Mock Test Paper for AIIMS Test-09 21-5-2018 · 22. In a single slit diffraction pattern, the width of principal maximum is when light of wavelength is 4500 Å. If 3/ 4th of the slit

$Page 1: Mock Test Paper for AIIMS Test-09 21-5-2018 · 22. In a single slit diffraction pattern, the width of principal maximum is when light of wavelength is 4500 Å. If 3/ 4th of the slit$
(1)

PHYSICS

Choose the correct answer :

1. If mass (M), length (L), time (T) and charge (Q) areassumed as fundamental physical quantities, thendimensional formula of self inductance is

(1) [ML2T–2Q–2]

(2) [ML2T0Q–2]

(3) [ML2T–2Q2]

(4) [MLT–2Q–2]

2. Side of a cube is a = 2.12 m, then the value of volumewith precision is

(1) 9.528128 (2) 9.5

(3) 9.53 (4) 9.528

3. A particle is projected at 90° from horizontal such thatit is at same height at t = 6 s and t = 10 s. Then theheight at which body is at t = 12 s is

(1) 80 m (2) 320 m

(3) 240 m (4) 640 m

4. Select the correct statement regarding a particle whosedisplacement varies with time as y = 2sin t – t

(assume SI units)

(1) y – 5.14 m for t 0

(2) Maximum speed of particle vmax

= 0.5 m/s fort 0

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.: 011-47623456

MM : 200 Mock Test Paper for AIIMS Time : 3½ hours.

Complete Syllabus of Class XI & XII

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS :

(i) This paper has 200 objective (Multiple Choice and Assertion-Reason Type) questions from Physics, Chemistry,

Biology, General Knowledge, Aptitude & Logical Thinking.

(ii) Duration of the test is 3½ hours.

(iii) Each correct response will get a score of 1 mark and No credit will be given for the questions not answered.

(iv) Each incorrect response will get a score of –1/3 (minus one-third) and more than one response will be treated as

wrong answer and shall be awarded –1/3 marks.

(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on

Answer sheet.

(3) Acceleration of particle lies between +2 m/s2 and–2 m/s2 for t 0

(4) All of these

5. Three friends (A, B and C) start running from originin such a way that they all lie on a straight linealways. If A starts moving along x-axis withspeed u

A, B along Y-axis with speed u

B and C along

a line Y = X with speed uC, then u

C is

(1)3

A B

A B

u u

u u

(2)2 2

2A B

A B

u u

u u

(3)2 2

3A B

A B

u u

u u

(4)2

( )

A B

A B

u u

u u

(2)

Mock Test Paper for AIIMS-2019 Complete Syllabus Test

6. A projectile is projected with speed u at angle 60°from the ground and a ball is suspended at a heightof 80 m from highest point of trajectory. As theprojectile is projected, at the same time string of ballis cut. If ball collides with the projectile at highestpoint of its trajectory, then u is (g = 10 m/s2)

Y (Vertical)

= 60°X

u

Ball

80 m

(1) 80 m/s (2) 80 3 m/s

(3)80

m/s3

(4) 40 3 m/s

7. A block of mass 10 kg is kept on rough inclined planeas shown in the figure. A force F is applied upwardparallel to inclined plane. Block does not move for Fequal to (g = 10 m/s2)

10

kg

F

30°

3

2

(1) 30 N (2) 25 N

(3) 15 N (4) All of these

8. If the angle of polarisation for any medium is 60° then,the critical angle for this medium is

(1) 1cos 3

(2) 1 1tan

3

(3) 1sin 3

(4) 1 1sin

3

9. A motorcyclist starts from rest and gains velocity v att = 3 s towards north. Then the motorcycle experiencesaverage force (Given that m is mass of motorcycle +motorcyclist) equal to

(1)3

mv, towards north applied by its engine

(2)3

mv , towards north applied by friction

(3) mv, towards south applied by its engine

(4) mv, towards south applied by its friction

10. When a particle collides with other particle, theirmomentum changes. This change in momentum isexplained by

(1) Conservation of mechanical energy

(2) Conservation of mass

(3) Newton’s first law of motion

(4) Newton’s second law of motion

11. A ball of mass 1 kg is dropped from height 10 m fromearth surface as shown in figure. The inclined surfaceis ideal, then what will be the distance from point A topoint on earth surface, where ball will strike?(g = 10 ms–2)

10 m

5 m

A

B

C

45°

m = 1 kg

(1) 10 m (2) 5 m

(3) 10 2 m (4) 5 2 m

12. A hollow hemisphere of mass m and radius R is rotatedabout an axis X-Y passing through centre of mass Cof hemisphere as shown. The moment of inertia aboutthis axis I

XY is

R

X

Y

R

2

C

(1)211

12mR (2)

27

12mR

(3)25

12mR (4)

22

3mR

13. There is a wooden uniform floating plank of length4 m and mass 30 kg. Two men (A and B) of masses40 kg and 60 kg are standing at two ends. If theyinterchange their positions then, centre of mass ofplank moves, through a distance of

A B

(1)4

13 m towards left

(2)4

13 m towards right

(3)8

13 m towards left

(4)8

13 m towards right

(3)

Complete Syllabus Test Mock Test Paper for AIIMS-2019

14. Two particles of equal masses, moving with samespeed along parallel lines are separated byperpendicular distance d. The magnitude of angularmomentum of the system of particles about point

d

r

A

B

r

m v

m v

(1) A is lesser than that about B

(2) B is lesser than that about A

(3) Independent of r

(4) A and B are same

15. Work done by frictional force in pure rolling of solidsphere on rough horizontal surface at rest w.r.t. ground(no external force) is

(1) Positive (2) Negative

(3) Zero (4) All of these

16. For Zener diode which is correct?

(1)A B

(2)A B

(3)A B

(4)A B

17. The function cos2 t represents periodic motion withtime period

(1)2

3

(2)

