Mock testpaper

http://www.insightsonindia.com INSIGHTS Page 1

INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK PRELIMINARY EXAM - 2015

INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK TEST - 32 GENERAL STUDIES

PAPER-I Time Allowed: 2 Hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDITELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.

2. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT Write anything else on the Test Booklet.

4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed only in English. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.

5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet.

6. All items carry equal marks.

7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate.

8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.

9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end. 10. Penalty for wrong answers :

THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.

(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.

(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.

(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.

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INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK TEST SERIES FOR CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMINARY EXAM 2015


1. The day of the Civil Services Preliminary Examination, 23rd August, 2015 is the first day of which month as per the Saka calendar system?

a) Shravana b) Bhadra c) Vaishakha d) Asvina

2. The recent lowering of the International Gold prices can be attributed to 1. Rise in interest rates in US 2. Heavy restriction on gold imports in

several nations 3. Highly volatile global exchange rates

Choose the correct answer using the codes below.

a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 3 only

3. Which of these is/are the objectives of the Minimum Retail Price (MRP) Act? 1. Prevent tax evasion 2. Protect revenue of firms from

fluctuating raw material prices 3. Protect consumers from profiteering

by retailers


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) All of the above

4. The Consumer Protection Bill, 2015 recently approved by the Cabinet intends to 1. Establish consume courts at the

Taluk level 2. Resolve all consumer disputes by

arbitration and mediation 3. Ban all tele-marketing and multi-

level marketing in India


a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 only d) None of the above

5. Mercy petition decided by the President Article 72 of the Constitution of India are disposed on the advice of the a) Prime Minister b) Ministry of Home affairs c) Parliamentary Committee on Legal

affairs d) Vice-President

6. A foreign investment in an Indian company qualifies as Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) if


a) the investing institution/investor buys more than 10 per cent stake in the company

b) the investment stays for a period of more than two years with native company irrespective of the level of investment

c) the investing institution/investor seek approval via the government route

d) None of the above is correct.

7. Consider the following with reference to environment based grouping Conference of Parties (COP). 1. The ‘parties’ in COP refers to nations

signatory to UNFCCC. 2. Kyoto Protocol was signed by COP. 3. COP has been successful in

establishing a binding emission target for all nations.


a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) All of the above

8. Which of the following government schemes is/are targeted at Tribals? 1. Development of Particularly

Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) 2. Investment in TRIFED 3. Tribal Protection Scheme 4. Higher Education Revival Scheme


a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 4 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 3 and 4 only

9. Which of the statements regarding cricket governance in India is INCORRECT? a) State Cricket associations in India

allow people without a background in national/international cricket to get membership.

b) Government does not own any State or National cricket association in India.

c) A political (people’s) representative cannot be a member of a Private State Cricket association.

d) None of the above

10. The International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea (ITLOS) can settle disputes relating to 1. Use of resources in International

waters 2. Accident involving two national

vessels in International waters

Which of the above is/are correct?

a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) None


11. Consider the following about the International Astronomical Union (IAU). 1. It is an Intergovernmental

organization. 2. It is an organ of United Nations. 3. It approves all space missions that

extend beyond the orbit of Earth around the Sun.

4. It is the internationally recognized authority for assigning designations to celestial bodies.


a) 1 and 4 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 4 only d) 2, 3 and 4 only

12. World Student Day as declared by United Nations is celebrated on the birthday of a) Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam b) Pandit JN Nehru c) Rabindranath Tagore d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

13. Coronary stents recently in news is related to a) Treatment of a heart related disease b) Harmful strains that can be used to

make biological weapons c) Organ transplant in disabled people d) a mechanism to reverse the flow of

blood in the body causing death

14. Representatives from most of the princely states joined the Constituent assembly (CA) a) immediately after the formation of

the CA b) after Cabinet Mission Plan was

accepted by Indian National Congress

c) after the acceptance of Mountbatten Plan of 1947

d) after the constitution was adopted by the CA

15. The Constitution of India establishes an independent judiciary to serve which of these purposes? 1. To protect the supremacy of the

Constitution 2. To settle any disputes between

Centre and states 3. For the judiciary to be able to

exercise the power of Judicial review



16. In the Table of Precedence 1. Members of Parliament (MPs) are

placed higher than Chief Ministers of States.

