MOCK TEST 1 JANUARY 2009

1. A patient brings you a prescription for 16 mEq KC1. Your pharmacy has 600 mg KC1 (MW 74.5) controlled release tablets does the patient need?

A. 0.5 tabletsB. 1 tabletsC. 2 tabletsD. 4 tabletsE. 5 tabletsANS: C

2. HLB value for O/W emulsifying agent:A. 4 - 8B. 1 - 4C 8 - 18D. 1-12E. 4 - 12ANS: C

3. Calcium gluconate injection contains 0.1 g Ca(C6H11O7)2mL of solution. If the NaC1 equivalent of calcium gluconate is 0.16, the injection is:

A. hypotonicB. iso-osmoticC. isotonicD. hypertonicE. opisthonicANS: D

4. Which of the following monitoring parameter is essential for patient who currently taking Low molecular weight herapin (LMWH):

A. International Normalized Ratio (INR)B. Prothrombin timeC. Herapin assayD. Sensitive TSHE. None of the above monitoring neededANS: E

5. The elimination rate constant for a certain drug is 2.7 days -1. What is the half-life?

A. 800 minB. 369 minC. 900 minD. 1200 minE. 1600 minANS: B

6. Which of the following most closely describes as the clearance rate of drug that is infused at rate of 4 mg/min and produces a steady state concentration of 6 mg/L in plasma.

A. 1,200 ml/minB. 667 ml/minC. 300 ml/minD. 132 ml/minE. 67 ml/minANS: B

7. How many tablets are needed for following prescription?RxProvera 5 mg tab QD16 - 25 days for 3 monthsOne tablet containing 5 mgA. 50 tabletsB. 60 tabletsC. 80 tabletsD. 75 tabletsE. 30 tabletsANS: E

8. Which of the following parameters is used measure extent bioavailability:A. CmaxB. tmaxC. AUCD. VdE. ClearanceANS: CTIPS: Extent of bioavailability is obtained by AUC where as rate is measured by

Cmax and tmax. Volume of distribution is not associated with bioavailability.

9. If 60 gram of 1% Hydrocortisone is mixed with 80 gram of 2.5% Hydrocortisone, what is the % w/w of hydrocortisone in final mixture?

A. 2.25%B. 3.15%C. 1.85%D. 4.35%E. 2.60%ANS: C

10. Correct statement about partition coefficient?A. Pc = drugs in lipid soluble / drugs in water solubleB. Pc = drugs in water soluble / drugs in lipid soluble

C. Pc = drugs in lipid soluble x drugs in water solubleD. Pc = drugs in lipid soluble - drugs in water solubleE. None of the aboveANC: ATIPS: Pc = Octanol/Water

11. pH-Pka = 1.5 for acidic drug what percent of drug is ionized?A. 3.06%B. 1%C. 100%D. 99%E. 97.5%ANS: E

12. In insurance plan drug price is $29.00 and $6.00 prescription fee. Every time this patient pays $100.00 for each prescription what is it called?

A. CoinsuranceB. Co-paymentC.Prescription feeD. Gross marginE. DonationANS: B

13. DIN is:A. Drug Information NumberB. Drug Identification NumberC. Drug Index numberD. Drug Information CentreE. Each college of pharmacy identified by DINANS: B

14. How many millimeters of a 1 to 1600 solution can be made by dissolving 5.5 gram of sodium bicarbonate solution in water.

A. 8800B. 8000C. 7200D. 9800ANS: A

15. If the total body clearance of a drug is 200 mL/min in a normal healthy adult and the renal clearance is 10mL/min then one may assume that:

I. Higher percent of plasma protein bond drugII. Drug has tubular reabsoprtionIII. The extensively metabolizedA. I onlyB. III only

C. I and II onlyD. II and III onlyE. All of the above are correctANS: B

16. A researcher develops a new drug to prevent the common cold in children over the of two.1000 children received placebo and 1000 received the drug. During the one-year follow up the research diagnosed colds in 2.5% of the kids on placebo and in 2% of the active treatment. What is the absolute risk reduction?

A. 0.5%B. 20%C. 10%D. 40%E. 5%ANS: A

17. What does SPF 15 mean?A. If it takes 10 minutes to get sunburn, in SPF 15, it would take 15 x 10 minB. If it takes 10 minutes to get sunburn in SPF 15, it would take 15 x 100 minC. If it takes 10 minutes to get sunburn in SPF 15, it would take 150 x 100 minD. if it takes 10 minutes to get sunburn in SPF 15, it would take 150 x 1000 minE. If it takes 10 minutes to get sunburn in SPF 15, it would take 1500 x 100 minANS: A

18. Adduction is?A. Movement toward the midline of the bodyB. Movement away from the midline of the bodyC. Lengthening or straightening of a flexed limbD. Bending a part of the bodyE. Backward (upward) bending of the footANS: A

19. A hospital pharmacist has to recommend appropriate drug for hospital formulary. Which of the following antibiotic would you recommend?

