Mock questions for the “Aeronautical Radio Telephony Operator Certificate” These questions are similar to the ones presented in the SA CAA examination.

Answers are not supplied, but the reference given below the question indicates where in “The Pilot’s Radio Handbook” 21th edition the answer can be found.

28 April 2021 ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. Which of the following is not a notice to airman containing important navigation

information? Abbreviations and Introduction

a. AIP b. AIC c. ATC

2. ETA is an abbreviation for:

Abbreviations a. Estimated time of arrival b. Elapsed time airborne c. Estimated time and altitude

3. The aeronautical abbreviation "FIR" means:

Abbreviations and paragraph 1.1 a. Flight Information Region b. Flight Information Route c. Flight Instrument Rules d. Following Instrument Rules

4. Give the correct abbreviation for International Civil Aviation Organisation

(answers are case sensitive): Abbreviations and paragraph 0.4.1

a. Icao b. IAO c. ICAO d. IOCA

5. IMC Means:

Abbreviations a. Instruments Must be Calibrated b. Instructions Must be Complied with c. Instrument Meteorological Conditions

6. Give the correct abbreviation for Megahertz (answers are case sensitive): Abbreviations and paragraph 13.2

a. MZH b. MHz c. MHZ d. MEGHZ

7. Give the correct abbreviation for Notice to Airmen (answers are case sensitive): Abbreviations and paragraph 0.4.6

a. NTA b. NOTCAM c. No tam d. NOTAM

8. The abbreviation “RCF” means: Abbreviations and paragraph 10.1

a. Radio Callsign Fix b. Radio Communication Failure c. Radio Communication Field d. Radio Callsign Formation

9. The abbreviation “RT” means: Abbreviations

a. Radio Transmitter b. Radio Telephony c. Radio Transmission d. Radio Telecommunication

10. Give the correct abbreviation for Runway: Abbreviations

a. RWY b. RNWY c. RW d. RWAY

11. The abbreviation for South African Civil Aviation Authority is? Abbreviations

a. CATS b. SACAA c. Neither A nor B above are correct

12. Give the correct abbreviation for SA Standard Time: Abbreviations and paragraph 7.5

a. SASTD b. SSTD c. SAST d. SAT

13. Give the correct abbreviation for Ultra high frequency (answers are case

sensitive): Abbreviations and paragraph 13.2

a. Uhf b. ULTHF c. UF d. UHF

14. Give the correct abbreviation for Very high frequency (answers are case

sensitive): Abbreviations and paragraph 13.2

a. VHF b. Vhf c. VERF d. vHF

15. What are the requirements to operate radio transmitting equipment over the territory of a contracting state?

Introduction paragraph 0.1 a. The radio station and the operator need to be licensed in the state where the aircraft

is registered b. The radio station needs to be licensed in the state where the aircraft is registered c. The operator needs to be licensed in the state where the aircraft is registered d. The radio station and the operator need to be licensed in any state that is ICAO

compliant e. The operator needs to be licensed in any state that is ICAO compliant

16. Must a radio, when fitted in an aircraft, also have a licence?

Paragraph 0.1.1 a. No, since the pilot's radio licence covers the aircraft radio as well. b. Yes, since every radio which can transmit requires a radio licence. c. No, since radios have licences when they are built. d. No, since the radio on an aircraft is always linked to the aircraft airworthy certificate.

17. What are the requirements to operate radio transmitting equipment over the

territory of a contracting state? Paragraph 0.1.1 and 0.1.2 a. The radio station and the operator need to be licensed in any state that is ICAO

compliant b. The radio station needs to be licensed in any state that is ICAO compliant c. The radio station needs to be licensed in the state where the aircraft is registered. d. The operator needs to be licensed in any state that is ICAO compliant e. The radio station and the operator need to be licensed in the state where the aircraft

is registered. f. The operator needs to be licensed in the state where the aircraft is registered.

18. In which information manual would you find information about the radio licence

syllabus? Paragraphs 0.2

a. AIP b. AIC c. NOTAMs d. CAR

19. In which information manual would you find information about airfield runways,

elevations and operators? Paragraph 0.4.4

a. AIP b. AIC c. NOTAMs d. ANRs

20. South African airspace is divided up into:

Paragraph 1.1 a. FIRs b. Sectors c. More than one FIR containing various sectors d. More than one sector containing various FIRs

21. How many FIRs do we have in South Africa? Paragraph 1.1

a. 3 b. 4 c. 6 d. 9

22. What are the different MAIN classes of airspace found in South Africa?

Paragraph 1.2 a. Controlled, Advisory, Information b. TMA, ADA, QDM c. FIR, TMA, ATZ d. Controlled, Instrument Restricted, Special Rules

23. Which of the following would be classified as Class G airspace?

Paragraph 1.2.3 a. All controlled airspace FL200 and above b. All controlled airspace below FL200 c. All advisory air routes d. All information airspace

24. The definition of "Classes of airspace" within the Republic can be found in:

Paragraph 1.2 a. The AIP and SACAR b. The AIP only c. AICs d. NOTAMs

25. The classes of airspace in use in South Africa are: Paragraph 1.2

a. A, C, D, E and F b. B, C, D, E and F c. A, B, C, D, F and G d. A, B, D, F and G

26. Which type of airspace do the following rules apply to?

IFR and VFR flights are permitted All flights are subject to air traffic control service IFR flights are separated from both IFR and VFR flights VFR flights are separated from IFR flights VFR flight receive traffic information in respect to other VFR flights

Paragraph 1.2 a. Class A b. Class B c. Class C d. Class D e. Class F

27. When may you begin your descent for an airfield while within a TMA?

Paragraph 1.2.1 a. After you have told ATC your intentions b. After passing the 'top of descent' point on your flight plan c. After clearance has been requested and obtained d. Once the destination aerodrome is in sight

28. Class D airspace is controlled airspace, where: Paragraph 1.2.1

a. All IFR flights are subject to ATC control b. IFR flights are given traffic information of VFR flights c. VFR flights are given traffic information on other VFR flights d. All of the above are correct

29. The following classes of airspace could be declared in South Africa:

Paragraph 1.2.1 a. A, B, C, D, E, F, G b. A, B, C, D, F, G c. A, C, D, F, G d. A, C, D, G

30. The following classes of airspace are actually permanently declared in SA:

Paragraph 1.2.1 a. A, B, C, D, F, G b. A, B, C, D, E, F, G c. A, C, D, F, G d. A, C, D, G

31. Which airspace has the following separation rules?

IFR flights receive traffic advisory service All traffic receives traffic information if requested Paragraph 1.2 a. Class G b. Class C c. Class A d. Class F

32. When may you begin your descent for an airfield while within a TMA? Paragraphs 1.3.2 and 1.2.1

a. After you have told ATC your intentions b. After passing the 'top of descent' point on your flight plan c. After clearance has been requested and obtained d. Once the destination aerodrome is in sight

33. The pilot in command of an aircraft: Paragraph 1.2

a. must comply immediately with all instructions received from ATC b. is responsible only if he is the pilot flying c. may deviate from air regulations for safety reasons d. may be exempt from air regulations in order to comply with an ATC instruction

34. Does a crop sprayer require a radio while spraying in the Heilbron area?

Paragraph 1.2. a. No, since there is an ATC at Heilbron b. No, since the Heilbron area is outside controlled airspace c. Yes, since all aircraft now must have a radio on board d. Yes, since the crop sprayer will be flying in controlled airspace at Heilbron

35. Select the correct abbreviation for the following airspace: Class C, controlled airspace established around an aerodrome for the protection of IFR flights, which extends from ground level to a specific upper limit.

