Military Aviation Authority...2135(2): Fitness-to-Fly 2135(3): Pilot Operations – Upper Age Limit 2135(4): Flying After an Accident or In-Flight Medical Incident 2135(5): Aviation

Military Aviation Authority

FLYING (FLY) 2000 SERIES REGULATORY ARTICLES

UNCONTROLLED COPY WHEN PRINTED 2000 SERIES

2000 SERIES Issue 25 UNCONTROLLED COPY WHEN PRINTED Page 1 of 8

2000 SERIES (FLY) REGULATORY ARTICLES

1. The FLY series of RA address the responsibility and authority for flying operations. An AOA will issue detailed orders for flying operations under their area of responsibility. Such orders must be in line with the overall policy, with the aim of demonstrating compliance with the regulations dictated by the MAA. The orders must cover general and specific aircraft operations, weapons and other airborne equipment.

2. Aircraft operating regulations, and any other rules, orders and instructions allow for all types of Defence aviation flying including research, test and evaluation, test and evaluation training, routine training, operational exercises, the preparation and enactment of contingency plans and operations. Such flying will be conducted under a Release to Service (RTS), a Military Permit to Fly (MPTF) or a Certificate of Usage (CofU).

3. The series is split into 5 sub-streams, as outlined below:

a. The 2100 series covers aircrew qualifications and competency.

b. The 2200 series covers ground qualifications and engineering from the aircrew perspective.

c. The 2300 series covers the operation of aircraft.

d. The 2400 series covers administrative elements.

e. The 2500 series covers the arrangements for Defence Contractor Flying Organizations

4. The 2000 Series (FLY) RA are owned by D MAA. Table 1 below shows the current documents, along with the associated Regulation titles.

5. Table 2 below shows the withdrawn documents, along with the associated Regulation titles. The Rationale for withdrawal stated in these documents was correct at point of publish and it is incumbent on the user to check the references remain valid prior to use.

Table 1: 2000 Series (FLY) Regulatory Articles

RA NUMBER

RA DESCRIPTION SUB RA

RA 2101 Aircrew Qualifications

2101(1): Entitlement to Conduct Flying Duties

2101(2): Certificate of Qualification on Type

RA 2102 Aircrew Competence in Role

2102(1): Certificate of Competence

2102(2): Periodicity of Assessment of Competency

RA 2103 Currency and Continuation Training

2103(1): Currency Requirements

2103(2): Continuation Training

RA 2115 Aircraft Commanders

2115(1): Responsibilities of an Aircraft Commander

2115(2): Authority of an Aircraft Commander

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RA NUMBER


RA 2120 Pilots' Instrument Rating Scheme

2120(1): Instrument Rating Requirements

2120(2): The Instrument Rating Test

RA 2125 Aircrew Instructors Training 2125(1): Aircrew Instructor Training

RA 2130Safety Equipment, Survival Drills and Training

2130(1): Safety and Survival Training and Currency

2130(2): Withdrawn - Incorporated into RA 2130(1)

2130(3): Wearing and Carriage of Aircrew Equipment Assemblies and Safety Equipment

2130(4): Safety Harnesses

2130(5): Survival and Rescue Equipment

2130(6): Ejection Seat Anthropometrics

RA 2135 Aircrew Medical Requirements

2135(1): Aircrew Medical Employment Standard

2135(2): Fitness-to-Fly

2135(3): Pilot Operations – Upper Age Limit

2135(4): Flying After an Accident or In-Flight Medical Incident

2135(5): Aviation Medical Training

2135(6): High G Training

2135(7): Temporary Medical Restrictions to Flying Duties

RA 2201Carriage of Maintenance Documents in UK Military Aircraft

2201(1): Documents to be Carried

2201(2): Withdrawn - Content incorporated in RA4302 and in RA2201(1)

RA 2210Preventive Maintenance and Continuous Charge Operations

2210(1): Preventive Maintenance Limitations

2210(2): Continuous Charge Operations

2210(3): Withdrawn – Content incorporated in RA 4054(1)

RA 2211Authorization of Aircrew to Carry Out Maintenance Tasks

2211(1): Authorization of Aircrew to Carry Out Flight Servicing

2211(2): Authorization of Aircrew to Carry Out Air System Maintenance Work

2211(3): In-Flight Corrective Maintenance



RA NUMBER


2211(4): Training of Aircrew to Enter a Cockpit Containing Aircraft Assisted Escape Systems

RA 2220 Maintenance Test Flights

2220(1): The Flight Test Schedule

2220(2): Aircrew Competency and Authorization for Flight Tests

RA 2301 Responsibility for an Air System

2301(1): Transfer of Custody of Air System

2301(2): Flying Requirements Post Maintenance

2301(3): Air System Acceptance Checks

2301(4): Exceeding Parameters and Hazardous Incidents

RA 2302 Responsibilities in the Air

2302(1): Responsibilities in the Air

2302(2): Withdrawn - covered by Armed Forces Act

RA 2305 Supervision of Flying

2305(1): Supervision of Flying

2305(2): Embarked Aviation Operations

2305(3): Air System Limitations

2305(4): Withdrawn - Covered by Armed Forces Act

2305(5): Aircrew Briefing

2305(6): Air Exercise Planning and Airspace Integration

2305(7): Taxiing of Aircraft

RA 2306 Authorization of Flights 2306(1): Authorization of Flights

RA 2307 Rules of the Air

2307(1): Rules of the Air

2307(2): Withdrawn - Incorporated in RA2307(1)

RA 2309 Flight Procedures

2309(1): Landing away from Active Airfields

2309(2): Fire Precautions and Smoking in Aircraft

2309(3): Carriage of Loose Articles and Stores

2309(4): Dropping or Jettisoning of Articles

2309(5): Handing over Control in Air Systems with Dual Controls



RA NUMBER


2309(6): Withdrawn - Incorporated into RA 2307

2309(7): Flying in the Company of Civil Aircraft


2309(9): Aerobatics

2309(10): Air to Air Refuelling

2309(11): Electromagnetic and Cosmic Radiation

2309(12): Oxygen and Cabin Pressure

2309(13): Altitude Limitations

2309(14): Simulated and Practice Emergencies

2309(15): Refuelling Aircraft - Engines and/or Rotors Running

2309(16): Night Vision Device Flying

RA 2310 Role Specific Fixed Wing

2310(1): Supersonic Flight

2310(2): Withdrawn - Content Incorporated into RA2309(9)

2310(3): Spinning

2310(4): Asymmetric Power

2310(5): Single-Engine Air System Engine Shutdowns





RA 2315 Role Specific Rotary Wing

2315(1): Withdrawn - Content Incorporated in RA2309(15)






RA NUMBER



2315(6): Rotary Wing Air System Ground Runs


RA 2320Role Specific Remotely Piloted Air Systems

2320(1): Remotely Piloted Air Systems Collision Avoidance

2320(2): Control of Remotely Piloted Air Systems

2320(3): Management of Control data-Link

2320(4): Remotely Piloted Air Systems Operating Bases

RA 2325Air Weapons Carriage, Training and Demonstrations

2325(1): Carriage of Air Weapons and Towed Targets

2325(2): Air Weapons Training and Demonstrations

RA 2327 Air Combat and Evasion Training 2327(1): Air Combat and Evasion Training

RA 2330 Low Flying

2330(1): Low Flying ►Governance◄

►2330(2): Aviation Duty Holders / Accountable Managers (Military Flying) Orders and Instructions◄

►2330(3): Low Flying - General◄

►2330(4): UK Low Flying System - Specific◄

RA 2335Flying Displays, Display Flying, Role Demonstrations and Flypasts

2335(1): Flying Display Organization and Management

2335(2): Display Flying, Role Demonstrations and Flypasts (Mil)

2335(3): Separation Distances, Minima and Restrictions

RA 2340 Supernumerary Crew, Supernumerary Support Crew and Passengers

2340(1): Supernumerary Crew

2340(2): Supernumerary Support Crew

2340(3): Passengers - General

2340(4): Routine Air Transport Passengers

2340(5): Tactical Passengers

2340(6): Familiarization Flight Passengers

2340(7): Air Experience Flight Passengers

2340(8): Carriage of VIP Passengers



RA NUMBER


2340(9): Carriage of Cadets as Passengers

2340(10): Carriage of Working Dogs

RA 2345 Aircrew Fatigue Management

2345(1): Management of Aircrew Fatigue

2345(2): Use of Temazepam in the Management of Work and Rest in Aircrew

RA 2350 Air System Emergencies 2350(1): Air System Emergencies

RA 2355 Static Line and Freefall Parachuting,

2355(1): Approval for Static Line and Free Fall Parachuting

2355(2): Procedures for Static Line and Free Fall Parachuting

2355(3): Withdrawn – Incorporated into RA 2357

RA 2357Troop Insertions and Extraction Systems

2357(1): Troop Insertions and Extraction Systems Governance

RA 2360 Portable Electronic Devices 2360(1): Portable Electronic Devices

RA 2370 Test and Evaluation

2370(1): Test and Evaluation Governance

2370(2): Test and Evaluation Personnel

2370(3): Test and Evaluation Activity

RA 2375Qualification, Approval and Use of Flight Simulator Training Devices

2375(1): Qualification of Flight Simulator Training Devices

2375(2): Approval of Flight Simulator Training Devices

2375(3): Use of Flight Simulator Training Devices

RA 2380Performance Based Navigation Operations

2380(1): Air System and Pilot Requirements

2380(2): Performance Based Navigation Flight Procedures

RA 2401 Documents and Records

2401(1): Air System Document Set

2401(2): Use and Carriage of Documents in the Air System

2401(3): Flying Logbooks and Recording of Flying Times

2401(4): Aviation Duty Holder/Accountable Manager (Military Flying) Orders

2401(5): Authorization Record

2401(6): Meteorological Records

2401(7): Training Records



RA NUMBER


RA 2415 Civil Use of Government Aerodromes

2415(1): Civil Use of Government Aerodromes

2415(2): Withdrawn – Not deemed regulatory material



RA 2420Use of Privately Owned Aircraft by Service Personnel

2420(1): Withdrawn – JSP754 and single-Service Queen’s Regulations apply

2420(2): Withdrawn – RA2335 applies




RA 2425Aircraft Accidents, Forced Landings or Incidents

2425(1): Withdrawn – RA1410, RA1430 and the Manual of Aircraft Post Crash Management apply


RA 2435Her Majesty's Revenue and Customs (HMRC) Requirements

2435(1): Withdrawn - content covered by JSP800 Volume 2, Part 2, Chapters 11 and 12

RA 2501Contractor Flying Approved Organization Scheme

2501(1): Contractor Flying Approved Organization Scheme Application and Approval

2501(2): Contractor Flying Approved Organization Scheme Approval Changes

2501(3): Contractor Flying Organization Exposition

2501(4): Contractor Flying Approved Organization Scheme MAA Regulatory Publications Applicability

2501(5): Contracted Activities



Table 2: Withdrawn 2000 Series (FLY) Regulatory Articles (not included in the 2000 Series combined document)

RA NUMBER


RA 2321Class I(b) and Class I(b) MIL Remotely Piloted Air Systems – Operator Qualifications and Requirements

2321(1): Withdrawn – Incorporated into RA 1602 and RA 1603



RA 2420Use of Privately Owned Aircraft by Service Personnel

2420(1): Withdrawn – JSP754 and single-Service Queen’s Regulations apply

2420(2): Withdrawn – RA2335 applies




RA 2425Aircraft Accidents, Forced Landings or Incidents



RA 2435Her Majesty's Revenue and Customs (HMRC) Requirements

2435(1): Withdrawn - content covered by JSP800 Volume 2, Part 2, Chapters 11 and 12

UNCONTROLLED COPY WHEN PRINTED Regulatory Article 2101

RA 2101 Issue 5 UNCONTROLLED COPY WHEN PRINTED Page 1 of 4

RA 2101 - Aircrew Qualifications

Rationale ►◄ Aircrew require a baseline standard of ability and knowledge in order to ►fly or◄ operate ►◄ Air Systems ►governed by MAA Regulatory Publications (MRP).◄ A failure to either achieve or maintain this standard may result in an increase in Risk to Life and therefore it is necessary to demonstrate the application of this ability and knowledge on the specific Air Systems that are flown or operated.

Contents 2101(1): Entitlement to Conduct Flying Duties

2101(2): Certificate of Qualification on Type

Regulation

2101(1)

Entitlement to Conduct Flying Duties

2101(1) To fly or operate ►Air Systems governed by the MRP,◄ Aircrew shall be qualified.

Acceptable Means of Compliance

2101(1)


1. Aviation Duty Holders (ADH) and Accountable Managers (Military Flying) (AM(MF)) should promulgate in orders the criteria for the award, or recognition of Aircrew qualifications.

2. UK Military Registered Air Systems. In order to fly or operate UK military registered Air Systems, Aircrew should be qualified in accordance with (iaw) at least one of the following criteria:

a. ►They are◄ in possession of, or ►have◄ previously been awarded, ►one of the following◄:

(1) The appropriate UK military flying badge►1◄;

(2) A UK military or AM(MF) approved Remotely Piloted Air System (RPAS) pilot/operator qualification;

(3) A UK military or AM(MF) approved non-Pilot Aircrew qualification.

b. ►They are◄ undergoing an ADH or AM(MF) approved training course and the duties to be authorized form part of ►the◄ course of training;

c. ►They are◄ part of a recognized foreign exchange programme approved by single-Service chiefs;

d. ►They possess the◄ appropriate civil licence; ►◄

e. ►They are in possession of, or have previously been awarded, a foreign military qualification that has been approved as equivalent by the ADH or AM(MF).◄

3. Civil Registered Air Systems. In order to fly, or operate, a civil registered Air System for UK military purposes as directed by an Air System Operating Authority:

a. Civilian Aircrew should be qualified iaw the appropriate civilian licensing requirement.

b. Military Aircrew should be compliant with the qualification requirements as stated in ADH or AM(MF) orders (see para 1), and be permitted to do so within the provisions of the relevant National Aviation Authority Regulations (eg the Air Navigation Order for the UK).

1 ►The relevant single-Service Flying Branch and Trade Advisor should be contacted for guidance on which flying badges are currently endorsed for use, or have previously been endorsed for use.◄

Regulatory Article 2101 UNCONTROLLED COPY WHEN PRINTED

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Guidance Material

2101(1)


4. ►Definition of Aircrew can be found in MAA022.◄

5. A UK military flying badge ►◄ is awarded by a single-Service Approving Officer following achievement of an appropriate standard on an approved training course ►iaw Queen’s Regulations3.◄

6. A UK military or AM(MF) approved RPAS pilot/operator or non-Pilot Aircrew qualification is awarded by a single-Service Approving Officer or AM(MF) following achievement of an appropriate standard on an approved training course.

7. Approved Training Course. For the purposes of this Regulation an approved training course is one that has been assured by an Independent Body that is suitably qualified and experienced, prior to overall approval by the appropriate ADH or AM(MF).

8. Flying Instruction. Where an approved training course leads to award of a flying badge ►◄, RPAS or non-Pilot Aircrew qualification, Aircrew must be given flying instruction by an appropriately Qualified Aircrew Instructor (Qualified AI), ►iaw RA 21254.◄

Regulation

2101(2)

Certificate of Qualification on Type

2101(2) To fly or operate ►Air Systems governed by the MRP,◄ Aircrew shall be in possession of a valid Certificate of Qualification on Type (CQT) for that type.


2101(2)


9. A CQT should only be awarded on completion of an approved training course by ►one of the following◄:

a. ►The appropriate◄ ADH;

b. ►The appropriate◄ AM(MF) or Flight Operations post-holder; ►◄

c. ►An appropriately◄ Qualified AI, empowered by orders.

10. A CQT should be documented in a formal record, such as an Aircrew logbook.

11. When an Aircrew member is required to fly, or operate, an Air System for which ►they hold◄ no CQT, arrangements should be made for ►that individual◄ to receive flying instruction by an appropriately Qualified AI on that type in order to gain a CQT.

12. A CQT should be deemed to have lapsed if the Aircrew member has not flown the Air System in the previous 6 months. In such circumstances, an appropriate period of flying instruction should be given by an appropriately Qualified AI to revalidate the CQT.

Guidance Material

2101(2)


13. This Regulation is not designed to deal with lapses in currency. It is aimed at Aircrew who require an initial CQT or who need refresher training to revalidate a previously held CQT.

14. ADH or AM(MF) may exempt the following categories from the requirement to hold a valid CQT:

a. Aircrew under training on an approved training course, when working towards a CQT;

b. Central Flying School (CFS) examiner when not acting as Aircraft Commander;

2 ►Refer to MAA02: MAA Master Glossery. 3 RN, Army and RAF refer to Queen’s Regulations for the RAF - Joint Regulation QR J727. 4 Refer to RA 2125 - Aircrew Instructor Training.◄



Guidance Material

2101(2)

c. Test and Evaluation (T&E) Aircrew when conducting specific trials or Test Pilots when QualEval flying. However, this does not apply to the delivery of T&E training generally, for which the Aircraft Commander is to hold a valid CQT;

d. ►Aircrew carried as Familiarization Flight Passengers iaw RA 23405.◄

15. Where simulators are used, ►Aircrew◄ will be given ►◄ instruction by a competent ►◄ simulator instructor, as laid down in the appropriate ADH or AM(MF) orders.

16. Unless a MOD Aircrew logbook is used to record CQT, the relevant ADH or AM(MF)/Flight Operations post-holder ►issues◄ a CQT under their own cover. National Aviation Authority licences may be used as evidence towards cover issue of a CQT.

17. ►◄

18. Flying Instruction Leading to CQT. Where an approved training course leads to award of a CQT, Aircrew must be given flying instruction by an appropriately Qualified AI►4◄. Test Pilots may deliver flying instruction leading to CQT, where a Qualified AI could not reasonably be expected to exist, at the discretion of the ADH or AM(MF).

19. ►◄

5 ►Refer to RA 2340 - Supernumerary Crew and Passengers on UK Military Registered Air Systems.◄



Intentionally Blank for Print Pagination



RA 2102 – Aircrew Competence in Role

Rationale ► Aircrew skill can degrade over time, which may lead to an increase in Risk to Life. This regulation requires Aviation Duty Holders (ADH) and Accountable Managers(Military Flying) (AM(MF)) to ensure that Aircrew who operate UK Military Air Systemsdemonstrate the required skill level, achieve specific competencies in their role andhave their proficiency periodically checked to confirm that skill levels are beingmaintained.◄

Contents 2102(1): Certificate of Competence

2102(2): Periodicity of Assessment of Competence

Regulation

2102(1)

Certificate of Competence

2102(1) To fly, or operate, UK ►military Air Systems◄ in role,►Aircrew◄ shall be in possession of an applicableCertificate of Competence.

AcceptableMeans ofCompliance

2102(1)

Certificate of Competence1. ►ADH◄ and ►AM(MF)◄ should issue ►orders◄ detailing the competencelevels, in terms of flying experience, qualifications and skill sets for each ►Air System◄ and role, required for the safe operation of UK ►military Air Systems◄ within their Area of Responsibility (AoR). This should include competence levels for►non-Certificate of Qualification on Type (CQT)1◄ Crew Members, SupernumeraryCrew and non-Pilot Aircraft Commanders where necessary.

2. A Certificate of Competence should be documented in a formal record such asan ►Aircrew◄ logbook.

GuidanceMaterial

2102(1)

Certificate of Competence3. Commanders or Flight Operations post-holders may impose additional criteriapertinent to operating effectiveness over and above the safe operation of the ►Air System◄ prior to the issue of a Certificate of Competence.

4. Certificate of Competence status is not automatic following achievement of thecriteria by ►Aircrew,◄ but will be subject to the discretion of unit Commanders, FlightOperations post-holders or higher authority, as may be specified by the appropriate►ADH◄ or AM(MF).

5. ►◄

Regulation

2102(2)

Periodicity of Assessment of Competence

2102(2) Aircrew competence shall be periodically, independentlyassessed.