Drug Cost/day Dosing frequency DurationDrug A $1.50 QID 7 daysDrug B $1.50 QD 7 daysDrug C $3.00 BID 3 daysDrug D $1.25 BID 3 daysDrug E $1.25 QID 3 daysANS: Drug D

20. If a prescription order requires 25 g of concentrated HCl (Density 1.18g/ml)what volume should the pharmacist measure?A. 29.50 ml C. 23.0 mlB. 0.0212 ml D. 21.2 ml

ANS: D

21. A patient brings you a Rx for 0.5% menthol q.s. to 100 ml of alcohol. How many grams of menthol would you need to prepare the Rx?

A. 0.005 D. 5B. 0.05 E. 50C. 0.5ANS: C

22. Bacturia and pyuria are normally characteristics of which of the following conditions?

A. Gastrointestinal infectionsB. Urinary tract infectionsC. Respiratory tract infectionsD. Cardiovascular infectionsE. Ocular infectionsANS: B

23. A patient calls to ask if her digoxin has changed color and shape. What would be the most appropriate response?

A. Tell the patient that an error has been made and refer her to the physicianB. Determine if the color and shape for the tablets dispensed have been changed by the manufacturer and convey this information to the patientC. Obtain the patient's name, prescription number and the color of the tablet and verify the patient prescription.D. Explain that this is a serious matter and the medication should be brought back to the pharmacy to be checked by the pharmacistANS: C

24. A 75 y/o patient suffering from pneumonia. Her daughter is looking after her. She has two children at home. Doctor hesitates to give flu shot to the patient. What will doctor do?

A. Immunize other family memberB. Send him to nursing homeC. Do not give flu vaccine all family membersD. flu vaccine is irrelevantANS: A

25. A physician in a unit dose hospital writes for Prednisone 15 mg tid. Each package contains 1 x 5 mg tablet. How many packages are needed per dose?

A. 9 C. 6B. 3 D. 4.5ANS: B

26. The lower part of gut contain the following microorganisms:A. 10-50% anaerobic

B. 90-95% anaerobicC. 10-50% aerobicD. 90-95% aerobicE. lower part of gut does not have microbesANS: B

27. In preparing ZnSO4 suppositories using 200 mg of its USP value. Refers that dispense value of ZnSO4 is 4 means that:

A. ZnSO4 will displace 800 mg of cocoa butterB. Cocoa butter displace 800 mg of ZnSO4C. Only 4 mg of cocoa butter will be displacedD. 200 mg of ZnSO4 will displace 50 mg of cocoa butterANS: D

28. A pharmacist adds 400 ml of alcohol (95% v/v) to a liter of mouthwash formula. What is the new percentage of alcohol present if the ordinary mouthwash was labelled as 12% v/v of ethanol?

A. 36% C. 45%B. 40% D. 50%ANS: A

29. Find the absolute bioavailability of comp B tab

COMPANY DOSE FORM DOSE CUMULATIVE URINARY

ADMINISTRATION AMOUNT

A Parenteral 10 mg IV 9.4

A Tablet 20 mg PO 12.0

B Tablet 20 mg PO 8.2

B Capsule 15 mg 6.8

A. 0.94 C. 0.44B. 9.4 D. 8.2ANS: C

30. How many grams of pure HC powder must be mix with 60 grams of 0.5% HC cream if one wishes to prepare at 2.0% w/w preparation.

A. 0.78 D. 0.60B. 0.88 E. 0.90 C. 0.92ANS: C

31. A patient weighs 70 kg with normal renal function is injected with an IV drug for 10 hours . The desired plasma concentration is 15 mg/dl. T half of drugs is 1 hr and an apparent volume of distribution is 9 liters. What is the rate of infusion for this patient?

A. 936.0 mg/hr D. 93.6 mg/hrB. 1350.0 mg/hr E. 135.0 mg/hrC. 468.0 mg/hrANS: A

32. A new cephalosporins antibiotic was given at a dose of 5 mg/kg by a single IV bolus injection to a 58 y/o man who weighs 75 kg. The antibiotic follows the Pharmacokinetics of a one-compartment model and has an elimination t 1/2 of 2 hours. The apparent volume of distribution is 0.28L/kg and the drug is 35% bound to plasma protein. What is the initial plasma drug concentration in this patient?