(3)2

(4)4

18. Displacement (y)-time (t) graph of a particle performingSHM is shown in the figure. The correct displacementequation of the particle is

A

A/2

t2=7 t3=13t (s)

y (m)

(0, 0) t1=1

(1)7

sin6 6

y A t

(2) sin

6 6y A t

(3) sin6 6

y A t

(4)

5sin

6 6y A t

19. A Carnot engine has efficiency 40% when sinktemperature is 127°C. The temperature of source isnearly equal to

(1) 236°C (2) 393°C

(3) 328°C (4) 339ºC

20. If loudness of sound of a barking dog at 4 m is40 dB, then the loudness at 8 m from the dog is(Assume dog to be point source) approximately

(1) 34 dB (2) 26 dB

(3) 24 dB (4) 20 dB

21. A rod AB of length L is lying as shown in figure. PointA is moving with speed v

A. The angular velocity of the

rod at this instant is

L

B

vA

A

(1)2

sinA

v

L(2)

cosA

v

L

(3)2

cosA

v

L(4)

sinA

v

L

22. In a single slit diffraction pattern, the width of principalmaximum is when light of wavelength is 4500 Å. If 3/4th of the slit is covered by opaque material and light ofwavelength 6000 Å is used, then the new width ofprincipal maximum is

(1)5

(2)3

16

(3)5

3 (4)

16

3

23. Two charges of equal magnitude Q and of same natureare kept at points (0, b, 0) and (0, –b, 0). A third chargeq

0 is taken from a point A (0, 0, –c) to another point B

(0, 0, c). The work done by electric field on charge q0

is

(1) Positive (2) Negative

(3) Zero (4) 0

0

1

4 2

Qq

c

24. An electron beam having de-Broglie wavelength hitsthe target in Coolidge tube. The minimum wavelengthof continuous X-ray is

(1) 2

min

mc

h(2)

min 2

2mc

h

(3) min 2

2mc

h(4)

2

min

2mc

h

25. If VP, IP and

p is voltage, current and frequency of

primary side Vs, Is and

s is for secondary side then

which of the following is correct for step up transformer

(1) VP > V

S

(2) IP > I

S

(3) p >

s

(4) Both (1) & (3)

(4)


26. Focal lengths of objective and eyepiece of compoundmicroscope are 3 cm and 5 cm. Length of microscopeis 20 cm when final image is at least distance of distinctvision. The distance of object from objective lens isapproximately

(1) 4.6 cm (2) 3.7 cm

(3) 2.9 cm (4) 1.8 cm

27. When forward biasing of a PN junction diode is changedfrom 0.72 V to 0.8 V, then forward bias current changesfrom 8 mA to 16 mA. The forward bias resistance ofthe diode is

(1) 10 (2) 100 (3) 1000 (4) 1

28. Refractive index of the core of an optical fibre suddenlychanges at core-cladding interface. The optical fibreis known as

(1) Graded index optical fibre

(2) Phase index optical fibre

(3) Step index optical fibre

(4) Core index optical fibre

29. NPN transistor is used as an amplifier in

(1) Active region (2) Cut-off region

(3) Saturation region (4) Both (2) & (3)

30. Water is flowing out from the tap. Let its speed nearthe mouth of cross section 1 cm2 is 100 cm/s. Thenthe cross section of water stream 0.4 m below themouth is (g = 10 ms–2)

(1)1

3 cm2 (2)

2

3 cm2

(3) 1 cm2 (4) 3 cm2

31. Ducting phenomenon is related to

(1) Arry’s disc formation

(2) Newton’s ring formation

(3) Meissner’s effect

(4) Propagation of wave along curvature of earth

32. Which of the following represent the wave intensity ofEM wave?

(1)0

2

E H

� �

(2)2

0

02

B C

(3)2

0 rms

1

2E C (4) Both (2) & (3)

33. An ammeter of range 10 A and resistance 0.3 is tobe converted into a voltmeter of range 30 V, then a

(1) 2.7 resistance should be connected in parallel

(2) 2.7 resistance should be connected in series

(3) 3 resistance should be connected in series

(4) 3 resistance should be connected in parallel

34. Two circular loops are kept so that their centrescoincide and their planes are perpendicular to eachother. If magnetic field due to the two coils at its centresare B and 2B respectively then resultant magnetic fieldat centre will be

(1) 3B (2) B

(3) 3 B (4) 5 B

35. The potential difference between points. A and B

(VA – V

B) in given figure is

6 F 3 F

3 F 6 F

A

B

Q = 10 C

(1)5volt

3(2)

5volt

3

(3)5volt

6 (4)

5volt

6

36. Potential difference between two points in uniformelectric field is 20 volt and separation between the twopoints is 50 cm, then electric field intensity along theline joining two points

(1) Must be 40 V/m

(2) Must be lesser than 40 V/m

(3) May be 40 V/m

(4) Must be greater than 40 V/m

37. Maximum power that can be developed across any5 resistor is 20 W. Then the total maximum powerdeveloped in the system shown is

4 5

5

5

i

(1) 60 W (2) 40 W

(3) 30 W (4) 20 W

38. A charge Q0 is kept at distance r

0 from the centre of a

conducting sphere of radius r (< r0). Select the correct

statement.

Q0 r

r0

(5)


(1) Electric potential due to Q0 at centre of sphere is

0

0 0

1

4

Q

r.

