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Mock Test -3GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
All questions carry one mark each. Since all questions are compulsory do not try to read through the
whole question paper before beginning to answer it. Begin with the first question and keep on trying one question after another till you finish.
If you do not know the answer to any question, do not spend much time on it and pass on to the next one. Time permitting you can come back to the questions which you have left in the first instance and try them again.
Since the time allotted is very short you should makes best use of it.
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Directions (1 to 3): Find the missing terms:
1. 17Z5, 15X4, 13V3, ?, 9R1.(a) 11S1 (b) 11U2 (c) 11S2 (d) 11T2
2. 94, 166, 258, ?, 4912(a) 3610 (b) 370 (c) 2480 (d) 3280
3. MEH, QIK, UON, YUQ, ?(a) CAT (b) CET (c) CCT (d) CUT
Direction (4): Find the wrong term:
4. 1, 3, 8, 19, 42, 88, 184(a) 8 (b) 19 (c) 42 (d) 88
Directions (5 to 6): Which sequence of letters when placed at the blank one after the other will complete the give letter series?
5. _bcc _ ac _ aabb _ ab _ cc(a) aabca (b) abaca (c) bacab (d) bcaca
6. aab_ aaa_bba_(a) bba (b) abb (c) bab (d) aab
Directions (7 to 10): Find the missing terms in the given figures.
7. 60
3
6
2 4 40
2
4
1 3 ?
20
3
15 9
(a) 235 (b) 141 (c) 144 (d) 188
8. 18 65 ?5 7 93 5 6
4 3 5(a) 112 (b) 92 (c) 82 (d) 102
PART I
MAT (Mental Ability Test)
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d 9. 13 ? 26
9 6 8
7 8 252 9 11
5 4 18(a) 72 (b) 18 (c) 17 (d) 19
10. C26
2
34
5
E60
4
510
4
D68
8
?6
6(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
11. If MATCH is coded as NCWGM and BOX as CQA, then OQWIGUVS is encoded for what?(a) NOTEBOOK (b) NOTEBOKE (c) NOTFBOPE (d) MOKEBOOT
12. In a certain code ‘345’ means ‘Veer is gentle’; ‘599’ means ‘Veer kind hearted’ and ‘126’ means ‘Kanchan also good’, then which digit is that code represents ‘Gentle’?(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) cannot be determined
13. If the following words are arranged as found in the dictionary, then what will be the fourth letter from the left in the last word ?
INTIMATION, INFORMATION, INTEREST, INTERROGATION, INSTIGATION(a) R (b) O (c) T (d) I
14. In the given alternatives, find the word which cannot be formed by using the letters of the word ‘RAPPROCHEMENT’.(a) REPRESENT (b) REPROACH (c) PHANTOM (d) CEMENT
15.
(a) 690 (b) 689 (c) 780 (d) 789 16. If ‘+’ means ‘×’, ‘×’ means ‘–’, ‘–’ means ‘÷’ and ‘÷’ means ‘+’ ,then 18 ÷ 4 +
3 × 2 – 2 = ?(a) 45 (b) 48 (c) 29 (d) 39
Directions (17 to 21): Study the given information carefully and answer the questions that follow. There are four people sitting in a row: one each from India, Japan, USA and Germany, but not in that order. I. They are wearing caps of different colours: green, yellow, red and white,
not necessarily in that order. II. One is wearing a kurta and one a T-shirt. III. The Indian is wearing a green cap and a jacket. IV. The American is not seated at either end.
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V. The persons with kurta and T-shirt are sitting next to each other. VI. The persons with kurta wear a red cap and sits next to the Japanese. VII. The Japanese wears a short and is not seated at either end. VIII. The man with white cap wears T-shirt and is seated at one end.
17. Who wears the T-shirt?(a) Indian (b) Japanese (c) American (d) German
18. Who is wearing a kurta?(a) Indian (b) Japanese (c) American (d) German
19. What is the colour of the cap worn by the Japanese?(a) Red (b) Green (c) Yellow (d) White
20. Who is next to the man wearing T-shirt?(a) Indian (b) Japanese (c) American (d) German
21. Who precedes the man wearing jacket?(a) Indian (b) German (c) Japanese (d) Cannot say
Directions (22 to 23): Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Five friends Nitin, Reema, Jai, Deepti and Ashutosh are playing a game of crossing the roads. In the beginning, Nitin, Reema and Ashutosh are on the one side of the road and Deepti and Jai are on the other side. At the end of the game, it was found that Reema and Deepti are on the one side and Nitin, Jai and Ashutosh are on the other side of the road. Rules of the games are as follows: I. One ‘movement’ means only one person crosses the road from any side to
the other side. II. No two persons can cross the road simultaneously from any side to the
other side. III. Two persons from the same side of the roads cannot move in consecutive
‘movements’. IV. If one person crosses the road in a particular movement, he or she cannot
immediately move back to the other side. V. Jai and Reema did not take part in first 3 movements.