2. Governors (inside their respective states) are placed higher than former Presidents.


3. Chief Justice of India is placed higher than Union Cabinet Ministers.



17. The Foreign policy of India advocates a) Stopping the arms race leading to

disarmament in both conventional and nuclear weapons

b) Stopping the arms race in conventional weapons but retaining nuclear weapons

c) No particular stand on disarmament and nuclear weapons stockpile

d) Development of the arms and nuclear weapons industry only to an extent of generating gainful employment

18. Which of the following is/are correct concerning the elections to Rajya Sabha? 1. The nominee must be a domicile of

the state from which he wishes to be elected.

2. Voting is by secret ballot system. 3. The elections are organized by the

Election Commission of India.


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 3 only

19. A political party will be recognized as a ‘National Party’ if a) it is registered with the Election

Commission of India (ECI) b) it is registered with the ECI and is

recognized as a state party in at least four states

c) if it has consecutively won at least 2 seats in the Parliament for at least two general election

d) if the donation collected by the party registered with ECI exceeds a certain amount as decided by ECI

20. Clear constitutional recognition to the existence of political parties in India for the first time was given by a) The establishment of Election

Commission of India b) The Anti-defection provisions in the

Tenth schedule of the Constitution c) The establishment of the Inter-State

Council of India d) The 73rd and 74th amendment to the

Constitution of India

21. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT concerning tribunals in India? a) Only the Central government is

authorized by the Constitution to establish tribunals.


b) Tribunals can be established for settling disputes other than administrative disputes.

c) Appeal from the tribunals lie to both the High Courts and Supreme Court.

d) Central Administrative Tribunal in India exercises original jurisdiction in relation to service matters of Central government employees.

22. What is the objective(s) behind the specification of regional languages in the Eighth schedule? 1. These languages are to be used for

enriching Hindi Language 2. Members of these languages are

represented in the Official Languages Commission.

3. Restricting the choice of state government’s official language



23. The National Human Rights Commission is authorized to 1. Enquire suo moto in cases of human

rights violation 2. Intervene in a proceeding involving

allegation of human rights pending before a court of India

3. Take action against those guilty of human rights violation

4. Tender constitutional interpretations of human rights provisions in the Constitution when requested by President



24. Which of these statements regarding the office of Attorney General of India is INCORRECT? a) He has the right to take part in the

proceedings of both houses of Parliament.

b) Advocate General of India is subordinate to Attorney General of India.

c) Attorney General of India forms part of the Union Executive.

d) His office does not come under the Union Law ministry.

25. The Comptroller General of India is responsible to a) The Parliament b) The Constitution of India c) The President of India d) Public Accounts Committee of Lok

Sabha


26. Consider the following statements.

Assertion (A): The Chief Election Commissioner and other election commissioners enjoy security of tenure.

Reason (R): Their terms are specified and fixed by the Constitution of India.

In the context of the statements above, which of these is true?

a) A and R both are true, and R is the correct explanation for A.

b) A and R both are true, and R is the NOT the correct explanation for A.

c) A is correct, R is incorrect. d) A is incorrect, R is correct

27. The Chief Minister of a Union Territory is appointed by a) The Administrator of the UT on the

recommendation of the Central government

b) The President of India on the

recommendation of the Administrator of the UT

c) The President of India based on the

recommendation of the Cabinet

d) The Administrator of the UT based on his personal discretion

28. As per the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, a ‘Nagar Panchayat’ is a term used for a) a village panchayat that has been

recently given the status of a

municipality and the administrative structure of which resembles that of a Municipality

b) an area in transition from a rural area to an urban area

c) a conglomeration of all panchayats that comes under a common Metropolitan Planning Committee

d) a panchayat that is temporarily being governed by a Municipality or Municipal corporation

29. State Bills relating to which of the following categories can be reserved for Presidential assent by the Governor? 1. Bills that impinge on the

fundamental rights of citizens 2. Bills that prima facie appear ultra

vires the constitution 3. Bills that contravene Central laws



30. Biofertilizers improves the productivity of crops because a) it increase the nutrient content of the

soil b) it makes greater amount of nutrients

available to the plant from the same soil

c) it inflates the root hairs increasing their mineral absorption capacity

d) All of the above


31. The Coalition Support Fund (CSF) programme to Pakistan given by the US is provided for a) Developing tribal and backward

areas in Pakistan b) Combating insurgency in

neighbouring Afghanistan c) Improving defence bases of Pakistani

Army d) Implementing several socio-

economic programs of USA running in Pakistan

32. Coastal erosion can be caused by 1. Wave action 2. Tidal currents 3. High Winds



33. ‘Maritime domain awareness’ recently in news is related to 1. Safety and security of the maritime

domain 2. Environment of Oceans 3. Navigable waterways


a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) None of the above d) All of the above