(2) Electric field due to induced charge on sphere atits centre is zero

(3) Net electric potential at centre of sphere is

0

0 0

1

4

Q

r

(4) Both (1) & (3)

39. A uniformly charged ring (charge = Q) of radius R iskept in a sphere as shown. Assume there is no leakageof charge from ring to sphere. The electric flux passingthrough the sphere is

Sphere

Q

R

C2

R

C1

(1) 0

2

Q(2)

03

Q

(3) 0

4

Q(4)

06

Q

40. A point object is placed at a distance 40 cm from aconvex lens of focal length (f = 20 cm) cut into twoparts. Each of which are displaced by 1 mm as shown.The separation between the images is

40 cm

O

f = 20 cm

1 cm

(1) 1 mm (2) 2 mm

(3) 3 mm (4) 4 mm

In the following questions (41 to 60), a statement of

assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R).

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the reasonis the correct explanation of the assertion, thenmark (1).

(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the reasonis not the correct explanation of the assertion, thenmark (2).

(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false,then mark (3).

(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false statements,then mark (4).

41. A : A particle is moving along a straight line, thenmagnitude of displacement is always equal todistance travelled.

R : Distance1

|Displacement| always, whether particle is

moving on straight line or on curved path.

42. A : final initialaveragea

� �

� v v

t.

R : Direction of acceleration is always along thedirection of final velocity.

43. A : Work done by non-conservative force on a body isequal to change in mechanical energy of the body.

R : When non-conservative force acts on a body itsKE is converted into PE.

44. A : A satellite is thrown at 45° from vertical with escapespeed will not goes out of earth gravity.

R : Escape velocity depends on angle of projection.

45. A : When two liquid drops combine to form a big dropthere is release of energy (under isothermalconditions).

R : When smaller drops combine to form a big dropthere is a loss in surface area.

46. A : During free expansion work done by an ideal gasis zero.

R : Free expansion is an adiabatic process.

47. A : Gas molecules exert pressure on wall of containerdue to change in momentum of translatory motiononly.

R : On increasing temperature of a gas in a containerits momentum due to translatory motion does notchange.

48. A : Two particles performing SHM cross each otherat a point midway between mean and extremeposition. They must have phase difference of .

R : Velocity and acceleration of a particle performingSHM are in same phase.

49. A : Resonance is a special case of forced oscillation.

R : In forced oscillation particle oscillates withfrequency of external periodic force.

50. A : When observer approaches a stationary source,wavelength of wave decreases hence frequencyis increased.

R : Doppler’s effect is symmetric in light as well as insound.

51. A : A charged particle cannot be in stable equilibriumin electric field alone.

R : Charge is invariant.

52. A : Electric field inside a current carrying conductoris not zero.

R : In current carrying conductor charges (freeelectrons) are in uniform motion.

(6)


CHEMISTRY

61. MnO2 + HCl MnCl

2 + Cl

2 + H

2O

The number of moles of chlorine gas evolved when1 mole of HCl completely reacts with MnO

2 is

(1) 1 mole (2) 0.50 mole

(3) 2 mole (4) 0.25 mole

62. An explosive having general formula CaH

bN

cO

d, on

decomposition gives CO2, H

2O and N

2 only. What will

be the expression for ‘d’ in terms of a, b and c?

(1)b

d 2a2

(2)2a b

d2

(3)a

d 2b2

(4)a 2b

d2

63. ‘A’, ‘B’, ‘C’ and ‘D’ have the same molecular formula,C

4H

10O. ‘A’ and ‘B’ have more boiling points than ‘C’

and ‘D’. Only ‘A’ can show optical activity, ‘C’ and ‘D’are positional isomers.

Choose the incorrect statement.

(1) ‘A’ is Butan-2-ol

(2) ‘D’ is Ethoxyethane

(3) ‘B’ is primary alcohol

(4) ‘C’ is 2-methoxypropane

64. What is the value of angle strain in the planarstructure of cyclooctatetraene?

(1) 0° (2) 10.5°

(3) 7.5° (4) 5.25°

65. What is the B – B single bond dissociation enthalpyin B

2Cl

4(g), if bond dissociation enthalpy of B – Cl

and Cl – Cl bonds are 443 and 242 kJ/mol?

Given : f 3H BCl g 403 kJ/mol,

f 2 4H B Cl g 489 kJ/mol

53. A : Charged particle is in state of accelerated motioninside cyclotron.

R : Charged particle accelerates only in dees but notin the gap.

54. A : Electric field and magnetic field are self sustaining.

R : EM waves are longitudinal in nature.

55. A : In LCR series circuit when applied angularfrequency is lesser than natural frequency of thecircuit, then current leads voltage.

R : In LCR series resonance circuit, maximum currentin circuit is regulated by reactance of the circuit.

56. A : LC oscillator circuit is used to produceelectromagnetic wave.

R : In LC oscillation energy oscillates between electricfield and magnetic field.

(1) 799 kJ/mol

(2) 327 kJ/mol

(3) 207 kJ/mol

(4) 422.25 kJ/mol

66. Consider the following arrangements of

Pt(py)(NH3)BrCl (where py = pyridine, C

5H

5N)

Pt Pt Pt

Cl Cl pypy Br Cl

H N3

py H N3

Br NH3

Br

(I) (II) (III)

Choose the correct statement.

(1) (I) & (II) are identical

(2) (II) is optically active

(3) (II) & (III) are structural isomers

(4) (I), (II) & (III) are stereoisomers

67.

Br Br

AKCN

EtOH, H O2B

LiAlH , THF

H O

4

3

C.NaNO + HCl

0°C

2

Identify compound ‘C’.

(1)

NH2

CH – OH2

(2)

OH

Br

(3)

Br

CH – NH2 2

(4)

CH – CH3

Br

HO

57. A : Minimum size of a plane mirror needed to formcomplete image of an object is equal to the sizeof the object.

R : Plane mirror always forms virtual image of samesize as of an object.

58. A : A silvered lens always behaves like concave mirror.

R : Power of concave mirror is negative.