AcceptableMeans ofCompliance

2102(2)

Periodicity of Assessment of Competence6. A continuous rolling assessment process should be activated from the initialaward/uplift of a Certificate of Competence. The process should be facilitated byindividual ►Aircrew◄ undergoing periodic assessment, by an independent examiningbody.

7. Aircrew competence should be subject to review by Commanders or FlightOperations post-holders (under the Contractor Flying Approved Organization Scheme)at least annually, to ensure safe operation (as a minimum) of the ►Air System.◄ ►ADH◄ and AM(MF) should stipulate in ►orders◄ the periodicity of independentassessment. All evidence of competence reviews and supervisory checks should berecorded in the ►Aircrew◄ member’s training record.

1 Non-CQT Crew are not passengers - ►Refer to RA2340 - Flying of Passengers on UK Military Aircraft◄.



GuidanceMaterial

2102(2)

Periodicity of Assessment of Competence8. Nil.



RA 2103 - Currency and Continuation Training

Rationale ►A minimum level of flying currency and training activity is required in order to enable the continued maintenance of Aircrew competencies that have been achieved in a specific role. A failure to achieve this will result in a degradation of skill that may increase Risk to Life. This Regulation requires Aviation Duty Holders (ADH) and Accountable Managers (Military Flying) (AM(MF)) to specify the minimum activity required to reduce this to a level that is As Low As Reasonably Practicable and Tolerable.◄

Contents 2103(1): Currency Requirements

2103(2): Continuation Training

Regulation

2103(1)

Currency Requirements

2103(1) ►ADH◄ and ►AM(MF)◄ shall specify in orders the currency minima, by type and role, for the safe operation of ►Air Systems◄ by Aircrew within their Area of Responsibility.


2103(1)


1. Currency. All Aircrew employed in flying appointments should maintain flying currency and practise their crew duties in at least one type of ►Air System◄ that their Unit operates. Currency requirements for Commanders of flying Units or Flight Operations post-holders should be sufficient to provide for their supervisory responsibilities.

2. Currency Lapses. When Aircrew have been unable to remain in current flying practice they should receive a check sortie in order to permit them to return to flying or conduct the activity for which currency has lapsed, eg night flying, and subsequently regain currency. ►ADH◄ and AM(MF) should stipulate in orders: the requirements of the check sortie (for example live flying, synthetic or a mix); who may conduct the check sortie; the validity period attributable to the check sortie; and any further training required for Aircrew whose currency has lapsed. A written report of the check sortie

should be recorded in the Aircrew training record.

3. Consecutive Check Sorties. ►ADH◄ and AM(MF) should stipulate in orders the maximum number of consecutive check sorties allowable without regaining currency before an independent assessment or period of re-training is required.

4. Multi-Type Aircrew. Where Aircrew routinely operate multiple ►Air Systems, ADH◄ and AM(MF) should specify the applicability of hours and continuation training events flown across multiple types towards both general flying currency and type flying currency requirements.

Guidance Material

2103(1)


5. Currency Lapses. The purpose of a check sortie is to allow a non-current individual to fulfil their normal crew duties without additional supervisory requirements whilst regaining currency. A check sortie itself does not necessarily constitute regaining of currency, ie individuals must not be allowed to merely conduct back-to-back check sorties to be deemed current. Minimum requirements for currency as laid down in ►ADH or◄ AM(MF) orders must be met before an individual is deemed to be current. Consequently, following a check sortie, a period of consolidated flying might need to be completed to achieve currency.

6. Aircrew Multiple Competencies. Demands on Aircrew competencies will vary according to tasks and roles. Nevertheless, Aircrew must be properly trained and current to meet the demands of forthcoming tasks and roles. This might require



Guidance Material

2103(1)

limiting the number of ►Air Systems◄ flown and might necessitate additional flying training and practice above the minimum stipulated.

7. Multi-Type Aircrew. In determining currency and continuation training equivalence between ►Air Systems, ADH◄ and AM(MF) will need to consider such factors as: asymmetric characteristics; instrument/cockpit layouts; performance and handling; and ►Air System◄ system complexity.

Regulation

2103(2)

Continuation Training

2103(2) ►ADH◄ and AM(MF) shall specify in orders the minimum requirements of continuation training for Aircrew by type and role.


2103(2)


8. ►ADH◄ and AM(MF) should specify, as a minimum, the frequency and content of periodic flight, simulator and ground training and maintain appropriate training records.

9. ►ADH◄ and AM(MF) should promulgate orders or instructions detailing the entitlement to log flying hours and continuation training events in a multi- crew environment.

Guidance Material

2103(2)


10. Test Pilot Continuation Training. For Test Pilots, continuation training also permits the handling of an ►Air System◄ on which they may not hold a Certificate of Qualification on Type ►◄ to allow them to experience the flying or system characteristics of an unfamiliar type and to practise flight test techniques.



RA 2115 - Aircraft Commanders

Rationale An Aircraft Commander is designated by the Aircraft Operating Authority as being in command of an Air System and is responsible for its safe operation and the accomplishment of its assigned mission. A failure to execute this responsibility, or a misunderstanding of it, could increase Risk to Life. This regulation requires Aviation Duty Holders (ADH) and Accountable Managers (Military Flying) (AM(MF)) to establish the responsibilities and authority of an Aircraft Commander and ensure that they are understood and acted upon.

Contents 2115(1): Responsibilities of an Aircraft Commander

2115(2): Authority of an Aircraft Commander

Regulation

2115(1)

Responsibilities of an Aircraft Commander

2115(1) The Aircraft Commander shall be entirely responsible for the safety of the Air System, its occupants and equipment, both in the air and on the ground until it is handed over to the appropriate authority after flight.


2115(1)


1. ADH and AM(MF) should issue guidance on the standards required of Aircraft Commanders within their Area of Responsibility.

2. The Aircraft Commander should ensure that:

a. ►The◄ crew is properly constituted and all members are qualified, current and capable of performing their duties ►in accordance with (iaw) the Air System Document Set (ADS) and ADH / AM(MF) Orders, both in the air and on the ground.◄

b. All crew members are:

(1) Properly clothed and equipped for their tasks.

(2) In date for all safety and survival drills appropriate to the Air System.

(3) Proficient in the use of the escape and survival equipment carried.

(4) Familiar with all emergency procedures.

c. All necessary flight and fuel planning has been carried out iaw the ADS ►and ADH / AM(MF) Orders,◄ and that, when required, a flight plan has been filed with the Air Traffic Control (ATC) authorities.

d. The appropriate aeronautical information publications or other national flight planning documents relevant to the area in which they intend to operate are used.

e. An appropriate meteorological briefing has been obtained.

f. All requisite steps have been taken to prepare the Air System for the flight and the appropriate servicing documents have been inspected and signed.

g. ►The Air System is supervised and managed once the Aircraft Commander has taken responsibility for it iaw RA 23011. When the Aircraft Commander is not able to effectively supervise and manage the Air System while it is in their custody, they should delegate this responsibility to a suitably qualified Aircrew representative.◄

h. Passengers, if carried, have been briefed on:

1 ►Refer to RA 2301 – Responsibility for an Air System.◄




2115(1)

(1) The authority of the Aircraft Commander.

(2) Precautions to be taken when boarding and leaving the Air System.

(3) Crash positions and emergency procedures.

(4) ►◄ Use of the Air System oxygen, escape and survival equipment carried.

(5) Loose equipment ►stowage.

(6) Use of Portable Electronic Devices while on board, if permitted.◄

i. Correct ATC communications and navigation procedures are carried out during flight.

j. Appropriate post-flight procedures are completed.

Guidance Material

2115(1)


3. When Qualified Aircrew Instructors (Qualified AI) are qualified to act as Aircraft Commanders and are acting in the capacity of Qualified AI, they will normally be the Aircraft Commander, unless otherwise permitted by ADH or AM(MF).

4. Subordinate orders and instructions may use the term ‘Aircraft Captain’. Where this occurs, the meaning will be interpreted as being synonymous with the meaning of ‘Aircraft Commander’.

Regulation

2115(2)

Authority of an Aircraft Commander

2115(2) In matters of Air Safety, all persons on board, whatever their rank or status, shall be under the command of the Aircraft Commander.


2115(2)


5. Nil.

Guidance Material

2115(2)


6. This regulation protects the safety of persons on board from attempts to undermine the Aircraft Commander’s authority for the preservation of Air Safety. For example, a superior may be instructed by the Aircraft Commander to ‘sit down and fasten a seat belt’. ►◄ A superior acting on behalf of the Aircraft Operating Authority may issue a legitimate order affecting the sortie as planned, whether on board or not, such as a Grade 1 diversion, so long as the order ►is consistent with RA 10202 and / or RA10243, and RA 12104.◄

2 ►Refer to RA 1020 - Aviation Duty Holder and Aviation Duty Holder-Facing Organizations - Roles and Responsibilities. 3 Refer to RA 1024 - Accountable Manager (Military Flying). 4 Refer to RA 1210 - Ownership and Management of Operating Risk (Risk to Life).◄



►This RA has been substantially re-written; for clarity no change marks are presented - please read RA in entirety◄

RA 2120 - Pilots’ Instrument Rating Scheme

Rationale Operations of UK Military registered Air Systems are at times required to be conducted in controlled airspace or with insufficient external visual references. Failure to safely operate their Air System solely by reference to instruments within the limits of the aids available and in accordance with (iaw) the airspace requirements increases the Risk to Life of the Air System occupants as well as other airspace users. The Pilots’ Instrument Rating Scheme requires Aviation Duty Holders (ADH) and Accountable Managers (Military Flying) (AM(MF)) to adopt suitable measures to ensure that pilots have the appropriate qualifications, recent experience, knowledge and skill to operate safely in these regimes. Categorizations within the scheme will provide a graduated scale based on experience as an indicator of demonstrated competency in Instrument Flying (IF).

Contents 2120(1): Instrument Rating Requirements

2120(2): The Instrument Rating Test

Regulation

2120(1)

Instrument Rating Requirements

2120(1) All pilots who fly a UK Military registered Air System in Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC), where insufficient visual references exist, or in airspace classes that require it shall hold a valid Instrument Rating (IR).


2120(1)


1. Training Prior to IR Award. In derogation to this Regulation, ADH and AM(MF) should stipulate in Orders the circumstances under which a pilot may fly in IMC without a valid IR, including minimum competence requirements. The following circumstances should be catered for:

a. Dual instrument flying training towards award of an IR or revalidation of a lapsed IR, where the supervising pilot holds a valid IR.

b. When required to fly without sufficient visual references as part of a recognized flying training course, pilots under training flying as Aircraft Commander should have undertaken an appropriate IF competence check. IF competence checks should be documented in the pilots’ flying training records.

2. IR Award. An IR should be awarded to a pilot or pilot under training on successful completion of the appropriate flight or Flight Simulator Training Device (FSTD)1 test and ground examination as promulgated by ADH or AM(MF), relevant to the Air System type. The IR should be awarded for a particular type of Air System. The IR should be Amber, White, Green or Master Green, commensurate with flying experience and accuracy achieved during the Instrument Rating Test (IRT) as specified in ADH and AM(MF) Orders.

3. Multi-Type or Multi-Mark Aircrew. Where pilots routinely operate multiple types or marks of Air System, ADH and AM(MF) should specify the applicability of an IR across the different types or marks.

4. IRT Report. On completion of flight and ground tests, an IRT Report should be completed and filed in the pilot's flying training record.

5. Flying Logbook Entry. On award of an IR, full details should be recorded in the pilot's Flying Logbook, including: restrictions, the award or expiry date and the Air

1 Refer to RA 2375 – Qualification, Approval and Use of Flight Simulator Training Devices.




2120(1)

System type and mark as appropriate. A Performance Based Navigation (PBN) endorsement should be clearly annotated where awarded (eg Voyager Green / PBN).

6. Periodicity. IR should remain valid for 13 months from the date of the first flight of the IRT.

7. Extensions. ADH and AM(MF) should only grant extensions to the 13 month validity / periodicity for IRs for essential operational reasons or exceptional circumstances. Where an extension is deemed necessary, it should be approved personally and in writing by the appropriate ADH or AM(MF).

8. ‘Frozen’ Rating. In the event that a pilot flies an IRT to the Master Green, Green or White standard, but has insufficient hours for the award of that IR, they should be granted a ‘Frozen’ IR. The pilot is issued a lower IR, which is upgraded automatically if the minimum hours requirement is achieved within 3 months of the test. This timescale may be reduced further by the ADH or AM(MF).

9. Instrument Flying Currency. ADH or AM(MF) should promulgate the instrument flying currency minima, by type and role within their Area of Responsibility (AoR), required to maintain validity of an IR. This should include a minimum number of IF hours and instrument approaches. Where necessary, IF currency minima should also include applicability of IF training (including recordable hours) conducted across multiple types, or in a multi-crew environment. ADH and AM(MF) should also determine the number of simulator hours that may be accredited to IF currency, or an IRT.

10. A Master Green or Green IR should automatically revert to a White IR and a White IR to Unrated status if the minimum currency and practice requirements are not completed, provided the minimum currency and practice requirements are sufficient for the lesser IR. In either instance, in order to renew their IR, the pilot should complete the currency backlog to regain their previous IR.

11. Instrument Flying Practice. ADH and AM(MF) should ensure that all pilots who are required to maintain an IR are given opportunities for adequate practice evenly distributed throughout the period of their appointment. Pilots should ensure that their IR remains valid.

12. Simulated instrument flying should normally be carried out in Air Systems fitted with dual controls and supervised by a safety pilot iaw RA 23072. Live flying exercises involving unusual attitudes should be conducted in Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC).

13. Cancellation of an Award or Appointment. A pilot's IR should be cancelled by their ADH, AM(MF) or delegated authority, if there is evidence that the pilot is no longer competent to hold the IR. Similarly, an appointment as an examiner should be cancelled on the recommendation of the ADH or AM(MF) if there is evidence that the instructor / examiner is no longer competent. If an award or appointment is cancelled the word 'CANCELLED’ should be written or stamped in red over the appropriate entry in the pilot's Flying Logbook.

14. Command Instrument Rating Examiner / Instructor (CIRE / CIRI)3 and Instrument Rating Examiner / Instructor (IRE / IRI). Authority for the initial award and subsequent renewals of IR and appointments as examiners should be specified in ADH or AM(MF) Orders. Authority should not be delegated below OF4 level, or the Flight Operations post-holder.

15. IRE / IRI should hold at least a Green rating and should be subject to tests by CIRE / CIRI. Appointments as examiners should be valid for 13 months from the date of the first flying test. IRE / IRI should possess the requisite experience, competence, skill and knowledge to be awarded examiner status.

16. Civilian and Service FSTD Aircrew Instructors (AI) who conduct IRTs should be nominated as IRE / IRI and fly their qualifying IRT in the FSTD to Green standard. Those nominated should only be approved by CIRE / CIRI after being observed

2 Refer to RA 2307 – Rules of the Air. 3 CIRE / CIRI is a Suitably Qualified and Experienced Person (SQEP) selected to examine and instruct those IRE / IRI working within their AoR.




2120(1)

briefing, conducting and debriefing a simulator IRT. FSTD IRE / IRI should be valid for 13 months from the date of the test.

17. Flight tests and ground examinations for IR should only be conducted by CIRE / CIRI / IRE / IRI.

Performance Based Navigation

18. Pilots should be granted PBN privileges as part of their IR, appropriate to their Air System’s certified navigation specification and iaw the ADH / AM(MF) approval, where they fulfil all of the following requirements:

a. They have successfully completed a course of PBN theoretical knowledge and practical flying training4 equivalent to the requirements of Annex I of the EASA Part-FCL5, including PBN elements appropriate to the Air System(s) to be operated.

b. They have successfully completed an IRT containing the relevant PBN elements appropriate to their Air System.

19. The requirements of paragraph 18 a. and b. should be deemed to have been fulfilled where the ADH or AM(MF) considers the competence acquired, either through training or from familiarity with PBN operations, is equivalent to the competence acquired through the courses referred to in paragraph 18 a. and the pilot demonstrates such competence to the satisfaction of the examiner during their IRT.

20. For Air Systems approved for Required Navigation Performance Approaches (RNP APCH), if the IRT does not include an RNP APCH exercise, the PBN endorsement for the pilot is restricted and the Flying Logbook entry should state ‘No RNP APCH’ (eg Voyager White / PBN / No RNP APCH).

21. To maintain PBN privileges, ADH and AM(MF) should direct currency requirements appropriate to their Air System’s certified navigation specification and iaw their approval.

Guidance Material

2120(1)


22. Multi-Type Aircrew. In determining applicability of ratings from one type of Air System to one or more other types, ADH and AM(MF) will need to consider such factors as asymmetric characteristics, instrument / cockpit layouts, performance, handling and Air System complexity.

23. Classes of Airspace. Notwithstanding the general privileges conferred by a pilot's IR, limitations will apply in those classes of airspace for which the Air System is not equipped, unless the appropriate Air Traffic Control (ATC) authority has given clearance.

IR Categories

24. Unrated. In derogation to this Regulation, where an IF competence check is used to fly with insufficient visual references, the pilot will minimize time spent in IMC to that necessary to regain VMC. An IF competence check does not confer the same privileges as an IR and will not be used for IMC operations in controlled airspace.

25. Amber IR. The Amber IR will normally be awarded to pilots who have passed the appropriate flying and ground tests but lack the experience or currency criteria laid down for the award of a White or Green IR.

a. Privileges. The Amber IR qualifies a pilot to carry out the following tasks.

(1) IMC: Airways crossing. Flight in Class F and G airspace.

(2) Special VFR: Flight in Class D airspace.

(3) Instrument Flight Rules (IFR): Flight in Class D and E airspace while under the control of the authority controlling that airspace.

4 Practical flying training may be conducted in an approved FSTD. 5 Refer to Annex I of the EASA Part-FCL.



Guidance Material

2120(1)

(4) Operational Air Traffic (OAT): All classes of airspace in the UK.

b. IR Allowance. A pilot holding an Amber IR will add the allowance of 300 ft to the Procedure Minima when calculating Decision Height / Altitude (DH / DA) and Minimum Decent Height / Altitude (MDH / MDA).

26. White IR. The White IR will normally be awarded to pilots who have passed the appropriate flying and ground tests but lack the experience or currency criteria for the award of a Green IR.

a. Privileges. The unrestricted White IR qualifies a pilot to operate as General Air Traffic (GAT) or OAT in all classes of airspace.

b. Restrictions. ADH and AM(MF) may specify restrictions that apply to the issue of the White IR according to the experience of the pilot or the limitations of the Air System type.

c. IR Allowance. A pilot holding a White IR will add the allowance of 200 ft to the Procedure Minima when calculating DH / DA and MDH / MDA.

27. Green IR. The Green IR will normally be awarded to pilots who have passed the appropriate flying and ground tests and who meet the minimum experience and currency criteria for the award of a Green IR:

a. Privileges. The unrestricted Green IR qualifies a pilot to operate as GAT or OAT in all classes of airspace.

b. Restrictions. ADH and AM(MF) may specify restrictions that apply to the issue of the Green rating according to the experience of the pilot or the limitations of the Air System type.

c. IR Allowance. The allowance for a Green IR is zero.

28. Master Green IR. The Master Green IR will normally only be awarded to pilots who have displayed superior airmanship. It recognizes a higher level of experience and accomplishment in instrument flying:

a. Privileges. The unrestricted Master Green IR qualifies the pilot to the same level as a Green IR and confers the same privileges.

b. Restrictions. ADH or AM(MF) may specify restrictions that apply to the issue of a Master Green IR.

c. IR Allowance. The allowance for a Master Green IR is zero.

29. Civilian IR Equivalency. ADH and AM(MF) may allow a civilian IR to be used to confer a military IR; however, in doing so they will ensure that all the criteria contained within this regulation are met.

Regulation

2120(2)

The Instrument Rating Test

2120(2) All pilots shall demonstrate their ability to fly a UK Military registered Air System accurately and safely by reference to instruments alone and iaw airspace requirements before being issued an IR.