22. What is the minimum possible number of movements that took place in the entire game?(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 5
23. If number of movements are minimized in the game, than which of the follow-ing combination of friends can never be together on one particular side of the road during the course of the game?(a) Nitin, Reema and Deepti (b) Nitin, Jai and Deepti (c) Deepti, Jai and Ashutosh (d) Ashutosh, Nitin and Deepti
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24. P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting on a bench facing south. P and V always sit together. U has as many persons to his left as Q has to his right and both of them don’t sit together. T and W sit at the ends and none of them have U or Q as their neighbours. R does not want to sit with U. How many persons sit between S and Q?(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) Cannot be determined
25. In Nishant is the brother of Brijesh, Mitali is the sister of Nishant; Jai is the brother of Purnima; Purnima is the daughter of Brijesh. Who is the uncle of Jai?(a) Brijesh (b) Mitali (c) Nishant (d) Purnima
26. A man proceeding to the north turns to the right. After some time he takes a turn to the left and again to the left. Then he goes to his right and after some distance again turns towards his right. The direction in which he is now moving is(a) West (b) South (c) North (d) East
Directions (27 to 28): In each of the following questions, there are two terms to the left of the sign :: which are related in some way. Obtain the some relationship between the term to the right of the sign :: from one of the four alternatives give under it.
27. Rectangle : Square :: Ellipse : ?(a) Centre (b) Diameter (c) Circle (d) Radius
28. Thermometer : degree :: Clock : ?(a) Wall (b) Tower (c) Hour (d) Cock
Directions (29 to 30): Find the word/group/numbers which is different from the others.
29. (a) 4, 6, 10, 7 (b) 4, 12, 20, 28(c) 1, 3, 5, 7 (d) 2, 6, 10, 14
30. (a) Mercury (b) Venus (c) Pluto (d) Moon 31. Which of the alternatives indicates the correct relationship between _____? Doctors, Nurse, Human being
(a) (b) (c) (d) 32. Sanjay left home for the bus stop 15 minutes earlier than usual. It takes 10
minutes to reach the stop. He reached the stop at 1.40 a.m. What time does he usually leave home for the bus stop?(a) 1.40 a.m. (b) 1.45 a.m. (c) 1.55 a.m. (d) Data inadequate
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Direction (33): In each of the following questions, a figure series is given, out of which the last figure is missing. Find which one would complete the series.
33.
Direction (34): In each of the following questions, there is some relationship between the figures A and B of problem figures. The same relationship exists between the figure C and one of the four alternatives (a), (b), (c) and (d), choose that figure.
34.
Direction (35): Choose the figure which is different from the others.
35.
Directions (36 to 37): Choose the correct mirror-image of the figure (x) from amongst the four alternatives (a), (b), (c) and (d) given along with it.
36.
37. T3S4P5H6
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Direction (38): Choose amongst the four alternatives which most nearly resembles the water image of the given questions.
38. 5DOB6V2
39. Complete the given figure
Direction (40): In each of the following problems, group the given figures into three classes using each figure only once.
40.
(a) 1, 2, 3; 4, 5, 8; 6, 7, 9 (b) 1, 5, 6; 2, 3, 4; 7, 8, 9 (c) 1, 3, 5; 2, 4, 8; 6, 7, 9 (d) 1, 4, 7; 2, 5, 8; 3, 6, 9
Direction (41): In each one of the following questions find from amongst the four response figures, the one which resembles the pattern formed when the transparent sheet, carrying a design is folded along the dotted line.
41.
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Direction (42): Each of the following question, there are three figures marked X, Y, Z showing one fold in X, another fold in Y and a cut in Z. From amongst the answer figures, a, b, c and d select the one showing the unfolded position of Z.
Direction (46): In each of the following question, select a figure from amongst the four alternatives, which when placed in the blank space of figure (X) would complete the pattern.
42.
Direction (43): From amongst the figures marked (a), (b), (c) and (d), select the figure which satisfies the same conditions of placement of dots as in figure (X) in question.
43.
44. How many rectangles are there in the following figure?
(a) 8 (b) 17 (c) 16 (d) 18
Direction (45): In each of the following questions, complete the missing portion of the given pattern (X) by selecting from the given alternatives (a), (b), (c) and (d).
45.
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46.
Directions (47): In each of the following question, fond our which of the answer figures (a), (b), (c) and (d) completes the figure matrix ?Directions (47): In each of the following question, fond our which of the answer figures (a), (b), (c) and (d) completes the figure matrix ?Direction (47): In each of the following question, fond our which of the answer figures (a), (b), (c) and (d) completes the figure matrix?
47.
48. Three sequences of letters/numerals are given which correspond to each other in some way. In question, you have to find out the letters/numerals that come in the vacant places marked by (?).
_ A D A C B _ _ B D C C1 3 _ _ 1 2 4 2 _ _ _ _a _ _ b _ _ c d ? ? ? ?
(a) dbaa (b) bacc (c) acdd (d) dcaa
49. Direction (94): In each of the following questions, there are two terms to the left of the sign :: which are related in some way. Obtain the same relation-ship between the term to the right of the sign :: from one of the four alterna-tives given under it.