A. 5 mg/L D. 0.28 mg/LB. 17.9 mg/L E. None of the aboveC. 75 mg/LANS: B

34. How much drug remains in the patient's body 8 hours after the dose?A. 375 mg D. 187 mgB. 23.4 mg E. 93.7 mgC. 150 mgANS: B

35. Arrange the following benzodiazepines from longest to shortest acting:Oxazepam, Diazepam,Triazolam, TemazepamA. Diazepam, Oxazepam,Temazepam,TriazolamB. Triazolam,Oxazepam,Temazepam,DiazepamC. Temazepam,Oxazepam,Triazolam,DiazepamD. Triazolam,Temazepam,Oxazepam, DiazepamE. Diazepam,Temazepam,Oxazepam,TriazolamANS: ATIPS: Diazepam/ Oxazepam (t1/2 = 1-4 hrs), Temazepam (2-3 hrs) & Diazepam

(1-2 hrs)

36. A patient with hyperglycemic in the evening and hypoglycemic in the morning and currently on regular insulin and NPH insulin, he should receive:

I. Increase NPH insulin in the morningII. Decrease NPH insulin in the eveningIII. Increase regular insulin levels in the morningA. I only D. II and III onlyB. III only E. All of the aboveC. I and II onlyANS: C

37. Friability is defined as:A. Ability of the tablet to withstand abrasion in packing, handling and shipping which is defined as loss of weight of tablet due to chipping or fragmentation in the form of particles.B. Measure the degree of force required to break a tablet and also indicates tensile strength of tablet. Hardness of tablet greatly effects dissolution and disintegrationC. Measuring weight of tabletD. The process of reducing particle sizeE. Dissolving in small proportionsANS: A

38. Meniere's Disease is (Meniere's Syndrome)?A. A disorder in which gross enlargement of the cells of the mucus membrane lining the stomach is associated with anemiaB. A disease of inner ear characterized by episodes of deafness, buzzing to the ears (tinnitus) and vertigoC. Drugs associated ototoxicity such as aminoglycosides GentamycinD. Unknown disease of earsE. None of the aboveANS: BTIPS: Differentiate with Menetrier's Disease: a disorder in which gross

enlargement of the cells of the mucus membrane lining the stomach is associated with anemia.

39. How many ml of 0.9% w/v NaCl solution should be prepared from 250 ml of 25% w/v solution?A. 3750 ml C. 6944.4 mlB. 2500 ml D. 9 mlANS: C

40. Planes and sections of the body: separates the body into unequal right and left portions is referred as:

A. sagittal plane D. parasagittal planeB. midsagittal plane E. obliqueC. coronal planeANS: D

41. At night dark, what is the active part in the retina?A. Cones D. Optic NerveB. Rods E. CorneaC. Cones and rodsANS: B

42. Cystic fibrosis is?A. Disorder of pancreatic function

B. Disorder of lung functionC. Disorder of bonesD. Disorder of electrolyte imbalanceE. Disorder of bladderANS: ATIPS: Cystic fibrosis is the most common genetic disorder affecting young

Canadians. It is a multi-organ disease affecting primarily the lungs and the digestive system. In the lungs, CF

causes severe breathing problems. A build up of thick mucus makes it difficult to clear bacteria and leads to

cycles of infection and inflammation which damage the delicate lung tissues. They must follow a demanding

daily routine of physical therapy to keep the lungs free of congestion and infection. In the digestive tract,

cystic fibrosis makes it difficult to digest and absorb nutrients from food.

43. Enkephalins are:A. Benzodiazepine receptorsB. Peptide type of opioid neurotransmitterC. Opioids receptorsD. Peptides in cell cycleE. Regulates pain functionF. Enzymes that metabolize opioidsANS: B

44. Thyroid stimulating hormones (TSH) secretes from?A. Anterior pituitary glandB. Posterior pituitary glandC. Thyroid glandD. Parathyroid glandE. None of the aboveANS: ATIPS: Anterior pituitary gland secretes TSH, FSH, LH, Prolactin, ACTH and

Growth Hormones where as posterior pituitary gland stimulates ADH and Oxytocin only.

45. Aromatized ring A is present in?A. Progesterone D. AndrogenB. Estrogen E. AldosteroneC. TestosteroneANS: B

46. Inadequate blood circulation (perfusion) to the kidneys, which leaves them unable to clean the blood properly, is characterized as?

A. Intrinsic acute renal failure

B. Postrenal acute failureC. Prerenal acute failureD. Chronic renal failureE. Chronic liver failureANS: CTIPS: Prerenal ARF is characterized by inadequate blood circulation. Many patients with prerenal ARF are critically ill and experience shock (very low blood pressure) there often is poor perfusion within many organs which may lead to multiple organ failure.