59. A : Resolving power of electron microscope is morethan that of optical microscope due to smallerwavelength of electron beam.

R : Davisson and Germer experiment providesexperimental proof for wave nature of electron.

60. A : Zener diode is used as voltage regulator.

R : Potential difference across Zener diode remainsconstant even if current through it varies, when itworks in breakdown region.

(7)


68. Most stable free radical among the following is

(1) CH2

(2)2 2

CH CH – CH

(3) CH3 C

CH3

CH3

(4)3 2

CH – CH

69. Iso-electric point of following amino acid is

HO – C – CH2 – CH – CH – COOH

2

O

(pK = 4.5)a2 NH

+3

(pK = 10)a3

(pK = 2.5)a1

(1) 7.25 (2) 3.5

(3) 6.25 (4) 10.5

70. Consider the following compounds

C2H

5OC

2H

5, C

2H

5OH, HOCH

2CH

2OH, H

2O

I II III IV

The correct order of boiling point is

(1) III > IV > II > I (2) I > III > II > IV

(3) III > II > IV > I (4) I > II > III > IV

71. If uncertainty in momentum of an electron is twice theuncertainty in its position, then uncertainty in itsvelocity would be

(1)h

(2)

1 h

2m

(3)1 h

m 2(4)

1 h

m 72. Which of the following is the correct statement?

(1) Ionisation enthalpy : Be > B > C > O > N

(2) Oxidising power : F > Cl > Br > I

(3) Electron affinity : S > O > Se > Te

(4) Density : Li > Na > K > Rb

73. Which of the following set of chemical species havingsimilar shape?

(1) CH4, SF

4, XeF

4(2) H

2O, NO

2, CO

2

(3) XeF2, I

3

–, 2

NO

(4) XeF

6, SF

6, [PCl

6]–

74. 1 L

A

, 2 L

B

, 4 L

C

Containers A, B and C contain N2 gas at N.T.P. If all

the three gases are put into a container of volume of10 L, at the same temperature, then the pressure ofgaseous mixture in 10 L container will be nearly

(1) 10 atm (2) 7 atm

(3) 0.7 atm (4) 1 atm

75. Oxidation state of Mn in Mn3O

4 is

(1) +4 (2)8

3

(3)3

8 (4) Zero

76. Choose the incorrect statement.

(1) D2O is used as a moderator in nuclear reactors

(2) H2O is better solvent than D

2O

(3) O–D bond energy is more than O–H bond energy

(4) Temperature of maximum density is equal bothfor H

2O and D

2O

77. Aqueous solution of compound ‘A’ shows appearanceof milkiness when CO

2 is passed through it, due to

formation of compound ‘B’. On further passing CO2,

milkiness disappears due to formation of compound‘C’. The compound A, B and C are respectively

(1) CaO, Ca(OH)2, CaCO

3

(2) CaO, CaCO3, Ca(HCO

3)2

(3) Ca(OH)2, Ca(HCO

3)2, CaCO

3

(4) Ca(OH)2, CaO, CaCO

3


(1) Fullerenes are cage-like molecules

(2) Graphite is aromatic in nature

(3) Number of carbon atoms per cubic unit cell ofdiamond is 8

(4) Diamond is thermal insulator

79. The principle involved in chromatography is

(1) Distillation (2) Sublimation

(3) Adsorption (4) Liquation

80. Identify the most stable carboxylate ion

(1) C = C

COO–

H

HOOC H

(2) C = C

COO–

HOOC

H H

(3) H C – C – O3

–

O

(4) CH – C – C – O3

–

H2

O

81. Kjeldahl’s method for the estimation of nitrogencan be used for

(1)N

(2)N

H

(3) CH3 – NO

2(4)

NH2

(8)


82. Which of the following alkene will give only one typeof ketone on reductive ozonolysis?

(1) H – C = C – C – 3C H CH

2 3

CH3

CH3

(2)

(3) CCH

3

CH3

(4)

83. C H CH + Br 'A'.

(major)2 3 2

H – CH – C – 3

CH3

h Identify ‘A’

(1) H – CH – C – 2C H CH

2 3

CH3

Br

(2) H – C – C – 3C H CH

2 3

CH3

Br

(3) H – CH – C – 3C H CH

3

CH3

Br

(4) C H – CH Br2 2

H – CH – C – 3

CH3


(1) BOD is the measure of level of pollution causedby organic biodegradable material.

(2) Low value of BOD indicates that water containsless organic matter.

(3) Ozone prevents harmful UV radiations of the Sunfrom reaching to the earth’s surface.

(4) As per international standards tolerable limit forsulphates in payable water is 1000 ppm.

85. The number of tetrahedral voids present on diagonalsper unit cell in cubic close packing is

(1) 1 (2) 2

(3) 4 (4) 8

86. Gold crystallises in the cubic close packing. If thedensity of gold is 19.3 g/cm3, then what fraction ofthe volume of the unit cell is occupied by gold atoms?

(1)2

6

(2)

6

(3)3

6

(4)

2 2

6

87. If difference in boiling point and freezing point of onemolal aqueous solution of CH

3COOH is 103.57°C,

then what is the degree of dissociation of CH3COOH?

[Kb = 0.52 K molal–1, K

f = 1.86 K molal–1]

(1) 100% (2) 50%

(3) 40% (4) 80%

88. The reduction electrode potential of hydrogen electrodein a solution of pH = 10, is

(1) – 0.591 V (2) + 0.591 V

(3) – 0.2955 V (4) + 0.2955 V

89. In the following reaction, 1

2

k

2 2 4k

2NO N O ,��⇀↽�� the rate

of disappearance of NO2 is equal to

(1) 2k1[NO

2]2 – 2k

2[N

2O

4]

(2) k1[NO

2]2 – k

2[N

2O

4]

(3) 2k1[NO

2] – 2k

2[N

2O

4]2

(4) k1[NO

2] – k

2[N

2O

4]2

90. Which of the following electrolytes will have maximumcoagulation power for AgI/Ag sol?

(1) Na3PO

4(2) K

2CO

3

(3) MnSO4

(4) K4[Fe(CN)

6]

91. Copper matte consists of

(1) Cu2S & Cu

2O (2) CuO & Cu

2S

(3) Cu2S & FeS (4) CuO & FeO

92. Select the incorrect statement.

(1) Hydrolysis of XeF6 is a redox reaction.

