random one after another without replacement. The probability that all

the three balls are red is

(A) 1/72 (B) 1/55 (C) 1/36 (D) 1/27

Q. 58 F or an Oldham coupling used between two shafts, which among the following

statements are correct?

I. Torsional load is transferred along shaft axis.

II. A velocity ratio of 1:2 between shafts is obtained without using gears.

III. Bending load is transferred transverse to shaft axis.

IV. Rotation is transferred along shaft axis.

(A) I and III (B) I and IV (C) II and III (D) II and IV

Q. 59 Which one of the following statements is correct for a superheated vapour?

(A) Its pressure is less than the saturation pressure at a given temperature.

(B) Its temperature is less than the saturation temperature at a given pressure.

(C) Its volume is less than the volume of the saturated vapour at a given temperature.

(D) Its enthalpy is less than the enthalpy of the saturated vapour at a given pressure.

Q. 60 In a linearly hardening plastic material, the true stress beyond initial yielding

(A) increases linearly with the true strain

(B) decreases linearly with the true strain

(C) first increases linearly and then decreases linearly with the true strain

(D) remains constant

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Q. 61 Interpolator in a CNC machine

(A) controls spindle speed

(B) coordinates axes movements

(C) operates tool changer

(D) commands canned cycle

Q. 62 The time series forecasting method that gives equal weightage to each of the m most

recent observations is

(A) Moving average method (B) Exponential smoothing with linear trend

(C) Triple Exponential smoothing (D) Kalman Filter

Q. 63 The number of atoms per unit cell and the number of slip systems, respectively, for a

facecentered cubic (FCC) crystal are

(A) 3, 3 (B) 3, 12 (C) 4, 12 (D) 4, 48

Q. 64 A steel column of rectangular section (15 mm × 10 mm) and length 1.5 m is simply

supported at both ends. Assuming modulus of elasticity, E = 200 GPa for steel, the

critical axial load (in kN) is ____ (correct to two decimal places).

Q. 65 A four bar mechanism is made up of links of length 100, 200, 300 and 350 mm. If the

350 mm link is fixed, the number of links that can rotate fully is __________.

Q. 66 I f the wire diameter of a compressive helical spring is increased by 2%, the change in

spring stiffness (in %) is _____ (correct to two decimal places).

Q. 67 For a Pelton wheel with a given water jet velocity, the maximum output power from the

Pelton wheel is obtained when the ratio of the bucket speed to the water jet speed

is _______ (correct to two decimal places).

Q. 68 An orthogonal cutting operation is being carried out in which uncut thickness is 0.010

mm, cutting speed is 130 m/min, rake angle is 15 and width of cut is 6 mm. It is

observed that the chip thickness is 0.015 mm, the cutting force is 60 N and the thrust

force is 25 N. The ratio of friction energy to total energy is __________ (correct to two

decimal places).

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Q. 69 A bar is compressed to half of its original length. The magnitude of true strain produced

in the deformed bar is _________________ (correct to two decimal places).

Q. 70 Pre-tensioning of a bolted joint is used to

(A) strain harden the bolt head (B) decrease stiffness of the bolted joint

(C) increase stiffness of the bolted joint (D) prevent yielding of the thread root

Q. 71 Feed rate in slab milling operation is equal to

(A) rotation per minute (rpm)

(B) product of rpm and number of teeth in the cutter

(C) product of rpm, feed per tooth and number of teeth in the cutter

(D) product of rpm, feed per tooth and number of teeth in contact

Q. 72 Metal removal in electric discharge machining takes place through

(A) ion displacement

(B) melting and vaporization

(C) corrosive reaction

(D) plastic shear

Q. 73 The preferred option for holding an odd-shaped workpiece in a centre lathe is

(A) live and dead centres (B) three jaw chuck

(C) lathe dog (D) four jaw chuck

Q. 74

Q. 75

The stress ratio for a completely reversed cyclic loading during a fatigue test

is

(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) -1 (D) -1/2

If a material is repelled in an external magnetic field then it

is

(A) Ferromagnetic (B) Diamagnetic

(C) Paramagnetic (D) Antiferromagnetic

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Q. 76

Q. 77

Q. 78

The eigenvalues of a Hermitian matrix are all

(A) real

(B) imaginary

(C) of modulus one

(D) real and positive

Q. 79 The number of independent components of a general electromagnetic field tensor is

________.

Q. 80

Q. 81 Two solid spheres A and B have same emissivity. The radius of A is four times the radius

of B, and temperature of A is twice the temperature of B. The ratio of the rate of heat

radiated from A to that from B is ________.