2120(2)


30. During the IRT, which may be taken under simulated or actual instrument flight conditions, a pilot should demonstrate their ability to fly accurately and safely by reference to Air System instruments alone and to the limits of the aids available. When fitted and not otherwise restricted, the head-up display should be used as the primary attitude reference during the IRT. The exercises included in the IRT should be promulgated in ADH and AM(MF) Orders: all tests should comply with the provisions below.

31. IRT Limits. The limits of accuracy for the mandatory full panel sections of the test are in Tables 1, 2 and 3.




2120(2)

Table 1. Tracking Limits, Instrument Approach (all Air Systems, all ratings).

Lateral and vertical Angular deviations (eg ILS, Localiser Performance with Vertical Guidance (LPV) Approaches)

±½ full scale deflection of azimuth or glide path indication during the final approach.

Linear lateral deviations (eg 2D6 Lateral Navigation (LNAV), 3D7 LNAV / Vertical Navigation (VNAV) Approaches)

±½ the RNP value associated with the procedure. Brief deviations from this standard up to a maximum of the full RNP value are allowable.

Linear vertical deviations (eg 3D LNAV / VNAV Approach using Baro VNAV)

not more than – 75 feet below the vertical profile at any time, and not more than + 75 feet above the vertical profile at or below 1000 feet above aerodrome level.

Precision Approach Radar (PAR), Surveillance Radar Approach (SRA)

The correct and timely application of controller instructions.

Radio Aid Approaches (eg TACAN / VOR / NDB Approaches)

±5 degrees of published tracks.

Table 2. Fixed Wing Air Systems.

Amber and White Ratings ±10 degrees of heading±10 knots / 0.03 M±100 feet (but ±200 feet above FL 250 and +100 feet to -0 feet at MDH / MDA)

Green and Master Green Rating ±5 degrees of heading±5 knots / 0.02 M±100 feet (but ±200 feet above FL 250 and +100 feet to -0 feet at MDH / MDA)

Table 3. Rotary Wing Air Systems.

Amber, White, Green Ratings ±10 degrees of heading ±10 knots±100 feet (but +100 feet to -0 feet at MDH / MDA)

Master Green Rating ±5 degrees of heading ±5 knots±100 feet (but +100 feet to -0 feet at MDH / MDA)

32. Accuracy. The limits of accuracy expected during simulated emergencies, flight on standby instruments or for operational exercises will depend on Air System instrumentation and operational requirements. The limits for these sections of tests should be laid down in ADH and AM(MF) Orders.

33. Assessment Limits. With the exception of approach minima, which are mandatory, the IRT limits should be a guide to assessment only and apply to conditions of nil or light turbulence. In more difficult conditions the testing officer should grant a degree of latitude to the pilot under test. Greater importance is to be attached to smooth flying using the recommended techniques, with associated captaincy, cockpit management and airmanship appropriate to the type and role of Air System on which tested and the IR awarded. Candidates for the IRE / IRI test should be expected to plan, brief, fly, debrief and assess their own test in the presence of a CIRE / CIRI.

34. Airborne Assessment of Skill. The IRT schedules for individual Air System types should be promulgated in ADH and AM(MF) Orders. They should be designed to ensure that the pilot has the necessary skills to fly a particular type in all those classes of airspace for which it is equipped, unless restrictions are placed on operations of either the Air System or the individual pilot by Commanders or Flight Operations post-holders, who may then limit the test accordingly. In these

6 2D Approaches have lateral guidance only (eg VOR, TACAN, NDB, LNAV Approaches). 7 3D Approaches have lateral and vertical guidance (eg ILS, LPV, LNAV / VNAV Approaches).




2120(2)

circumstances, the limitations should be clearly laid out in the Flying Logbook and the IRT Report.

35. Conduct of the Test. Exercises involving reversionary instrumentation, unusual attitudes and simulated emergencies should be conducted in a manner that is appropriate to the Air System type and role; unrealistic simulated emergencies should not be included. Live flying exercises involving unusual attitudes should be conducted in VMC. The flight test should be conducted on not more than two sorties but the rating validity should expire 13 months after the date of the first sortie.

36. Crew Co-ordination. If the Air System for the IRT is normally flown with the aid of a crew member, then the candidate should be assisted with such information and assistance as would normally be made available to them by the crew.

37. Ground Examination. Oral or written ground examinations should be conducted by an IRE / IRI within 7 days of the flight test on a particular Air System type. IRE / IRI should ensure that the candidate's ground knowledge is sufficient for them to operate their Air System type safely during instrument flight as pilot or Aircraft Commander. Relevant questions should be selected according to the Air System type and role from the following list, and the standard of answers should be appropriate to the rating awarded:

a. Manual of Military Air Traffic Management. Many regulations combine orders for pilots and air traffic controllers; questions should not be asked on controller aspects.

b. ADH or AM(MF) Orders.

c. Information. Pilots should be able to extract information relevant to Air System role from appropriate Air Information Publications and Flight Information Publications. Candidates for the IRE / IRI test should also be able to extract information on the conduct of IRTs from this Regulatory Article and subordinate documents / publications.

d. Flight lnstruments and Navigation Aids. Pilots should be able to explain the basic principles of operation, list the errors and limitations, and describe the normal and emergency use of the flight instruments and navigation aids that they are required to interpret or operate in flight.

e. Meteorology. Pilots should be able to:

(1) Discuss the practical properties of the air masses in their likely theatres of operation.

(2) Describe the formation, hazards associated with and avoidance of meteorological phenomena; and decode meteorological documentation.

f. Performance. Pilots should be able to make correct use of the Air System Documentation Set and other performance documents normally used on the Air System type. Where appropriate, they should be able to extract practical performance, holding and diversion information from these documents.

Guidance Material

2120(2)


38. The central advisory body regarding instrument flying standards and techniques is Examining Wing of the Central Flying School (CFS). Commandant CFS may delegate responsibility for conducting IRE / IRI / IR tests to appointed CFS agents. Where authorized, these agents may also provide advice within their ADH and AM(MF) Orders on instrument flying matters.




RA 2125 - Aircrew Instructor Training

Rationale Aircrew Instructors (AI) instruct Aircrew in the flying and operation of Air Systems, and assure Aviation Duty Holders (ADH), Accountable Managers (Military Flying) (AM(MF)), Remotely Piloted Air System (RPAS) Duty Holders (DH) and RPAS Accountable Managers (AM) that Aircrew are able to operate an Air System to the required standard. Ineffective instruction may adversely affect Aircrew ability, reduce operational output and ultimately lead to an increased Risk to Life (RtL). To reduce this risk, this Regulatory Article requires ADH and AM(MF) to ensure AI are appropriately trained, qualified and assured. Central Flying School (CFS) and the Air & Space Warfare Centre (ASWC) are the lead agencies for AI Training in the Defence Air Environment (DAE).

Contents 2125(1): Aircrew Instructor Training

Regulation

2125(1)

Aircrew Instructor Training

2125(1) ADH and AM(MF)1 shall ensure AI within their Area of Responsibility (AoR) are appropriately trained, qualified and assured to deliver high quality instruction in their Aircrew discipline.


2125(1)


1. ADH and AM(MF) should detail in orders:

a. The types of AI within their AoR;

b. The experience level and course(s) required by personnel in their AoR to become AI.

c. The required currencies and competencies required for an AI qualification to remain valid.

2. ADH / AM(MF) should approve training organizations to conduct AI training as per para 1b. These Approved Training Organizations (ATO) should meet or exceed the requirements detailed in the Manual of Military Aircrew Instruction (MMAI)2, and be independently assessed at intervals not exceeding 2 years (UK Civil Aviation Authority (CAA) / European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) ATO meet these requirements).

3. AI are required to possess skills that enable the effective transfer of knowledge to their students, and should be trained to achieve the following baseline competences:

a. Plan, prepare and deliver appropriately structured theoretical and practical teaching events.

b. Manage trainees, students and instructional resources.

c. Deliver specialist instruction to incorporate a range of differing learning styles.

d. Integrate Human Factors training into all serials.

e. Confirm / check learning has taken place, using appropriate practical techniques on the ground and in the air.

1 For Open Category and Specific S1 sub-category RPAS Operators, these responsibilities shall be carried out by the RPAS DH / AM. 2 Refer to The CFS Manual of Military Aircrew Instruction (MMAI).




2125(1)

f. Monitor and review trainee or student progress across the full range of aircrew training events.

g. Produce comprehensive written reports on individual training outcomes.

4. Flying instruction leading to the award of the appropriate UK military flying badge should only be delivered by CFS Qualified AI.

5. AI empowered through ADH / AM(MF) Orders to deliver flying instruction leading to the award of a CQT should be approved as competent to do so by a CFS Examiner or Agent or, for AI utilizing a civilian Type Rating Instructor (TRI) qualification, a UK CAA / EASA ATO.

6. Open Category and Specific S1 Sub-Category RPAS. RPAS DH and RPAS AM should, as a minimum, adhere to paras 1,3,10, and 12 of this RA for Instructors in these categories of RPAS.

Qualification

7. CFS Qualified AI. CFS Qualified AI (eg Qualified Flying Instructor, Qualified Observer Instructor, Qualified Synthetic Flying Instructor) should have completed a type specific CFS approved course, and had their qualification validated by CFS.

8. Other AI. Warfare AI who have completed an ASWC approved course should only conduct instruction once their qualification has been validated by ASWC. Other AI should have their qualification validated as detailed in ADH / AM(MF) orders.

9. Civilian AI. AI holding a UK recognized civilian TRI qualification should only conduct AI duties on that specific type if their licence, type and instructor rating remain current and valid.

10. Open Category and Specific S1 Sub-Category RPAS Instructors. Instructors for these categories of RPAS should:

a. Complete an approved MAA Defence System Approach to Training (DSAT) compliant course or a National Qualified Entity / Recognized Assessment Entity civilian course that includes a flying assesment.

b. Complete the Defence Train the Trainer (DTTT) course prior to delivering Remote Pilot training packages.

c. Be Defence Training Supervisor qualified prior to awarding an MAA approved DSAT course qualification / competency for a Remote Pilot to fly RPAS in the Open and S1 category.

Assurance

11. CFS Qualified AI should be subject to the processes laid down in the MMAI.

12. All AI (including Open category and S1 sub-category RPAS Instructors delivering a DSAT compliant MAA approved RPAS course) should undertake an instructional competence check on an annual basis. This check should be conducted by an independent assessor and include the following baseline competencies:

a. Ability to impart skill and knowledge, utilizing effective analysis and debriefing.

b. Proficiency in flying or airborne operating skills, and knowledge of the Air System on which tested.

c. Standardization of current training practice.

d. Knowledge of subjects allied to flying / Air System operation.

Guidance Material

2125(1)


13. Independent Assessment of ATO and AI. ADH / AM(MF) need to nominate suitably qualified assessors with role-specific expertise. Assessors need to be sufficiently independent such that they are not unduly influenced by commercial, operational, peer or rank / status pressures. For example CFS Exam Wing, CFS Agents, ASWC or UK CAA / EASA ATO.



Guidance Material

2125(1)

14. CFS ATO. CFS ATO are training organizations that are approved by CFS to conduct training leading to a CFS AI Qualification.

15. Other ATO. The ASWC will provide details of the types of Warfare AI they will train, experience levels and course(s) required by personnel to become Warfare AI, as well as the required currencies and competencies required for a Warfare AI qualification to remain valid. CFS Exam Wing may approve course content and structure for training given at Front Line Command ATO. Other ATO may seek advice on good practice from CFS.

16. Selection. Aircrew may apply, or be recommended, for AI training at any time after the award of the appropriate flying badge or Aircrew qualification3.

3 Refer to RA 2101 - Aircrew Qualifications.






RA 2130 - Safety Equipment, Survival Drills and Training

Rationale All personnel who fly or are flown in Air Systems are subject to a degree of risk. Without the correct safety equipment and survival training personnel will be exposed to increased Risk to Life (RtL). This RA requires Aviation Duty Holders (ADH) and Accountable Managers (Military Flying) (AM(MF)) to detail in orders the safety equipment and survival training required for all personnel who fly, or are flown in, military registered Air Systems within their Areas of Responsibility (AoR).

Contents 2130(1): Safety and Survival Training and Currency


2130(3): Wearing and Carriage of Aircrew Equipment Assemblies and Safety Equipment

2130(4): Safety Harnesses

2130(5): Survival and Rescue Equipment

2130(6): Ejection Seat Anthropometrics

Regulation

2130(1)

Safety and Survival Training and Currency

2130(1) ADH and AM(MF) shall publish orders that detail the safety and survival drill training requirements for Aircrew, Supernumerary Crew and Passengers on military registered Air Systems within their AoR.


2130(1)


1. ADH and AM(MF) orders should detail, as a minimum, the following:

a. The application of periodicity of safety and survival drills at Annex A to each unit within their AoR;

b. Any additional requirements to those detailed at Annex A to be applied within their AoR;

c. The procedures to be followed when a dispensation or extension is required;

(1) Personnel who have exceeded the maximum periodicity for a required element of safety or survival training should not be permitted to fly unless a dispensation or extension has been granted.

d. The safety and survival drill requirements following conversion to a different Aircraft type;

e. The requirements for and periodicity of combat survival training;

f. The safety and survival drill requirements for Supernumerary Crew, and if appropriate, Passengers. This should include Underwater Escape Training (UET) requirements for personnel who fly regularly in helicopters over the sea;

g. The Aircrew Equipment Assemblies (AEA) and Safety Equipment (SE) to be worn during safety and survival training;

h. The qualifications to be held by personnel delivering safety and survival training.

2. Aircrew, Supernumerary Crew and Passengers should be current for all safety and survival requirements as stipulated in ADH / AM(MF) orders.

3. Safety Boat. Whenever survival training is carried out at sea or in open water, a safety boat or a helicopter in the Search and Rescue role should be in attendance. Where a helicopter is utilized, it should be at immediate readiness on deck or airborne and able to reach the exercise area within three minutes flying time.




2130(1)

4. Dry Training. Where applicable, ADH and AM(MF) should detail the content of:

a. The abandon Aircraft drill. As a minimum this should be practised from the strapped in position.

b. The ejection and manual separation drill. As a minimum this should include:

(1) A comprehensive review of the seat components, operation, limitations and ejection sequence;

(2) The strapping in procedure and safety implications of not strapping in correctly;

(3) Practical drills in the use of each firing handle and seat failures.

c. The dry life raft and life preserver drills. As a minimum these should include:

(1) A lecture and appropriate demonstrations covering all aspects of personal SE carried;

(2) Instruction in helicopter rescue techniques.

d. Synthetic Parachute Training (SPT). As a minimum this should include:

(1) Parachute flight drills;

(2) Parachute landing drills;

(3) A briefing to cover ground dragging and harness release.

Guidance Material

2130(1)


5. ADH and AM(MF) may grant extensions to the periodicities detailed at Annex A for operational reasons or in exceptional circumstances.

6. ADH and AM(MF) may exempt units from a specific drill detailed at Annex A in exceptional circumstances, when they consider that the drill is not applicable to an Aircraft type and / or role. Additionally, ADH and AM(MF) may exempt Aircrew and trainees from the life raft / preserver drills, wet winching drills and UET / Short Term Air Supply System (STASS) drills where those Aircrew and trainees are not required to conduct over water sorties. Any exemption must be formally recorded in the Air System Safety Case in accordance with (iaw) RA 12051.

7. Wet Drills. When a wet drill is completed the equivalent dry drill is also deemed to have been completed. Similarly, when a sea drill is completed the associated pool drill is also deemed to have been completed.

8. Synthetic Parachute Training. Normally SPT is to be conducted wearing full AEA and SE appropriate to the aircraft type. However, ADH and AM(MF) may detail alternative AEA and SE (as per para 1g) where they assess the wearing of full AEA and SE to be inappropriate. Water parachute dragging drills will normally be practised in conjunction with wet life raft drills.

9. Wet Multi-Seat Life Raft Drill. Multi-seat life raft drills are a requirement for Aircrew whose Aircraft do not normally carry multi seat life rafts. They are conducted to familiarize Aircrew with the type of life raft that may be supplied by rescue crews or when flying as a Passenger in a transport Aircraft. However, some dispensations are given in the periodicity detailed at Annex A.

10. Underwater Escape Training. UET will normally be carried out in a suitable rotary-wing module at the UET Unit (UETU), RNAS Yeovilton, although alternative facilities may be used for detached units or Defence Contractor Flying Organizations.

11. STASS Dry Drill. Initial STASS dry drills will be completed at the UETU. Subsequent STASS dry drills may be carried out locally.

1 Refer to RA 1205 - Air System Safety Cases.



Guidance Material

2130(1)

12. STASS Wet Drill. STASS wet drills will be completed by eligible personnel at the same time as UET. All personnel required to undertake wet STASS training will be medically screened prior to the training, using the Medical Screening Questionnaire►2◄.

13. STASS Exemptions. ADH and AM(MF) may permit personnel who are medically boarded and assessed as permanently unfit for wet STASS training, but who have previously completed wet STASS training, to conduct dry STASS drills only. This judgement will be made with medical guidance on a case by case basis and must be recorded in the individual’s Flying Log Book iaw AP 1269A3 Leaflet 4-02 Annex J.

Regulation

2130(2)

Safety and Survival Training Currency

2130(2) Withdrawn - Incorporated into RA 2130(1).


2130(2)


14. Withdrawn - Incorporated into RA 2130(1).

Guidance Material

2130(2)



Regulation

2130(3)

Wearing and Carriage of Aircrew Equipment Assemblies and Safety Equipment

2130(3) ADH and AM(MF) shall publish orders that detail the wearing and carriage of AEA and SE on military registered Air Systems within their AoR.


2130(3)


16. ADH and AM(MF) orders should detail the minimum AEA and SE to be worn and carried by all Aircrew, Supernumerary Crew and Passengers within their AoR.

a. For Air Systems with a Release To Service4 (RTS), only AEA and SE approved in the Air System Document Set should be worn or carried.

b. For non-RTS Air Systems, ADH and AM(MF) Orders and / or Defence Contractor Flying Organizations’ Clearances5 should detail the AEA and SE to be worn and carried.

17. Modification of Equipment. The approval of the relevant equipment authority should be sought prior to any modification to AEA or SE. Where no equipment authority exists, ADH and AM(MF) can approve modifications to AEA and SE.

Guidance Material

2130(3)


18. Immersion Thermal Protection. Guidance on the wearing of AEA to protect against cold water immersion is available in Joint Service Publication (JSP) 9116.

19. Chemical Warfare Training. See RA 2135(7)7 for details regarding flying in clothing or equipment following chemical warfare training.

2 ►The Medical Screening Questionnaire is available on the MAA gov.uk website .◄ 3 Refer to AP1269A – Manual of Medical Fitness. 4 Refer to RA 1300 – Release To Service. 5 Refer to RA 2501 – Contractor Flying Approved Organization Scheme. 6 Refer to JSP 911: Survival, Evasion, Resistance and Extraction.

https://www.gov.uk/government/publications/regulatory-article-ra-2130-safety-equipment-se-survival-drills-and-training



Regulation

2130(4)

Safety Harnesses

2130(4) ADH and AM(MF) shall publish orders detailing the wearing of safety harnesses on military registered Aircraft within their AoR.


2130(4)

Safety Harnesses

20. The pilot controlling the Aircraft should be securely strapped into their seat at all times.

21. All other Aircrew, Supernumerary Crew and Passengers should wear an appropriate safety harness, secured to a suitable anchorage point, at all times, except when attached to a winch cable or when specifically authorized by the Aircraft Commander.

a. The time spent solely restrained in a dispatcher harness or attached to a winch cable should be kept to a minimum consistent with the safe completion of the task.

22. Aircraft Commanders should only allow safety harnesses to be unfastened in flight when necessary to complete authorized tasks.