Paragraph 1.3.1.2 a. ATA b. CTR c. TMA d. CTA

36. A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a

specified upper limit is: Paragraph 1.3

a. an Air Traffic Zone, or a CTR b. a CTA c. a TMA d. Advisory airspace

37. Give the minimum lateral limits of a CTR: Paragraph 1.3.1

a. 5 nm b. 5 nm in the direction of the approach c. 5 nm in direction of departure and approach d. There are no minimum lateral limits

38. Which of the following airspaces are all controlled?

Paragraph 1.3 a. ATA, ADR, ADA, TMA b. UTA, CTR, ATZ, ATA c. TMA, ATZ, CTR, AWY d. FAP, ATA, FAR, FAD

39. What class of airspace are TMAs? Paragraph 1.3.2.1

a. G b. F c. C d. A

40. A TMA is: Paragraph 1.3.2.1

a. An area where submission of a Flight Plan is not required b. A control area around one or more major aerodromes c. Available at all times to VFR traffic d. A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a specified

upper limit

41. Select the correct abbreviation for the following airspace: A controlled airspace which extends from a specific lower limit to a specific upper limit and is normally established at the confluence of ATS routes in the vicinity of one or more major aerodromes. Paragraph 1.3.2.2 a. CTR b. TMA c. ATZ d. G89D

42. A Control Area (CTA) is defined as follows: Paragraph 1.3.2.2

a. A controlled airspace extending upwards from a height of 1000 feet above the earth b. A controlled airspace extending upwards from a height of 900 feet above the earth c. A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a specified

limit d. A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth

43. Which of the following statements is correct? Paragraph 1.3.1.2 and 1.3.2

a. a Control Area will not be lower than 700 ft agl b. the base of a Control Zone will not be lower than 700 ft agl c. a Control Area can begin at ground level and will extend vertically to a specified

altitude or flight level d. the base of a Control Area will not be lower than 1,500 ft agl

44. What is minimum height AGL for the base of a CTA? Paragraph 1.3.2

a. 100m (350 ft) b. 150m (500 ft) c. 200m (700 ft) d. 300m (1000 ft)

45. On an airway route, if the designator R precedes the route number, this route is:

Paragraph 1.3.3.1 a. Limited to RVSM traffic only b. Is a designator to indicate a regional route c. Requires two radio communication d. A restricted route

46. A control area or portion thereof established in the form of a corridor equipped

with navigation aids is also known as: Paragraph 1.3.3.1

a. a terminal manoeuvring area b. an upper air route c. an airway d. a SVFR entry/exit corridor

47. A requirement to fly through Class F airspace is:

Paragraph 1.2.3 a. The aircraft may only navigate with the use of an approved GPS b. The airspace may only be used by night and the aircraft must be equipped

accordingly c. The aircraft must be equipped with a radio capable of maintaining two way

communication d. The aircraft must have a SELCAL unit installed

48. Which of the following airspaces are all information airspaces?

Paragraph 1.3 and 1.3.4 a. ATA, ADR, ADA, TMA b. UTA, CTR, ATZ, ATA c. TMA, ATZ, CTR, AWY d. FAP, ATA, FAR, FAD

49. On an aeronautical chart, the Letters G254F means: Paragraph 1.3.3.3

a. G254F is an advisory air route b. G254F is a flight information route c. G245F is limited to IFR flights only

50. What is the name of the airspace that AFIS operates in? Paragraph 1.3.1.3

a. TMA b. CTR c. ATA d. FAR

51. Airspace labelled as FAD, denotes: Paragraph 1.3.4.4

a. Advisory airspace b. Danger airspace c. Information airspace d. Controlled airspace

52. While on a VFR flight, the GPS warning indicates an FAD ahead, what will your

actions be: Paragraph 1.3.4.4

a. Descend below 1000 AGL and continue on your flight path b. Comply with the FAD restriction and broadcast your position on the appropriate

frequency c. Contac ATC for permission to route through the FAD d. Switch off your transponder and continue your routing as planned

53. What type of airspace may only be entered with special permission?

Paragraph 1.3.4.3 a. Secure b. Prohibited c. Controlled d. Restricted e. Permitted

54. While on a VFR flight, the GPS warning indicates an FAP ahead, what will your

actions be: Paragraph 1.3.4.2

a. Descend below 1000 AGL and continue on your flight path b. Comply with the FAD restriction and broadcast your position on the appropriate

frequency c. Contac ATC for permission to route through the FAP d. Arrange your flight path to avoid the FAP both horizontally and vertically

55. A FAP indicates a restriction of AGL to 7600”, you may:

Paragraph 1.3.4.2 a. Fly through the FAP and broadcast your intentions b. Fly over the FAP area provided you are flying higher than 7600’ AMSL c. Fly through the FAP area provided you tell ATC what you are doing d. Fly through the FAP area provided you have a serviceable transponder

56. The basic air traffic services are: Chapter 2

a. Control service, Information service, Alerting service b. ATC, FIS, AIS, AFIS c. ATC, ATSU d. ATC, Advisory ATC

57. Which condition is required so that an aerodrome may be considered controlled? Chapter 2.2.1.3

a. The aerodrome shall be located within a Control Zone (CTR) and provided with a Control Tower

b. The aerodrome shall be located within a Control Zone c. The aerodrome shall be located within a controlled airspace d. The aerodrome shall be provided with a Control Tower

58. Air Traffic Service Unit means: Chapter 2

a. Flight Information Centres and Air Services reporting offices b. Air Traffic Control units and Flight Information Centres c. Air Traffic Control units and Air Services reporting offices d. Air Traffic Control units, Flight Information Centres or Air Services reporting offices

59. Air traffic control service is provided for the purpose of:

Paragraph 2.1 a. Avoiding collisions between all aircraft and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic b. Applying separation between aircraft and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow

of air traffic c. Preventing collisions between controlled air traffic and expediting and maintaining an

orderly flow of air traffic d. Preventing collisions between aircraft, between aircraft and obstacles on the

manoeuvring area and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic e. All of the above

60. Which of the following is an objective of Air Traffic services?

Paragraph 2.1 a. to ensure that all flights depart on time b. to ensure that all flights arrive on time c. to expedite and maintain an orderly flow of traffic d. to ensure that all flights depart and arrive on time

61. The objectives of the ATS are: Paragraph 2.1

a. Prevent collisions between aircraft and the ground b. Prevent collisions between aircraft on the manoeuvring area and obstructions on that

area, and maintain an orderly flow of air traffic on the apron c. Notify appropriate organisations regarding aircraft in need of a flight plan service,

and assist such organisations as required

62. Aerodrome control shall be responsible for issuing information and instructions to aircraft under its control in order to achieve:

Paragraph 2.2.1.3 a. A safe, orderly and expeditious flow of air traffic b. A SVFR service by day and by night c. An advisory service to VFR, IFR and SVFR flights d. An advisory service only for IFR flights

63. What are the three Air Traffic Services? Paragraph 2.2

a. Area Control, Tower Control, Approach Control b. Control Service, Information Service, Alerting Service c. Air Traffic Services, Flight Information Services, Alerting Services d. Alerting Services, Approach Control, Area Control

64. Flight Information Region (FIR) is an airspace within which the following services

are provided: Paragraph 2.2

a. Flight Information Service, Alerting Service and Advisory Service b. Flight Information Service and Alerting Service c. Flight Information Service only d. Flight Information Service and Advisory Service

65. What is the callsign for the 'Aerodrome Control' unit or service?

Paragraph 2.2.1.3 a. Control b. Radio c. Aerodrome d. Tower

66. The function of an aerodrome control service includes the object of preventing

collisions between: Paragraph 2.2.1.3

a. Aircraft flying in the aerodrome traffic circuit b. Aircraft operating on the manoeuvring area c. Aircraft landing and taking off d. Aircraft and vehicles operating on the manoeuvring area e. All of the above

67. Which of the following statements concerning FIS is false: Paragraph 2.2.2.1

a. FIS will include information concerning weather conditions reported or forecast at departure

b. FIS will include information concerning collision hazards to aircraft operating in airspace classes B, C, D, E, F and G

c. FIS will include information concerning unmanned free balloons d. FIS will include information concerning changes in the serviceability of navigation

aids

68. Advisory services can give: Paragraph 2.2.2.3

a. Information on other traffic b. Clearances c. Weather forecasts d. Radar separation

69. What is the objective of filing an ATIR (Air Traffic Incident Report)? Paragraph 2.4

a. To promote aircraft flight safety b. To allocate blame for a potential incident c. To increase the efficiency of an investigation

70. Which one of the following is correct? Chapter 3

a. You can use VMC in VFR b. You can use IFR in both VMC and IMC c. You can use VFR in both VMC and IMC d. You can use IMC in both VFR and IFR

71. On approaching your destination on a VFR flight, you receive the latest weather

from ATC for the area, cloud BKN010, visibility 3500 BR RA. May you continue to your destination airfield?