47. Which of the following blood cells cannot be distinguished from basophils?A. Neutrophils D. Red blood cells (RBC)B. White blood cells E. Mast cellsC. EosinophilsANS: E

50. Which of the following condition have deficiency of Vitamin B1 (Thiamine)?A. Smoking D. InfantsB. Old age E. PregnancyC. Chronic alcoholismANS: C

51. Hemophilia A results from deficiency of factor?A. V D. IIB. X E. XIC. VIIIANS: C

52. Translation occurs:A. Before transcription C. Same time as transcriptionB. After transcription D. None of the aboveANS: B

53. What is definition of Pharmacogenetics?A. The pharmacogenomics is integration of pharmacology and genetics.B. The study of pharmacogenomics allows to design and develop drugs that are customized to each person's genetic mark up.C. The pharmacogenomics also utilized to study cytochrome enzymes that are responsible for drug interactions.D. All of the aboveE. None of the aboveANS: D

54. All of the following are NOT recommended for flu vaccine, EXCEPT?A. Child under 6 months of ageB. A person allergy to eggs

C. A person with acute bronchitis symptomsD. Pregnant womenE. None of the aboveANS: D

55. What is correct about erythropoeitins?I. Epoeitin alpha are used for anemia associated chronic kidney diseasesII. Helps in to production of RBCsIII. Produced in bone marrowA. I only D. II and III onlyB. III only E. All of the aboveC. I and II onlyANS: C

56. Muromonab (OKT3) is monoclonal antibody indicated?A. Renal, cardiac and hepatic graft rejection

B. Neutropenia associated with cancer chemotherapyC. Thrombocytopenia associated with cancer chemotherapyD. Anemia associated with chronic renal diseasesE. None of the aboveANS: A

57. Ethanol metabolizes to acetic acid by the enzyme called?A. Alcohol dehydrogenaseB. Alcohol reductaseC. GlucuronidationD. Alcohol decarboxylationANS: A

58. Assuming you have alcohol 95% and need to prepare 60 mls of alcohol 12%. How much of alcohol 95% should be used to make this new concentration of alcohol?

A. 4.32 mls D. 6 mlsB. 7.57 mls E. 6.57 mlsC. 8.64 mlsANS: B

59. You are giving ZnCl2 0.7%, Phenylephrine 0.1% and Boric acid 1.1% with E values 0.16,0.32 and 0.5 respectively. This solution will be:

A. Isotonic D. Iso-osmoticB. Hypertonic E. Isotonicity cannot be findingC. HypotonicANS: C

60. An inhaler contains 120 doses. How many days the patient will take to finish the entire inhaler with this signature: " Use 2 inhalers in each nostril every morning and at bedtime"

A. 7 days D. 15 daysB. 10 days E. 30 daysC. 20 daysANS: D

61. What is the sensitivity of a balance that can weight 120 mg of a substance and has a permissible error of 5%?

A. 6 mg D. 26 mgB. 16 mg E. 1.6 mgC. 66 mgANS: A

62. If the rate of infusion of the drug is 500 mg q8 hours and clearance is 7.3 l/hr. Find steady state concentration

A. 85.6 mg/L D. 8.56 mg/LB. 856 mg/L E. 5.86 mg/LC. 8.56 g/LANS: D

63. A 40 y/o patient who weighs 70 kg needs intravenous infusion of Amoxicillin. The desired Css of drug is 15 mg/dL. The physician ordered antibiotic infused for 10 hours. Amoxicillin has t1/2 = 1 hour and Vd = 9L. What rate of IV is recommended for this patient? (no loading dose was given)

A. 135 mg/hr D. 333 mg/hrB. 936 mg/hr E. 400 mg/hrC. 1000 mg/hrANS: B

64. In competitive antagonism Ag + E + Ag* ----> AgE + Ag*E If we use more concentration of Ag what happen?

A. Concentration of AgE increase and Ag*E decreaseB. Concentration of Ag*E increase and AgE decreaseC. Concentration of AgE and Ag*E decreaseD. Concentration of AgE and Ag*E increaseANS: ATIPS: In competitive antagonism, increase agonist concentration gives increased

agonist complex product. Ag = Agonist Ag* = Antagonist E = Enzyme

65. Diastereoisomers that have the opposite configuration at only one of two or more tetrahedral stereogenic centres present in the respective molecular entities are epimers. Interconversion of epimers are epimerization. Which of the following class of antibiotics known to have epimerization properties

A. B-lactams D. Tetracyclines

B. Quinolones E. CephalosporinsC. VancomycinANS: D

66. Geometrical Isomerism may be classified as CIS and TRANS depending the spatial position of the molecule around a bond with restricted rotation, which of the following is an example of geometrical isomerism?