23. ADH and AM(MF) should specify the occasions, and safety procedures, when an ejection seat occupant is permitted to unstrap in flight.

24. For take-off and landing, Aircrew and Supernumerary Crew should normally be seated and restrained using a seat harness.

a. ADH and AM(MF) should detail the specific circumstances when a seat-harness restraint is not required for Aircrew or Supernumerary Crew during take-off and landing.

25. Passengers should be securely strapped into their seats at all times when the aircraft is moving, except when authorized by the Aircraft Commander iaw RA 2340(2)8.

Guidance Material

2130(4)

Safety Harnesses

26. Dispatcher harnesses, whilst preventing the wearer from inadvertent exit from the Aircraft, do not provide the same degree of restraint or protection as seat harnesses.

Regulation

2130(5)

Survival and Rescue Equipment

2130(5) ADH and AM(MF) shall publish orders detailing the survival and rescue equipment to be carried in military registered Aircraft within their AoR.


2130(5)


27. ADH and AM(MF) orders should detail when the following are to be carried, and the type and quantity to be carried:

a. Life Rafts. As a minimum these should be carried when it may not be possible to achieve a forced landing over land. They should be of sufficient number and capacity to accommodate all the occupants of the Aircraft;

b. Medical Supplies / First Aid Kits. These should be appropriate to the Aircraft role and number of occupants;

c. Survival packs. ADH and AM(MF) orders should specify when they are to be carried, and the type and quantity to be carried.

7 Refer to RA 2135(7): Temporary Medical Restrictions to Flying Duties. 8 Refer to RA 2340(2) - Passengers - General.



Guidance Material

2130(5)


28. Life Rafts. Operational considerations may render the carriage of life rafts impractical. For guidance on ADH responsibilities in Operations see RA 10209.

Regulation

2130(6)

Ejection Seat Anthropometrics

2130(6) ADH and AM(MF) shall publish orders that detail procedures for checking the size and weight of all personnel for whom ejection seats are provided.


2130(6)


29. As a minimum, ADH and AM(MF) orders should detail:

a. When an ejection seat check is required;

b. Who can conduct an ejection seat check;

c. The AEA and SE to be worn by the seat occupant during an ejection seat check;

d. The clearance limits between the seat occupant and Aircraft structure;

e. The minimum and maximum boarding weight limits for the ejection seats within their AoR;

f. Where minimum and maximum boarding weight limits are to be displayed;

g. The frequency of boarding weight checks.

Guidance Material

2130(6)


30. Ejection Seat Check. ADH and AM(MF) may wish to stipulate different levels of AEA and SE to be worn during an ejection seat check for Aircrew, Supernumerary Crew and Passengers based on the sortie to be flown.

9 Refer to RA 1020 - Aviation Duty Holder and Aviation Duty Holder-Facing Organizations - Roles and Responsibilities.



ANNEX A

PERIODICITY OF SAFETY AND SURVIVAL DRILLS

Fixed Wing Aircraft with

Ejection Seats

Fixed Wing Aircraft with Parachutes

Fixed Wing Aircraft without

ParachutesHelicopters

RPAS10

Maritime Role (1)

OtherOverland

Flight Only

OtherMaritime Role (1)

OtherMaritime Role (1)

Other -

Dry Training

Abandon Aircraft 6m 6m 6m 6m 6m 6m 6m 6m

Ground Control Station Evacuation

- - - - - - - - 6m (9)

Ejection and manual separation

9m 9m - - - - - - -

Bale out (static seat)

- - 6m 6m - - 6m (8) 6m (8) -

Dry life raft (primary) and preserver drill

6m 6m - 6m 6m 1yr 6m 1yr -

Dry multi seat life raft drill (2)(3)

2yr 2yr - - 6m - 6m 1yr -

Synthetic parachute training (4)

2yr 2yr 2yr 2yr - - 2yr (8) 2yr (8) -

Pool Training (5)

Life raft (primary) drill

1yr 1yr - 1yr 1yr 1yr 6m 1yr -

Parachute dragging 1yr - - 1yr - - 1yr (8) - -

Training at sea / Environmental Pool Trainer (6)(7)

Parachute dragging 2yr 2yr int/opp 2yr - - 2yr (8) 2yr (8) -

Life raft (primary) drill

2yr 2yr int/opp 2yr 2yr int/opp 2yr int/opp -

Multi seat life raft drill (2)(3)

int/opp int/opp int/opp int/opp int/opp int/opp 2yr int/opp -

Wet winching drill int/opp int/opp int/opp int/opp int/opp int/opp int/opp int/opp -

Escape Training (under water)

STASS dry drill - - - - - - 6m 1yr -

STASS wet drill - - - - - - 2yr 3yr -

Underwater escape training

4yr - - - - - 2yr 3yr -

Legend

int/opp Initial drill to be as early as practicable in flying training, thereafter drill to be on opportunity basis 6 m 6 monthly 9 m 9 monthly 1 yr Yearly 2 yr 2 Yearly 3 yr 3 Yearly 4 yr 4 Yearly

10 Remotely Piloted Air System.



Notes

1. The ‘Maritime Role’ includes, but is not limited to, all those Aircrew who, during their posting / appointment, might be called upon to serve at, to or from sea with up to 3 months’ notice.

2. Drill applies when the multi-seat life raft is not the primary Aircraft life raft.

3. Helicopter crews who fly with both single and multi-seat life rafts should carry out the drills for both.

4. Ground parachute dragging training is subsumed into synthetic parachute training.

5. Training can be conducted at sea.

6. Initial training should be conducted at sea.

a. On conversion to a different Aircraft type, drills that have not been conducted before should be conducted at sea.

7. Subsequent training to be conducted either at sea or in an Environmental Pool Trainer (EPT). ADH and AM(MF) should detail in orders:

a. The occasions when an EPT can be used;

b. The specific EPT that can be used.

8. Drill applies when helicopter crews fly with parachutes.

9. ADH and AM(MF) orders should detail safety procedures for Ground Control Station (GCS) evacuation. As a minimum these should include making safe the GCS and provision for a safe recovery of the RPAS.






RA 2135 - Aircrew Medical Requirements

Rationale Operating Air Systems is both physically and mentally demanding. Without the correct level of fitness and aviation medicine training Aircrew will place themselves, the Air System and the public at increased risk. This Regulatory Article (RA) directs Aircrew to maintain the required level of fitness-to-fly and attend appropriate aviation medicine training.

Contents 2135(1): Aircrew Medical Employment Standard

2135(2): Fitness-to-Fly

2135(3): Pilot Operations - Upper Age Limit

2135(4): Flying After an Accident or In-Flight Medical Incident

2135(5): Aviation Medicine Training

2135(6): High G Training

2135(7): Temporary Medical Restrictions to Flying Duties

Regulation

2135(1)

Aircrew Medical Employment Standard

2135(1) Aviation Duty Holders (ADH) and Accountable Managers (Military Flying) (AM(MF)) shall publish orders that detail the Joint Medical Employment Standard (JMES)1 for all Aircrew and Supernumerary Crew2 of military registered Air Systems within their Area of Responsibility (AoR).


2135(1)


1. Aircrew should:

a. Hold the required JMES detailed in ADH or AM(MF) orders;

b. Complete an Initial Medical Examination (IME) in accordance with (iaw) Annex A;

c. Conduct a Periodic Medical Examination (PME) iaw Annex A;

d. Remain in date for PME if in a flying appointment;

e. Comply with all medical limitations they have been awarded.

f. Conduct electrocardiography (ECG) and enhanced cardiac screening as detailed in Air Publication (AP) 1269A3 Leaflet 4-02.

Guidance Material

2135(1)


2. If ADH or AM(MF) have any doubt over the suitability of the required JMES for Aircrew within their AoR they may consult with their relevant medical authority:

a. Consultant Advisor Aviation Medicine (CA Av Med) for Royal Navy / Army;

b. SO1 Aviation Medicine (SO1 Avn Med) for Joint Helicopter Command;

c. Command Flight Medical Officer (CFMO)4 for Royal Air Force (RAF) and Contractor Flying Approved Organization Scheme (CFAOS) organizations.

3. Aircrew in non-flying appointments can defer their PME iaw AP 1269A3 Leaflet 4-02.

4. Aircrew medical fitness will be assessed at PME. The JMES achieved at PME will be entered in the individual’s flying logbook or records, signed by a Military

1 Minimum JMES for Remotely Piloted Air Systems (RPAS) Aircrew have already been determined and are detailed at Annex A. 2 Refer to RA 2340 – Supernumerary Crew and Passengers. 3 Refer to AP 1269A – Manual of Medical Fitness. 4 CFMO(RAF), RAF CAM, RAF Henlow, Bedfordshire, SG16 6DN. [email protected].

mailto:[email protected]



Guidance Material

2135(1)

Aviation Medical Examiner (MAME)5 and is valid until the last day of the month in which the next PME is due6.

5. Defence Contractor Flying Organizations (DCFO) will have a designated MAME, details of whom are available from the CFMO(RAF)4.

6. DCFO may use dedicated Civil Aviation Medical Examiners (AME) in place of a MAME, where those Civil AME have been endorsed to do so by Deputy Assistant Chief of Staff Aviation Medicine7, RAF Centre of Aviation Medicine (CAM).

7. Civilian Aircrew may seek advice from the CFMO(RAF)4 with any concerns regarding access to a MAME.

8. A Statement of Health (SoH) is for MAME use only and is designed to provide information to enable a full assessment of Aircrew fitness for their role. Full details of a SoH can be found in AP 1269A3 Leaflet 4-02 Annex C.

9. A Medical Attendant’s Report (MAR) is for MAME use only and is designed to provide information to enable a full assessment of Aircrew fitness for their role. Full details of a MAR can be found in AP 1269A3 Leaflet 4-02 Annex D.

10. Aircrew required to provide a MAR must, iaw AP 1269A3, ensure it is completed by their civilian medical practitioner, be available to the certifying MAME and be dated within 2 months of the PME due date.

11. The definitive medical guidelines and instructions for assessment of medical fitness standards are published in AP 1269A3 and may be augmented in single-Service orders and other documents.

Regulation

2135(2)

Fitness-to-Fly

2135(2) Aircrew and Supernumerary Crew uncertain of their fitness-to-fly shall report to a MAME or a medical practitioner before flying.


2135(2)

Fitness-to-Fly

12. Supervisors and Authorizing Officers who have reason to doubt the medical fitness, including anthropometric fitness, of any Aircrew or Supernumerary Crew should seek the advice of a MAME.

13. All Aircrew and Supernumerary Crew should:

a. Seek medical advice if they have any reason to doubt their fitness-to-fly, even for a relatively minor illness, since they have a duty to ensure their own safety and the safety of any crew or passengers.

b. Seek medical advice if they have any reason to doubt their anthropometric fitness for the Air Systems they are required to operate.

c. Contact a MAME prior to returning to flying duties if any advice has been sought from a medical practitioner who has no aviation medicine training.

d. Report any period of non-fitness-to-fly to their command chain or, for DCFO, the Flight Operations post-holder.

14. MOs should ensure that the command chain is informed of any change in medical fitness affecting the flying status of their Aircrew or Supernumerary Crew.

15. Flight Operations post-holders should ensure that a mechanism exists to notify them of any change in medical fitness affecting the flying status of their Aircrew or Supernumerary Crew.

5 A MAME is a Medical Officer (MO) authorized by the relevant Service medical authority. 6 For further details on PME periodicity, refer to AP 1269A. 7 Via CFMO(RAF).



Guidance Material

2135(2)

Fitness-to-Fly

16. Aircrew and Supernumerary Crew may declare, without medical advice, that they are not fit-to-fly.

17. Strenuous or prolonged physical exercise may adversely affect individual ability to withstand the stress of flight, including G tolerance.

Regulation

2135(3)

Pilot Operations - Upper Age Limit

2135(3) Pilots shall not operate an Air System once they attain the age of 65 unless the Air System is fitted with dual controls and is operated with a second pilot who has not yet attained the age of 65. Furthermore, the second pilot shall hold the appropriate qualification and JMES to act as pilot in command.


2135(3)


18. ADH and AM(MF) should stipulate in orders the minimum JMES, qualifications and flying currency to be held by the second pilot. The second pilot should be capable of undertaking all the manoeuvres, roles or exercises that the sortie has been authorized for.

Guidance Material

2135(3)


19. Nil.

Regulation

2135(4)

Flying After an Accident or In-Flight Medical Incident

2135(4) After being involved in a flying Accident or in-flight medical incident, Aircrew and Supernumerary Crew shall not operate an Air System without appropriate medical approval.


2135(4)


20. A MAME should issue medical approval prior to any return to flying duties for Aircrew or Supernumerary Crew involved in a flying Accident or in-flight medical incident.

21. ADH and AM(MF) should consider the guidance in AP 1269A3 Leaflet 4-02 Annex I for the management of Aircrew and Supernumerary Crew following an Aircraft Accident or Incident.

Guidance Material

2135(4)


22. AP 12698 Leaflet 12-06 provides detailed information on handling specific types of in-flight medical incidents9.

Regulation

2135(5)

Aviation Medicine Training

2135(5) ADH and AM(MF) shall publish orders that detail the aviation medicine training requirements within their AoR.

8 Refer to AP 1269 – Medical Management and Administration. 9 Including inter alia: hypoxia; contamination of oxygen supply; fumes in the cockpit; spatial disorientation; G-Induced Loss of Consciousness (G-LOC).




2135(5)


23. ADH and AM(MF) should determine appropriate initial and refresher aviation medicine training requirements in conjunction with RAF CAM10.


a. The initial and refresher aviation medicine training requirements within their AoR.

b. That all Aircrew complete initial aviation medicine training prior to basic flying training.

c. That all Aircrew engaged on flying duties receive refresher aviation medicine training at intervals not exceeding 5 years.

d. The procedures to be followed when a dispensation or extension to aviation medicine training requirements is deemed necessary.

(1) The relevant medical authority should be consulted prior to any dispensation or extension to aviation medicine training requirements.

Guidance Material

2135(5)


25. Further guidance on aviation medicine training can be found in AAMedP-1.211 which contains appropriate syllabi for initial and refresher training by Aircraft type.

Regulation

2135(6)

High G Training

2135(6) ADH and AM(MF) shall publish orders that detail the High G training requirements within their AoR.


2135(6)

High G Training

26. ADH and AM(MF) should determine initial and refresher High G training requirements in conjunction with RAF CAM10.

27. High G training should be conducted using a centrifuge appropriate to the Aircraft being flown.

a. After centrifuge exposure Aircrew should not return to flying duties until 6 hours after exposure and free of all residual symptoms12.


a. That all Aircrew whose employment exposes them to High G environments complete High G training.

b. The initial and refresher High G training requirements within their AoR.

c. That refresher High G training is required following a 3-year absence from the High G environment and before returning to high performance flying.

d. That all Aircrew engaged on flying duties of high performance Aircraft receive refresher High G training at intervals not exceeding 5 years.

e. The procedures to be followed for individuals who do not complete High G training to the required standard.

f. The procedures to be followed when a dispensation or extension to High G training requirements is deemed necessary.

(1) RAF CAM should be consulted prior to any dispensation or extension to High G training requirements.

10 OC AMW Training Section, RAF CAM, RAF Henlow, Bedfordshire, SG16 6DN. [email protected]. 11 Refer to AAMedP-1.2 – Aeromedical Training of Flight Personnel. AAMedP-1.2 is available from the NATO Standardization Office (NSO) public website. 12 If in doubt, refer to Regulation 2135(2): Fitness-to-Fly.




Guidance Material

2135(6)

High G Training

29. Centrifuge exposure may adversely affect Aircrew due to the physical strain of High G and sensory disturbance induced by centrifuge manoeuvres.

30. Further guidance on High G training can be found in AAMedP-1.1313.

Regulation

2135(7)

Temporary Medical Restrictions to Flying Duties

2135(7) Aircrew and Supernumerary Crew shall comply with any restrictions placed upon them following exposure to conditions affecting their fitness-to-fly.


2135(7)


31. Aircrew and Supernumerary Crew should not:

a. Take any prescription medicine, drugs, tablets or remedies before flying unless prescribed or approved by a MAME.

b. Use any over-the-counter medicines, drugs, tablets or remedies within 24 hours of reporting for flying duties unless approved by a MAME, as the effect on an individual’s fitness-to-fly may not be immediately apparent.

c. Use any dietary supplements, homeopathic remedies or alternative medicines unless approved by a MAME.

d. Fly until 7 days have elapsed following a general, spinal or epidural anaesthetic, or for 12 hours after a local or regional (dental) anaesthetic, unless the period is extended in consultation with a MAME.

e. Fly until 12 hours have elapsed following acupuncture treatment.

f. Fly until 36 hours have elapsed after donating blood.

g. Fly until 24 hours have elapsed following the application of mydriatic eye drops or agents.

32. Aircrew and Supernumerary Crew should ascertain from a MAME the duration of any flying restrictions following inoculations or vaccinations as most inoculations and vaccinations will restrict flying for at least 12 hours.

33. Aircrew and Supernumerary Crew should consult a MAME prior to undergoing treatment for any of the following:

a. Elective surgery;

b. Corneal refractive surgery for visual correction;

c. Routine immunisation;

d. Hypnotherapy;

e. Acupuncture;

f. Complementary and alternative medicine.

34. Personnel should not fly or undergo low-pressure chamber experience:

a. Within 12 hours of swimming / diving using compressed-air breathing apparatus (aqualung equipment), or within 24 hours if a depth of 10 m has been exceeded (an exception can be made if 100% oxygen-only has been breathed throughout the dive after which immediate flying is permissible) or;

b. Within 12 hours of experiencing hyperbaric pressures14.

13 Refer to AAMedP-1.13 - Minimum Requirements for Physiological Training of Aircrew in High “G” Environment. AAMedP-1.13 is available from the NSO public website. 14 Such as cabin pressure testing. This does not apply to patients or attendants undertaking long treatment for decompression illness,

refer to BRd 2806(4) - Therapeutic and Medical Management of Diving.




2135(7)

35. Personnel should not fly or undergo low-pressure chamber experience within 24 hours of Short Term Air Supply System training, except when all the following apply:

a. The time of immersion is less than 20 minutes.

b. The depth of immersion has not exceeded 3 metres.

c. There is an interval of 4 hours between the end of training and commencing flying.

d. The cabin pressure altitude will not be above 8000 ft.

36. Personnel should not fly at a cabin altitude above FL100 within 12 hours of exposure in a low-pressure chamber.

37. Following exposure to any chemical warfare training agents, Aircrew and Supernumerary Crew should not:

a. Return to flying duties until all physical and psychological effects produced by the agent have cleared.

b. Return to flying duties for a minimum period of 12 hours following exposure to CS gas.

c. Fly in any clothing or equipment that remains contaminated by the training.

38. Following exposure to any chemical warfare training agent, Passengers should not fly in any clothing or equipment that remains contaminated by the training.

39. Aircrew and Supernumerary Crew who have engaged in boxing (including sparring, but not including non-contact training) should not fly for 48 hours after a bout. Furthermore, they should be examined by a MAME before resuming flying duties.

Guidance Material

2135(7)


40. Some techniques used by complementary or alternative medical practitioners are not currently subject to the same controls as conventional medicine and may not be evidence based. Complementary or alternative medicine cannot be guaranteed to be free from detrimental side-effects.