Paragraph 3.1 a. Yes b. No

72. The term Ceiling means:

Paragraph 3.1 a. The height above the ground of the base of the lowest layer of cloud below 10000’

covering more than half of the sky b. The height above the ground of the base of the cloud below 20000’ covering more

than half of the sky c. The height above the ground or water of the base of the lowest layer of cloud below

20000’ covering more than half of the sky d. The height above the ground of the base of the lowest layer of cloud below 20000’

73. The instruction from an ATC to a Pilot "ABC remain clear of cloud and within

sight of ground” will be used when? Paragraph 3.3

a. IFR in VMC conditions b. VFR when departing from a controlled airfield c. Under special VFR d. VFR in IMC conditions cloud base below 1500’

74. If the QNH reading of an aircraft is correctly set to 1017 while it is on the ground

and that airfield’s elevation is 4501 feet AMSL, what height is indicated on that aircraft’s altimeter:

Paragraph 4.1 a. 4501 feet b. 4381 feet c. 4721 feet d. 0 feet

75. The International Standard Atmospheric Pressure Setting is:

Paragraph 4.1 a. 1013.25 Mb b. 1013 hPa c. 1013.2 hPa d. 1013.2 AMSL

76. Which altimeter setting lets your altimeter indicate ALTITUDE?

Paragraph 4.1 a. 1031.2 hPa b. QNH c. QFE d. QNE

77. Select the correct height reference when 1013.2 hPa is set in the subscale window of the altimeter:

Paragraph 4.1 a. Flight level b. True altitude c. Height AGL d. Altitude AMSL

78. Which altimeter setting lets your altimeter indicate HEIGHT?

Paragraph 4.1 a. 1031.2 hPa b. QNH c. QFE d. QNE

79. What is the definition of the term HEIGHT?

Paragraph 4.1 a. The vertical distance between sea level and a point in space b. The vertical distance between ground level and a point in space c. The vertical distance between sea level and a point on the earth’s surface d. The vertical distance between sea level and the highest point in an ATZ or CTR

80. What will the altimeter show when QFE is set?

Paragraph 4.1 a. Flight level b. Pressure Altitude c. Altitude above mean sea level d. Height above aerodrome elevation

81. Which altimeter setting lets your altimeter indicate FLIGHT LEVELS?

Paragraph 4.1 a. 1031.2 hPa b. QNH c. QFE d. QNE

82. Flight Level Zero could be said to be located where?

Paragraph 4.1 a. At the 1013.2 hPa level b. Zero feet above mean sea level c. 1000 feet above the highest obstacle located within 500 feet of the aircraft d. Zero feet above ground level

83. In the climb, when you pass the TRANSITION ALTITUDE, what do you set up on

the altimeter? Paragraph 4.1, 4.2 and 4.4

a. 1013.2 hPa b. QNH c. QFE d. QNE

84. Select the correct abbreviation, provided by ATC to a pilot at a manned aerodrome, which will indicate the aircraft's height above MSL while still on the ground:

Paragraph 4.1 and 7.6 a. QNH b. QFE c. QNE d. QTE

85. In VMC, flights departing from or arriving at points beyond 25 nm from a

controlled aerodrome, as per the AIP, shall use: Paragraph 4.2

a. 500 ft above the ground or water as the transition altitude b. 1000 ft above the ground or water as the transition altitude c. 2000 ft above the ground or water as the transition altitude d. 3000 ft above the ground or water as the transition altitude

86. When flying from an unmanned airfield (elevation 4350’ AMSL) that has no

published Transition Altitude, at what height/FL will you set 1013.2 hPa? Paragraph 4.2

a. FL065 b. 5350’ on QNH c. 2000’ above airfield elevation d. 1000’ above the highest obstacle within 25 NM of the airfield

87. Within how many miles of an airfield with a published transition altitude must you

use that transition altitude? Paragraph 4.2 and 4.4

a. 25 nm b. 20 nm c. 15 nm d. 30 nm

88. A VFR flight intending to land at a point beyond 25nm from any aerodrome with a

published transition altitude must observe a height of: Paragraph 4.3

a. 1000 ft AGL as the transition level b. 2000 ft AGL as the transition altitude c. the GRID MORA as the transition level d. 3000 ft AGL as the transition level

89. What is the minimum depth of the TRANSITION LAYER?

Paragraph 4.3 a. 200 feet b. 1000 feet c. 1500 feet d. 2000 feet

90. The transition level: Paragraph 4.3

a. is published on the approach and landing chart for each aerodrome b. will be passed to aircraft by ATS units c. is calculated by the Pilot-in-Command d. is published and updated in the NOTAM

91. On the descent, when you pass the TRANSITION LEVEL, what do you set up on the altimeter?

Paragraph 4.3 and 4.4 a. 1013.2 hPa b. QNH c. QFE d. QNE

92. Arriving at an airfield with an elevation of 1500’ AMSL, with no published

Transition Level, at what FL will you set the local QNH? Paragraph 4.3 and 4.4

a. 3500’ AMSL b. FL045 c. 1500’ above the transition altitude d. As there is no published TL or TA, set the QNH when passing through the transition

altitude

93. Which of the following statements is true? Paragraph 4.4

a. An aircraft’s height is expressed as a Flight Level once it has passed the Transition Altitude on the climb and changed altimeter setting from QNH to Standard Setting.

b. An aircraft’s height is expressed as a Flight Level once it has passed the Transition Level on the climb and changed altimeter setting from QNH to Standard Setting.

c. An aircraft’s height is expressed as a Flight Level once it has passed the Transition Altitude on the climb and changed altimeter setting from Standard Setting to QNH.

d. An aircraft’s height is expressed as a Flight Level once it has passed the Transition Level on the climb and changed altimeter setting from Standard Setting to QNH.

94. To which track does the semi-circular rule apply?

Paragraph 5.ex1, 5.3 a. True b. Grid c. Magnetic d. Compass

95. In which of the following instances does the semi-circular rule not apply:

Chapter 5, paragraph 5.1 a. Traffic operating above FL195 in controlled airspace b. Traffic flying in controlled airspace at 5000 ft AGL c. Traffic flying VFR at a height of less than 1500 ft AGL d. Traffic flying in uncontrolled airspace at 5000 ft AGL

96. Above which height must you fly a semi-circular flight level?

Chapter 5, paragraph 5.1 a. 1000 feet b. 1500 feet c. 2000 feet d. 3000 feet

97. The compliance with the semi-circular rule is only applicable to aircraft flying on

an ATC flight Plan: Chapter 5

a. True b. False c. Only applicable to aircraft flying below 1500’AGL d. Only applicable in controlled airspace

98. When planning a flight, what factor would make the use of the semi–circular rule not applicable?

Chapter 5 a. When flying outside of controlled airspace b. When flying through an FAD c. When planning to fly at less than 1500’ AGL d. Never

99. An flight plan is filed to fly a magnetic track of 355 deg, The pilot files at FL085,

During the flight a strong wind is encountered from the East resulting in a heading correction of 7 degrees to the right to maintain the required magnetic track, the pilots action will be to:

Paragraph 5.1 and 5.3 a. Fly a magnetic heading of 002 and climb or descend to FL095 or FL075 b. Fly a magnetic heading of 002 and climb or descend to FL100 or FL080 c. Fly a magnetic heading of 002 and climb or descend to FL085 or FL095 d. Fly a magnetic heading of 002 and maintain FL085

100. On a flight from Durban to Cape Town, the correct FL for a VFR flight will be:

Paragraph 5.1 and 5.3 a. FL085 b. FL120 c. FL200 d. A020

101. Select the correct statement:

Paragraph 5.3 a. An altitude of 7500 ft is indicated on an altimeter in flight when using the standard

altimeter setting of 1013.25 hPa b. FL075 is always equivalent to 7500 ft AGL c. FL075 indicates the altitude of an aircraft in flight d. A VFR pilot, flying on a magnetic track of 090° may elect to fly at FL075 to conform

to the semi-circular rule

102. At which of the following fight levels could an aircraft flying VFR on a magnetic track of 270° fly according to the semi-circular rule:

Paragraph 5.3 a. FL080 b. FL085 c. FL070 d. FL075

103. When should a flight plan be filed?

Paragraph 6.1 a. International flights and public transport flights. b. Flights conducted in controlled and advisory airspace with some exceptions. c. Flights for which alerting action is required. d. All of the above are correct.

104. Which of the following is one of the requirements for the mandatory filing of a

Flight Plan? Paragraph 6.1

a. Any RPAS operations in controlled airspace b. A private flight with passengers on board c. Any flight with more than one person on board

105. Which of the following is one of the requirements for the mandatory filing of a Flight Plan?

Paragraph 6.1 a. Any international flight b. A private flight with passengers on board c. Any flight with more than one person on board

106. A flight plan shall be submitted by the latest:

Paragraph 6.2.1 a. 30 minutes prior to departure b. 10 minutes prior to departure c. 60 minutes prior to departure d. 50 minutes prior to leaving the blocks

107. Which of the following statements is correct?

Paragraph 6.2.1 a. Operators wishing to file a Flight Plan with the Johannesburg International Briefing

Office may do so up to 140 hours in advance, but not less than 30 minutes prior to the estimated time of departure.

b. Operators wishing to file a Flight Plan with the Johannesburg International Briefing Office may do so up to 120 hours in advance, but not less than 24 hours prior to the estimated time of departure.

c. Operators making use of the FAX facility to file a Flight Plan with the Johannesburg International Briefing Office must follow up with a telephone call to this office to ensure that the Flight Plan has been received in a legible form.

d. Operators wishing to file a Flight Plan with the Johannesburg International Briefing Office may do so up to 140 hours in advance, but not less than 30 minutes prior to actual time of departure.

108. Who would you phone to file a flight plan? Paragraph 6.2.1

a. Your chief pilot b. The SACAA c. The nearest ATSU

109. An ATS flight plan needs to be amended in flight when: Paragraph 6.4 (CAR91.03.4(12)(c) says 2 minutes, AIP GEN 1-7.4 still says 3 minutes, CAR is the higher entity, so 2 minutes is correct). If no answer “ETA changes by 2 minutes or more” is provided in the CAA exam, please tick “ETA changes by 3 minutes or more”

a. ETA changes by 2 minutes or more b. TAS changes by 2% or less c. TAS changes by 3% or more d. The aircraft is off track

110. How is a flight plan closed when landing at an uncontrolled airfield? Paragraph 6.5

a. The pilot must notify ATC immediately before or after landing. b. The Pilot must send an email to ATC sometime during the evening after landing c. The company/pilot must compile a list of all successful landings at the end of each

month and send this list to ATNS

111. You are on a flight from a controlled airfield to an unmanned airfield with SAR filed for destination plus one hour. On arriving at destination you are unable to raise the ATC, what will your actions be?

Paragraph 6.5 a. Take no action as you are landing at an unmanned airfield b. Take no action as ATC will see your transponded go off when you shut down the

aircraft. c. Contact ATC by any means possible to close your flight plan. d. Inform the local police station and ask them to close your flight plan.

112. Is the Radio call sign of the aircraft inserted in the flight plan? Paragraph 6.6.1

a. Yes b. No c. Sometimes

113. With regard to “Flight Rules” in a flight plan – what does ‘V’ stand for? Paragraph 6.6.2.1

a. VFR b. VOR c. VMC

114. The symbol Y in field 8 Flight rules indicates?

Paragraph 6.6.2.1 a. Yes, the flight is to be conducted according to VFR flight rules b. The flight will first be conducted under VFR flight rules then at a point continue at an

IFR flight level c. The flight will first be conducted under IFR flight rules then at a point continue at a

VFR flight level d. The flight will first be conducted under VFR flight rules then at a point SAR will be

cancelled and a VFR decent conducted to the destination airfield.

115. A student pilot is filing an ATS flight plan for a solo cross country flight. Select the correct entry for the "Type of flight" field (item 8) of the flight plan:

Paragrap 6.6.2.2 a. N for navigation flight b. S for solo c. X for solo student navigation and RMK/solo student navigation exercise in field 18 d. G for general aviation

116. An instructor and student will be conducting a training flight. Which letter will be

used on the flight plan under item 8, type of flight? Paragrap 6.6.2.2

a. N for navigation flight b. S for student flight c. M for mandatory training d. G for general aviation

117. On a flight plan under the category ‘type of flight’, what does S stand for? Paragraph 6.6.2.2

a. Scheduled Air Transport b. Search and rescue is available c. Civilian Flight

118. The letter “G” entered into Item 8 (type of flight) of an ATS flight plan represents: Paragraph 6.6.2.2

a. Ground monitoring b. GNSS c. General Aviation d. GPS

119. You are flying an experimental aircraft, a Kitfox 22 that does not have an ICAO

designator, how would you complete field 9? Paragraph 6.6.3.2

a. KFOX22 b. ZZZZ and insert RMK/Kitfox 22 in field 18 c. ZZZZ and insert TYP/Kitfox 22 in field 18 d. Leave the field blank

120. The letter L is written in the wake turbulence box of a flight plan form when the

maximum certified take-off weight of an aircraft is less than or equal to: Paragraph 6.6.3.3

a. 20,000 kg b. 14,000 kg c. 7,000 kg d. 5,700 kg for airplanes and 2,700 kg for helicopters

121. Wake turbulence separation minima are based on the grouping of aircraft.

Medium is classified as: Paragraph 6.6.3.3

a. Aircraft types 7000 kg or less b. Aircraft types more than 7000 kg but less than 17000 kg c. Aircraft types less than 136000 kg but more than 7000 kg d. All aircraft types 136000 kg or more

122. The equipment on board you aircraft is: VHF RT/F, VOR, ILS and mode C

transponder. What would you put on the flight plan under equipment? Paragraph 6.6.4 and 6.6.5 a. S/C b. VH OL/C c. VOL/C

123. An aircraft is equipped with the following communication and navigation

equipment: VHF radio, VOR, ILS, DME, GPS and Mode C transponder Field 10 will be competed as follows: Paragraph 6.6.4 and 6.6.5

a. SDG/C b. VOIDG/C c. SGDC d. VLDX/C

124. If you enter VOF/C under Item 10a and 10b on a flight plan, then you are stating

that you have all the following serviceable equipment on board he aircraft: Paragraph 6.6.4 and 6.6.5

a. VHF, VOR, ADF, Mode C transponder b. VOR, ADF, Mode C transponder c. Standard equipment and Mode C transponder

125. The letter "G" entered into Item 10 of an ATS flight plan represents: Paragraph 6.6.4.4 a. Ground monitoring b. GNSS c. GLONASS d. GPS

126. What must be entered into item 13 (departure aerodrome and time) of an ICAO

flight plan form? Paragraph 6.6.6.2 a. Take-off time in local time b. Take-off time in UTC c. Off-block time in UTC d. Off-block time in local time