Acting : Theatre :: Gambling : ?(a) Hotel (b) Lodge (c) Casino (d) Home
Direction (50): Question based on the following alphabet-series: A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
50. If the above alphabet is written in the reverse order, which will be the eighth letter to the right of O?(a) W (b) G (c) D (d) V
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PART II
SAT (English)Directions (1 to 9): Read the passage and answer the questions given below:On Monday, Robert works at the bank. He plants three bushes. He plants eight yellow flowers. He plants three trees. On Tuesday, Robert works at the school. He plants five red flowers. He digs a hole with a shovel. On Wednesday, Robert works at the hospital. He plants twelve bushes. On Thursday, Robert works at the school. He plants two trees. He plants sixteen white flowers. He digs four holes with a shovel. On Friday, Robert works at the grocery store. He plants two bushes. He plants one tree.
1. Where does Robert work on Wednesday?a. at the hospital b. at the schoolc. at the grocery store d. none of these
2. What does Robert do on Tuesday?a. He plants twelve purple bushes. b. He plants five red flowers and digs a hole with a shovel.c. He plants two trees, plants sixteen white flowers, and digs four holes with
a shovel.d. none of these
3. How many holes does Robert dig during the week?a. one b. threec. five d. none of these
4. How many yellow flowers does Robert plant?a. five b. eightc. sixteen d. none of these
5. How many bushes does Robert plant during the week?a. twelve b. fifteen c. seventeen d. none of these
6. Where does Robert plant white flowers?a. at the bank b. at the schoolc. at the hospital d. none of these
7. Robert works at the school on I. Tuesday II. ThursdayIII. Fridaya. I only b. I and II onlyc. I, II, and III d. none of these
8. Robert plants bushes at the I. bank II. hospitalIII. grocery store
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a. I only b. I and II only c. I, II, and III d. none of these
9. Based on information in the passage, we can understand that Robert is aa. doctor b. teacher c. landscaper d. none of these
Directions (10 to 17): Read the passage and answer the questions given below:Christmas is my favorite holiday. My grandmother makes ham, salad, and cupcakes on Christmas. I also get a present on Christmas! Last year I got a new set of paint brushes. This year I hope to get new pencils and a drawing pad. I always have fun on Christmas.
Halloween is another good holiday. My grandmother makes candy corn and cupcakes on Halloween. People wear costumes during Halloween. Last year I wore a skeleton costume. This year I am going to wear a zombie costume.
July 4 is a good holiday. July 4 is the birthday of the United States of America. My grandmother makes hot dogs and salad on July 4. I don’t have to go to school on July 4. But I don’t get any presents either. If I got presents on July 4 it would be my favourite holiday.
10. When does the author’s grandmother make cupcakes? I. Christmas II. HalloweenIII. July 4a. I only b. I and II onlyc. I, II, and III d. none of these
11. Which holiday does the author like most?a. Christmas b. Halloweenc. Easter d. none of these
12. Based on the things the author gets for Christmas, we can understand that he likesa. sports b. artc. music d. none of these
13. What is the author’s favorite thing about holidays?a. not going to school b. eating candyc. getting presents d. none of these
14. What costume did the author wear for Halloween last year?a. a skeleton costume b. a zombie costumec. a pumpkin costume d. none of these
15. Based on what you know about the author, what costume will he probably wear next year?
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a. a pumpkin costume b. a flower costumec. a ghost costume d. none of these
16. This story is mainly abouta. why the author likes some holidaysb. how someone can get out of schoolc. which foods are the best to eat on different holidaysd. none of these
17. What is the best title for this passage?a. The Holidays I Like b. Why Christmas is bestc. Hot Dogs and Salad d. none of these
Directions (18 to 32): Pick out the most effective word(s) from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
18. He _____ in wearing the old fashioned coat in spite of his wife’s disapproval.a. insists b. persistsc. desists d. resists
19. She _____ a brief appearance at the end of party.a. put on b. put inc. put across d. put up
20. Life is to death as pleasure is to _____a. poverty b. sufferingc. anguish d. pain
21. This, partly, explains how the Mehta family has been able to _____ its lavish lifestyle in recent times, despite the fact that all its assets have been _____a. keep, removed b. afford, attachedc. develop, liquidated d. keep up, destroyed
22. The machine is difficult to build _____ easy to maintain.a. but b. andc. for d. if
23. If you work beyond your capacity, you will naturally feel _____a. Drowsy b. Tiredc. Confident d. Giddy
24. If you persists in telling lies to me I shall sue you _____ slander.a. to b. onc. for d. with
25. His father-in-law _____ him up in business.a. put b. madec. set d. built
26. _____ works of reference are valuable as Encyclopedia, Britannica.a. A few b. Fewc. The few d. Fewer
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27. This book is quite similar _____a. with the ‘Treasure Island’ b. of that film we saw at schoolc. to the one I read last week d. than a story told by our teacher
28. If our friends are not able to take us in their car, we must make _____ arrange-ments to go to the airport.a. alternative b. anotherc. alternate d. possible
29. A crescendo of metallic thuds arose from the market, where the iron-smiths were _____ the pieces of metals.a. flattening b. strikingc. hammering d. thrashing
30. I haven’t eaten an apple _____ a long while.a. from b. sincec. for d. until
31. The parliament invested the new organization _____ judicial authority.a. by b. withc. from d. through
32. Owing to the power cut in the area, factories are being forced to _____ mena. throw away b. send offc. put off d. lay off
Directions (33 to 37): In each question below, there is a sentence of which some parts have been jumbled up. Rearrange these parts which are labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence.