ANNEX A

Table 1. Medical Examiners Required for the Award of IME

Aircrew of Manned AircraftAircrew of RPAS (1)

►Crew Health Category 4◄ ►Crew Health Category 5◄

IME Recruitment and Selection Department of Occupational Medicine (R&S DOM) (2) MAME (level 4 medical) R&S DOM ►(3)◄

Table 2. Medical Examiners Required for the Award of PME for Aircrew of Manned Aircraft

Regular (►4◄) Military Aircrew: UK; NATO (►5◄); Australia (Aus); New Zealand

(NZ)Civilian or Other Military Aircrew

PME MAME (6)

Ejection Seat MAME (supported by a MAR and a SoH)

Non-Ejection SeatMAME (supported by a MAR and a SoH) or ►UK Civil Aviation Authority (CAA)◄ / European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) Class 1 (supported by a MAR and a SoH, presented to a MAME)

►Table 3. Minimum JMES and Medical Examiners Required for the Award of PME for RPAS Aircrew

Crew Health Category (7)

Military Aircrew Civilian Aircrew

RPAS Category JMES PME Medical Employment Standard (8) PME

Open & Specific S1

sub-category1 A-4 Nil Nil Nil

S2 sub-category

2 A-45-yearly level 3 medical conducted by a MAME

Meet the medical standards required for DVLA Gp1 Licence (9)(10)

5-yearly confirmation that the individual continues to meet the medical standards for DVLA Gp1 Licence (10)(11)

3 A-45-yearly level 4 medical conducted by a MAME

Meet the medical standards required for DVLA Gp2 Licence (9)(10)

5-yearly confirmation that the individual continues to meet the medical standards for DVLA Gp2 Licence (10)(11)

4 A-4Annual level 4 medical conducted by a MAME

UK CAA / EASA Class 2 or European Class 3 (12) Annual presentation of civilian medical licence

(supported by MAR and SoH) to a MAME (13)5 A-3 (13)

UK CAA / EASA Class 1 or European Class 3 (12)

Certified 5 A-3 (13)Annual level 4 medical conducted by a MAME

UK CAA / EASA Class 1 or European Class 3 (12)

Annual presentation of civilian medical licence (supported by MAR and SoH) to a MAME (13) ◄



Notes:

1. IME not required for ►RPAS operated in the Open and Specific S1 sub-category.◄ Individuals should present DVLA Gp1 ►(for Crew Health Category 2)◄ or DVLA Gp2 ►(for Crew Health Category 3◄ to relevant ADH / AM(MF) (see also note ►9◄). 2. R&S DOM, Adastral Hall, PO Box 1000, RAFC Cranwell, Sleaford, Lincs NG34 8GZ. For the RN: R&S DOM undertake the IME (under contract), the initial flying medical category is awarded by the Head Aviation Medicine (RN) after reviewing the IME conducted by R&S DOM. 3. ►Or single-service equivalent.◄ 4. As defined by section 374 of the Armed Forces Act 2006; in the context of this RA this also includes Full Time Reserve Service Aircrew. 5. Refer to STANAG 3526 - Interchangeability of NATO Aircrew Medical Categories. STANAG 3526 is available from the NSO public website. 6. When NATO, Aus or NZ Aircrew choose to have PME performed by their home nation, they should present certification of medical fitness to a UK MAME for update of their UK medical records. 7. ►As per the MAA endorsed RA 1600 Annex B Categorization Checklist15.◄ 8. Alternatively, civilian Aircrew are deemed to meet the minimum requirements for a class of RPAS if they have the military Aircrew JMES (from a MAME led PME) for that class of RPAS. 9. Where the individual does not hold the DVLA licence they should obtain a letter from their medical practitioner stating the individual would meet the required medical standards for that licence. 10. Any individual who has, or develops, a notifiable medical condition (as detailed by the DVLA16) that means that they would no longer meet the medical standards required for the relevant DVLA licence should seek advice from a MAME prior to conducting flying duties. 11. ADH and AM(MF) should detail in orders how the individual is to confirm they continue to meet the medical standards required for the relevant DVLA licence. 12 Refer to ►UK CAA◄ / EASA Medical Requirements for Air Traffic Controllers. 13. If the individual does not maintain a manned Aircraft certification, at IME or annual PME the MedLim 2003 - ‘Fit RPAS ►and EFT◄ flying duties only’►17◄ should be awarded.

15 ►All RPAS with an S2 sub-category Letter of Endorsed Categorization extant at 31 Mar 21 are Crew Health Category 2.◄ 16 At the time of publication, notifiable medical conditions include: diabetes or taking insulin; syncope (fainting); heart conditions (including atrial fibrillation and pacemakers); sleep apnoea; epilepsy; strokes; glaucoma. Refer to the DVLA website for the list of current notifiable medical conditions. 17 ►Although an RPAS operator is a ground based role, initial training involves a course of Elementary Flying Training (EFT); refer to AP 1269A Leaflet 4-02 Royal Air Force Medical Standards – Aircrew.◄

UNCONTROLLED COPY WHEN PRINTED Regulatory Article RA 2201


RA 2201 – Carriage of Maintenance Documents in UK Military Aircraft

Rationale ►Maintenance documents provide an audit trail of maintenance activities that have been carried out on military registered Air Systems. Loss of the information contained in these documents could jeopardize the Continuing Airworthiness of an Air System and increase Risk to Life as a consequence. This Regulation details the processes that are to be applied to maintain the protection of these documents when an Air System is deployed away from its parent Station, Ship or Unit, and ensures that they are available for quality assurance, data exploitation and investigations.◄

Contents 2201(1): Documents to be Carried 2201(2): Withdrawn – ►Incorporated in RA 2201(1) and in RA 4813◄

Regulation 2201(1)

Documents to be Carried 2201(1) When an ►Aircraft◄ is planned to land away from the

parent Station/Ship/Unit, appropriate maintenance documents and publications shall be carried in the ►Aircraft.◄

Acceptable Means of Compliance 2201(1)

Documents to be Carried 1. Whenever an Aircraft Commander plans to land away from the parent ►Unit◄, the appropriately-prepared ►Aircraft◄ technical log (MOD Form 700 or equivalent) should be carried in the subject ►Aircraft◄ or, if appropriate, in an accompanying ►Aircraft.◄

2. If the Aircraft Commander plans to land at an airfield or ►Ship◄ that is unfamiliar with the ►Aircraft◄ type, appropriate technical publications to enable the safe handling and maintenance of the ►Aircraft◄ should be carried in the ►Aircraft◄ or in an accompanying ►Aircraft.◄

3. Aviation Duty Holders and Accountable Managers (Military Flying) ►◄ should promulgate the appropriate maintenance documents and publications to be carried.

Guidance Material 2201(1)

Documents to be Carried 4. For the purpose of this Regulation, the term land away from parent unit is not intended to include a landing conducted during a period of continuous charge where the final destination is the parent ►Station/Ship/Unit.◄

5. Where carriage of the ►Aircraft◄ technical log and technical publications is not practical, alternate means of transportation may be used provided the Aircraft Commander has arranged for the timely arrival of the documents at his destination.

6. ►RA 48131◄ governs the necessary preparation of the ►Aircraft◄ technical log prior to carriage in the ►Aircraft◄, including the requirement to remove/copy documents bearing original signatures. The intent of ►RA 4813◄ is to preserve original signatures for work carried out and put measures in place to aid the reconstruction of the ►Aircraft◄ technical log in the event of loss. Aircraft Commanders must be cognisant that, at each new point of departure, the previously-made copy of an original document becomes the new original document, which is then required to be copied.

7. For the purposes of this regulation, ‘appropriate technical publications’ may include, but is not limited to:

a. Safety and Maintenance Notes (Topic 5A2).

1 ►Refer to RA 4813 - Maintenance Records (MRP 145.A.55).◄

Regulatory Article RA 2201 UNCONTROLLED COPY WHEN PRINTED



b. Flight Servicing Schedule (Topic 5B1).

c. Ground Handling Notes (Topic 12A).

8. Electronic data may be downloaded and carried in the ►Aircraft◄ to which it relates, providing that a verified, up-to-date, back-up of the database has been made and retained for safe keeping.

Regulation 2201(2)

Original Signatures 2201(2) Withdrawn - Incorporated in RA 2201(1) and ►RA 4813.◄


Original Signatures 9. Withdrawn - Incorporated in RA 2201(1) and ►RA 4813.◄


Original Signatures 10. Withdrawn - Incorporated in RA 2201(1) and ►RA 4813.◄



►This RA has been substantially re-written; for clarity, no change marks are presented – please read RA in entirety.◄

RA 2210 – Preventive Maintenance and Continuous Charge Operations

Rationale Preventive Maintenance comprises scheduled maintenance, condition-based maintenance and flight servicing; all of which are maintenance activities that are to be carried out on an Air System prior to, or on completion of, a period of flying. Continuous Charge is when an Air System conducts multiple starts and stops, crew changes, refuelling operations or take off and landings within a single period of Preventive Maintenance. Flight beyond Preventive Maintenance limits may result in an increase in Risk to Life, therefore an Air System must be operated within those limits, and the correct procedures followed during Continuous Charge operations.

Contents 2210(1): Preventive Maintenance Limitations

2210(2): Continuous Charge Operations

2210(3): Withdrawn – Incorporated into RA 4054(1)

Regulation

2210(1)

Preventive Maintenance Limitations

2210(1) The Aircraft Commander shall not operate the Air System beyond the validity period of Preventive Maintenance.


2210(1)


1. Aviation Duty Holders and Accountable Managers (Military Flying) should issue orders that ensure an Aircraft Commander does not operate an Air System beyond the validity period of Preventive Maintenance.

Guidance Material

2210(1)


2. Preventive Maintenance comprises scheduled Maintenance, condition-based Maintenance and flight servicing as detailed in the Air System Maintenance programme, as well as any additional Preventive Maintenance requirements that may be imposed by the Military Continuing Airworthiness Management Organization.

3. The next Preventive Maintenance due will be recorded in the Air System technical log.

Regulation

2210(2)

Continuous Charge Operations

2210(2) To conduct Continuous Charge operations1 the Aircraft Commander shall:

(1) Ensure there are appropriately Authorized2 personnel to undertake Air System Maintenance, where applicable;

(2) Record any Faults occurring during the period of operation;

(3) Record any change of Aircraft Commander.

1Refer to RA 4059 - Continuous Charge. 2Refer to RA 4806 - Personnel Requirements (MRP 145.A.30).




2210(2)


4. The Aircraft Commander should ensure that he, or another crew member, is Authorized to conduct any flight servicing that is required during a period of Continuous Charge.

5. During a period of Continuous Charge, the Aircraft Commander should:

a. Complete flight servicing activities that become due in accordance with the flight servicing schedule. These activities may be delegated to suitably Authorized engineering staff or another Authorized crew member, however the Aircraft Commander remains responsible for the conduct of the Maintenance.

b. Ensure that all essential records are updated within the Air System technical log (MOD Form 700 or its equivalent).

c. Record all Faults occurring during a period of Continuous Charge in the Air System technical log (MOD Form 700 or its equivalent).

6. When permitted, a crew change, flight servicing or replenishment with engines/rotors-running should only occur with specific Authorization from the Aircraft Commander.

7. All Aircraft Commander changes that take place during Continuous Charge should be recorded in the Air System technical log (MOD Form 700 or its equivalent). For the MOD Form 700 the specific document is either the current Flight Servicing Certificate (FSC) or the Continuous Operation Crew Charge Certificate.

8. An Aircraft Commander who takes over, or continues to be responsible for, an Air System on Continuous Charge with declared Faults should either:

a. Certify his acceptance of those Faults, or;

b. Declare the Air System unserviceable and return the Air System to the responsible Maintenance organization.

Guidance Material

2210(2)


9. Continuous Charge is a concept of operations that is Authorized for certain types of Air System, which allows the Air System to perform multiple sorties (undertaken, if necessary, by different crews), while remaining under the responsibility of the Aircraft Commander(s).

10. A period of Continuous Charge starts when the first Aircraft Commander signs the acceptance certificate in the Air System technical log (MOD Form 700 or its equivalent) and finishes when the final Aircraft Commander completes the after-flight declaration. For the MOD Form 700 these signatures are recorded on the FSC.

11. The Aircraft Commander may physically leave the Air System, but he retains responsibility for the Air System until he is no longer the Aircraft Commander.

12. Continuous Charge operations are only permitted on those types of Air System for which approval has been granted by the respective Type Airworthiness Authority.

Regulation

2210(3)

Ground Handling



2210(3)

Ground Handling


Guidance Material

2210(3)

Ground Handling

14. Withdrawn Incorporated into RA 4054(1).



RA 2211 - Authorization of Aircrew to Carry Out Maintenance Tasks

Rationale Aircrew may be required to conduct flight servicing to improve flexibility of use of Air Systems. Airworthiness will be compromised if this activity is conducted by inappropriately authorized personnel, therefore Aviation Duty Holders (ADH) and Accountable Managers (Military Flying) (AM(MF)) are to ensure that Aircrew are appropriately trained and assessed as competent in order to be authorized for such activities.

Contents 2211(1): Authorization of Aircrew to Carry Out Flight Servicing

2211(2): Authorization of Aircrew to Carry Out Air System Maintenance Work

2211(3): In-Flight Corrective Maintenance

2211(4): Training of Aircrew to Enter a Cockpit Containing Aircraft Assisted Escape Systems

Regulation

2211(1)

Authorization of Aircrew to Carry Out Flight Servicing

2211(1) Aircrew required to carry out Flight Servicing shall be authorized and competent.


2211(1)


1. Prior to receiving authority to flight service (AFS), individual Aircrew should

conduct appropriate training and demonstrate competence to carry out flight servicing. The competency check should demonstrate an adequate understanding of:

a. The Air System technical publications.

b. The Air System technical log (MOD Form 700 or equivalent).

c. The relevant regulations within the MRP RA 4000 Series: Continuing Airworthiness Engineering.

d. ►The relevant details within the Manual of Airworthiness Maintenance – Processes (MAM-P)1.◄

2. ADH and AM(MF) should ensure that a formal record of Authorization is maintained►1◄.

Guidance Material

2211(1)


3. AFS may include, but is not limited to:

a. Flight servicing►1◄.

b. System replenishments.

c. Fuelling operations ►◄.

d. Loading and unloading of ►◄ pyrotechnics►2◄.

e. Supervision of ground handling►3◄.

4. The AFS authorizer will be a ►Suitably Qualified and Experienced Person (SQEP)◄ holding the appropriate ►◄ Authority Level ►◄ J►4◄. This may be, but is not limited to, the Squadron Air Engineer Officer (RN), Officer Commanding Workshops (Army), Senior Engineering Officer (RAF) or, for Defence Contractor Flying Organizations, an equivalent authorized engineer.

1 ►Refer to MAM-P Chapter 2.3 – Authorization of Aircrew to Carry Out Air System Maintenance Work. 2 Refer to MAM-P Chapter 8.2 – Weapon Preparation and Loading. 3 Refer to MAM-P Chapter 3.4 – Ground Operations. 4 Refer to MAM-P Chapter 0.6 – Authority Levels and Tasks.◄



Guidance Material

2211(1)

5. The Authorization will:

a. Explicitly detail the scope of the activities which apply, including, if applicable, certification in the technical log (MOD Form 700 or equivalent) that the Aircraft is ready for flight.

b. Be valid for a maximum period of one year or until ►assignment to a new unit◄, whichever is sooner. Re-Authorization will require the individual to pass a competency check.

6. An acceptable process for granting aircrew AFS is contained within ►MAM-P1.◄

7. Ground Handling of ►Aircraft.◄ The requirements for personnel involved in the ground handling of ►Aircraft,◄ including Aircrew, are contained within

►MAM-P3.◄

Regulation

2211(2)

Authorization of Aircrew to Carry Out Air System Maintenance Work

2211(2) Aircrew required to carry out a specified range of Preventive and Corrective Maintenance activities pertinent to the type / mark of Air System or Air System equipment on which they are qualified to fly shall be authorized and competent.


2211(2)


8. Prior to receiving Authorization to carry out Maintenance, individual Aircrew should undergo appropriate training and demonstrate competence to carry out Maintenance. The competency check should demonstrate an adequate understanding of:

a. The Air System technical publications.

b. The Air System technical log (MOD Form 700 or equivalent).

c. The relevant regulations within the MRP RA 4000 Series: Continuing Airworthiness Engineering.

d. ►The relevant details within the MAM-P1.◄

9. ADH and AM(MF) should ensure that a formal record of Authorization is maintained►1◄.

Guidance Material

2211(2)


10. The Authorization may include, but is not limited to:

a. Minor Corrective or Preventive Maintenance►1◄.

b. Role changes►1,5◄.

c. Authority to defer Maintenance or record limitations (regulated by RA 48126 ►◄). Where applicable, the scope of Air System items / systems to which this could be permitted will be published in the Topic 2(N/A/R)1; however, individual Authorization may restrict this scope further.

11. The Authorizer will be ►SQEP◄ holding the appropriate ►◄ Authority Level ►◄ J►4◄. This may be, but is not limited to, the Squadron Air Engineer Officer (RN), Officer Commanding Workshops (Army), Senior Engineering Officer (RAF) or, for Defence Contractor Flying Organizations, an equivalent authorized engineer.

12. The Authorization will:

5 ►Refer to MAM-P Chapter 7.4 - Air System Role Equipment: Maintenance, Modification and Control.◄ 6 Refer to RA 4812 – Certification of ►Air System Release◄ and Component Release (MRP 145.A.50).



Guidance Material

2211(2)

a. Explicitly detail the scope of the activities which apply, including, if applicable, certification in the technical log (MOD Form 700 or equivalent) that the Air System is ready for flight.

b. Be valid for a maximum period of one year or until ►assignment to a new unit◄, whichever is sooner. Re-Authorization will require the individual to pass a competency check.

13. An acceptable process for granting Aircrew Authorization is contained within ►MAM-P1. ◄

Regulation

2211(3)

In-Flight Corrective Maintenance

2211(3) In-flight Corrective Maintenance shall only be carried out at the specific request of the Aircraft Commander and shall be limited in scope.


2211(3)


14. In-flight Corrective Maintenance should be limited to system reconfiguration, adjustments and component changes on a prescribed list of systems promulgated by the platform Type Airworthiness Authority (TAA)►7◄.

15. In-flight Corrective Maintenance should only be conducted by authorized personnel.

16. Any Maintenance conducted in-flight should be recorded in accordance with ►MAM-P 8.◄

Guidance Material

2211(3)


17. A list of systems on which in-flight Corrective Maintenance may be attempted is promulgated by the TAA in the Topic 2(N/A/R)1, where applicable.

18. An acceptable process for controlling in-flight Corrective Maintenance is detailed in ►MAM-P 8.◄

Regulation

2211(4)

Training of Aircrew to Enter Cockpits Containing Aircraft Assisted Escape Systems

2211(4) Aircrew who require access to a cockpit containing Aircraft Assisted Escape Systems (AAES) shall be appropriately trained.


2211(4)


19. ADH and AM(MF) should ensure that appropriate training is conducted for the particular Air System, and detail the periodicity of continuation training. All training should be recorded on appropriate auditable training documents.

7 ►Where the Air System is Civilian-Owned, ownership of regulatory responsibility by either the TAA or Type Airworthiness Manager (TAM) needs to be agreed within the Sponsor’s approved model for Type Airworthiness (TAw) management; refer to RA 1162 – Air Safety Governance Arrangements for Civilian Operated (Development) and (In-Service) Air Systems, or refer to RA 1163 – Air Safety Governance Arrangements for Special Case Flying Air Systems. Dependant on the agreed delegation of TAw responsibilities TAM may be read in place of TAA as appropriate throughout this RA. 8 Refer to MAM-P Chapter 4.1 – Types of Maintenance.◄



Guidance Material

2211(4)


20. The periodicity of initial and subsequent AAES (eg ejection seat) training and ►Role◄ Performance Statements applicable to selected categories of personnel are promulgated in technical publications.

21. Further technical policy on working with AAES is contained within ►MAM-P9.◄

9 ►Refer to MAM-P Chapter 7.1 – Aircraft Assisted Escape Systems.◄



►This RA has been substantially re-written; for clarity no change marks are presented – please read RA in entirety◄ RA 2220 – Maintenance Test Flights

Rationale Flight Tests are conducted to confirm the performance, mission effectiveness or handling qualities and to perform diagnostic analysis of an Air System following maintenance. Before the Air System is confirmed as serviceable there is an increased Risk to Life and therefore the conduct of a Flight Test requires specific competency and authorization.