34. 35. Consider the following about Ramon Magsaysay Award . 1. It is given for exemplary political and

economic work. 2. It is only awarded within Asia. 3. It is awarded by the Noble Prize

committee. 4. It can be awarded to organizations

too.



35. The Competition Commission of India (CCI) is a) an executive body that regulates

mergers and acquisitions between private bodies

b) a statutory body which monitors monopolistic and unfair trade practices in Indian markets

c) an executive body that settles disputes between firms relating to mergers and acquisitions

d) a statutory body that ensures that all budding start-ups in India have enough competence and resources to compete with multi-national companies


36. The newest member of the World Trade Organization (WTO) is a) China b) Russia c) Kazakhstan d) Ukraine

37. As per a study conducted by conducted by Bangladesh-India Joint Tiger Census Project, what are the reasons for the declining population of Bengal tiger? 1. Lack of proper forest management 2. Animal-human conflict 3. Loss of habitat 4. Unchecked poaching


a) 1, 3 and 4 only b) 2 and 4 only c) 1 and 3 only d) All of the above

38. Tour de France is an annual multiple stage bicycle race primarily held in France. The race route passes through which of these mountain chains? a) High Atlas b) Alps c) Cordillera Central d) Beaufort Range

39. What does a regional navigational satellite mean? a) A satellite which helps other

satellites and space station to navigate in space

b) A satellite which helps provide accurate earth coordinates for navigation purposes

c) A satellite that guides rocket launches till the upper space

d) A satellite that monitors the navigational activities on earth

40. Union Government recently launched Deendayal Upadhyaya Gram Jyoti Yojana (DUGJY). The scheme aims to provide a) Uninterrupted electricity supply to

each rural household across the country

b) Electricity to all Village panchayats and Public buildings

c) Financial support to all visually impaired people that need an eye operation

d) Scholarships to meritorious visually impaired children from every village in India

41. Consider the following statements about a species found in India. 1. It is a critically endangered bird

species as per IUCN. 2. It can be found in Gujarat,

Maharashtra and Rajasthan. 3. An artificial breeding programme for

the species was recently announced by the government.

4. Greater population of the species is found in grasslands.

The statements above are related to which of these species?


a) Spoon Billed Sandpiper b) White-bellied heron c) Great Indian Bustard d) Forest owlet

42. Which of these can be the closest Indian counterpart to the recently tested ‘Long March-5’ belonging to China’s space programme? a) Indian manned space mission b) Mars Orbiter Mission c) Geo-synchronous Satellite Launch

Vehicle d) GAGAN and IRNSS

43. Consider the following about the All India Council of Sports constituted recently by the government. 1. President of India will be its ex-

officio chairman. 2. It will financially support all states to

establish a council of sports. 3. Its recommendations will not be

binding on the government. 4. It will adjudicate all complaints,

disputes and malpractices associated with sports.


a) 1, 3 and 4 only b) 3 only c) 1 and 2 only d) All of the above

44. Surakshit Khadya Abhiyan launched recently by the Union government aims at a) Creating awareness about food

hygiene and food safety b) Safeguarding all food storage

warehouses and cold storages from pests and damage

c) Minimizing post harvest losses of food grains, fruits and vegetables

d) Organizing periodical makeshift food testing camps in all villages of India

45. Deep Space Climate Observatory (DSCOVR) is used for a) purposes of earth observation b) studying the cosmic rays, particles

and waves in deep space c) studying cyclical movements of

distant celestial bodies d) helping satellites launched from

earth to navigate in space and communicate with earth

46. Estuaries and recesses in coastlines that form bays can tackle heavy storms, cyclones and tsunamis. These bays are formed by a) Turtle shells b) Coral reefs c) Sea grass d) Mangroves


47. Ocean acidification can affect marine life by 1. Inhibiting shell growth in marine

animals 2. Affecting the growth of

phytoplanktons 3. Reducing the amount of coral reefs

formed



48. Which of the following e-wastes can NOT be recycled? 1. Lead 2. Copper 3. Gold 4. Silver 5. Platinum


a) 1 and 4 only b) 1, 2 and 3 only c) 3 and 5 only d) All of these can be recycled.