A. Butene D. 3-ButyneB. 1-Butene E. 1-ButaneC. 2-ButeneANS: CTIPS: Geometric isomerism may be classified as CIS and TRANS depending on

the spatial position of the molecule around a bond with restricted rotation. 2-Butene is an example of molecule having geometric isomerism.

67. This reaction is known as NH4+ + OH- ----> H2O + NH3A. First order reaction D. Equilibrium reactionB. Ionization reaction E. Protonated reactionC. Neutralization reactionANS: C

68. DNA gyrase and supercoiling DNA is essential for?A. Replication D. CiprofloxacinB. Chemical degradation E. QuinolonesC. Topoisomerase II ANS: A

69. What phase I metabolic reaction occurs at position R3?

R3 = OHLorazepamOxazepamTemazepam

A. Oxidation D. DemethylationB. Hydroxylation E. CarboxylationC. ReductionANS: B

70. A man was Acetaminophen overdosed before 5 hour ago. At what time N-Acetylcysteine should be administered? A. It is too late for acetyl cysteine treatmentB. Can be administered anytime after overdoseC. Can be administered now

D. Treat by sodium bicarbonate firstE. There is no antidote for acetaminophenANS: C

71. Thrombolytics (fibrinolytic) agents are contraindicated inI. Myocardial infarctionII. Hypertensive patientsIII. Bleeding from the GITA. I only D. II and III onlyB. III only E. All are correctC. I and II onlyANS: B

72. Patient with renal failure and normal liver function is showing sensibility to the drug,

this means thatA. High accumulation of metaboliteB. High concentration of drug protein bindingC. High volume of distributionD. High concentration of drug in the systemic circulationE. High accumulation of drugs into tissuesANS: A

73. A man with blood group AB can receive blood from:A. A D. OB. B E. All of the aboveC. ABANS: E

74. A diabetic patient suffering from Hypertension is having Enalapril, however he is complaining from severe dry cough that we can associate as a side effect of

the Enalapril. Which would be the best choice of changing this medication?A. Ramipril D. IndapamideB. Losartan E. CaptoprilC. AmlodipineANS: B

75. Selegiline is?A. MAO type A and B C. MAO type BB. MAO type A D. None of the aboveANS: C

76. Hypofunction of the adrenal cortex may cause:A. Cushing's disease D. Reye's diseaseB. Gray's disease E. All are wrong

C. Addison's diseaseANS: C

77. If a patient taking Atorvastatin 80 mg daily and brings a prescription of Erythromycin for 3

days. What type problem is expected?A. Drug and Disease interactionB. Drug and Food interactionC. Drug and Drug interactionD. Drug and Lab interactionANS: CTIPS: Atorvastatin is substrate of CYP3A4 enzyme which means it is essential

for its metabolism where as Erythromycin is an inhibitor of CYP 3A4 that means it lowers the

enzyme levels.

78. Which of the following is not a drug metabolizing enzyme?A. CYP 3A4B. CYP 450C. UDP-GTD. N-acetyl transferaseE. Alcohol dehydrogenaseANS: E

79. Critical solution temperature represents:A. The temperature which concentration of phenol is homogenous solutionB. The temperature at phenol vaporizesC. The temperature above which homogenous solution is formed for all concentration of phenolD. Temperature which phenol vapor pressure equals the vapor pressure of waterANS: C

80. Parenteral solutions are used for internal use. What is the most common used vehicle for parenteral drug manufacturing?A. Purified water USPB. Water for injectionC. Distillate waterD. Sterile water for injection USPE. Fractional distillate waterANS: B

81. Correct statements regarding Trituration include:A. Is the process of mixing powders in a large container rotated by a motorized processB. Is the process when potent substance must be mixed with a large amount

of diluentsC. Is the process of reducing the substance to small particles by rubbing it in a mortar with a pestleD. Is the process of reducing the substance by addition of a solvent that is

easily removed after pulverizationE. Is the process of mixing powders by passing through siftersANS: C

82. The HLB Hydrophilic-Lipophilic Balance is applied to:A. Emulsying agents D. Surfactant agentB. Humectant agents E. Solubilizing agentC. Thermolabile agentsANS: A and D

83. An agent with HLB value range of 0-3 is known as:A. Antifoaming agent D. Wetting agentB. W/O emulsifying agent E. DetergentsC. O/W emulsiying agentANS: A

84. A pharmacist would like to make a compound prescription where he needs to mix 1% of camphor

into white petroleum. Which would be more appropriated technique to be used by the pharmacist?