127. The planned cruising speed for the first leg or all of the cruising portion of the

flight must be entered in the speed box of a flight plan form. This speed is the: Paragraph 6.6.7.1

a. indicated air speed (IAS) b. estimated ground speed (G/S) c. true air speed (TAS) d. true air speed at 65% power

128. When completing an ATS flight plan, Item 15 requires the cruising speed to be

completed. To indicate this speed in knots, which character must be inserted: Paragraph 6.6.7.1

a. O b. K c. T d. N

129. An aircraft flying on a westerly track wants to fly at FL105, at a speed of 190 kts.

What should the flight plan item 15 look like? Paragraph 6.6.7.1 and 6.6.7.2

a. N0155 A105 b. N190 FL105 c. N0190 F105 d. K0190 F0105 e. N190 F105

130. Which mandatory item must be included in an ATS flight plan which is filed prior

to departure: Paragraph 6.6.7.3

a. The route to be followed b. The type of VHF radio in the equipment listing c. The aircraft's indicated airspeed d. The co-pilot's name

131. You have filed a VFR flight plan. What do you put in field 16 (total estimated

elapsed time)? Paragraph 6.6.8.2

a. Time from brakes off to overhead the destination b. Time from brakes off to landing time c. Time from take off to overhead the destination d. Time from take off to landing

132. You are planning a flight from Port Elizabeth to Durban, the distance is 250nm and your cruise TAS is 100 kts, with an endurance of 3.75 hours, What will be the correct completion of the FP?

Paragraph 6.6.8.2 and 6.6.10.1 a. EET 0230 Endurance 0375 b. EET 0250 Endurance 0345 c. EET 0230 Endurance 0345 d. EET 0250 Endurance 0375

133. If no ICAO identifier has been attributed to an alternate airport (box 16) of a flight

plan form: Paragraph 6.6.8.3

a. write XXXX in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) ALTN/followed by the name of the airport

b. write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information ALTN/followed by the name of the airport

c. write XXXX in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) DEGT/followed by the name of the airport

d. write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) DEGT/followed by the name of the airport

134. The endurance entered in field 19, refers to:

Paragraph 6.6.10.1 a. The total time the flight will take from start to landing b. The total time the aircraft can remain in the air flying at maximum continues power c. The total time the aircraft can remain airborne based on an average fuel

consumption at cruise altitude d. The time the aircraft can remain in the air based on start, take off and climb fuel,

cruise and descent fuel, 45 min diversion fuel and holding fuel for 30 min at 1500’ above the airfield elevation

135. You are not sure of the number of passengers on the flight, the correct entry in

the POB column is: Paragraph 6.6.10.2

a. To be Told later (TBL) b. To be notified (TBN) c. To be advised (TBA) d. ZZZ

136. In field 19, the emergency radio equipment R/ ELBA refers to

Paragraph 6.6.10.3 a. The emergency locator transmitter fitted to the aircraft. b. The emergency tracking radio equipment located on the island of ELBA c. A portable Emergency Locator beacon carried by the pilot or crew d. The emergency radio carried in the life jackets

137. Your aircraft is equipped with emergency VHF radio, Life jackets with Lights and

a VHF radio, the correct indication on the flight plan is: Paragraph 6.6.10.3 and 6.6.10.5

a. VHF and Lights, Fluorescent, VHF b. VHF and Lights, VHF c. UHF, ELB and Fluorescent, VHF, UHF d. VHF and Lights, UHF

138. In a flight plan, what do you do with the letter D if there are no Dinghies carried? Paragraph 6.6.10.6

a. Rub out the ‘D’ b. Cross out the ‘D’ c. Circle the ‘D’

139. In field 19 under remarks, the annotation FAK and Strips means:

Paragraph 6.6.10.8 a. First aid kit and bandage strips b. First Aid kit and signalling strips c. Fire and emergency Kit and signalling strips d. Is only inserted if you request SAR in field 18

140. A radio operator referring to an aircraft with the registration ZU-GFT would refer

to the aircraft’s callsign as: Paragraph 7.2

a. Zulu Uniform George Foxtrot Tango b. Zulu Uniform Golf Foxtrot Tango c. Zulu Uniform Golf Freddy Tango

141. The number 22056 is pronounced phonetically as:

Paragraph 7.3 a. Two two thousand and fife six b. Too too tousand and fife six c. Too too thousand and fife six d. Too too zeroh fife six

142. An altitude of 1500’ is pronounced phonetically as:

Paragraph 7.3 a. Wun thousand five hundred b. Wun tousand fife hundred c. Wun tousand five hundred d. Win tousand fife hundred

143. Zulu time is:

Paragraph 7.5 a. A name for Greenwich mean time, or universal time b. A name for the time stated by the Zulu Tribe c. A name for the time in KwaZulu Natal

144. Convert the following times from Local South African time to UTC: 17:00; 6pm;

4am; 1pm; 12:30pm Paragraph 7.5

a. 1700; 1400; 0200; 1100; 1030 b. 1700; 1800; 0400; 1300; 1230 c. 1500; 1600; 0400; 1300; 1230 d. 1500; 1600; 0200; 1100; 1030

145. If the time is four o’clock in the morning in South Africa, how would this be

written in Universal Coordinated Time (UTC)? Paragraph 7.5 a. 0400 UTC b. 0200 UTC c. 1400 UTC

146. What does QNE indicate? Paragraph 7.6 a. Height above airfield elevation b. Height above the 1013.2 hPa pressure level c. Altitude above mean sea level d. Atmospheric pressure at an airfield

147. What does the abbreviation 'QDR' mean?

Paragraph 7.6 a. True bearing to a station. b. Magnetic bearing from a station. c. Compass bearing to a station. d. Compass bearing from a station. e. True bearing from a station. f. Magnetic bearing to a station.

148. What does 'QTE' mean?

Paragraph 7.6 a. True bearing from a station b. True bearing to a station c. Magnetic bearing from a station d. Compass bearing from a station e. Magnetic bearing to a station

149. What does 'QTF' mean?

Paragraph 7.6 a. Magnetic orientation of a runway b. Distance to a station c. True track to a station in no wind d. Position of an aircraft according to bearings taken by a ground station

150. Under what condition may a pilot abbreviate his or her callsign when speaking to

a controller? Paragraph 7.7.2

a. If the controller has first abbreviated the callsign and there is no ambiguity with another callsign.

b. If there is no other aircraft on that frequency who could use the same abbreviation. c. On any radio call

151. While doing a radio check on your pre-flight, you must use the words:

Paragraph 7.8 a. "Signal check" b. "Radio check" c. "Pre-flight check" d. "How do you read this message?"

152. A radio station reporting your radio signal as strength 3, means your signal is:

Paragraph 7.8 a. Readable now and then b. Readable but with difficulty c. Good d. Readable

153. Which is the correct order of priority of messages: (the most important being first mentioned and the least important last mentioned)? Paragraph 7.9 a. Communications relating to direction finding – Pan Messages – Mayday Messages b. Mayday messages – Meteorological messages – Pan Messages c. Mayday Messages - Pan Messages – Communications relating to direction finding

154. What does a white dumbell with vertical black stripes mean when displayed in the

signals area of an airfield? Paragraph 7.10.1 a. No aircraft may taxi on the grass b. Aircraft must take off and land on runways only c. Glider operations are in progress at this airfield d. Parallel runways are available for landing

155. What does a large black “A” mean when displayed in the signals area of an

airfield? Paragraph 7.10.1 a. Airfield is for Aeroplanes only, no helicopters allowed b. Aerobatics in progress c. Agricultural operations in progress d. An automated weather report broadcast is available

156. A marshaller is showing you an open hand, which he is closing into a fist. What

does that mean? Paragraph 7.10.2 a. Close the doors of the aircraft b. Set brakes c. You may start taxying d. I am finished and will not give any more signals