33. If you need helpP: promptly and politelyQ: ask for attendantsR: to help our customersS: who have instructions
The Proper sequence should be:a. SQPR b. QPSRc. QSRP d. SQRP
34. It is easierP: to venture into spaceQ: for menR: beneath their feetS: than to explore
The Proper sequence should be:a. QRPS b. QPSRc. PSRQ d. PQSR
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35. It was to be P: before their school examinationQ: which was due to start R: the last expedition S: in a month’s
The Proper sequence should be:a. SRQP b. RQSPc. RPQS d. SPRQ
36. This time P: exactly what he had been toldQ: the young man didR: beyond his dreams S: and the plan succeeded
The Proper sequence should be:a. QPRS b. QPSRc. PQSR d. QSRP
37. In the darkness P: the long, narrow beardQ: was clearly visible withR: the tall stooping figure of the doctor S: and the aquiline nose
The Proper sequence should be:a. RQPS b. PSQRc. RSQP d. QPRS
Directions (38 to 45): In questions below, each passage consist of six sentences. The first and sixth sentences are given in the beginning. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled as P, Q, R and S. Find out the proper order for the four sentences.
38. S1: Hungry, with a population of about 10 million, lies between Czechoslovakia to the north and Yugoslavia to the south.
P: Here a great deal of grain is grown. Q: In recent years, however, progress has been made also in the field of in-
dustrialization. R: Most of this country consists of an extremely fertile plain, through which
the river Danube flows. S: In addition to grain, the plain produces potatoes, sugar, wine and live-
stock.S6: The new industries derive mainly from agricultural production.
The Proper sequence should be:a. QRSP b. RPSQc. PRSQ d. RQSP
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39. S1: Palaeobotany is the study of fossil plants preserved in rocks dating back in millions of years.
P: Records of the history of the world are contained in fossils. Q: Through the ages, plants have evolved from simple to more complex
forms. R: First there were water plants then land plants appeared during the Paleo-
zoic era. S: But since the fossil remains appear locked in rock layers, they are closely
related to the geologist area of investigation.S6: The fossil plants indicate the age of the rock, and also point to facts regard-
ing climate, temperature and topography. The Proper sequence should be:
a. RQSP b. SQRPc. PSQR d. QRPS
40. S1: On vacation in Tangier, Morocco, my friend and I sat down at a street cafe.
P: At one point, he bent over with a big smile, showing me, a single gold tooth and a dingy fez.
Q: Soon I felt the presence of someone standing alongside me. R: But this one wouldn’t budge. S: We had been cautioned about beggars and were told to ignore them.S6: Finally a man walked over to me and whispered, ‘Hey buddy this guy is
your waiter and he wants your order’ The Proper sequence should be:
a. SQRP b. SQPRc. QSRP d. QSPR
41. S1: And then Gandhi came. P: Get off the backs of these peasants and workers, he told us, all you who
live by their exploitation. Q: He was like a powerful current of fresh air, like a beam of light, like a
whirlwind that upset many things. R: He spoke their language and constantly dre their attention to their appalling
conditions. S: He didn’t descent from the top, he seemed to emerge from the masses of
India.S6: Political freedom took new shape and then acquired a new content.
The Proper sequence should be:a. QSRP b. SRQPc. RSQP d. PRSQ
42. S1: Biological evolution has not fitted man to any specific environment. P : It is by no means a biological evolution, but it is a cultural one. Q: His imagination, his reason, his emotional subtlety and toughness, makes it
possible for him not to accept the environment but to change.
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R: And that series of inventions by which man from age by age has reshaped his environment is a different kind of evolution.
S: Among the multitude of animals which scamper, burrow swim around us he is in the only one who is not locked in to his environment.
S6: That brilliant sequence of cultural peaks can most appropriately be termed the ascent of man.
The Proper sequence should be:a. QPRS b. SRQPc. QRSP d. SQRP
43. S1: The dictionary is the best friend of you task. P: That may not be possible always. Q: It is wise to look it up immediately. R: Then it must be firmly written on the memory and traced at the first op-
portunity. S: Never allow a strange word to pass unchallenged.S6: Soon you will realize that this is an exciting task.
The Proper sequence should be:a. PQRS b. SPQRc. QRPS d. SQPR
44. S1: The Bhagavadgita recogniszs the nature of man and the needs of man.P : All these three aspects constitute the nature of man. Q: It shows how the human being is rational one, an ethical one and a spiritual
one. R: More than all, it must be a spiritual experience. S: Nothing can give him fulfilment unless it satisfies his reason, his ethical
conscience.S6: A man whom does not harmonize them, is not truly human.