A. Trituration D. Geometric dilutionB. Levigation E. AttritionC. Pulverization by interventionANS: B

85. The diagram represents which of the following flow system:

Rate of

Shear

Shearing stress

A. Pseudoplastic flow D. Dilatant flowB. Newtonian flow E. AntithixotropyC. ThixotropyANS: A

86. What is incorrect about thixotropy?

A. Gel to solution D. Flow ability increasedB. Solution to gel E. None of the aboveC. Viscocity decreasedANS: B

87. Breaking is the problem in the manufacture of:A.Cream

B.Lotions C.Tablets D.Capsules E.Suspensions ANS:A

TIPS: Breaking (irreversible) or Creaming (reversible) is the problem in emulsions.

88. The following factor is the cause of most contaminations in sterile preparations A.Solutions B Surface area C.Personal D.Clothing E.Equipment ANS:C

89. What are correct instructions should be labelled in the following preparation?Salicylic Acid 2%Lactic acid 6 mLFlexible collodion ad 30 mLA. Flexible collodion is extremely flammableB. Tight closed container to prevent ether and alcoholC. Store away from fireD. All of the aboveE. None of the aboveANS: D

90. All of the following detector are used in High Performance Liquid Chromatography (HPLC) EXCEPT:

A. Diode array detector D. Gamma raysB. UV detector E. Radioactive detectorC. Refractive Index detectorANS: D

91. Mass spectroscopy is used to:A. Detect traces of unknown chemical structureB. Structure elucidation of unknown chemicalC. Traces in environmental samplesD. Drug traces in blood samples

E. All of the aboveANS: E

92. Lyophilization (freeze dry method) technique is used in:I. Sterilization of liquids and solidsII. Sterilization of solids onlyIII. To dry heat-sensitive wet powdersA. I only D. II and III onlyB. III only E. All are correctC. I and II onlyANS: B

93. The ethical standard Veracity in pharmacy counseling means:A. Pharmacist act with justiceB. Pharmacist act with fairnessC. Pharmacist act with honesty and without deceptionD. Pharmacist does well with patientE. Pharmacist do prevent harmANS: C

94. A physician phones a pharmacist asking him not to tell the patient about the side effects of the drugs because if he does, the patient will not take it.

The pharmacist complies. Both the physician and pharmacist have violated which ethic principle for the patient?

A. Non maleficence D. VeracityB. Beneficence E. JusticeC. AutonomyANS: D

95. All of the following are principles of Canadian Health Act (CHA), EXCEPT A.Universality B.Private administration C.Accessibility D.Portability E.Comprehensiveness ANS:B

TIPS: Canadian Health Act (CHA) is single tier system that is based on public administration and not private administration.

96. A national pharmacy regulatory body NAPRA stands for:A. National Association of Pharmaceutical Regulatory AdministrationB. National Administration of Pharmacy Regulatory AuthorityC. National Association of Pharmacy Regulatory AuthoritiesD. National Association of Pharmacy Manufacturer Regulatory AuthorityE. National Association of Provincial Regulatory AuthoritiesANS: C

97. Who determines the patented prescription drug price?A. Canada Research Based Pharmaceutical Companies (Rx & D)B. Generic Pharmaceutical Association (CGPA)C. Patented Medicines Prices Review Board (PMPRB)D. Health Canada (HC)E. National Association of Pharmacy Regulatory Authority (NAPRA)ANS: C

98. A diabetic patient came to you and complaining about his hyperglycemia, you realized the increased dose,

sometime you realized that he is buying a rich chocolate, sugar candies and food containing high carbohydrates.

A. Should you advice him and explain the risks and ask him to see his physicianB. Let him decide what he wantsC. But not (do not) obligate him and forbid himD. Refer him to doctorE. Refer him to emergencyANS: A

99. You noticed the technician come down to help a patient choosing a cough product contains Codeine. You may do all of

the following actions EXCEPT:A. Go down to interrupt the discussion and make the saleB. Ask the technician if the patient has allergy to Codeine after the saleC. Review with her the law of dispensing over the counter drugsD. Don't humiliate the technician in front of the customerE. Send her to additional training coursesANS: B

100. A senior pharmacy technician has worked in a community pharmacy for 10 years. He is well trained and welcomes new

learning opportunities. His manager now wanting to delegate a new technical project to him, should:

I. Discuss suggested steps to accomplish the projectII. Negotiate a time schedule for completion of the projectIII. Provide support and follow-up as requiredA. I only D. II and III onlyB. III only E. All are correctC. I and II onlyANS: E