157. What does a series of white flashes to an aircraft in the air mean? Paragraph 7.10.3.2

a. Cleared to land b. Return for landing c. Give way and continue circling d. Aerodrome unsafe. Do not land e. Land at this aerodrome, proceed to the apron

158. If an intercepting aircraft rocks its wings while in front and to the left of you, what

is it trying to communicate? Paragraph 7.10.4

a. Follow me away from a prohibited area b. Follow me away from a restricted area c. You may proceed with own navigation

159. Irregular flashing of navigation lights by an intercepted aircraft means:

Paragraph 7.10.4 a. Cannot comply b. Understood, will comply c. In distress d. Radio failure

160. How long is it suggested to wait before making a second call to an ATSU if they don’t reply to your first message?

Paragraph 8.1 a. 15 minutes b. 5 seconds c. 10 seconds d. 15 seconds

161. What does 'ATIS' stand for? Paragraph 8.2

a. Automatic Terminal Information Service b. Automatic Traffic Information Service c. Aircraft Terrain Information System d. Automatic Traffic Information System

162. What is an ATIS?

Paragraph 8.2 a. An air traffic control unit that operates at busier aerodromes b. A continuous broadcast of recorded non-control aeronautical information c. A specialised radio navigation aid d. The standard name for broadcasts by aircraft in uncontrolled airspace

163. The ATIS is usually updated:

Paragraph 8.2 a. Whenever something changes b. Once every hour c. Once every half hour d. When a new METAR is issued

164. When establishing contact, the station being called is referred to first and then

the callsign of the calling station. Paragraph 8.3

a. True b. False

165. Reply to the following transmission “ABC, Tower”. Paragraph 8.3

a. “ABC standing by”. b. “Tower, ABC”. c. “Tower, ABC, do you read?” d. “Tower, from ABC”.

166. Reply to the following ATC instruction: “ABC, no reported traffic, climb to FL045”

Paragraph 8.4 a. No reported traffic to affect the climb to FL045, ABC b. ABC, no reported traffic to affect the climb to FL045 c. No reported traffic, climb to FL045, ABC d. Climb FL045, ABC

167. What is the correct sequence of a position report?

Paragraph 8.7 a. Identification, Position, Time, Flight level or Altitude, Next position and time over it. b. Identification, Route, Position, Time, Flight level or Altitude, Next position and time

over it. c. Identification, Flight level or Altitude, Position, Time, Next position and time over it. d. Position, Time, Next position and time over it, Flight level or Altitude.

168. Which language/s may be used in radiotelephony in South Africa: Paragraph 8.8.1

a. English and Zulu b. English only c. English, Zulu and Afrikaans

169. What is the meaning of the phrase 'Acknowledge'?

Paragraph 8.8.1 a. No b. Let me know that you have received and understood this message. c. Have I correctly received the following ...? or Did you correctly receive the message? d. Yes

170. What is the meaning of the phrase 'Affirm'? Paragraph 8.8.1

a. Yes b. No c. Proceed with your message d. Have I correctly received the following ...? or Did you correctly receive the message?

171. How do you pronounce CAVOK?

Paragraph 8.8.1 a. Cavokay b. Cav-oh-kay c. Cavok d. Cav-okay

172. The term ‘CONFIRM’ used in radiotelephony is best described as meaning that: Paragraph 8.8.1

a. I require the transmitting party to repeat part of their last transmission b. I have traffic in sight c. I am in agreement with the transmitting party d. I wish to verify the last transmission or instruction from the transmitting party

173. The term “CORRECTION” used in radiotelephony is best described as meaning

that: Paragraph 8.8.1

a. I am correcting an error in my previous transmission b. I am correcting an error in my own transmission c. I am correcting an error in my filed ATS flight plan d. I am correcting an error in the transmitting party's last transmission

174. What is the standard phraseology used when you fix an error in a transmission?

Paragraph 8.8.1 a. Disregard b. Error c. Never mind d. Correction

175. The phrase Negative means:

Paragraph 8.8.1 a. I cannot comply b. I repeat c. No

176. Are words like 'Over' and 'Out' still in use in VHF communications today? Paragraph 8.8.1

a. No, since the release of the transmitting button signals the end of a message. b. No, since they are not aviation terms. c. Yes. This is the only correct way of transmitting. d. No, since we use words like 'Roger' and 'Charlie Charlie’

177. As a radio operator, what phrase would you use to get the person with whom you

are talking to repeat all or a specified part of his/her last transmission? Paragraph 8.8.1

a. Please repeat what you just said b. Please repeat c. Say again

178. Wilco means:

Paragraph 8.8.1 a. I understand your message and will comply with it b. A place in the USA c. A radio operator

179. Having committed to land at a specific aerodrome; the crew calculate that any

change to the existing clearance may result in landing with less than the planned final reserve fuel. What should be communicated to ATC at this stage?

Paragraph 8.8.2 a. PAN, PAN, PAN, FUEL b. MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY, FUEL c. FUEL URGENCY d. MINIMUM FUEL

180. When should a pilot use the phrase 'take-off'?

Paragraph 8.8.2 and 8.8.3 a. Requesting permission to line-up on a runway for take-off b. When lifting off to notify ATC that the aircraft is now airborne c. Acknowledging a clearance for take off d. Requesting permission to take-off

181. Which statement is correct regarding clearances issued by controllers?

Paragraph 8.8.3 a. Clearances are always valid to destination b. Clearances do not relieve pilots from compliance with the rules c. Clearances are always issued on a 'first come' basis d. Clearances are always valid to the FIR boundary

182. What does 'expedite' mean? Paragraph 8.8.3

a. Return for landing b. Turn through 360° c. Stay where you are d. Hurry up

183. What does 'Line up and wait' mean?

Paragraph 8.8.3 a. Take off and wait for further instructions before turning b. Taxi onto the runway and wait for further instructions c. Start the take-off roll but do not lift off d. Park straight on the taxi-way and wait for further instructions e. Take off and wait for further instructions before take off

184. What should you do if you are told to change frequency and monitor 120.4? Paragraph 8.8.3 a. Tune into 120.4 and make a radio call to the other air traffic. b. Tune into 120.4 and wait for 1 min c. Tune into 120.4 and listen out. d. Tune into 120.4 and make a radio call to the controller.

185. According to the AIP, when must a pilot report position:

Paragraph 8.9.1 a. When flying in uncontrolled airspace b. When flying in controlled, advisory airspace or on a flight for which alerting action is

being provided c. At 30nm intervals along any route d. At 5 minute intervals on all flights

186. What is the direction of a standard circuit? Paragraph 8.10

a. it depends on the airfield surroundings b. Right c. Left

187. What is the direction of a non-standard circuit?

Paragraph 8.10 a. Right b. Left c. It depends on the airfield surroundings

188. You are making a long straight-in approach to land, at what range would you

make the call Long Final? Paragrapgh 8.10.1

a. 3 nm b. 4 nm c. Between 8 nm and 4 nm d. 8 nm

189. On joining the circuit, the ATC instructs you to join on a non standard right hand

base for the runway, the correct joining procedure is to: Paragrapgh 8.10.1

a. Descend to the published circuit height join on the downwind leg of a right hand pattern and call next turning onto the base leg

b. Fly directly to the base leg position and descend to the circuit height when established on the base leg

c. Descend to the published circuit height, join on the base leg by the most direct route d. Descend to circuit height, fly over the middle of the airfield and join on the right base

190. When aircraft are using the same runway, a landing aircraft may be permitted to

touch down before a preceding landing aircraft is clear of the runway: Paragraph 8.10.1 a. providing it is during the daylight hours b. providing the runway is long enough to allow safe separation between the two

aircraft and there is not evidence that braking may be adversely affected c. the pilot of the following aircraft is warned d. all statements are true

191. You are approaching an unmanned airfield, the AIP states that the airfield elevation is 4350’ AMSL, which of the following heights are correct to comply with the unmanned airfield joining procedure:

Paragraph 8.10.2 a. Fly over the airfield at 5850’ AMSL and descend to 5350’ on the downwind leg b. Fly over the airfield at 5850’ AMSL and remain at 5850’ on the downwind leg c. Fly over the airfield at 6350’ AMSL and descend to 5350’ on the downwind leg d. Fly over the airfield at 6350’ AMSL and descend to 5850’ on the downwind leg

192. What does the transponder base its altitude information on?

Paragrpah 9.2 a. Height above ground level b. Pressure altitude c. Altitude above sea level d. What is indicated on the altimeter

193. When changing the squawk code, you should: Paragraph 9.2

a. Always turn the dials clockwise b. Set the transponder to 'standby' first c. Press 'ident' before changing anything d. Always turn the dials anti-clockwise

194. Which of the following correctly lists special purpose codes that are to be used in

conjunction with Secondary surveillance Radar (SSR)? Paragraph 9.2

a. Distress 7600; Hijacking 7500; Communication failure 7700 b. Distress 7700; Hijacking 7600; Communication failure 7500 c. Distress 7500; Hijacking 7700; Communication failure 7600 d. Distress 7700; Hijacking 7500; Communication failure 7600

195. You experience a radio failure but have a serviceable transponder, what code will

you set on the transponder? Paragraph 9.2

a. 7500 b. 7600 c. 7700 d. 2000

196. Why would a controller request an aircraft to confirm its flight level if that aircraft

is equipped with a transponder that is set to ON and Mode C (ALT)? Paragraph 9.4

a. To confirm that the pilot has set the correct pressure setting for the transponder. b. To see if the pilot flying the aircraft knows which flight level he or she should be flying

at. c. To verify that the altitude being broadcast by the transponder is correct. d. To test whether the radar installation is set at the correct angle.

197. Does an ATC clearance always include prevention of collision with terrain?

Paragraph 9.4 a. Yes b. Only in mountainous areas c. Only after positive radar identification d. Only when the aircraft is under radar control

198. On IFR flights, who is responsible for the prevention of collision with terrain? Paragraph 9.4

a. The Pilot b. ATC, when IFR flights are vectored by radar c. The Pilot and ATC in close co-operation d. A and B are correct

199. If you don’t receive a reply immediately to your call: Paragraph 10.1

a. Call again immediately and shout louder b. Turn the volume up c. Wait 20 seconds and call again

200. In an attempt to correct a suspected radio failure, a pilot should check:

Paragraph 10.1 a. The appropriate frequency charts, POH and that the ignition switch is ON b. The volume control, selected frequency and aircraft electrical system c. For interference from cellular phones and GPS d. The pitot/static system, POH and that the ignition switch is ON

201. When not receiving an answer to a number of attempts to make contact, which of

the following is not a radio failure procedure? Paragraph 10.1

a. Check the master switch is on. b. Tap the microphone very hard against a hard object c. Check the correct frequency has been set

202. Should you experience a fault with your radio, how would you determine what the

fault is? Paragraph 10.1 a. Check the master switch is on, the volume control is turned up and the microphone

is not stuck in transmit mode. b. Check you have the right radio, any frequency is selected and that there is not a

power failure. c. Check the master switch is off, the volume control is turned to the lowest setting and

the headset is unplugged.

203. A pilot on a VFR cross country flight to a controlled aerodrome experiences radio failure outside of controlled airspace. Unless otherwise published in the AIP the pilot should:

Paragraph 10.2.1 a. Continue as per flight plan b. Remain clear of controlled airspace and land at an unmanned aerodrome c. Remain clear of any CTR and proceed to an ATZ d. Continue and enter controlled airspace at the destination and join overhead for

landing

204. On a flight from FAGG to FACT, when 35 NM from Cape Town, you can hear the ATC transmitting but are unable to make contact with them on any of your on board radios. What will your actions be?

Paragraph 10.2.1 a. Continue as per flight plan and listen out for instructions while transmitting 7700 on

the transponder b. Divert to the nearest unmanned airfield, make blind radio transmissions and Squawk

7600 on the transponder c. Continue as per flight plan and listen out for instructions while transmitting 7700 on

the transponder and follow the unmanned airfield procedures when arriving at FACT d. Descend low level to avoid other traffic, squawk 7600, fly over the runway and

waggle your wings when passing the tower to attract their attention.

205. What are the two emergency categories? Chapter 11 a. Distress and urgency b. Danger and important c. Priority and urgency d. MAYDAY and PAN

206. Which of the following are emergency communications?

Chapter 11 a. Meteorological and safety messages b. Distress and urgency messages c. Flight safety and direction finding messages d. Flight regularity and NOTAM messages

207. Radio silence can be imposed by an aeronautical station in case of:

Paragraph 11.1 a. Technical difficulties b. Urgency communication c. Overload of the frequency d. Distress traffic

208. Which of the following indicate a Distress message is being broadcast? Paragraph 11.1

a. Mayday, Mayday, Mayday b. Pan, Pan, Pan c. SOS, SOS, SOS d. Panic, Panic, Panic

209. What does ‘MAYDAY’ mean? Paragraph 11.1

a. A day in May which is a public holiday b. An aircraft which is in a distress situation c. A situation of urgency

210. How do you cancel a MAYDAY after you have transmitted it?

Paragraph 11.1 a. Leave it, it will be cancelled after 2 days b. Telephone the nearest police station c. Phone the nearest ATSU and advise them to cancel the MAYDAY d. Transmit a “Cancel MAYDAY'' with the reason

211. On a flight from Nelspruit to Alldays under LOWVELD Radar Control, while passing west of the air force base at Hoedspruit you develop and engine problem and can maintain height but need to land as soon as possible, what will your best actions be?

Paragraph 11.2 a. Declare a MAYDAY, select a suitable field and carry out an emergency landing b. Declare a PAN, route towards the military afield and land only when you have

permission c. Declare a MAYDAY, route towards the military afield and land only when you have

permission d. Declare a PAN route towards the military afield and land even if the airfield is

unmanned and you cannot get radio clearance to land

212. How should a call for assistance be initiated when an aircraft is in a situation concerning its safety or the well being of some person on board, but does not require immediate assistance:

Paragraph 11.2 a. Climb, confess, conserve b. Mayday, Mayday, Mayday c. Pan-Pan x 3 d. No call is required

213. An urgency call should be initiated by the words: Paragraph 11.2

a. Pan-Pan, Pan-Pan, Pan-Pan b. Mayday-Mayday, Mayday-Mayday, Mayday-Mayday c. Mayday-Mayday-Mayday d. Pan-Pan-Pan

214. What does ‘Pan’ mean? Paragraph 11.2

a. Mayday b. An Aircraft which has landed in a salt pan c. A situation of urgency

215. What is the objective of filing an ATIR (Air Traffic Incident Report)?

Paragraph 2.4 a. To promote aircraft flight safety b. To allocate blame for an incident c. To increase the efficiency of the investigation d. All of the above

216. When does search and rescue start when 'NIL' is specified on a flight plan? Paragraph 12.1

a. 3 minutes overdue at reporting points in controlled airspace. b. 5 minutes overdue at reporting points in controlled airspace. c. 3 minutes overdue at destination.