The Proper sequence should be:a. PSRQ a. RSPQc. QPSR d. PSQR
45. S1: I usually sleep quite well in the train, but this time I slept only a little. P: Most people wanted it shut and I wanted it open. Q: As usual, I got angry about the window. R: The quarrel left me completely upset. S: There were too many people too much huge luggage all around.S6: It was shut all night, as usual
The Proper sequence should be:a. RSQP a. SQPRc. SQRP d. RSPQ
Directions (46 to 47): In each question below a sentence broken into five or six parts. Join these parts to make a meaningful sentence. The correct order of parts is the answer.
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46. 1. seen 2. going3. you 4. him5. havea. 35214 b. 35142c. 32514 d. 35124
47. 1. bag? 2. you3. seen 4. have5. mya. 51432 b. 43512c. 42351 d. 42153
Directions (48 to 52): Read the each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘D’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).
48. (solve as per the direction given above)a. I have got b. my M.Sc. degreec. in 1988. d. no error.
49. (solve as per the direction given above)a. having received your letter b. this morning, we are writingc. to thank you for the same. d. no error.
50. (solve as per the direction given above)a. if you lend him a bookb. he will lend it to someone elsec. and never you will get it back.d. no error.
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Part III
Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT) 1. If 2.5252525 ___ =
pq
(in the lowest form), then what is the value of qp
?
(a) 0.4 (b) 0.42525 (c) 0.0396 (d) 0.396 2. Which one of the following is a factor of y z x x y z z (yz2 2( ) ( )− + − + +
zx xy− )?
(a) x – y (b) x + y + z (c) x – y – z (d) x + y + z 3. Five bells start tolling together and toll at intervals of 10 seconds, 8 seconds,
6 seconds, 4 seconds and 2 seconds respectively. How many times do the five bells toll together in half an hour?(a) 15 (b) 16 (c) 20 (d) 30
4. A man buys 4 tables and 5 chairs for Rs. 1000. If he sells the tables at 10% profit and chairs at 20% profit, he earns a profit of Rs. 120. The cost of one table is (a) Rs. 200 (b) Rs. 220 (c) Rs. 240 (d) Rs. 260
5. LCM of two numbers is 16 times their HCF. The sum of LCM and HCF is 850. If one number is 50, then what is the other number? (a) 800 (b) 1200 (c) 1600 (d) 2400
6. Square root of 9 + 2 14 is
(a) 1 + 2 2 (b) 3 6+ (c) 2 7+ (d) 2 5+
7. Which is the largest number among 2 3 6 123 3 12, , ,
(a) 2 (b) 33 (c) 6 6 (d) 1212
8. If x, y denote respectively, the area and the sum of the lengths of diagonals of rectangle with length 1 unit and breadth 1
2unit, then which one of the follow-
ing is correct?(a) x and y are rational (b) x is irrational and y is rational (c) x is rational and y irrational (d) x and y are both irrational
9. A circle is inscribed in an equilateral triangle of side ‘a’. What is the area of any square inscribed in this circle?
(a) a2
3 (b) a2
4 (c) a2
6 (d) a2
8 10. A rectangular cardboard is 18 cm × 10 cm. From the four corners of the rect-
angle, a quarter circle of radius 4 cm are cut. What is the perimeter (approxi-mate) of the remaining portion?(a) 47.1 cm (b) 49.1 cm (c) 51.0 cm (d) 53.0 cm
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11. The total surface area of a cone whose generator is equal to the radius R of its base is S. If A is the area of a circle of radius 2 R, then which one of the fol-lowing is correct?(a) A = S (b) A = 2 S (c) A =
S2
(d) A = 4 S
12. In the figure alongside, PT = 6 cm, PA = 4 cm. What is the length of AB?
(a) 9 cm (b) 5 cm (c) 4 cm (d) 6 cm 13. 27 drops of water form a big drop of water. If the radius of each smaller drop
is 0.2 cm, then what is the radius of the bigger drop?(a) 0.4 cm (b) 0.6 cm (c) 0.8 cm (d) 1.0 cm
14. If y x x= + −( )1 , then x x x x4 3 24 1 0+ − + + = can be reduced to which one of the following? Take x ≠ 0.(a) y y2 2 0+ − = (b) y y2 4 0+ − =
(c) y y2 6 0+ − = (d) y y2 6 0+ + =
15. The sides of a triangle are 20 cm, 16 cm and 13 cm respectively. Which one of the following is correct?(a) The triangle is obtuse angled (b) The triangle is right angled (c) The triangle is acute angled triangle (d) Cannot be determined.