(2) Noble gases have very low boiling points.

(3) Fe reacts with dilute HCl forms FeCl2 not FeCl

3.

(4) Bond angle in 4

PH is higher than that in PH

3.

93.CH

3

Br

K [OC(CH ) ]

3 3

–

'X'.(major)

Identify ‘X’.

(1)

CH3

(2)

CH3

(3)

CH3

(4)

94. Identify the final product ‘D’ in the following reactionsequence.

32 NHH O/HKCN

2 5C H Cl A B C D

(1) C – CH NH2 2

H – C – 3

O

(2) C NH2

H – C – 3

O

(3) CH3CH

2CH

2 – NH

2

(4) C2H

5NH

2

(9)


95. C H H C H6 2 2 2 5H – C – C – N –

5

CH3

CH

H C3

CH3

OH–

Products.

Identify the major product.

(1) CH2 = CH

2(2) CH

3 – CH = CH

2

(3) H – C = 3C CH

2

CH3

(4) C6H

5 – CH = CH

2

96. C H O A B C Blue colouration4 10

P + I2

AgNO2

HNO2

alkali

(A)

The IUPAC name of A is

(1) 2-methylpropanol

(2) Butan-1-ol

(3) Butan-2-ol

(4) Ethoxyethane

97. Lactose on hydrolysis gives

(1) -D-galactose & -D-glucose





(1) Amylose is water soluble.

(2) Starch does not reduce Fehling’s solution.

(3) Cellulose does not form osazone.

(4) Cellulose is a branched chain polysaccharidecomposed of -D-glucose units.

99. The chemical used in controlling depression andhypertension is

(1) Equanil (2) Ibuprofen

(3) Aspirin (4) Biothional

100. Repeating unit of Nylon-6 is

(1) ( C – (CH ) – N )2 4

O H

(2) ( C – (CH ) – N )2 5

O H

(3) ( C – (CH ) – C )2 4

O O

(4) ( N – (CH ) – N )2 5

H H

In the following questions (101 to 120), a statement

of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of

reason (R).

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and thereason is the correct explanation of the assertion,then mark (1).

(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but thereason is not the correct explanation of theassertion, then mark (2).

(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false,then mark (3).

(4) If both Assertion and Reason are falsestatements, then mark (4).

101. A : Molarity and molality of water is same at 4°C.

R : For water molarity is volume-independent.

102. A : Completely filled and half-filled orbitals have extrastability.

R : Energy of electron is determined by the value ofn in H-atom and by (n + l ) in multielectron atoms.

103. A : Metallic character decreases on moving from leftto right in period of periodic table.

R : Ionisation enthalpy increases on moving left toright in periodic table.

104. A : Bond angle in dimethyl ether is more than thatin H

2O.

R : More repulsion between –CH3 groups in dimethyl

ether than between H-atoms in H2O.

105. A : Water boils at low temperature on hills.

R : At high altitudes atmospheric pressure is low.

106. A : H is the only contributory factors in decidingspontaneity.

R : H = –ve, means process is alwaysspontaneous.

107. A : 2

4MnO

undergoes disproportionation reaction in

acidic medium but 4

MnO does not.

R : Oxidation numbers of Mn in 2

4MnO

and 4

MnO

are +5 and +7 respectively.

108. A : Bond dissociation energy of dihydrogen is lessthan dideuterium.

R : D2O is used as coolant in nuclear reactor.

109. A :

(A)

is an aromatic compound.

R : In (A), out of 8 electrons, it has 6 electrons inone ring following Huckel rule.

110. A : CFCs are stable compounds.

R : CFCs undergo decomposition in presence of UVradiation in the stratosphere.

(10)


111. A : LiCl acquires pink colour when heated with Livapours.

R : On heating LiCl with Li vapours, formation ofF-centers takes place.

112. A : Camphor is preferred solvent for molecular massdetermination by Rast method.

R : Camphor has large value of Kf.

113. A : Fluorine cannot be obtained by electrolysis ofaqueous HF solution.

R : H2O has higher oxidation potential than F ions.

114. A : SF6 is known but SH

6 is not known.

R : F–F bond energy is less than H–H bond energy.

115. A : Cu+ ion is not stable in aqueous solution.

R : The reaction 2Cu+(aq) Cu2+(aq) + Cu isspontaneous.

116. A : [Ni(CO)4] has tetrahedral geometry whereas

[Ni(CN)4]2– has square planar geometry.

R : CO is stronger ligand than CN–.

117. A : Aliphatic aldehydes are more reactive towardsnucleophilic addition reactions than aliphaticketones.

R : Aldehydes on oxidation give acid with one carbonless.

118. A : Vitamin C cannot be stored in our body.

R : Vitamin C is water soluble.

119. A : Enzymes are polymers.

R : Enzymes are highly specific catalysts.

120. A : Aspirin helps in the prevention of heart attack.

R : Diabetic patients are advised to take artificialsweeteners instead of natural sweeteners.