Contents 2220(1): The Flight Test Schedule 2220(2): Aircrew Competency and Authorization for Flight Tests

Regulation 2220(1)

The Flight Test Schedule 2220(1) Flight testing shall be carried out in accordance with the

Flight Test Schedule (FTS).


The Flight Test Schedule 1. Both Maintenance Test Flights (MTF) and Partial Test Flights (PTF) should be conducted in accordance with the FTS for the Air System.

2. MTF should not be flown while the Air System is under a period of continuous charge.

3. PTF should not be flown while the Air System is under a period of continuous charge unless the aircrew can confirm component or system serviceability.


The Flight Test Schedule 4. A MTF is conducted to confirm the performance and serviceability of an Air System and will encompass the full FTS.

5. A PTF is conducted to confirm the performance and serviceability of an Air System related to specific maintenance activity. The content of the PTF will involve selected elements of the FTS as required.

6. An Airborne Check (AC) or Taxi Check (TC) is an engineering requirement not covered by the FTS, or where the testing of the system or component in accordance with the FTS is deemed inappropriate.

Regulation 2220(2)

Aircrew Competency and Authorization for Flight Tests 2220(2) Aviation Duty Holders (ADH) and Accountable Managers

(Military Flying) (AM(MF)) shall establish and promulgate in Orders the Suitably Qualified and Experienced Person (SQEP) and authorization requirements for the conduct of Flight Tests.


Aircrew Competency and Authorization for MTF/PTF 7. ADH and AM(MF) should maintain a record of all aircrew assessed as SQEP to conduct Flight Tests.

8. Flight tests should normally be conducted during the day and in Visual Meteorological Conditions. ADH and AM(MF) should establish and define additional orders for flight tests that take place at night or in Instrument Meteorological Conditions.




Aircrew Authorization for MTF and PTF 9. For authorization purposes an AC or TC is not considered to be a Flight Test.



RA 2301 - Responsibility for an ►Air System◄

Rationale ►Responsibility for an Air System is transferred between the Continuing Airworthiness Management Organisation and the Aircrew when flying operations take place. A failure to correctly record this process could result in a breakdown in maintenance activity and increase Risk to Life. Therefore it is necessary to record the transfer of custody and responsibility of an Air System when it is released to and from flying operations, or has a flying requirement or taxi check raised post maintenance, to ensure that an auditable record exists.◄

Contents 2301(1): Transfer of Custody of ►Air Systems◄

2301(2): Flying Requirements Post Maintenance

2301(3): ►Air System◄ Acceptance Checks

2301(4): Exceeding Parameters and Hazardous Incidents

Regulation

2301(1)

Transfer of Custody of ►Air Systems◄

2301(1) Custody of, and responsibility for, an ►Air System◄ shall transfer to the Aircraft Commander from the time the acceptance certificate is signed until the after-flight declaration is completed.


2301(1)


1. The Aircraft Commander should ensure that he is satisfied with the declared condition of the ►Air System◄ when the acceptance certificate is signed. If he is not satisfied, he should declare the ►Air System◄ unserviceable.

2. Once custody of the ►Air System◄ has been accepted, the Aircraft Commander should authorize and monitor any subsequent maintenance activity that may be required prior to, or during flight.

3. The Aircraft Commander should assure himself that the technical log (MOD Form 700 or equivalent) has been updated to reflect the condition of the ►Air System◄ when the after-flight declaration is completed and that the symptoms of any new ►Air System◄ faults have been adequately briefed to the receiving maintenance organization.

Guidance Material

2301(1)


4. Unless operating under Continuous Charge (as detailed in RA 2210(2)►1◄), transfer of custody and responsibility for the ►Air System◄ is between the Aircraft Commander and the supporting maintenance organization. When operating under Continuous Charge, transfer of custody and responsibility for the ►Air System between flights◄ is between Aircraft Commanders.

5. The signature on the acceptance certificate certifies that:

a. Any limitations are acceptable to the Aircraft Commander for the intended flight.

b. The Aircraft Commander is aware of all acceptable deferred faults.

c. The recorded state of the ►Air System◄ in respect of role equipment, fuel, oxygen, etc, is acceptable to the Aircraft Commander for the intended flight.

d. The recorded armament state of the ►Air System◄ is as ordered by the Authorizing Officer.

1 ►Refer to RA 2210(2): Continuous Charge Operations.◄



Guidance Material

2301(1)

e. The technical log (MOD Form 700 or equivalent) has been checked and co-ordinated by an appropriately authorized individual.

f. Any flying requirement or taxi checks are acceptable to the Aircraft Commander and he has been adequately briefed on any special tests required.

g. Any Aircrew accepted faults documented in the ►Air System◄ technical log are acceptable to the Aircraft Commander.

6. The signature on the after-flight declaration certifies that:

a. The Aircraft Commander has returned the ►Air System◄ to the ‘Finally Armed’ state in accordance with the ►Air System◄ Flight Reference Cards, or that no explosive armament stores are fitted.

b. Each fault that became evident whilst the Aircraft Commander was responsible for the ►Air System◄ (including pre-flight faults), has been recorded in the appropriate section of the ►Air System◄ technical log (eg MOD Form 707A).

c. The results of any flying requirements undertaken have been entered in the appropriate section of the ►Air System◄ technical log (eg MOD Form 707B(AFRC)).

d. The Flying Log and any Equipment Running Logs in the ►Air System◄ technical log (eg MOD Form 724) have been updated.

e. Where applicable, the Oil Replenishment Record in the ►Air System◄ technical log (eg MOD Form 737) has been completed for any oil replenishments carried out whilst the Aircraft Commander was responsible for the ►Air System.◄

f. Any record of hours flown and cumulative hours flown has been updated in the ►Air System◄ technical log ►◄.

g. Where applicable, the Aircraft assisted escape system has been placed into the ‘safe for parking’ condition.

Regulation

2301(2)

Flying Requirements Post Maintenance

2301(2) The Aircraft Commander shall familiarize himself with any flying requirements or taxi checks raised as a result of maintenance conducted prior to flight.


2301(2)


7. On completion of the flight, the Responsible Aircrew Member should document the result of the flying requirement or taxi check in the appropriate section of the ►Air System◄ technical log (MOD Form 700 or equivalent).

Guidance Material

2301(2)


8. Nil.

Regulation

2301(3)

►Air System◄ Acceptance Checks

2301(3) The Aircraft Commander shall ensure that all necessary acceptance checks (walk-round) are carried out before flight.




2301(3)

►Air System◄ Acceptance Checks

9. The Aircraft Commander or Responsible Aircrew Member should undertake acceptance checks personally unless operating conditions (such as the use of Operational Readiness Servicing (ORS)) make this impractical.

10. If the Aircraft Commander chooses to delegate the acceptance checks to a Responsible Aircrew Member, the person undertaking these checks should report any significant observations to the Aircraft Commander before flight.

Guidance Material

2301(3)

Aircraft Acceptance Checks

11. For ►Air Systems◄ subject to ORS, the Aircrew will carry out the ►Air Systems◄ acceptance checks, following completion of the ORS. However, an authorized person, in consultation with the relevant Aircrew, must decide whether the ►Air System◄ acceptance check has been invalidated by a maintenance activity on that ►Air System.◄

12. While not part of an ►Air System’s◄ maintenance schedule, ►Air System◄ acceptance checks are vital, since it is possible for an ►Air System◄ to be cleared for flight yet not be in a fit condition for flight due to, for example, wings or rotors being folded, covers and blanks still in position, etc.

13. ►Air System◄ acceptance checks will be promulgated in the ►Air System◄ Topic 14 or other relevant instructions.

Regulation

2301(4)

Exceeding Parameters and Hazardous Incidents

2301(4) The Aircraft Commander shall inform the responsible maintenance organization when an ►Air System◄ in his custody has been exposed to an event that might adversely affect its serviceability.


2301(4)


14. Nil.

Guidance Material

2301(4)


15. An ‘event’ that might be considered as adversely affecting an ►Air System’s◄ serviceability may include, but is not limited to:

a. Exceeding an ►Air System,◄ engine or component operating parameter.

b. Excessively turbulent flight conditions.

c. High winds or storm conditions whilst parked.

d. A lightning strike.

e. A bird strike.

f. A shock loading of an engine or component.

g. A heavy landing.

h. Heavy sea spray.

i. Contamination by fire extinguishant or other potentially hazardous gas/fluid.

j. Blast or weapon efflux from an adjacent weapon installation.






RA 2302 - Responsibilities in the Air

Rationale ►Flying operations are inherently hazardous and the associated Risk to Life must be reduced to a level that is deemed As Low As Reasonably Practicable and Tolerable. To achieve this Aircrew must be accountable when conducting flying operations and this Regulation prescribes the regulations, orders, instructions and law that are to be observed.◄

Contents 2302(1): Responsibilities in the Air

2302(2)1: Withdrawn - covered by Armed Forces Act

Regulation

2302(1)

Responsibilities in the Air

2302(1) All Aircrew shall ensure that the mission, sortie or task, for which they have been Authorized, is executed in a manner that minimizes the risk and hazards to the ►Air System,◄ its occupants, ground crew, other airspace users or general public over which such ►Air Systems◄ are flown.


2302(1)


1. Aviation Duty Holders (ADH) and Accountable Managers (Military Flying) (AM(MF)) should issue orders or instructions detailing the duties and responsibilities in the air for all ►◄ Aircrew under their command or control.

2. Aircrew should ensure that they are familiar with the relevant regulations, orders, instructions and laws which are applicable to them, and diligently conduct themselves such as to remain within any boundaries set therein.

3. Aircrew should be responsible for the safe operation of any equipment and services under their control, and ►◄ report to the Aircraft Commander any action, fault, failure, malfunction or defect that may affect the airworthiness or safe operation of the ►Air System.◄

4. ADH and AM(MF) should specify in orders the minimum crew to be carried in each type and/or mark of ►Air System◄ within their Area of Responsibility (AoR).

Guidance Material

2302(1)


5. If, at any time, any member of the crew considers that the safety of the ►Air System,◄ or any other ►Air System◄ or person is jeopardised in any way, they must advise the Aircraft Commander accordingly and, if necessary, offer specific guidance to avoid any hazardous situation.

6. The Aircraft Commander possesses the authority to disembark any person, or any part of the cargo which, in his opinion, represents a potential hazard to the safety of the ►Air System◄ or its occupants.

Applicability of the Armed Forces Act (AFA)

7. There are a number of offences which may arise from the manner in which an ►Air System◄ is flown. These include: dangerous flying (Section 33 Armed Forces Act 2006 or its amendments), low flying (Section 34 Armed Forces Act 2006 or its amendments) and annoyance by flying (Section 35 Armed Forces Act 2006 or its amendments); unfitness through alcohol or drugs (Section 20 Armed Forces Act 2006, as amended by AFA 2011). In addition, an offence may be committed where Aircrew contravene standing orders (Section 13 Armed Forces Act 2006 or its amendments) or perform their duty negligently (Section 15 Armed Forces Act 2006 or its amendments).

1 RA2302(2) - Dangerous or Negligent Operation of Aircraft. Withdrawn - covered by Armed Forces Act.



Guidance Material

2302(1)

8. The orders created by the ►ADH◄ and AM(MF) together with the relevant parts of the Military Aviation Authority Regulatory Publications and the Armed Forces Act 2006, provide the disciplinary framework governing military flying.

9. Civilians may be subject to service discipline by virtue of sections 49 and 370 of the Armed Forces Act 2006 or its amendments and, under these provisions, may be prosecuted if they conduct in, or in relation to, a military ►Air System,◄ any act that if done in or in relation to a civil ►Air System◄ would amount to a prescribed Air Navigation Order offence.

Regulation

2302(2)

Withdrawn - covered by Armed Forces Act

2302(2) Withdrawn - covered by Armed Forces Act.


2302(2)


10. Withdrawn - covered by Armed Forces Act.

Guidance Material

2302(2)


11. Withdrawn - covered by Armed Forces Act.



RA 2305 - Supervision of Flying

Rationale Across ►the Defence Air Environment◄, effective leadership is key to promulgating an active, effective Air Safety ethos. Without Commanders being personally accountable, Air Safety will be compromised. This Regulatory Article requires the Regulated Community to appoint named personnel to supervise flying operations, in order to provide the appropriate level of personal accountability.

Contents 2305(1): Supervision of Flying

2305(2): Embarked Aviation Operations

2305(3): ►Air System◄ Limitations

2305(4): Withdrawn

2305(5): Aircrew Briefing

2305(6): Air Exercise Planning and Airspace Integration

2305(7): Taxiing of Aircraft

Regulation

2305(1)

Supervision of Flying

2305(1) Aviation Duty Holders (ADH) and Accountable Manager (Military Flying) (AM(MF)) shall appoint officers to supervise the flying operations for which they are responsible and promulgate appropriate orders detailing their duties.


2305(1)


1. Supervisors should receive Terms of Reference detailing their supervisory responsibilities.

2. Local Flying Orders. Commanders of flying Units and nominated Flight Operations post-holders should issue local flying orders.

3. Detachments. Aircrew operating away from home base should conform, in the conduct of their flying, to the local flying orders applicable at the detachment base. For overseas detachments aircrew should also conform to national regulations and procedures. Where conflict exists between their normal operating criteria and the national or local flying orders, the more stringent should be applied.

4. ►Flights operating over1 foreign territory2. In accordance with international law3, supervisors should ensure that appropriate diplomatic clearance4 is obtained.

5. Flights outside the UK Flight Information Region (FIR). When operating in non-UK FIR or Upper Information Region (UIR), supervisors should ensure that the agreed procedures for notification through air traffic channels are complied with4 unless operating under ‘due regard’5.

a. For organizations without a direct military chain of command, such as Contractor Flying Approved Organization Scheme (CFAOS) organizations, the AM(MF) should inform the MOD of the intended operating area by emailing the Air Staff in MOD ([email protected]) to ensure the MOD provides appropriate political approval if required.◄

6. Curtailment of flying in adverse weather conditions. ADH and AM(MF) should define the weather limits, including sea states and wind limitations above which consideration is to be given to the halting of routine flying or flying during exercises.

1 ‘Operating over’ includes flying in, flying through, landing in or taking off from. 2 ►Territory is defined as ‘the land areas and territorial waters adjacent thereto under the sovereignty, suzerainty, protection or mandate of such state’ (Chicago Convention 1944 and subsequent updates refer). Territorial waters are usually 12nm from the coast (Article 3 of the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea refers). 3 Derived from the Chicago Convention 1944 and subsequent updates. 4 Iaw AP1158 (Approval and Diplomatic Clearance for Flights to Destinations Abroad). 5 Iaw RA 2307 - Rules of the Air (and RA 2320 - Role Specific Remotely Piloted Air Systems for RPAS).◄


https://www.icao.int/publications/Documents/7300_cons.pdf

http://www.un.org/depts/los/convention_agreements/texts/unclos/unclos_e.pdf



Guidance Material

2305(1)


7. Commanders of flying Units and nominated Flight Operations post-holders (Defence Contractor Flying Organizations) will nominate a suitably experienced individual to be immediately contactable and available to oversee all flying conducted on the unit. The application of suitable arrangements to enable on-call aircraft (SAROPS etc) to launch outside normal working hours, and/or in poor weather conditions, without immediate supervision may be considered.

8. Local Flying Orders. Local Flying Orders need not repeat the direction and guidance of superior level documents, but may raise any minimum qualification or safety margin to take account of local requirements or conditions. All necessary steps will be taken to bring the appropriate flying regulations and orders to the attention of the flying personnel concerned. However, it will also be the duty of aircrew to acquaint themselves with appropriate flying regulations and orders.

9. Detachments. Where conflict exists between their normal operating criteria and the national or local flying orders, the more stringent will be applied. Conflicts that arise will be resolved through consultation with the supervisor of flying at the detachment base. For overseas detachments, full details of the procedure to be followed, notice required and special considerations to be taken into account for individual countries are contained in AP1158.

10. Loan Aircrew Supervision. When Aircrew transfer across ADH or AM(MF) boundaries on a temporary basis, a formal auditable handover must be conducted. The handover must satisfy the donating and gaining organizations as to: duty of care considerations; Aircrew currency and competency; and wider line management responsibilities.

Regulation

2305(2)

Embarked Aviation Operations

2305(2) ADH and AM(MF) shall provide orders for embarked aviation operations.


2305(2)


11. Authorizing Officers and aircraft commanders conducting embarked aviation operations should comply with the flying orders set out in BRd 766 Embarked Aviation Operating Handbook.

12. Where BRd 766 and other orders conflict, then the more stringent should apply.

Guidance Material

2305(2)


13. Flying supervisors will need to be aware of the particular hazards and special requirements associated with embarked aviation operations as detailed in BRd 766.

Regulation

2305(3)

►Air System◄ Limitations

2305(3) Except in an emergency, the Pilot of an ►Air System◄ shall not exceed the engine, airframe or handling limitations quoted in the Release to Service (RTS) for the ►Air System◄ as reflected in the ►Air System◄ Document Set or, for non-RTS flying operations, the ►Military Permit To Fly◄ or ►Contractors Flight Limitations Document◄.


2305(3)


14. If the limitations are exceeded at any time, or if the ►Air System◄ has been subjected to abnormal loading, stress or strain in the air or on the ground, the pilot or Aircraft Commander should report the fact on the MOD Form 700 or Tech Log for the ►Air System◄ concerned and should inform his Authorizing Officer or Supervisor as soon as possible.



Guidance Material

2305(3)


15. Nil.

Regulation

2305(4)

Alcohol and Flying

2305(4) Withdrawn - Covered in Armed Forces Act 2006 as amended by the Armed Forces Act 2011 effective 1 Nov 13. See Guidance Material at RA 2302(1)6 for applicability of Armed Forces Act.


2305(4)

Alcohol and Flying

16. Withdrawn - Covered by Armed Forces Act

Guidance Material

2305(4)

Alcohol and Flying

17. Withdrawn - Covered by Armed Forces Act

Regulation

2305(5)

Aircrew Briefing

2305(5) ADH and AM(MF) shall define specific responsibilities for the supervision and co-ordination of all mission planning and Aircrew briefing conducted at units within their Area of Responsibility.


2305(5)

Aircrew Briefing

18. Briefing of aircrew before flight, and subsequent de-briefing on completion of the sortie, is essential and should be conducted in a thorough and professional manner. Supervisors should conduct periodic checks of the quality and content of aircrew flight planning and briefings. Details of this requirement should be included in Supervisory Terms of Reference.

19. Supervisors should ensure that all flying units have suitable aeronautical planning and briefing facilities to include at least the following:

a. A facility close enough such as not to invalidate time-sensitive mission planning information eg NOTAMS and METARS.

b. Adequate accommodation to conduct mission planning without distraction and in reasonable comfort, with access to all necessary flight planning material and information, including warnings. This includes access to information pertinent to remote areas of operation.

Guidance Material

2305(5)

Aircrew Briefing

20. Aeronautical Briefing Facilities. STANAG 3052 provides details of the NATO agreed minimum standard for aeronautical briefing facilities. Defence Contractor Flying Organizations may request these details from the MAA.

21. Briefing Topics. The following topics, which may be covered by specialist briefing personnel, must be included when appropriate during sortie briefings:

a. Crew composition, formation composition/changes and limitations.

b. Crew responsibilities for checks iaw Flight Reference Cards, where appropriate on multi-crew aircraft.

6 RA 2302 - Responsibilities in the Air



Guidance Material

2305(5)

c. ►Air System◄ details (performance, serviceability, role equipment, etc).

d. Meteorology, including significant meteorological features during the flight and landing conditions at the ►Air System’s◄ destination.

e. Air Traffic Control data, together with relevant details of alternative routes and diversionary (alternate) airfields.

f. Navigational warnings.

g. Communications plan.

h. Special operational and/or tactical information for a particular operation, mission or exercise.

i. Sortie content and formation details.

j. Instructions required for aircrew training.

k. Day/night and night/day transitional flight considerations.

l. Flight restrictions.

m. Emergency/survival procedures.