16. A car finishes a certain journey in 15 at the rate 50 kmph. In order to cover the same distance in 12 hours, the speed of the car must be increased by(a) 12.5 kmph (b) 13 kmph(c) 13.5 kmph (d) 14 kmph
17. Sachin, Rahul and Lata together can finish apiece of work in 3 days. If Sachin along can do it in 6 days and Rahul in 9 days, then in how many days Lata alone can do it? (a) 18 (b) 19 (c) 20 (d) 21
18. H.C.F of ( )x6 1+ and ( )x x4 2 1− + is
(a) x2 1+ (b) x x4 2 1− +
(c) x x4 2 1+ + (d) x3 1+
19. Simple interest on a certain sum for 2 years at 10% p.a. is Rs. 400. What is the compound interest at the same rate and for the same time?(a) Rs. 404 (b) Rs. 408 (c) Rs. 410 (d) Rs. 420
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20. If the radius of the base of a right circular cylinder is halved, keeping the height same, what is the ration of the volume of the reduced cylinder to that of the original one(a) 1:2 (b) 1:3 (c) 1:4 (d) 2:5
21. A person travels along a straight road for the first half length with a velocity v1 and the second half length with a velocity v2. The mean velocity v is given by
(a) vv v
=+1 2
2 (b) 2 1 1
1 2v v v= +
(c) v v v1 2= (d) vvv
2
1
=
22. The numerical ratio of displacement to distance is (a) Always less than one (b) Always equal to one(c) Always more than one (d) Equal to or less than one
23. A woman walks on a straight road from her home to a market 3 km away with a speed of 5 km/h. Finding the market closed, she instantaneously turns and walks with a speed of 6km/h. The magnitude of average velocity is (a) 5.50 km/h (b) 5.40 km/h(c) 2.73 km/h (d) zero
24. A stone is dropped from the top of a tower and travels 24.5 m in the last second of its journey. The height of the tower is (a) 44.1 m (b) 49 m (c) 78.4 m (d) none of these
25. The slope of velocity versus time graph gives(a) Average velocity (b) Acceleration(c) Force (d) Momentum
26. Assertion: A body can have acceleration even if its velocity is zero at a given instant of time.
Reason: A body is momentarily at rest when it reverses its direction of motion.(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is correct explana-
tion if the Assertion.(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not correct explana-
tion of the Assertion.(c) The Assertion is true, but the Reason is false.(d) The Assertion is false and Reason is true.
27. A particle is thrown vertically upwards. The graph between its speed v and time t is given by (neglecting the air resistance) the following figure:(a) (b)
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(c) (d)
28. When a force of 1 N acts on a body of mass 1 gram, the body receives an acceleration of (a) 1 ms–2 (b) 9.8 ms–2 (c) 980 ms–2 (d) 1000 ms–2
29. A thief stole a box full of valuable articles of weight W and while carrying it on his head jumped down from a wall of height h from the ground. Before he reached the ground, he experiences a load of
(a) W (b) W2
(c) 2 W (d) zero
30. If the force applied is F and the velocity gained is v, then the power developed is
(a) Fv
(b) vF
(c) Fv (d) Fv2
31. The wave which can propagate through liquids and solids is a (a) Longitudinal wave (b) Radio wave (c) Transverse wave (d) None of the above
32. Which of the following quantities is transferred by a propagating wave?(a) Speed (b) Mass (c) Energy (d) Matter
33. Specific resistance of a conductor is measured in(a) ohm (b) ohm–meter
(c) ohmmeter
(d) dioptre
34. A voltmeter is always placed (a) in parallel to the resistor (b) in series with the conductor(c) in parallel to the cell (d) near the electric circuit
35. In the following circuit, what is the equivalent resistance between P and Q?
(a) 2Ω (b) 1Ω (c) 12Ω (d) 4Ω
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36. The element Ca is not present in______.(a) Bleaching powder (b) Plaster of paris(c) Caustic soda (d) Lime water
37. Which of the following metals can displace hydrogen?(a) Platinum (b) zinc (c) Silver (d) Copper
38. Which of the following represents metal?
(a) 2713 A (b) 9
19B (c) 714C (d) 17
35D 39. Which is the heaviest metal?
(a) Platinum (b) Gold (c) Iron (d) Iridium 40. Metals which release H2 gas with HNO3
(a) Magnesium and Manganese (b) Magnesium and Aluminium (c) Manganese and Aluminium (d) Manganese and Iron
41. Choose the correct option for strategic metals:(a) Titanium, Chromium, Manganese and Iron (b) Titanium, Chromium, Manganese and Zirconium (c) Titanium, Chromium, Magnesium and Zirconium (d) Titanium, Copper, Manganese and Zirconium
42. The metal which imparts brick red colour to the flame is (a) Sodium (b) Potassium (c) Barium (d) Calcium
43. Amalgam is an alloy, in which one of the element should be(a) Mercury (b) Zinc (c) Copper (d) Silver
44. Silver articles become black in prolonged exposure to air. This is due to the formation of (a) Ag N3 (b) Ag O2 (c) AgCI (d) Ag S2 and Ag N3
45. The electrolyte used in the electroplating of silver is (a) Silver chloride (b) Silver sulphide(c) Silver nitrate (d) Silver oxide
46. Part of the solar radiation absorbed by the atmosphere of earth is (a) Infra-red (b) X-rays (c) UV rays (d) None of these
47. Which of the following gas is not present in natural gas?(a) Methane (b) Chlorine (c) Hydrogen (d) None of the above
48. In the electrolytic decomposition of Al O2 3
(I) Al3+ ions move towards cathode and O2− ions move towards anode(II) 3 aluminium ions and 2 oxygen ions are formedChoose the correct option:(a) (I) only (b) (II) only(c) (I) and (II) (d) None of these
49. In the following food chain supposing that 1000 J energy is available with plants and only 10% of the available of energy at any level is padded on to the next higher level. How much energy would be available to the eagle?