49. Atal Innovation Mission concerns with a) Deploying additional funding to

institutes of higher education, learning and research

b) Providing a platform to academics, entrepreneurs and researchers to foster culture of innovation

c) Bringing back all leading Indian researchers working abroad

d) None of the above

50. Monetary policy decision is presently made by a) Solely by the RBI governor b) A Monetary policy committee

constituted by the government in RBI

c) A committee of RBI headed by RBI governor holding veto power over decisions

d) The RBI Governor and Deputy Governors after taking concurrence from government

51. The GST Bill seeks to establish a GST Council. It will consist of 1. Union Finance Minister 2. Finance Secretary 3. Ministry of Planning 4. Minister of Finance from each state

government


a) 1 and 4 only b) 1, 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 2 only d) 3 and 4 only


52. In India the provision of double citizenship a) is provided to a select class of foreign

investors on strategic grounds b) applies to all Indian diplomats

serving outside India c) applies to minors of Indian

diplomats born outside India d) does not exist as Indian laws and

constitution provides for only single citizenship

53. It is difficult to get Vitamin C in our daily cooked meals because a) Food containing Vitamin C cannot be

cooked b) Vitamin C gets destroyed by heat

during cooking c) If food containing Vitamin C is

heated, then its absorption is the body is negligible

d) Heating Vitamin C with water makes it toxic.

54. Consider the following about Jute fibre. 1. It is extracted from the leaves of the

Jute plant. 2. It is cultivated during the rainy

season. 3. It is grown mainly in the Southern

Indian region. 4. Jute is also made from the outer

covering of coconut.


a) 1 and 2 only b) 3 and 4 only

c) 1 and 3 only d) 2 and 4 only


Assertion (A): Chalk used in blackboards is highly soluble in water.

Reason (R): Minerals are generally highly soluble in water.




c) A is correct, R is incorrect. d) Both A and R are incorrect.

56. Lemonade is prepared by mixing lemon juice and sugar in water. You wish to add ice to cool it. In which case would it be possible to dissolve more sugar in the water more quickly? a) Adding ice cubes before mixing sugar

and lemon b) Adding ice cubes after adding sugar

and lemon c) Solubility will remain same

irrespective of the order of adding ice to the water

d) Dissolving half the sugar before adding ice cubes and half later


57. The synthesis of food in plants generally occurs a) in between leaves and stems b) in roots and from there it is carried

to leaves which absorb it c) in the upper part of the brown stems

away from the root d) in the leaves of the plant

58. Fungi depend on which mode of nutrition? 1. Autotrophic 2. Heterotrophic 3. Saprotrophic 4. Parasitic


a) 1 and 4 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 3 only

59. Sorter’s disease, an occupational hazard, is related to the a) Wool industry b) Silk Industry c) Cotton Industry d) Plastic and Polymer Industry

60. Stainless steel vessels used for cooking are generally provided with copper at the bottom. What can be a possible reason behind it? a) It is easier to clean copper than the

stainless steel.

b) Copper is cheaper than stainless steel thus reducing the price of the vessel.

c) Copper can conduct heat better than the stainless steel.

d) It increases the toughness and durability of the stainless steel vessel this way.

61. Special type of substances, indicator, is used to test whether a substance is acidic or basic. Which of these is/are natural indicators? 1. Turmeric 2. Lichens 3. Tulsi leaves 4. Skin of Papaya



62. Acid rain can be harmful for 1. Buildings 2. Monuments 3. Plants 4. Animals




63. Organic matter can be added to the soil to 1. Improve Nutrient base of soil 2. Reduce the acidity of soil 3. Increase the activity of

microorganisms in the soil



64. Migratory birds flying for long distances generally fly high in the sky. What can be the possible reason(s)? 1. They can escape thunder and rain. 2. Wind flow is helpful at such heights. 3. Conditions are cold which allow

them to disperse heat generated by flight muscles.