101. Total sales of prescription drugs are $210,000 and cost of good sold is 180,000.What is the gross profit? A.71% D. 20% B.14% E. 25%

C.15% ANS:B

102. In the pharmacoeconomics considerations, the following aspects is the most important: A.Pharmacist D. Doctor

B. Hospital E. PatientC. SocietyANS: C

103. Cochrane collaboration is?A. Evidence based medicine databaseB. A Canadian pharmacy journalC. Collaboration of medical professionalsD. A natural product databaseE. The group of people with same characteristicsANS: A

104. Compendium of Pharmaceutical Specialties (CPS) is useful resource for locating which

of the following information?A. Approved indication for all prescription pharmaceuticals in CanadaB. Detailed monograohs for all prescription pharmaceuticals available in CanadaC. Clinical recommendations for dental prophylaxis of bacterial endocarditisD. Canadian consensus guidelines on drug therapies used to treat asthma and

COPDE. Recommendation patient self-selection products in Canadian pharmaciesANS: C

105. Choose the incorrect statement about the p (Probability) value/A. The p (probability) value is the chance of a type I error.B. If a p value is equal to/or lower than 0.05, it is unlikely that a type I error has

been made; that is, a type I error will be made 5 times or less out of 100C. A p value equal to/or less than 0.05 is generally considered to be statistically

significant; lower p values (e.g. p<0.01) may be required for statistical significance in

studies with large sample sizesD. The p (probability) value is the chance of a type II errorANS: D

The next four questions have as reference the following information:In a chromatographic analysis of a drug we found the following results2,4,8,5,7,4 and standard deviation 5.

106. What is the mean in this analysis?A. 4 D. 15B. 5 E. 6C. 30ANS: B

107. What is the median in this analysis?A. 2 D. 7B. 5 E. 8C. 4.5ANS: C

108. Type I error also called alpha-error give what kind of results A.False-positive B.False-negative C.Positive false D.False-False E.Positive-Positive ANS: A

109. How many 4 mg tab are needed? Weight of the child = 44 lbRxOndansetron HCl 0.15 mg/kg/tspCherry Syrup qs 60 mL

A. 4 tabs D. 12 tabsB. 6 tabs E. 10 tabsC. 9 tabsANS: C

110. A patient presents to a pharmacy with a new Rx for 60 tablets Levothyroxine 0.15 mg

to be taken OD. On checking the patient's history the pharmacist notices that the patient

filled a similar Rx for 180 tablets Levothyroxine 0.15 mg with the same directions 4 weeks

ago. What course of action should be the pharmacist follow?A. Fill the prescriptionB. Check with the doctor before dispensingC. Talk to the patient about thisD. Give only one month supplyE. Refuse to fill the prescriptionANS: C

111. A 33 y/o male receiving Acetaminophen 300 mg + Codeine 30 mg + Caffeine 15 mg

(Tylenol #3) for pain relief, which of the following laxative is appropriate choice for

constipation associated with Codeine:A. Sennakot D. PsylliumB. Bulk laxatives E. GlycerineC. LactuloseANS: ATIPS: Stimulant laxatives are drug of choice for the treatment of constipayion associated with opioids use.

112. A patient brings the prescription of Amitriptyline 300 mg 6 months supply.Patient medical history includes major depression and in the past has 2

unsuccessfulattempts to suicide. What is the appropriate, a pharmacist should do?A. Dispense 6 months supply of Amitriptyline and caution about overdose

symptomsB. Dispense in part fills and ask patient pick up in parts every 15 daysC. Refuse the prescription and ask patient to see other doctorD. Refer patient to other physician for mental assessmentANS: B

113. A pharmacist is required to give knowledge of drugs and supply the patientwith enough pieces of information to overcome the patient ignorance. This is done by:A. Written information onlyB. Verbal information onlyC. Verbal and written informationD. Magazine and folders informationE. Video informationANS: C

114. Which antipsychotic drugs monitored for WBC A. Olanzapine B. Clozapine C. Risperidone D. Haloperidol E. Quetapine ANS: B

115. Drugs that give bronchospasm A. Albuterol B. Acebutol C. Salmeterol D. Formeterol E. Ipratropium ANS: B

116. Busy pharmacies a long line up in 15 customers, a person came he is insistingand fighting with pharmacist, do dispense him first?A. Ignore that customerB. Dispense him firstC. Don't dispenseD. Just talk to him and explain there are other before youE. Call policeANS: D