22. Briefing Aids. Much of the information required for briefing of aircrew may be displayed on maps, notice boards or by electronic means. Appropriately trained personnel will ensure that such information is accurate and up to date.

Regulation

2305(6)

Air Exercise Planning and Airspace Integration

2305(6) Organizations completing air exercise planning that is of a complex nature and/or has a high potential for interaction with other airspace users, shall obtain specialist airspace advice.


2305(6)


23. In order to ensure that the risks of unplanned interaction of exercise traffic and other airspace users are identified and kept As Low As Reasonably Practicable during the planning stages of the exercise advice should be obtained locally, from higher authority or through the auspices of the Civil Aviation Authority Airspace Regulation Section who should be provided with Exercise proposals at the earliest opportunity. Regardless of which route is used it is incumbent on the Exercise Planners to ensure that they have obtained specialist advice covering all of the exercise area. They should also undertake the following activities:

a. Complete an appropriate written risk assessment for the exercise. Detailed advice and guidance on the conduct of risk assessments is provided in RA 12107.

b. Ensure that the principles of liaison and information exchange conducted in the exercise planning phase are retained through continued liaison during the execution phase of the exercise.

Guidance Material

2305(6)


24. The UK Air Information Publication and UK Military Low Flying Handbook (Section 1 Annex A) provide details of the information required of Exercise Planners. The Joint and Integrated (J&I) arrangements for airspace and air traffic service provision in the UK provides significant flexibility for military aviation activity in the airspace over the territory of the UK and the airspace outside the territorial limit for which the UK has responsibility to the International Civil Aviation Organisation. The J&I arrangements also result in a significant interaction between military activity and that of Commercial and General Air Traffic, especially in Classes F, G and C airspace. Routine training and interaction is covered by RA 23078 and associated orders and

7 RA 1210 - Ownership and Management of Operating Risk (Risk to Life). 8 RA 2307 - Rules of the Air



Guidance Material

2305(6)

regulations. However, given the nature of air exercise activity it is essential that those engaged in the planning, conduct and supervision of such training apply the highest standards of exercise preparation, flight planning, briefing and flying discipline.

Regulation

2305(7)

Taxiing of Aircraft

2305(7) ADH and AM(MF) shall define the training, authorization and certification required by personnel who, by the nature of their duties, are required to taxi Aircraft.


2305(7)

Taxiing of Aircraft

25. Only trained, authorized and certified personnel should taxi Aircraft.

26. When an Aircraft is being taxied, the person at the controls should assume responsibility for the safety of the Aircraft and other personnel or property that may be endangered by the taxiing operation.

Guidance Material

2305(7)

Taxiing of Aircraft

27. This regulation ►only◄ applies to an Aircraft taxiing under its own power.






RA 2306 - Authorization of Flights

Rationale Authorization is the authority given to an Aircraft Commander to fly a particular Air System on a specified mission or duty. In the course of normal operations a disregard for the direction that is implicit within Authorization may increase the Risk to Life to a level that is not As Low As Reasonably Practicable and Tolerable. This Regulation provides Aviation Duty Holders (ADH) and Accountable Managers (Military Flying) (AM(MF)) with an immediate level of assurance and direction.

Contents 2306(1): Authorization of Flights

Regulation

2306(1)

Authorization of Flights

2306(1) All flights by UK Military Air Systems shall be Authorized.


2306(1)


1. ADH and AM(MF) should publish, by appointment, those personnel who may delegate powers of Authorization.

2. ADH and AM(MF) should promulgate lists of individuals who have powers of Authorization by name or appointment and any limitations that apply. Authorizing Officers should receive Terms of Reference detailing their responsibilities.

3. ADH and AM(MF) should detail in orders the processes to be followed for the Authorization of flights.

4. Duties of the Authorizing Officer. The Authorizing Officer should as a minimum:

a. Detail the Aircraft Commander, and if applicable, the Formation Leader.

b. Ensure that the Aircraft Commander, and/or the Formation Leader or leaders understand the aims of the tasked mission or duty.

c. Ensure that the Aircraft Commander, and if applicable, the Formation Leader is capable of carrying out ►their◄ responsibilities as detailed in these regulations or other applicable directives or orders issued by a subordinate authority.

d. Ensure that the Aircraft Commander or Formation Leader has thoroughly planned ►their◄ mission, alternate mission or duty.

e. Ensure that the crew or formation members are qualified, in current flying practice, and capable of executing the tasked mission, alternate mission or duty as planned without undue hazard.

f. Define the duties of each member of Aircrew (eg P1, Commander) in the flight authorization record1

, before flight.

g. Accurately state in the flight Authorization record the nature of the planned duty or exercise.

h. If necessary, alter the mission or crew, place further limitations on, or ultimately cancel the sortie.

i. Ensure that all aspects of the authorization are recorded in sufficient detail in an appropriate Authorization record;

j. ►Consider the impact of any synthetic training conducted immediately prior to the flight on the authorized sortie content, particularly practice and simulated emergency handling.◄

1 Colloquially known as the authorization sheet.




2306(1)

5. Methods of Authorization. UK Military Air Systems should not be flown unless the flight has been ►Authorized◄, normally in writing, and the Aircraft Commander has signified that ►they◄ understand the mission or duty by initialling the appropriate Authorization record. Electronic Authorization should only be used where it is at least as robust as written Authorization; in particular it should be capable of immediate audit and hard copy reproduction. Exceptionally, if an Authorizing Officer and/or Aircraft Commander is unable to carry out the procedure for written Authorization, verbal Authorization should be given instead. The Authorization record should be annotated to reflect the granting of verbal Authorization as soon as possible.

6. Aircrew Capability. Authorizing Officers should pay particular attention to Aircrew competency and qualifications, and apply Aircrew fatigue management considerations when Authorizing a flight.

7. Day/Night Flying Considerations. Unless prior arrangements have been made for night flying, Aircrew should only be Authorized for ►◄ flight if the Authorizing Officer is satisfied that they will arrive at their destination before the end of evening civil twilight. Furthermore, where bad weather influences light levels, the Authorizing Officer should consider applying a greater safety margin and stipulate the latest hour at which the Air System is to arrive at its destination.

8. Meteorological Considerations. The Authorizing Officer should assure ►themself◄ that due consideration has been given to meteorological conditions, and be prepared to adjust the sortie profile accordingly.

9. Authorization of Passenger Flights. The names of passengers should be entered in the Authorization record, whenever practicable, or recorded on passenger manifests.

10. Flying during Exercises. Authorizing Officers should, where possible, follow standard Authorizing procedures; moreover, the proper degree of flying supervision is to be maintained. However, when an exercise scenario makes normal Authorization impracticable a general 'exercise' Authorization should be given.

11. Flying during Operations. ADH should stipulate occasions when operational requirements preclude explicit Authorization and how those situations should be managed. However, the Authorizing Officer should, where possible, follow standard Authorizing procedures.

Guidance Material

2306(1)


12. Delegation of Authorization. The power to delegate Authorization for Defence Contractor organizations must not be granted below post holder level.

13. Processes for Authorization. Authorizing Officers need to follow standard procedures and processes for Authorization to ensure that the ADH or AM(MF) intent is met. Accordingly, ADH and AM(MF) orders must specify the actions required of an Authorizer and the overall management of Authorization within their Area of Responsibility.

14. Risk. The key role of the Authorizing Officer is to be aware of the probability and impact of potential problems and to eliminate, reduce or control the hazards involved through risk management and implementation of suitable controls.

15. Self-Authorization. Suitably qualified Aircrew may be granted powers of Self Authorization by an Approving Officer2

with any limitations detailed on an appropriate certificate. Independent Authorization, rather than self-Authorization, is encouraged.

16. Cross-Boundary Authorization. Powers of Authorization do not transfer across ADH or AM(MF) boundaries. Suitably qualified Aircrew, such as appointed Central Flying School or Standards Agents, may be empowered to Authorize all flights in Air Systems on which they are qualified. However, migrating Aircrew powers of Authorization must be endorsed by the gaining ADH or AM(MF) and promulgated as such in accordance with para 2. The sortie Authorization record must remain with the ADH or AM(MF) organization operating the Air System.

2 The Defence Contractor Flying Organization equivalent is the Flight Operations post-holder.



Guidance Material

2306(1)

17. Authorization Terminology. In stating the nature of the planned duty, the Authorizer must avoid ill-defined terms such as 'local flying'. Where aerobatic manoeuvres are implicit in an Authorized duty (eg air combat, weapon delivery, etc) the term ‘aerobatics’ need not be added. Codes specifying sortie content may be used to abbreviate written Authorization. Orders and instructions will specify the codes that may be used and the relevant decode will be displayed alongside the Authorization record. Trials sorties may be entered into the Authorization record by the number of the Trials Instruction. Details indicating which part of the Trial is being conducted must be entered separately on the Authorization record. A copy of the Trials Instruction must be available at the point of Authorization. As an overarching guide for the completion of Authorization of flights, it must be possible to reconstruct the nature, scope and boundaries of the authorized flight and task, including the consistution and specific duties of the crew, from the authorization record.

18. Deviation from Authorization. Exceptionally an Aircraft Commander or Formation Leader may undertake a mission or duty not included in the pre-flight Authorization. However, the deviation must be within the constraints of these regulations, and the Aircraft Commander/Formation Leader must be satisfied that the deviation from the Authorized mission is on the grounds of Air System safety, or in the UK national or Service interest. The Aircraft Commander, or Formation Leader, will inform ►their◄ Authorizing Officer or Supervisor of ►their◄ actions as soon as possible and in any event must do so after landing. ►They◄ must annotate the Authorization record to indicate the additional duties carried out. The amendment to the authorization record must be clearly initialled by the Aircraft Commander/Formation Leader so as to clarify under whose authority the additional duties were undertaken.

19. Aircrew Capability. If any Aircrew member considers that the flight for which they have been Authorized is in any way beyond ►their◄ capabilities or qualifications, it is ►their◄ duty to inform the Authorizing Officer or Aircraft Commander accordingly.

20. Flying during Exercises. Where a general 'exercise' Authorization is given, this will state the period for which Authorization has been granted, the maximum number of hours or sorties to be flown and any additional limitations imposed on individuals or crews. In this situation, the Authorizing Officer will consider the requirement for relaxing the Authorization process, and if necessary conduct an assessment of risk.

21. Flying during Operations. A tasking message may be taken as Authorization to execute an operational sortie. However, if a hard copy of the tasking message is received it must be kept for reference. Where practicable, Authorization record will be completed after the sortie. This does not apply to operational training which requires full Authorization.

22. ►Consideration of Sythentic Training Activity. Aviation accident investigations have suggested a potential for Aircrew to incorrectly make ‘live’ inputs to emergency systems during the conduct of simulated or practice emergency handling on an Air System in flight immediately after conducting the same exercise ‘live’ in a Synthetic Training Device. This cognitive phenomenon might be mitigated by appropriate authorization, pre-flight briefing, crew composition and other supervisory factors and must be considered during the authorization process.◄






RA 2307 - Rules of the Air

Rationale ►The Defence Air Environment comprises a wide range of military registered Air Systems. These vary in size, manoeuvrability and speed yet share the same airspace with each other and many civilian registered Air Systems. Such variety could present a hazard if operated in an inconsistent or unexpected manner. In the UK, civilian registered Air Systems achieve consistency by adhering to the Air Navigation Order (ANO) and Standardized European Rules of the Air (SERA); however, the majority of the ANO and SERA do not apply to military registered Air Systems. This Regulatory Article ensures operators of military registered Air Systems comply with the relevant requirements of the ANO and SERA and, when the unique nature of military flying requires deviation from the ANO and SERA, such Air Systems are operated in a manner that provides an Air Safety outcome at least as good as the rules for civilian registered Air Systems.◄

Contents 2307(1): Rules of the Air


Regulation

2307(1)

Rules of the Air

2307(1) The Aircraft Commander and / or handling Pilot shall follow the Rules of the Air.


2307(1)

Rules of the Air

Avoidance of Collisions

1. Notwithstanding that a flight is being made with Air Traffic Control (ATC) clearance, the Aircraft Commander or handling Pilot should take all possible measures to ensure that ►their Aircraft◄ does not collide with other ►Aircraft,◄ obstacles or terrain.

2. An ►Aircraft◄ should not be flown in such proximity to other ►Aircraft◄ as to create a danger of collision.

3. ►Aircraft◄ should not be flown in Formation, except in an emergency or under operational tasking, unless the Aircraft Commanders have agreed to do so and have been authorized for that activity►1◄. Aviation Duty Holders (ADH) and Accountable Managers (Military Flying) (AM(MF)) should stipulate when and how Formation Flying is to be Authorized. Orders and instructions should include as a minimum:

a. ►Briefing requirements;

b. Numbers of Aircraft permitted;

c. Authorization criteria, including Formation Lead;

d. Minimum distance between Formation members;

e. Formation Flying in controlled airspace;

f. Weather minima;

g. Occasions when Formation Flying is authorized between dissimilar types or when non-UK Military Air Systems are involved.◄

4. Tactical Training. ADH and AM(MF) should stipulate the occasions when it might be necessary to depart from the Rules of the Air for the Avoidance of Collisions for the purposes of tactical training. Alternative procedures and methods of achieving separation criteria should be promulgated, briefed and Authorized.

5. An ►Aircraft◄ that is obliged by these Rules of the Air to keep out of the way of another ►Aircraft◄ should avoid passing over, under or in front of the other

1 Refer to RA 3234 – Air System Formations ►which details procedures for safe and efficient flight when in formation.◄




2307(1)

►Aircraft◄ unless it passes well clear and takes into account the effect of ►the Aircraft’s◄ wake turbulence.

6. An ►Aircraft◄ that has right of way under the Rules of the Air should be flown at a constant course and speed, unless safety dictates otherwise.

7. ►The Aircraft Commander of◄ an ►Aircraft who◄ is aware that the manoeuvrability of another ►Aircraft◄ is impaired should give way to that ►Aircraft.◄

8. For the purposes of this Regulation, an ►Aircraft◄ towing a sailplane2 or other object should be considered to be a single Air System under the command of the Aircraft Commander of the towing Air System.

9. Formations of ►Aircraft◄ are normally less manoeuvrable than single ►Aircraft◄ and are unable to take sudden avoiding action. The handling Pilots of single ►Aircraft◄ should therefore give way to, and keep clear of, Formations of ►Aircraft.◄

10. Air System Collision Avoidance Systems (ACAS), where fitted, should be operated in accordance with (iaw) the Air System Document Set. Pilots should use standard ►radiotelephony◄ phraseology iaw CAP 413►3◄.

11. Use of ACAS Equipment fitted with Resolution Advisory Mode. When fitted, ACAS equipment capable of Resolution Advisory mode should normally have this mode selected. A Resolution Advisory warning should be actioned according to the instruction issued. ADH and AM(MF) should promulgate orders or instructions detailing the circumstances when selection of Traffic Advisory-only (TA only) mode, or standby / off mode is permitted.

12. ►Aircraft◄ Converging. When two ►Aircraft◄ are converging at approximately the same level, the ►Aircraft◄ that has the other on its right should give way, except as follows:

a. Powered ►Aircraft◄ should give way to airships, sailplanes and balloons;

b. Airships should give way to sailplanes and balloons;

c. Sailplanes should give way to balloons;

d. Powered ►Aircraft◄ should give way to ►Aircraft◄ towing other ►Aircraft◄ or other objects.

13. Air Systems Approaching Head-On. When two ►Aircraft◄ are approaching head-on, or approximately so, in the air and there is a danger of collision, each handling Pilot should alter course to the right, unless to do so would force a crossing of flight paths.

14. ►Aircraft◄ Overtaking. An ►Aircraft◄ that is being overtaken in the air has the right of way, and the handling Pilot of the overtaking ►Aircraft,◄ whether climbing, descending or in horizontal flight, should keep out of the way of the other ►Aircraft◄ by altering course to the right. The handling Pilot of the overtaking ►Aircraft◄ should keep out of the way of the other ►Aircraft◄ until that other ►Aircraft◄ has been passed and is clear, notwithstanding any change in relative positions of the two ►Aircraft.◄ This does not apply to sailplanes overtaking other sailplanes, which should pass clear by altering course to the right or left, whichever is the most appropriate.

15. ►Air Traffic Zones. Aircraft should not enter Air Traffic Zones including Aerodrome Traffic Zone (ATZ) and Military Aerodrome Traffic Zone (MATZ) without prior permission of the controlling authority.

16. Glider and Micro-light Sites. During published hours of operation, Aircraft should avoid permanent glider sites by a minimum of the following margins, unless otherwise specified:

2 A heavier than air ►Aircraft◄ that does not depend on an engine including gliders, hang gliders, paragliders, and other comparable craft. 3 ►Refer to CAP 413 - Radiotelephony Manual.◄




2307(1)

a. Permanent Glider Sites. 2000 ft above ground level (AGL) and 2 nm radius.

b. Permanent Micro-light Sites. 2000 ft AGL and 1 nm radius.◄

17. Flight in the Vicinity of an Aerodrome►4◄. ►In addition to the avoidance criteria listed in the UK Military Low Flying Handbook (UKMLFH), Aircraft Commanders should avoid flying in the vicinity of an Aerodrome unless authorized by ATC. Where an Aerodrome does not have ATC, Aircraft Commanders should avoid that location unless they can positively confirm whether or not other Aircraft are operating and:

a. Conform with or avoid the pattern of traffic formed by other Aircraft in operation;

b. Deconflict from other Aircraft operating at that location;

c. All turns should be left, when approaching for landing and after taking off, unless otherwise promulgated.◄

18. ►◄

19. ►Aircraft◄ Landing. Handling Pilots of ►Aircraft◄ in flight or on the ground or water should give way to ►Aircraft◄ landing or on final approach to land or water.

20. When two or more ►Aircraft◄ are approaching any place for the purpose of landing, the handling Pilot of the ►Aircraft◄ at the lower altitude possesses the right of way, but should not cut in front of another ►Aircraft◄ that is on final approach to land or overtake that ►Aircraft.◄ However, the following exceptions apply:

a. When an ATC unit has communicated to any ►Aircraft◄ an order of priority of landing, the handling Pilot should approach to land in that order;

b. When the handling Pilot is aware that another ►Aircraft◄ is making an emergency landing, ►they◄ should give way to that ►Aircraft◄ unless specifically instructed to do otherwise by ATC. Notwithstanding that the handling Pilot that gives way may have previously received permission to land, the handling Pilot should not attempt to land until ►they have◄ received further permission to do so.

21. ►Aircraft◄ Take-off. An ►Aircraft◄ taxiing on the manoeuvring area of an Aerodrome should give way to an ►Aircraft◄ taking off or about to take off.

22. The handling Pilot of an ►Aircraft◄ should take off and land: in the direction indicated by ATC; by the ground signals indicated; or, if no signals are displayed, into the wind unless good aviation practice demands otherwise.

23. The handling Pilot of an ►Aircraft◄ should not land on a Runway at an Aerodrome if the Runway is not clear of other ►Aircraft,◄ unless otherwise authorized by the controlling ATC unit.

24. Where take-off and landing is not confined to a Runway:

a. The handling Pilot of an ►Aircraft,◄ when landing, should leave clear on ►their◄ left any ►Aircraft◄ which has landed or is already landing or about to take off. If such an ►Aircraft◄ is about to turn it should turn to the left after the handling Pilot has satisfied ►themself◄ that such action will not interfere with other traffic movements.

b. The handling Pilot of an ►Aircraft◄ about to take off should take up position and manoeuvre in such a way as to leave clear on ►their◄ left any other ►Aircraft◄ which has already taken off or is about to take off.

25. After landing, the handling Pilot of an ►Aircraft◄ should move clear of the landing area as soon as it is safe to do so unless otherwise authorized by an ATC unit.