65. While going through a tropical rainforest, you are likely to find which of these species? 1. Red-eyed frog 2. New World Monkey 3. Toucan 4. Lion Tailed Macaque


a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 2, 3 and 4 only c) 1 and 4 only d) All of the above

66. If you are stuck in a storm that is accompanied by lightning, what should you NOT do? 1. Take shelter under an isolated tree 2. Sit near a widow 3. Take cover under a bus 4. Go in an open garage


a) 1 and 2 only b) 2, 3 and 4 only c) 1, 2 and 4 only d) 1, 3 and 4 only

67. Consider the following statements. 1. The Eastern coast of India has

greater frequency of cyclones than the Western coast.

2. The Western coast of India has greater intensity of cyclones than the Eastern coast.

Which of the above is/are true?




Assertion (A): Loamy soil is not suitable for growing crops.

Reason (R): It cannot hold water which is essential for plant growth.




c) A is correct, R is incorrect. d) Both A and R is incorrect.

69. Why do we get muscle cramps after heavy exercise? a) Bones and muscles are at different

temperatures. b) The gel like liquid in muscle cell

becomes hard due to high body temperature.

c) Muscle cells respire anaerobically to produce lactic acid due to unfulfilled heavy demand for oxygen.

d) High blood circulation expands muscle cells due to heavy demand for oxygen which stretches the muscles too much.

70. A country X has an age pyramid which is broad at its base and keeps narrowing till it reaches the top. What does it imply about the population of the country? a) Country X has a highly unstable

population growth rate.

b) Country X has necessarily an increasing population.

c) Country X is necessarily facing a decline in population.

d) Country X has both high death rates and birth rates.

71. Cooperative sector industries can be 1. Owned by workers 2. Owned by raw material suppliers 3. Owned by producers of raw materials 4. Operated by raw material suppliers 5. Operated by producers of raw

material


a) 1, 4 and 5 only b) 2, 3 and 4 only c) 1, 2 and 3 only d) All of the above

72. Which of these factors have helped the cotton industries to spread geographically? 1. Humidity, one of the key

requirements of the industry, can be created artificially

2. Raw cotton is a weight losing raw material

3. Wide availability of labour




73. The conditions for growing rice and wheat are not same because 1. Rice requires bright sunshine

whereas wheat does not. 2. Wheat requires well drained soil

whereas rice requires soil which can retain water.

3. Rice requires heavy rainfall whereas wheat requires moderate rainfall.



74. In India, natural gas can be extracted from which of these regions? 1. Jaisalmer 2. Tripura 3. Krishna Godavari delta 4. Andhra Pradesh


a) 1, 2 and 4 only b) 2, 3 and 4 only c) 1 and 3 only d) All of the above

75. What is the difference between contour ploughing and terrace farming? 1. Contour ploughing alters the shape

of the slope.

2. Terrace farming retains the shape of the slope.

3. In terrace farming hills are ploughed up and down unlike contour ploughing.


a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) None of the above

76. If International trade is allowed freely then eventually it will lead to which of the following? a) A handful of nations will accumulate

all the wealth of the global economy. b) Production and distribution of all

commodities will become concentrated at one geographical location.

c) Some nations will become specialized in production of certain goods and services.

d) All global labour will concentrate at the nation which has the highest exports.

77. The difference between ‘Broad money’ and ‘Narrow money’ is based on a) RBI’s authority to issue them freely

in security markets b) Liquidity of money supply c) Their use by either government or

household sector d) The ease with which bonds can be

issued on each of them


78. If the currency of India appreciates in the foreign exchange market, it will 1. Increase India’s foreign exchange

reserves 2. Make imports costly in India 3. Increase the fiscal deficit of India


a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) None of the above

79. Income tax in India is a) Levied, collected and appropriated

by Central government b) Levied, collected by Central

government; and shared with state governments

c) Levied by Central government, but collected and appropriated by state governments

d) Levied, collected and appropriated by state governments

80. Capital receipts of the Government of India includes 1. Grants by foreign government 2. Earnings from interest rates on loans

previously forwarded 3. Borrowing from market


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only c) 3 only d) 1 and 3 only

81. The atmosphere is held around the earth by a) Primordial heat from inside the earth b) Magnetic force around the earth that

attracts all charged dust particles c) Coriolis force and adhesive frictional

force between the earth and atmosphere

d) Gravitational force of the Earth

82. Arrange these layers of earth in increasing order of their thickness. 1. Crust 2. Mantle 3. Core


a) 132 b) 231 c) 123 d) 321

83. Which of the following are responsible for changing landform on the earth? 1. Volcanoes 2. Sea-waves 3. Glaciers 4. Rivers 5. Wind



a) 1 and 5 only b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only c) 2, 3 and 4 only d) All of the above