BIOLOGY

121. Taxonomical aid used for identification of plants andanimals known as keys are

(1) Based on set of contrasting characters generallyin pair called lead

(2) Generally analytical in nature

(3) Same for different taxonomic categories

(4) Applicable for identification of genus andspecies level categories only

122. Select odd one w.r.t. sac fungi.

(1) Can be parasitic, decomposers or coprophilous

(2) Sexual spores are produced endogenously

(3) Exhibits prolonged dikaryophase

(4) Asexual spores are exogenous and are formedon conidiophores

123. Viruses did not find a place in five kingdom systemof classification as

(1) They are obligate intracellular parasites

(2) They do not possess a well defined nucleus

(3) They are non-cellular organisms and arecristallized inside the living cell

(4) They lack their own energy system and cellularmachinery

124. Zygote does not undergo meiotic divisionimmediately in all of the following, except

(1) Some spermatophytes

(2) Vascular cryptogams

(3) Archegoniate embryophytes

(4) Many non-archegoniate thallophytes

125. Bisexual pedicellate flowers arising laterally on bothsides of inflorescence axis in such a manner thatthe flowers lie at same level, this represents ______type inflorescence.

(1) Umbel

(2) Corymb

(3) Raceme

(4) Catkin

126. During the formation of the primary plant body, themeristem which produces dermal tissues, groundtissues and vascular tissues is

(1) Interfascicular cambium

(2) Apical meristem

(3) Lateral meristem

(4) Secondary meristem

127. Select incorrect statement w.r.t. cytoplasm.

(1) Main arena of cellular activities

(2) Site of chemical reactions that keeps the cell inliving state

(3) Consists of membrane-bound organelles in alltypes of cells

(4) Shows movement around a vacuole known ascyclosis

128. Formation of bivalents in reductional phase ofmeiosis is accompanied by

(1) Synaptonemal complex

(2) Recombinase

(3) Condensin protein

(4) Recombination nodule

(11)


129. Nitrate assimilation is

(1)3 2

NH NO

(2) N2 NH

3

(3)3 2 3

NO NO NH

(4) –

3 2 2NO NO N

130. Water splitting complex in plants

(1) Is associated with PS II

(2) Is located towards the inner side of thylakoidmembrane

(3) Plays a role in developing proton gradientacross outer membrane of the chloroplast

(4) Both (1) and (2)

131. Find odd one w.r.t. pollen grains in angiosperms.

(1) Exine at certain places may not havesporopollenin

(2) Represents a male gametophyte

(3) In 40% of angiospermic families, pollen grainshave two male gametes before pollen grains areshed

(4) The vegetative cell is bigger and has a smallirregularly shaped nucleus

132. Recessive traits of an organism are due to

(1) Formation of non-functional enzymes

(2) Formation of fully efficient enzymes

(3) Synthesis of no enzyme at all

(4) Both (1) and (3)

133. Promoter region in a transcription unit is situated at

(1) 5 end upstream of coding strand

(2) 3 end downstream of sense strand

(3) 3 end upstream of non-template strand

(4) 5 end downstream of antisense strand

134. Males and females have same number ofchromosomes in gametes in case of

(1) Humans

(2) Grasshopper

(3) Butterflies

(4) Dioscorea

135. In prokaryotes, regulation of gene expression

(1) Does not occurs only at translational level

(2) Predominately occurs at transcription level

(3) Is not under the effect of metabolic,environmental and physiological condition of thecell or organism

(4) Occurs by repressor proteins synthesized onlyby non-constitutive gene of operon

136. Transition in the phases of life cycle in organisms is

(1) Not affected by environmental factors

(2) Associated with behavioural expressions oforganisms

(3) Affected by hormones synthesized at differentstages of life span

(4) Both (2) and (3)

137. Vegetable crop that has been enriched with Fe, Caand vitamin C by IARI under biofortificationprogramme is

(1) Spinach

(2) Bathua

(3) Bittergourd

(4) Pumpkin

138. Choose incorrect statement w.r.t. Trichoderma.

(1) Effective against several plant pathogens

(2) Free-living fungus and commonly found in rootecosystems

(3) Can control population of insects, pests only

(4) Belongs to class deuteromycetes

139. Two closely related species competing for the sameresources cannot co-exist indefinitely and thecompetitively inferior one will be eventuallyeliminated. Such an interaction is examplified by

(1) Exclusion of Chathamalus by Balanus on rockysea coasts of Scotland

(2) Exclusion of Paramecium aurelia byP. caudatum

(3) Experiments of Mac Arthur with five closely relatedspecies of warblers living on the same tree

(4) Competition for the food between visitingflamingoes and resident fishes in Americanlakes

140. Choose incorrect statement(s) w.r.t. GFC.

(1) Major conduit for energy flow in aquaticecosystem

(2) Less energy flow through it than DFC interrestrial ecosystem

(3) Heterotrophs are not a part of GFC

(4) Both (1) and (2)

141. If we had a two chambered heart (one atrium andone ventricle) with the vena cava entering the atriumand the aorta leaving the ventricle, which of thefollowing would be true?

(1) The blood would be unable to carry food to thecells

(2) No oxygen would reach the cells

(3) There would be no circulation in body

(4) No blood would reach the head and neck

(12)


142. Which junctions provide passage large enough topermit small substances such as ions to pass fromthe cytoplasm of one cell to that of the next yetsmall enough to prevent the passage of largermolecules such as proteins?

(1) Tight junctions

(2) Gap junctions

(3) Anchoring junctions

(4) Adhering junctions

143. Both Fehling’s and Benedict’s reagents containcopper sulphate in alkaline state. These tests areroutinely conducted in pathological laboratories tofind out the presence of sugar in samples. All thefollowing molecules give positive tests, except

(1) Glucose (2) Trehalose

(3) Maltose (4) Lactose

144. The exact sequence of amino acids in a primarystructure of protein can be determined by

a. Type of bonds between amino acids.

b. Nucleotide sequence of the part of DNA strand,which codes for the protein.

c. Function performed by protein

d. Testing for ninhydrin and performing biuret test

(1) b only

(2) c & d only

(3) a, c & d

(4) a, b & c

145. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is maintained in all of thefollowing conditions, for a large population, except in

(1) Absence of natural selection

(2) Absence of genetic drift

(3) Absence of gene flow

(4) Presence of non-random mating

146. Rasping organ radula is not associated with

(1) Teredo

(2) Pila

(3) Octopus

(4) Dentalium

147. In which of the following option’s, examples areincorrectly matched with their respective type ofimmunological barrier?