Q. 82

Q. 83 Given the following table,

Group I Group II

P: Stern-Gerlach experiment 1: Wave nature of particles

Q: Zeeman effect 2: Quantization of energy of electrons in the atoms

R: Frank-Hertz experiment 3: Existence of electron spin

S: Davisson-Germer experiment 4: Space quantization of angular momentum

An electron makes a transition from the valence band to the conduction band in an

indirect band gap semiconductor. Which one of the following is true?

(A) Energy of the electron decreases.

(B) A photon is emitted in the process.

(C) A phonon is annihilated in the process.

(D) A photon is created in the process.

The number of vibrational degrees of freedom for a non-linear triatomic molecule

are

(A) 9 (B) 6 (C) 4 (D) 3

Three particles are to be distributed in four non-degenerate energy levels. The possible

number of ways of distribution: (i) for distinguishable particles, and (ii) for identical

Bosons, respectively, is

(A) (i) 24, (ii) 4 (B) (i) 24, (ii) 20 (C) (i) 64, (ii) 20 (D) (i) 64, (ii) 16

The area of an equilateral triangle is √3. What is the perimeter of the

triangle?

(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8

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Q. 84

Q. 85

Amongst electrical resistivity (𝜌), thermal conductivity (𝜅), specific heat (𝐶), Young’s

modulus (Y), and magnetic susceptibility (𝜒), which quantities show a sharp change at

the superconducting transition temperature?

(A) 𝜌,𝜅,𝐶, Y (B) 𝜌,𝐶, 𝜒 (C) 𝜌,𝜅,𝐶, 𝜒 (D) 𝜅, Y, 𝜒

Q. 86 An urn contains four balls, each ball having equal probability of being white or black.

Three black balls are added to the urn. The probability that five balls in the urn are black

is

(A) 2=7 (B) 3=8 (C) 1=2 (D) 5=7

Q. 87 For a linear programming problem, which one of the following statements is FALSE?

(A) If a constraint is an equality, then the corresponding dual variable is unrestricted in

sign

(B) Both primal and its dual can be infeasible

(C) If primal is unbounded, then its dual is infeasible

(D) Even if both primal and dual are feasible, the optimal values of the primal and the

dual can differ

Q. 88 Which one of the following statements is true?

(A) Every group of order 12 has a non-trivial proper normal subgroup

(B) Some group of order 12 does not have a non-trivial proper normal subgroup

(C) Every group of order 12 has a subgroup of order 6

(D) Every group of order 12 has an element of order 12

In the context of small oscillations, which one of the following does NOT apply to the

normal coordinates?

(A) Each normal coordinate has an eigen-frequency associated with it

(B) The normal coordinates are orthogonal to one another

(C) The normal coordinates are all independent

(D) The potential energy of the system is a sum of squares of the normal coordinates

with constant coefficients

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Q. 89 Let X be the number of heads in 4 tosses of a fair coin by Person 1 and let Y be the

number of heads in 4 tosses of a fair coin by Person 2. Assume that all the tosses are

independent. Then the value of P(X = Y ) correct up to three decimal places is ________.

Q. 90

According to Eyring transition state theory for a bimolecular reaction, the activated

complex has

(A) no vibrational degrees of freedom.

(B) vibrational degrees of freedom but they never participate in product formation.

(C) one high frequency vibration that leads to product formation.

(D) one low frequency vibration that leads to product formation.

Q. 91

The coordination geometries around the copper ion of plastocyanin (a blue-copper

protein) in oxidized and reduced form, respectively, are

(A) tetrahedral and square-planar

(B) square-planar and tetrahedral

(C) distorted tetrahedral for both

(D) ideal tetrahedral for both

Q. 92 In the electron ionization (EI) mass spectra, methyl hexanoate, methyl heptanoate and methyl

octanoate give the same base peak. The m/z value of the base peak is ______.

Q. 93

Q. 94 A tetrapeptide, made up of natural amino acids, has alanine as the N-terminal residue

which is coupled to a chiral amino acid. Upon complete hydrolysis, the tetrapeptide gives

glycine, alanine, phenylalanine and leucine. The number of possible sequences of the

tetrapeptide is ____.

The O2 coordinated to metal ion centres in oxy-myoglobin and oxy-hemocyanin

exists, respectively, as

(A) superoxide and peroxide

(B) superoxide and superoxide

(C) peroxide and peroxide

(D) superoxide and oxygen