84. Loess found in desert areas is a) an accumulation of fine and light

sand spread over large distances b) a collection of mushroom rocks

narrow at bottom and wide at top c) a high sand dune that is formed as a

result of heavy desert storms d) a land near oasis that is rich in

humus and minerals

85. Veblen goods in economic terms are those goods whose a) price is directly proportional to their

supply in the market b) price is directly proportional to their

demand in the market c) price does not relate to their demand

in the market d) price and demand are inversely

related

86. The atmospheric layer that helps in radio transmission is a) Troposphere b) Thermosphere c) Stratosphere d) Mesosphere

87. Marginal efficiency of capital means 1. Expected rate of return from

additional Investment

2. Efficiency of production process as each factor is increased

Which of the above is/are true?


88. Consider the following about Nyaya school of Vedic philosophy. 1. It holds that human suffering results

from mistakes produced by activity under wrong knowledge.

2. Liberation can be gained through right knowledge.

3. The school has contributed to the development of theory of logic.



89. Buddhists teach that suffering can be ended by direct understanding and perception of ‘dependent origination’. This points out to a) The vagueness of the idea of a cause

and effect b) Interdependence of events in

existence c) Independence of the existence of the

Self d) God being the origin of all beings in

existence.


90. Subash Chandra Bose resigned from the congress presidentship and organised forward Bloc for a more vigorous national struggle in 1939. This was because a) He came to believe that Gandhi's

Non-violent Movement might not bring independence

b) He did not trust that the Indian National Congress is fighting for Indian freedom

c) He was pressurized by the British to resign from the Congress

d) He wanted to support the activities of the Congress from outside

91. Consider the following about the 1857 mutiny. 1. It was during the reign of Governor

General Canning. 2. Mangal Pandey led the Mutiny. 3. It started from Delhi. 4. The mutiny did not spread to South

India.



92. Which of the following about Partition of Bengal is INCORRECT? a) It was ordered by Curzon. b) All India Muslim League supported

the division of Bengal.

c) It was annulled after the First World War ended.

d) Program of Swadeshi was adopted to protest against the division.

93. Consider the following with reference to the Indian freedom struggle during the First World War. 1. Mainstream political leadership lent

support to the British in the war. 2. No anti-colonial activities were

witnessed during the entire period in India.

3. The Surat Pact was signed during this period.


a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1 only

94. In the Government of India Act, 1919 1. Principle of diarchy was introduced 2. Local bodies and provincial

legislatures were given autonomy. 3. Franchise base of Central as well as

provincial legislatures was increased.




95. Kuka movement in Punjab, 1872, aimed at a) Purifying the Sikh religion by

removing all the abuses, superstitions and ill-practices

b) Making Sikh land independent from British control

c) Secure lower land rent and lower taxes from British officials

d) Achieve justice for the martyrs of the 1857 mutiny

96. Consider the following about C. Rajagopalachari. 1. He was the last Governor-general of

India. 2. He founded the Swatantra party. 3. He pioneered several temple entry

movements in India. 4. He was described by Gandhi as the

“keeper of my conscience”.



97. The Karachi session, 1931, of the Congress was important because a) The goal of complete independence,

Swaraj, was declared here. b) Congress spelt the true meaning of

Swaraj in this session. c) Congress decided to participate in

the Second Round Table Conference.

d) Congress launched the second phase of Civil Disobedience movement in the session.

98. Which of these statements concerning Jugantar party formed in 1906 is correct? a) The party involved itself in grass root

work of education and uplifting rural dalits.

b) It was based on a socialistic ideology and believed in negotiation with the government.

c) Aurobindo Ghosh was one of the founder members.

d) All of the above

99. The most significant event between the 7th and 11th century was the Tripartite struggle centered on Kannauj that lasted for more than two centuries between the 1. Pala Empire 2. Rashtrakuta Empire 3. Chalukya Empire 4. Chola dynasty




100. Which of the following can be the possible reason(s) behind the disintegration of the Gupta Empire? 1. Death of Emperor Harsha 2. Invasion of the Huns 3. Complete drain of economic

resources towards the end of Harsha’s tenure



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