(1) Saliva in mouth, tears in eyes – Physiologicalbarrier

(2) Mucus coating of epithelium lining urinogenitaltract – Physical barrier

(3) PMNL, Natural killer cells – Cellular barriers

(4) Antitetanus injection, Antivenom injection –artificially acquired active immunity

148. Which of these is not a function of humanendoskeleton?

(1) Mineral storage

(2) Protection of underlying tissue

(3) Storing haemopoietic tissue

(4) Synthesis of erythropoietin

149. Which of the following parts of nephron do not

reabsorb water under any condition?

(1) PCT

(2) DCT

(3) Descending limb of loop of Henle

(4) Ascending limb of loop of Henle

150. Which gland produces hormones that supplementthe sex hormones of the gonads?

(1) Pituitary gland (2) Adrenal cortex

(3) Adrenal medulla (4) Hypothalamus

151. At birth, the primary oocytes are in a resting stageand will not develop any further until they aretriggered by ______ hormone released from ______gland.

(1) GHRH, Hypothalamus

(2) LH, Pituitary

(3) Estrogen, Ovary

(4) FSH, Pituitary

152. Which of the following organism(s) neither has truenotochord nor the vertebral column in the adultstage?

(1) Branchiostoma (2) Balanoglossus

(3) Herdmania (4) Both (2) & (3)

153. Given below is a diagrammatic representation ofconnective tissue.

Collagen fibre

Choose the correct option and its location.

(1) Dense regular – Tendon

(2) White fibrous cartilage – Ligament

(3) Dense irregular – Skin

(4) Yellow elastic cartilage – Pinna

(13)


154. Sexual dimorphism in cockroach can be establishedbased on

(1) Presence of 1 pair of antennae on thorax andother on head

(2) Presence of 1 pair of anal styles on 9th sternumof male

(3) Presence of anal cerci on 10th tergite in bothmale and female

(4) Both (2) and (3)

155. Which of the following reactions prevailing in redblood cells travelling through alveolar capillaries?

(1) Hb + 4O2 Hb(O

2)4

(2) Hb + (O2)4 Hb + 4O

2

(3) CO2 + H

2O H

2CO

3

(4) Hb + 4CO2 Hb(CO

2)4

156. Which period is the main period of organogenesisduring which embryo is most susceptible to damageby radiations or drugs?

(1) 2nd trimester

(2) 1st trimester

(3) Final trimester

(4) Both (1) & (3)

157. What is the ploidy and fate of unfertilised eggs ofApis?

(1) Haploid and drones

(2) Diploid and drones

(3) Haploid and worker bees

(4) Diploid and future queen bee

158. Identify the following molecular structure and find thestatement not suitable to it.

O

H

OH

(1) These chemicals interact with cannabinoidreceptors in CNS

(2) They are obtained from the inflorescence of theplant Cannabis sativa

(3) They affect cardiovascular system of the body

(4) Different drugs like hashish, charas, smack,ganja belong to this category

159. Typhoid pathogen, Salmonella typhi generally entersinto body through

(1) Air

(2) Contaminated food and water

(3) Bite of female Anopheles

(4) Bite of female Culex mosquito

160. Biopiracy means

(1) Use of biopatents

(2) Thefts of plants and animals

(3) Stealing of bioresources with legal permission

(4) Exploitation of bioresources without authenticpermission

In the following questions (161 to 180), a statement of

assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R).

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and thereason is the correct explanation of theassertion, then mark (1).

(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but thereason is not the correct explanation of theassertion, then mark (2).

(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason isfalse, then mark (3).

(4) If both Assertion and Reason are falsestatements, then mark (4).

161. A : Western Ghats have greater amphibian speciesdiversity than the Eastern Ghats.

R : Species diversity does not depend upon speciesrichness and species evenness.

162. A : Habitat loss and fragmentation is the mostimportant cause driving animals and plants toextinction.

R : Mammals and birds requiring large territoriesare badly affected leading to population decline.

163. A : BOD at the source of sewage discharge ismaximum.

R : BOD is measure to estimate the amount ofinorganic matter in sewage water.

164. A : Biological enrichment of lake causes naturalaging or eutrophication.

R : Nitrogen and phosphorus enriched nutrientsincrease fertility of lakes.

165. A : Collection of variability is the root of anybreeding programme.

R : Selection of desired parents are done in thewild relatives of the crop only.

166. A : Evolution of C4 photosynthesis is probably to

minimize water loss.

R : In C4 plants all cells are arranged, to the leaf

surface to increase the surface area.

167. A : Cellulose microfibrils in guard cells are orientedlongitudinally.

R : It plays no significant role in stomatal opening.

168. A : Deficiency symptoms vary from element toelement.

R : Deficiency symptoms of calcium are firstobserved in young leaves.

(14)


181. The abbreviation “IPPB” stands for

(1) International policy and partnership Bureau

(2) Indin police planning Bureau

(3) India post payments Bank

(4) International post payments Bank

182. National nutrition month was celeberated in which ofthe following month in 2018?

(1) January (2) March

(3) April (4) September

183. “VOSTOK 2018” is a term which was in news in recenttimes, is related to which of the following field?