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Plants→ Grasshopper→ Frog→ Snake→ Eagle (a) 0.01 J (b) 0.1 J (c) 1 J (d) 10 J
50. Nellore, Nali and Marwari are the Indian breeds of (a) Sheep (b) Buffaloes (c) Cows (d) Pigs
51. Identify the compound:(a) Methanol (b) Formaldehyde (c) Formic acid (d) Freon
52. Filaria is actually a disease(a) of the liver in which bile production is affected(b) caused by the virus infecting the upper respiratory tract(c) caused by the worm Wauchereria bancrofti(d) of the red blood cells in which oxygen carrying capacity if the cells de-
creases 53. This hormone increases the calcium level in blood:
(a) Glucagon (b) Adrenalin (c) Parathyroid hormone (d) Insulin
54. The ovules inside the ovary are actually the (a) Micro sporangia (b) Megaspores(c) Mega sporangia (d) Microspores
55. Pollination mediated by water is seen in (a) Valllisneria (b) Bryophyllum(c) Paddy (d) Azolla
56. Tendrils in the pea plants are actually modified(a) Leaves (b) Stems (c) Flowers (d) Branches
57. Majority of mammals including human being forms two sets of teeth during their life, a set of temporary milk or deciduous teeth replaced by a set of per-manent or adult teeth. This type of dentition is called(a) Diphyodont dentition (b) Replacement dentition (c) Double dentition (d) Substitutive dentition
58. Which of the following is social insect?(a) Honey bee (b) Silkworm moth(c) Lac insect (d) Lice
59. Loss of water in the form of vapour that is transpiration occurs through(a) Cuticle (b) Lenticles (c) Stomata (d) All of the above
60. Venus fly trap is an example of (a) A trap specially designed to trap flies in the kitchens (b) A insectivorous plant (c) A recently developed rocket to be sent to the planet Venus (d) None of the above is true
61. Fish meat is better than meat of other animals as it contains more:(a) Fats (b) Water (c) Starch (d) Protein
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62. Tipu’s sword was made of (a) Iron (b) Steel (c) Wootz (d) Mixed metals
63. What is Jamdani?(a) A fine cloth with ‘naksha’ design (b) Paintings (c) Pottery (d) None of these
64. When did Jinnah join the Muslim League?(a) 1906 (b) 1912 (c) 1913 (d) 1916
65. Macaulay(a) was an Orientalist (b) was an Anglicist (c) encouraged teaching of modern knowledge through local languages (d) none of the above
66. What type of education was given to the children in pathshala?(a) Religious (b) Oral (c) English (d) None of these
67. Under the colonial rule 26th January 1930 was observed as (a) Republic day (b) Holiday(c) Independence day (d) None of these
68. Gandhiji launched the ‘No Tax’ campaign at (a) Meerut (b) Bardoli (c) Delhi (d) Calcutta
69. The main aim to start the Non-cooperation Movement was (a) Home Rule(b) Purna Swaraj(c) Redress the wrong done in Turkey and Jallianwala Bagh(d) None of these
70. The Boycott and Swadeshi movement was started in the year(a) 1902 (b) 1904 (c) 1905 (d) 1906
71. The paper edited by Tilak was (a) Kesari (b) Sambad Kaumudi(c) Rast Groftar (d) Shome Prakash
72. The Non-cooperation programme was adopted in the Congress session at (a) Nagpur in 1920 (b) Madras in 1927(c) Calcutta in 1920 (d) Lahore in 1929
73. Warren Hastings was the first _______ of India.(a) Viceroy (b) Governor General(c) Chief Justice (d) Army General
74. The battle of Plassy was fought in (a) 1760 (b) 1759 (c) 1758 (d) 1757
75. Prime Minister is the most important political institution in the country. He (a) does not have a fixed tenure (b) is appointed by the President(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
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76. What are the advantages to foreign companies in setting up production units in India?(a) Cheap labour (b) Spend least on facilities(c) Provide poor working conditions (d) All of these
77. If refers to a government formed by an alliance of two or more political parties:(a) Coalition government (b) State government (c) Local government (d) Union government
78. Indian judiciary is independent with respect to (a) Appointment of judges (b) Removal of judges (c) Powers of judiciary (d) All of these
79. Which of the following right is available under the Indian Constitution?(a) Right to work (b) Right to privacy (c) Right to livelihood (d) Right to protect one’s culture
80. Which of the following is not a key feature of Indian Constitution?(a) Federation (b) Presidential form of government(c) Secularism(d) Separation of powers
81. In India, the laws apply in the same manner to all regardless of a person’s status. This is called (a) Lawmaking (b) Law for all (c) Rule of law (d) None of these