217. For which airports may RMK/SARNMLormal be filed? Paragraph 12.1

a. Airports within controlled airspace b. Uncontrolled airports that have ground staff c. Any airport in Class C airspace d. Controlled airports

218. When can RMK/SARNIL be indicated in Item 18 (other information) of an ATS Flight plan:

Paragraph 12.1 a. Only for flights in the private category b. For any flight c. Only when the destination is an uncontrolled aerodrome d. Only when the destination is a controlled aerodrome

219. When does search and rescue start when 'NORMAL' is specified on the flight

plan? Paragraph 12.1 a. 15 minutes overdue b. 10 minutes overdue c. 5 minutes overdue d. 3 minutes overdue

220. How is search and rescue requested for a flight plan to an airfield with no ATC?

Paragraph 12.1 a. RMK/SARNML b. RMK/SARNIL c. RMK/SAR (destination airfield name) d. RMK/SAR (ATSU to be notified)/(UTC by when you will let the ATSU know of your

arrival) 221. In field 18, the notation RMK/SARNML means

Paragraph 12.1 a. Normal Search and Rescue procedures are applicable on a commercial flight only b. Normal Search and Rescue procedures are applicable on any planned flight

requiring SAR with continuous ATC two way VHF communication c. Normal Search and Rescue procedures, provided the pilot can phone in his landing

time to ATC after landing d. Normal Search and Rescue procedures, provided ATC has continuous radar

coverage of the flight.

222. With regards to the declaration of SAR, the term `INCERFA` is best described as: Paragraph 12.2.1

a. Uncertainty phase b. When the aircraft is in distress c. The aircraft is low on fuel d. The pilot has declared a “mayday”

223. The Three Search and Rescue phases are: Paragraphs 12.2.1 to 12.2.3

a. Inserted, Alerted, Distressed b. Incerfa, Alerfa, Detresfa c. Information, Ambulance, Discovery

224. When you call a “MAYDAY", the ATC will go to which of the search and rescue

phases? Paragraph 12.2.3

a. ALERFA b. INCERFA c. DETRESFA d. None of the above are correct

225. What does “confess” mean pertaining to the Five Golden Rules? Paragraph 12.3.1 a. State your point of departure and intended landing b. Ask ATC for help c. Tell ATC what your problem is, even if you have made mistakes or broken rules d. State your religious affiliation

226. What is the order of priority that a pilot should always keep in mind?

Paragraph 12.3.1 a. 1. Communicate 2. Aviate 3. Navigate b. 1. Communicate 2. Navigate 3. Aviate c. 1. Navigate 2. Aviate 3. Communicate d. 1. Aviate 2. Communicate 3. Navigate e. 1. Navigate 2. Communicate 3. Aviate f. 1. Aviate 2. Navigate 3. Communicate

227. What does the emergency ground symbol 'V' mean?

Paragraph 12.3.4 a. Need assistance b. This way c. Affirm d. Negative e. Need medical assistance

228. What does the Ground/Air emergency signaling code ‘X’ mean? Paragraph 12.3.4

a. This is where we are b. Require medical Assistance c. Nobody is injured

229. The process of conveying information by a radio wave is called:

Paragraph 13.1 a. Morse code b. Carrier wave c. Modulation

230. With frequency modulated transmissions the:

Paragraph 13.1 a. Amplitude is constant and the frequency varies. b. Frequency is constant and the amplitude varies. c. Amplitude and frequency vary.

231. The wavelength of a radio wave transmission is: Paragraph 13.1

a. The number of cycles in one second b. The distance travelled during the transmission of one cycle c. The complete change of direction current

232. If the wavelength is 3 cm, the frequency is: Paragraph 13.1

a. 74 MHz b. 100 GHz c. 10 000 MHz

233. If a signal of two hertz was transmitted for one second, the physical space occupied by the signal would be:

Paragraph 13.1 a. 300 000 000 Metres. b. 150 000 000 Metres. c. 600 000 000 Metres.

234. A Frequency modulated radio wave modulates in: Paragraph 13.1

a. Amplitude b. Frequency c. Both A and B above are correct

235. A horizontally polarized radio wave has its:

Paragraph 13.1 a. Electrical field in the horizontal plane b. Electrical field in the vertical plane c. Magnetic field in the horizontal plane

236. If a radio wave is horizontally polarized the:

Paragraph 13.1 a. Electrical component is in the vertical plane and the magnetic component is

horizontal. b. Electrical component is in the horizontal plane and the magnetic component is

vertical. c. Magnetic component is horizontal with the electrical component 180° out of phase

237. The frequency range from 30-300MHz is known as: Paragraph 13.2

a. VLF b. ULF c. VHF

238. A typical wavelength of a VLF transmission is:

Paragraph 13.2 a. 50 cm b. 30 km c. 100 m

239. Static interference increases with an:

Paragraph 13.2 a. Increase in frequency b. Decrease in frequency c. Decrease in wavelength

240. Attenuation is the loss of radio energy due to: Paragraph 13.2

a. Diffraction. b. Interference. c. Contact with the surface of the earth

241. The bending of a radio wave by the Earth’s surface is greatest on:

Paragraph 13.2 a. VLF b. LF c. MF

242. Fading of low frequency and medium frequency at night may be due to: Paragraph 13.2

a. Poor receiver sensitivity and ionospheric attenuation b. Simultaneous reception of sky and surface waves c. Reception of space waves and atmospheric attenuation

243. The erratic change in received radio signals known as fading can be caused by: Paragraph 13.2

a. Increasing distance from the transmitter b. Rays from the sun heating the ionosphere during the day c. Mixed skywave and groundwave reception

244. Static is caused by?

Paragraph 13.2 a. Other radio transmissions. b. Buildings c. Electromagnetic disturbances

245. Low frequency waves have a greater range capability due to the waves:

Paragraphs 13.2, 13.3 and 13.4.2 a. Bending due to refraction b. Line of sight c. Ionized refraction in the ionosphere

246. VHF voice communication frequencies are: Paragraph 13.3

a. 108 to 112 MHz. b. 108 to 117.9 MHz. c. 118 to 136 MHz.

247. The distance a VHF radio signal may be received or transmitted is determined by: Paragraph 13.4 and 13.4.1

a. The height of the ground aerial b. The height difference between the two transmitters / receivers c. The power of the transmitter d. Both B and C above are correct

248. What are the propagation characteristics of VHF? Paragraph 13.4.1

a. The waaves travel along the surface of the earth and penetrate into valleys in a way that topographical obstacles have no influence

b. Practically straight line similar to light waves c. Similar to short waves with practically no atmospheric disturbance d. The waves are reflected at the ionoshere at the height of about 100 km and reach

the earth’s surface in the form of sky waves

249. The distance between a station and the first wave returning to earth is called the: Paragraph 13.4.2

a. Skip distance b. Wave length c. Frequency

250. Skip distance is the distance between: Paragraph 13.4.2

a. Successive skywave touchdown points b. The distance between the end of the ground wave and the first skywave return c. The distance between a transmitter and the first skywave return

251. Selecting a lower HF/RT frequency at night results in: Paragraph 13.4.2

a. An increase of the critical angle. b. An increase of the dead space. c. A decrease of the skip distance.

252. Reception of HF communication by night is affected by: Paragraph 13.4.2

a. The lower ionosphere density b. The height of the reflective layer is reduced c. HF communications are not affected

253. The “squelch” control on a VHF communication receiver:

Paragraph 13.5.2 a. Extends the range of the receiver. b. Prevents feedback. c. Disables receiver output when no signals are being received so preventing noise

being fed to crew headsets.

254. Why should you not smoke or have open fires around batteries? Paragraph 13.6.1 a. This might distract you when you should be monitoring the battery b. Batteries give off highly flammable fumes c. Smoking and open fires around aircraft fuel is dangerous

255. The following applies for aircraft equipped with ACAS: Paragraph 14.3.3

a. Separation minima may be reduced by ATC between aircraft equipped with ACAS b. As the ACAS capability of an aircraft is known to ATC, pilots may be required to

maintain their own separation in cruise c. The ATS procedures to be applied to aircraft with ACAS shall be identical to those

applicable to non-ACAS equipped aircraft

256. In which airspace or region would one generally find SELCAL: Paragraph 14.3.4

a. Airways b. Upper Airways c. Oceanic FIR d. RNAV Routes

257. The frequency band of VOR equipment is from: Paragraph 15.3

a. 108 to 117.95 MHz b. 112 to 117.95 MHz c. 109 to 121 MHz