117. A patient using Calcium supplements 500 mg bid. Now gets the prescription ofCiprofloxacin 500 mg bif for 3 days. What is appropriate method of

administration?A. Take Calcium supplements and Ciprofloxacin together morning and evening.B. Take Calcium supplements before 2 hour and after 4 hours of CiprofloxacinC. Stop taking Calcium supplements for 3 days and continue CiprofloxacinD. Stop taking Ciprofloxacin and continue Calcium supplements dailyE. Call the doctor, change to TetracyclineANS: C

118. All of the following antibiotics suspensions are stored at room temperature,EXCEPT: A. Metronidazole B. Clarithromycin C. Azithromycin D. Clindamycin E. Clotrimoxazole ANS: A

119. Incorrect statement about sunburn? A. Peak time of sunburn is 10:00 AM to 4:00 PM B. High altitude has low sunburn C. Cloud do not protect sunburn D. Beach area might have more sunburn E. Apply sunscreen before get into sun ANS: B

120. What is correct statement about treatment in eruption cysts in infantsA. In general cysts rupture spontaneouslyB. Use teethers to rupture cystsC. Manually cysts can be rupturedD. None of the aboveANS: A

121. Which of the following is the incorrect action of sympathomimetic?I. Increase of IOP

II. Increase the drainage of H2O humor from the eyeIII. Decrease the H2O humor in the eye

A. I only D. II and III onlyB. III only E. All of the aboveC. I and II onlyANS: DTIPS: Sympathetic agonist (sympathomimetic) increase IOP. Open angle

glaucoma (OAG) is due to increase IOP and increase in H2O humor of eye or could

be due to decrease in drainage of H2O humor in the eye. For the treatment of

OAG, sympathetic blockers such as Timolol are effectively used to decrease IOP and H2O humor.

122. All of the allergens or factor that can trigger asthma ,EXCEPT? A. Molds B. Warm air C. Emotional stress D. Pets E. Cockroaches ANS: B

123. Which is not a drug used for smoke cessatation? A.Nicotine polacriilex B.Transdermal nicotine patches C.Nicotine sublingual tablets D.Bupropion E.Buspirone ANS: E

124. All are correct regarding the action of Corticosteroids in asthma status, EXCEPT:A. Suppress the inflammatory responseB. Decrease the production of inflammatory mediatorsC. Decrease airway responsiveness to inflammationD. Relieve bronchoconstrictionE. Increase B agonist receptors responseANS: D

125. Gastroesophageal reflux (GERD) is mainly characterized by:A. Diaphragm wall inflammationB. Diaphragm perforationC. Reflux of the stomach content into the esophagusD. Hyperacidity of stomachE. All are correct

ANS: C

126. One of the most common conditions associated with acute hemorrhagic gastritismay include:A. Chronic alcoholismB. H. pyloric bacterial infectionC. Carcinoma of stomachD. Carcinoma of colonE. Traveler's diarrheaANS: A

127. What is /are not symptoms of hypoglycemia A. Sweating B. Hunger C. Polyuria D. Fainting E. Fatigue ANS: C

TIPS: Sweating, dizziness, fainting, fatigue are symptoms of Hypoglycemia. Polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia, neuropathic pains and blurred visions are symptoms of Hyperglycemia.

128. Conversion of T4 to T3 is catalyzed by: A. Tetraiodinase enzyme B. Deiodinase enzyme C. Triiodinase enzyme D. Hydrogenase enzyme E. Iodinase enzyme ANS: B

129. Absorption of Levothyroxine is reduced by?A. Al and Ca antacidsB. Calcium supplementsC. Iron supplementsD. Soya fiberE. All of the aboveANS: E

130. Contraceptive methods that protect STDs such as gonorrhea, syphilis, chlamydiaand AIDS?A. Oral contraceptiveB. CondomsC. Contraceptive spongesD. Vaginal creamE. Plan BANS: B

131. Urinary incontinence is NOT aggravated by:I. FurosemideII. TCAIII. Doxylamine

A. I only D. II and III onlyB. III only E. All of the aboveC. I and II onlyANS: DTIPS: Doxylamine succinate belongs to the Ethanolamine class of anti- histamine that gives anticholinergic side effects such as urinary retention and induce sedation. Furosemide is a diuretic which increases urinary frequency.

132. Importance of Vitamin D in Osteoporosis:I. Increase the absorption of Calcium from the small intestineII. The best Vitamin D analog to treat Osteoporosis is CalcitriolIII. Antacids containing Aluminum and Magnesium may interfere with proper activity of Vitamin D

A. I only D. II and III onlyB. III only E. All are correctC. I and II onlyANS: E

Note: No Q&A for nos. 33, 48 and 49.