(1) Sports

(2) Music

169. A : The number of ATP molecules synthesizeddepends upon nature of electron donor inmitochondrial ETS.

R : Number of ATP molecules synthesized dependsupon pumping of protons from matrix to inter-membrane space.

170. A : Abscisic acid is growth inhibitor hormone.

R : ABA causes destruction of chlorphyll.

171. A : Palindromic sequence recognised by differentrestriction enzymes is unique and they yielddifferent sized DNA fragments in different sourceDNA.

R : Endonucleases always cut a particular basesequence the same way, no matter what is thesource of DNA molecule it is acting on.

172. A : Mutations and natural selection are importantfactors that drive the process of evolution.

R : Changes due to mutation are sources ofvariations and natural selection operates onthese variations.

173. A : Symmetry of an animal is generally inaccordance with its lifestyle.

R : Sessile animals have radial symmetry whichequips them to meet the environment equallywell from all sides whereas, bilaterally symmetricanimals move actively from place to place.

174. A : Blood that leaves the liver may have a verydifferent nutrient balance sheet than blood thatentered the liver via hepatic portal vein.

R : Liver can interconvert, store and assimilate manyorganic molecules.

175. A : HIV is effectively be transmitted by actions orpractices that involve exchange of blood or bodyfluid between people.

R : AIDS is a congenital disease caused by HIVthat is present in the blood or some body fluids.

176. A : Most of the preganglionic axons inparasympathetic nervous system are longer thanthat of sympathetic nervous system.

R : Neurotransmitter at preganglionic fibre in bothsympathetic and parasympathetic system isacetylcholine.

177. A : Inbreeding is a type of random mating.

R : It results in increased heterozygosity in apopulation.

178. A : Some organisms do not move from place toplace, but due to sudden changes in theenvironment their population occasionally getsdrastically reduced in size.

R : These resultant alterations and loss of geneticvariability has been termed as founder’s effect.

179. A : Amniocentesis reveals the baby’s gender, andother important information for the diagnosis ofgenetic disorders.

R : Amniocentesis involves withdrawing some of theamniotic fluid that bathes the developing foetusand analysing the foetal cells and dissolvedsubstances present in it.

180. A : Gastrointestinal plexus (Auerbach’s andMeissner’s) play important role in functioning ofgastrointestinal tract.

R : These plexus mostly control G.I. tract motilityand secretions of its glands respectively.

(2) Space Science

(4) Military Exercise

184. On which of the following day, National Doctor’s Dayin India is celeberated?

(1) 1st July

(2) 2nd July

(2) 3rd July

(4) 4th July

185. In which of the following country, International WomenEntrepreneurs Summit 2018 was held?

(1) India

(2) China

(2) Nepal

(4) Bangladesh

GENERAL KNOWLEDGEGENERAL KNOWLEDGEGENERAL KNOWLEDGEGENERAL KNOWLEDGEGENERAL KNOWLEDGE

(15)


186. In which of the following country, world’s first lion cubwas born via artificial insemination?

(1) Australia

(2) Nepal

(2) South Africa

(4) India

187. India’s first ever global mobility summit has beenorganized by which of the following institution?

(1) NITI Aayog

(2) Prime Minister’s Office

(3) Ministry of Defence

(4) Ministry of Tourism

188. On which of the following day, international humansolidarity day is celebrated?

(1) 20th December

(2) 10th December

Directions (Q.191 to Q.195) : Read the given information

carefully and answer the following questions.

In a group of five students P, Q, R, S and T, P and S are

good in Maths and Chemistry. Q and R are good in

Chemistry and Biology. S and T are good in Biology. R

and T are good in English. P, Q and T are good in

Physics.

191. Who is good in Chemistry, Biology and English?

(1) P (2) Q

(3) S (4) R

192. Who is good in Chemistry, Biology and Physics?

(1) P (2) S

(3) Q (4) T

193. How many students like/s English?

(1) 1 (2) 2

(3) 3 (4) 4

194. Who is not good in Physics?

(1) R (2) P

(3) T (4) Q

195. In which subject exactly 3 students are good?

(1) Maths

(2) Biology

(3) Physics

(4) Chemistry

Directions (Q.196) : Find the water image in the following

question.

196.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

197. If 1st December, 2018 was Saturday, then1st January, 2019 was

(1) Saturday

(2) Sunday

(3) Monday

(4) Tuesday

(3) 11th December

(4) 12th December

189. Who among the following has recently written book

“Changing India”?

(1) Asma Jahangir

(2) Roopam Sharma

(3) Manmohan singh

(4) Radha Mohan Singh

190. Which of the following country has recently declared

2019 as Year of Tolerance?

(1) USA

(2) UAE

(3) Australia

(4) India

APTITUDE & LOGICAL THINKINGAPTITUDE & LOGICAL THINKINGAPTITUDE & LOGICAL THINKINGAPTITUDE & LOGICAL THINKINGAPTITUDE & LOGICAL THINKING

(16)


��

Directions (Q.198 to Q.199) : Read the given information

and answer the following questions.

In a class test the rank of Anish is 15th from the top and6 rank before Shveta. Neha is ranked exactly between theAnish and Shveta. Indu is ranked 2nd from the top and35th from the last. Vishal is ranked 20 rank after theIndu.

198. The total number of students in the class is

(1) 37

(2) 35

(3) 34

(4) 36

199. The rank of Shveta from the top is

(1) 22nd

(2) 20th

(3) 21st

(4) 19th

200. If VICTORY is coded as YLFWRUB, how canSUCCESS be coded?

(1) VXEEIVV

(2) VXFFHVV

(3) VYEEHVV

(4) VYEEIVV

Documents

Mock Test Paper for AIIMS Test-09 21-5-2018 · 22. In a single slit diffraction pattern, the width of principal maximum is when light of wavelength is 4500 Å. If 3/ 4th of the slit