82. Right to Freedom includes (a) Freedom of speech(b) Freedom to travel in the country(c) Freedom to form associations(d) All of these
83. Why do you think there are few women in Parliament?(a) Society is male dominating (b) Women are incapable (c) Women have no interest in politics (d) Women cannot govern
84. In India, some rights are given a special status, they are (a) Common rights (b) Fundamental rights (c) Constitutional rights (d) Human rights
85. Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the constituent Assembly?(a) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar (b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (c) P. T. Nehru (d) None of these
86. In a Democratic country the Indian people have full right to (a) Protest against unjust laws (b) Rebel(c) Disobey the laws (d) Attack the government
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87. The Domestic Violence Bill was introduced in the Parliament in the year (a) 2000 (b) 2002 (c) 2004 (d) 2005
88. Which element threatens the future of our generation?(a) Depletion of resources (b) Resource planning (c) Conservation p of resources (d) Sustainable development
89. How many flowering species are indigenous to Indian?(a) About 17000 (b) About 27000(c) About 47000 (d) About 15000
90. The forest cover in India is estimated at _____.(a) 627293 sq. km (b) 617293 sq. km(c) 637293 sq. km (d) 607293 sq. km
91. India’s rank in the world in terms of water availability per person per annum is (a) 122 (b) 138 (c) 133 (d) 128
92. Which type of vegetation is found in the coastal areas influenced by tides?(a) Mangrove forest (b) Mountain forest (c) Tropical deciduous (d) Tropical evergreen
93. Staple food crop of a majority of people in India is (a) Rice (b) Wheat (c) Jowar (d) Barley
94. What is the full from of MSO?(a) Maximum sale price (b) Minimum sale price(c) Minimum support price (d) Maximum support price
95. The sparkle in the toothpaste comes from (a) Mica (b) Silica(c) Limestone (d) Phosphate
96. Magnetite has _____ per cent iron content(a) 70 (b) 85 (c) 80 (d) 75
97. Which one of the following agencies markets steel for the public sector steel plants?(a) HAIL (b) SAIL (c) Tata Steel (d) MNCC
98. Which of the following is not a basic input in the cement industry?(a) Limestone (b) Gypsum(c) Coal (d) Potash
99. The phenomenon of increase, decrease or stable condition of population over a given period of time is known as (a) Population Distribution (b) Population Change (c) Population Ratio (d) Population Growth
100. Textile industry is an example of (a) Agro based industry (b) Co-operative sector industry (c) Mineral based industry (d) Marine based industry
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answer KeyPart I (Mat)
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (b)11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (c) 16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (b) 20. (d)21. (d) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (c) 25. (c) 26. (b) 27. (c) 28. (a) 29. (c) 30. (c)31. (b) 32. (d) 33. (c) 34. (b) 35. (c) 36. (b) 37. (a) 38. (b) 39. (d) 40. (c)41. (b) 42. (c) 43. (d) 44. (c) 45. (b) 46. (b) 47. (c) 48. (a) 49. (d) 50. (c)51. (b) 52. (b)
Part II (sat)
1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (c)11. (a) 12. (d) 13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (b) 16. (c) 17. (d) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (c)
21. (c) 22. (a) 23. (d) 24. (c) 25. (c) 26. (d) 27. (c) 28. (c) 29. (a) 30. (d)31. (d) 32. (b) 33. (d) 34. (d) 35. (d) 36. (d) 37. (d) 38. (a) 39. (b) 40. (a)
41. (d) 42. (b) 43. (a) 44. (d) 45. (a) 46. (a) 47. (b) 48. (d) 49. (c) 50. (b)
Part III (sat)
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (b)11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (a) 16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (d) 20. (c)21. (b) 22. (d) 23. (d) 24. (a) 25. (b) 26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (d) 30. (c)31. (c) 32. (c) 33. (b) 34. (a) 35. (a) 36. (c) 37. (b) 38. (a) 39. (d) 40. (a)41. (b) 42. (d) 43. (a) 44. (d) 45. (c) 46. (c) 47. (b) 48. (a) 49. (b) 50. (a)51. (d) 52. (c) 53. (c) 54. (c) 55. (a) 56. (a) 57. (a) 58. (a) 59. (d) 60. (b)61. (d) 62. (c) 63. (a) 64. (c) 65. (b) 66. (b) 67. (c) 68. (b) 69. (c) 70. (c)71. (a) 72. (a) 73. (b) 74. (d) 75. (c) 76. (d) 77. (a) 78. (d) 79. (d) 80. (b)81. (c) 82. (d) 83. (a) 84. (b) 85. (a) 86. (a) 87. (b) 88. (a) 89. (d) 90. (c)91. (c) 92. (a) 93. (a) 94. (d) 95. (a) 96. (a) 97. (b) 98. (d) 99. (b) 110. (a)