26. Right of Way on the Ground. ►Vehicles and vehicles towing an Aircraft should give way to Aircraft that are landing, taking off or taxiing. Vehicles (whether towing an Aircraft or not) meeting other vehicles (whether towing an Aircraft or not) should follow the principles in para 27.◄

4 ►Refer to MAA02: MAA Master Glossary for definition.◄




2307(1)

27. Right of Way for Taxiing ►Aircraft.◄ In case of danger of collision between two ►Aircraft◄ taxiing on the movement area of an Aerodrome, the following should apply:

a. When two ►Aircraft◄ are approaching head-on, or approximately so, each should stop or where practicable alter ►◄ course to the right so as to keep well clear.

b. When two ►Aircraft◄ are on a converging course, the one which has the other on its right should give way.

c. An ►Aircraft◄ which is being overtaken by another ►Aircraft◄ should have the right-of-way and the overtaking ►Aircraft◄ should keep well clear of the other ►Aircraft.◄

28. Movement of ►Aircraft◄ on Aerodromes. The handling Pilot of an ►Aircraft◄ should not taxi on the Movement Area or cross an active Runway without positive ATC Clearance, or where the Aerodrome has an Aerodrome Flight Information Service (FIS) unit for the time being notified on watch, without permission of that unit. Where ATC or FIS facilities are not available, permission should be sought from the person in charge of the Aerodrome.

29. Collision Avoidance during Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC) Flight. To reduce the risk of a collision, flight in IMC should only be conducted in the following circumstances:

a. When in receipt of a radar or procedural service; or,

b. When following a published approach or departure procedure; or,

c. In an emergency; or,

d. Where specific approval is given in orders issued by ADH or AM(MF).

30. In IMC Flight where a radar or procedural service is not available or cannot be obtained, handling Pilots should fly at cruising levels as defined in the UK Aeronautical Information Publications (AIP) based on the standard altimeter setting 1013.2 hPa, above Transition Altitude (TA) or the Safety Altitude, whichever is higher.

31. In the event of unavoidable or inadvertent entry into IMC handling Pilots should make every effort to obtain an Air Traffic Service (ATS). If a radar service is unavailable, wherever possible handling Pilots should avoid areas of known or expected airborne activity such as airfield approach and departure lanes, sailplane sites or areas of off-shore helicopter activity.

32. Royal Low Level Corridors (RLLC). Military ►Aircraft◄ should only operate in RLLC iaw RA 32375.

Low Flying

33. Low Flying is a specific area in which the UK Military ►deviates◄ from the civilian Rules of the Air ►◄. The UK Military Low Flying Regulations described in RA 23306 and the procedures described in the UKMLFH should be followed ►by all Aircraft operating below 2000 ft AGL / above mean sea level (AMSL). Light propeller driven Aircraft and Rotary Wing Aircraft are considered to be Low Flying when operating at less than 500 ft AGL / AMSL, but are considered to be in the UK Low Flying System when operating at less than 2000 ft, AGL.◄

‘Due Regard’

34. Flying that is conducted outside the UK Flight Information Region (FIR) and Upper Information Region (UIR), in international airspace, but not conducted under International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) flight procedures, should only be carried out under ‘Due Regard’ and approved by the ADH or operational commander7.

35. ‘Due Regard’ carries a personal responsibility on the part of the Aircraft Commander and / or handling Pilot to maintain separation from other ►Aircraft,◄ vessels and objects (such as offshore platforms). In order to ensure an appropriate

5 Refer to RA 3237 – Royal Low Level Corridors. 6 Refer to RA 2330 – Low Flying. 7 Refer to RA 1020 – ►◄ Aviation Duty Holder and Aviation Duty Holder-Facing Organizations ►- Roles and Responsibilities.◄




2307(1)

level of safety, flight under ‘Due Regard’ should be subject to one or more of the following conditions:

a. ►Aircraft◄ should be operated in Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC).

b. ►Aircraft◄ should be operated within radar surveillance and under control of a surface or airborne radar facility.

c. ►Aircraft◄ should be equipped with airborne radar and qualified operators sufficient to provide separation between themselves and other ►Aircraft.◄

Air Traffic Management and Airspace

36. Aircrew should read these Rules of the Air in conjunction with the Air Traffic Management (ATM) 3000 series regulations and the UK AIP.

37. ATC Systems. Unless alternative ATM / ATC arrangements have been agreed, Aircraft Commanders should conform to the civil national ATM / ATC systems of all countries over which they fly.

38. Notification of Arrival and Departure. The Aircraft Commander should notify the airfield controlling authority of any intention to arrive or depart. Additionally, the Aircraft Commander should notify any change of intended destination or any estimated delay in arrival of 45 minutes or more.

39. Flight Plans. Flight plans should be submitted iaw the UK AIP ENR 1.10 (Flight Planning) and CAP 694 chapter 4►8◄.

40. ►Prohibited and Restricted Areas. Without the prior permission of the controlling authority for the area, Aircraft should not enter UK Prohibited and Restricted Areas as defined in Chapter 5 of the Manual of Military Air Traffic Management including:

a. National Prohibited and Restricted Areas;

b. Military Prohibited and Restricted Areas;

c. Provost Marshal Prohibited and Restricted Areas.

41. Danger Areas. Aircraft should not enter permanent Danger Areas or scheduled Danger Areas during published operating hours without permission of the controlling authority.

42. Restricted Airspace (Temporary). Non-participating Aircraft should not enter temporary airspace reservations promulgated by Notice to Airmen (NOTAM) within the specified dimensions.

43. High Intensity Radio Transmission Area (HIRTA). Aircraft should adhere to HIRTA restrictions iaw with their Release To Service. HIRTA Air System susceptibility can also be found at the No 1 Aeronautical Information Documents Unit Intranet and specific HIRTA restrictions are contained in section 2 and 3 of the UKMLFH.◄

Flight Rules and Flight Conditions

44. Flights by military Pilots should be conducted either under Instrument Flight Rules (IFR), Visual Flight Rules (VFR) or Special Visual Flight Rules (SVFR) as appropriate. VMC and IMC refer to the weather conditions encountered during flight. These terms are used to denote actual weather conditions, as distinct from the flight rules under which the flight is being conducted. VMC exist when the weather permits flight iaw the VFR; IMC exist when weather conditions are below the minima for VFR flight.

45. An Aircraft Commander electing to change the conduct of a flight from IFR to VFR should notify the appropriate ATS unit specifically that the IFR flight is cancelled.

8 ►Refer to CAP 694 – The UK Flight Planning Guide.◄




2307(1)

Visual Flight Rules

46. UK. Within the UK, under VFR, Pilots should maintain safe separation from other traffic. To operate under VFR, the extant environmental conditions should meet the VMC minima specified in Table 1, below.

Table 1. UK VMC Minima for VFR Flight.

Altitude BandAirspace

ClassFlight Visibility Distance from Cloud

At and above 10 000 ft AMSL

A (1) B C (2) D E F

G8 km 1500 m horizontally 1000 ft vertically

Below 10 000 ft AMSL and above 3000 ft AMSL, or above 1000 ft above terrain, whichever is the higher

A (1) B C (2) D E F

G5 km (3) 1500 m horizontally 1000 ft vertically

At and below 3000 ft AMSL, or 1000 ft above terrain, whichever is the higher

A (1) B C (2) D

►(6)◄ E5 km (3) 1500 m horizontally 1000 ft vertically

F G 5 km (4)

1500 m horizontally 1000 ft vertically or

clear of cloud and with the surface in sight (5)

Notes:

1. The VMC minima in Class A airspace are included for guidance to Pilots and do not imply acceptance of VFR flights in Class A airspace.

2. Class C airspace extends vertically from FL195 to FL660.

3. The minimum flight visibility at speeds greater than 250 kts should be 8 km.

4. Minimum flight visibility ►outside controlled airspace.◄

a. Day. At 140 kts or less the minimum flight visibility for all ►Aircraft◄ may be reduced to 1500 m if manoeuvred at a speed that will give adequate opportunity to observe other traffic or any obstacles in time to avoid collision. Helicopters ►should only◄ be permitted to operate in less than 1500 m flight visibility if manoeuvred at a speed that will give adequate opportunity to observe other traffic or any obstacles in time to avoid collision.

b. Night. At 140 kts or less the minimum flight visibility for helicopters only should be 3 km.

5. Distance from cloud.

a. At speeds greater than 250 kts the minimum horizontal clearance from cloud should be 1500 m.

b. At speeds greater than 140 kts in the UK Military Low Flying System the miminum vertical distance from cloud should be 500 ft.

6. ►Class D VFR Operations. A VFR flight in airspace class D is also deemed to have complied with Table 1 if the Aircraft is flown:

a. During the day;

b. At an indicated airspeed of 140 kts or less to give adequate opportunity to observe other traffic or any obstacles in time to avoid collision; and

c. Remaining clear of cloud, with the surface in sight and:

i. For aircraft other than helicopters, with a flight visibility of at least 5 km;

ii. For helicopters, with a flight visibility of at least 1500 m.◄




2307(1)

47. Outside the UK. Outside the UK, Pilots should normally comply with the VFR of the country over which they are flying, unless UK criteria are more restrictive, in which case UK criteria are to be followed.

48. Flight Visibility. For the purposes of an ►Aircraft◄ taking off from, or approaching to land at, an Aerodrome within Class B, C, or D airspace, the visibility, if any, communicated to the handling Pilot by the appropriate ATC unit should be taken to be the extant flight visibility.

49. Class D VFR Operations. Except when a special VFR clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, VFR flights should not take off or land at an Aerodrome within a control zone, or enter the Aerodrome Traffic Zone (ATZ) or Aerodrome Traffic circuit when the reported meteorological conditions at that Aerodrome are below the following minima:

a. The ceiling is less than 450 m (1500 ft); or

b. The ground visibility is less than 5 km.

50. For fixed wing and helicopter flights wishing to operate under VFR to or from an Aerodrome or enter the ATZ or Aerodrome Traffic circuit in class D airspace, the ground visibility should be used.

51. VFR Flight Plans. Pilots intending to fly in Class B, C or D airspace should complete a flight plan and obtain an ATC Clearance prior to entry to the airspace.

52. Continuous Watch. When flying within Class A, B, C, D and IFR in E airspace, Pilots should maintain a continuous watch on the notified radio frequency and comply with any instructions given by the appropriate ATC unit.

53. Exceptions to the rules for the VFR Flight Plan and Continuous Watch rules above should only be as follows:

a. Gliders that: are flying during daylight hours; and, are operating within controlled airspace designed and ►detailed in the AIP or◄ NOTAM issued for this exception; and, which maintain 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical clearance from cloud; and, possess flight visibility of at least 8 km.

b. Powered Air Systems which do not possess radio equipment and that: are flying during daylight hours; and, are operating within controlled airspace designed and ►detailed in the AIP or◄ NOTAM for this exception; and, which maintain 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical clearance from cloud; and, possess flight visibility of at least 5 km.

c. The above 2 types of Air System where permission has been granted by the appropriate ATC unit.

d. VFR flight plans should not be submitted for VFR flight in Class C airspace above FL 195 or along a Class C ATS route at any level.

Instrument Flight Rules

54. UK. Within the UK, Pilots should follow IFR as follows:

a. Outside Controlled Airspace (CAS). Above TA, Pilots should select cruising levels as defined by the UK AIP, based on the standard altimeter setting 1013.2 hPa, unless they are flying in conformity with instructions from ATC, HM Ship or an Air Surveillance and Control System Unit.

Note:

Throughout any period of level flight above the transition altitude, other than at a Flight Level, the ►Aircraft◄ should be in receipt of a surveillance radar service or carrying out a holding procedure established in relation to an airfield.

b. Inside CAS. Inside CAS, the following conditions should be complied with when the flight is proceeding as General Air Traffic:

(1) A flight plan should be submitted to the appropriate ATC Centre (ATCC).




2307(1)

(2) Clearance for the flight should be obtained from the appropriate ATCC.

(3) A Pilot should possess a valid instrument rating.

(4) The Air System should carry appropriate radio equipment operating on the notified radio frequencies.

(5) The Air System should carry radio-navigation equipment appropriate to the specific airspace requirements.

(6) The flight should be conducted iaw the ATC Clearance and instructions received.

55. Outside the UK. Outside the UK, IFR flights should be conducted iaw the applicable national procedures.

56. IFR and Safety Altitude. Under normal flying conditions the IFR do not allow flight below 3000 ft in IMC unless conforming with provisions listed at Deviations from Standard IFR (below). Additionally, military exercises might necessitate operations above the transition altitude with flight profiles that do not conform to the standard IFR. Such exercises should conduct the appropriate liaison with the Airspace Utilisation Section (Civ: 0207 453 6599) and other Ministry of Defence (MOD) and civil airspace authorities, and should take appropriate NOTAM and warning action once flight profiles have been agreed.

Applicability of VFR and IFR

57. Flight Under IFR. IFR flying should be conducted as follows:

a. Within the UK, flight under IFR is mandatory:

(1) In IMC.

(2) In Class A airspace, except where Special Visual Flight Rules (SVFR) is permitted.

(3) In Class C airspace when VFR operations are not permitted.

58. Flight Under VFR. With the exception of SVFR, a flight should only be conducted under VFR in circumstances that do not mandate IFR.

59. Special Visual Flight Rules (SVFR). SVFR flights may be authorized to operate within a control zone, subject to ATC Clearance. Except when permitted for helicopters in special cases such as, ►but not limited to,◄ medical flights, Search and Rescue (SAR) Operations and fire-fighting the Aircraft Commander should ensure that:

a. Flight is conducted clear of cloud and with the surface in sight and;

b. The flight visibility is not less than 1500 m or, for helicopters, not less than 800 m and;

c. Speed is 140 kts IAS or less to give adequate opportunity to observe other traffic and any obstacles in time to avoid a collision; and

d. Flight is conducted day only, unless otherwise permitted by ATC and;

e. Cloud ceiling is not less than 600 ft AGL.

Deviations from Standard IFR

60. Any UK military Air System operating in IMC over the sea outside airspace classified A to F, should comply with published IFR procedures for the relevant UK FIR concerned except when:

a. In airspace ►detailed in the AIP or◄ NOTAM for flight not iaw the IFR.

b. In a Danger Area which is notified as active and allocated to the flying unit.

c. In accordance with operation orders for specific exercises where allocated operating levels preclude flight at the appropriate IFR level - in the normal course the operational sponsor for the exercise should ensure that any necessary NOTAM action is taken.




2307(1)

d. Flying in conformity with instructions by ATC, an HM Ship or an Air Defence unit (see note).

Note:

Other than for reasons of safety, or as directed by sub-paras (1) to (3) above, a controlling unit should not direct an ►Aircraft◄ in level cruising flight to fly at a non semi-circular level unless the ►Aircraft◄ is in receipt of a recognized radar service. If provided by a Ship, only an air warning or air control radar should be used and the service should be provided from a dedicated console where the appropriate radar is available at all times.

Tactical Maritime and Non-Tactical Maritime Sorties

61. ►Radar Service. A radar service is defined as either a land or ship-based Air Traffic Management radar service, or provision of an Air System’s radar capability that can ensure safe separation from the coast, air and surface contacts. Orders and instructions for Air Systems equipped with suitable radar, should be issued by ADH and AM(MF) and detailed in the Air System Safety Case iaw RA 12059.◄

62. Descent and Operations below 3000 ft IMC outside CAS. ►Aircraft◄ operating in the maritime environment should only be Authorized to descend and operate below 3000 ft and to continue to operate below safety altitude in IMC over the sea subject to compliance with the following conditions:

Table 2. Tactical Maritime and Non-Tactical Maritime Sorties.

TACTICAL MARITIME SORTIE

RADAR SERVICE AVAILABLE

Once 2 nm clear of the coast (5 nm for fixed wing Air Systems), and heading away from land, ►Aircraft◄ may descend below their Safety Altitude and continue down to the Authorized operating altitude. Descent below 200 ft may only take place when visual with the surface, or with reference to a serviceable radio / radar altimeter.

NO RADAR SERVICE AVAILABLE

Once 5 nm clear of the coast, and heading away from land, ►Aircraft◄ may descend below their Safety Altitude and continue to 500 ft Minimum Separation Distance (MSD) with reference to a serviceable barometric altimeter. If 5 nm separation from land cannot be maintained then the ►Aircraft should◄ climb to Safety Altitude.

NON-TACTICAL MARITIME SORTIE

RADAR SERVICE AVAILABLE

Once 2 nm clear of the coast (5 nm for fixed wing Air Systems), and heading away from land, ►Aircraft◄ may descend below their Safety Altitude and continue to 500 ft MSD. They may then remain in IMC at 500 ft MSD provided that they have been Authorized to do so (and they remain greater than 5 nm from the coast). Flight below 500 ft MSD in IMC is only permitted when either:

a. Specifically Authorized.

b. Conducting a radar approach (including Helicopter Controlled Approach (HCA) / Ship Controlled Approach (SCA) / Emergency Low Visibility Approach (ELVA).

9 ►Refer to RA 1205 – Air Systems Safety Cases.◄




2307(1)

NO RADAR SERVICE AVAILABLE

Once 5 nm clear of the coast, and heading away from land, ►Aircraft◄ may descend to 500 ft MSD in an attempt to gain VMC. If still IMC at this height then the ►Aircraft should◄ climb to Safety Altitude. If still IMC then a further climb ►should◄ be made until VMC is achieved, or until above the transition altitude where standard IFR apply.

Notes:

1. Tactical maritime. Sorties involving operations / training that are constrained in selection of operating levels / altitudes by a need to achieve a specific sortie aim such as Anti-Submarine Warfare, Airborne Early Warning (AEW), Anti Surface Warfare, Maritime Counter Terrorism and SAR.

2. Non-Tactical maritime. Sorties that do not involve flight in a tactical profile such as Helicopter Delivery Service, Senior Officer Taxi, Navigation Exercise, embarkation etc.

3. Whenever possible and consistent with the Emissions Control (EMCON) policy in force, Air Systems operating IMC should be in receipt of a radar service.

4. Safety Altitude outside of 5 nm from the coast should be a minimum of 1000 ft AMSL.

63. Fixed wing Air Systems operating in the maritime environment, ►unless specifically Authorized for a Tactical Maritime Sortie iaw Table 2,◄ should be Authorized to descend not lower than 500 ft MSD in IMC with reference to a barometric altimeter and 300 ft MSD with reference a serviceable radio / radar altimeter. Descent below 300 ft MSD should be specifically Authorized and the Pilot should be visual with the surface, or on recovery, when use should be made of ►radar service◄ to ensure safe separation from surface contacts.

64. Air Systems simulating missile-attack profiles for training present additional risk because the flight profile converges on HM Ships. These sorties should only be Authorized to descend below 3000 ft AMSL IMC subject to specific approval by the ADH and additional criteria as follows:

a. The Air System being in receipt of a radar service from an ATC unit or under the control of a suitably qualified Air System Controller (AC), Fighter Controller (FC), ATC Officer (ATCO) using Ship's warning or air control radar or under the control of an AEW Air System.

b. The descent is conducted 5 nm clear and heading away from land.

c. A minimum of 750 ft AMSL for multiple Air Systems and 500 ft AMSL for single Air System.

65. ►Beyond Visual Range (BVR) Remotely Piloted Air Systems (RPAS) flying missile attack profiles in VMC but without reference to the surface should apply the criteria required for operating in IMC.◄

Helicopter Instrument Flying Practice Areas.

66. Helicopters engaged in instrument flying practice or test flights should only operate below 3000 ft in IMC subject to the following conditions:

a. The Air System is in receipt of a Radar Service and the flight is conducted within a designated training area or area which is under the control of the unit providing the radar service, and the following restrictions apply:

(1) Over land, the lower limit is fixed at an altitude / height which will ensure 1000 ft terrain clearance or at 1500 ft AMSL if higher.

(2) Over the sea, helicopters should operate not lower than 500 ft AMSL providing that the Air System can be kept at least 2 nm clear of the coast and / or surface contacts when below safety altitude.

►◄




2307(1)

67. ►◄

Safety Altitude

68. ADH and AM(MF) should issue orders concerning safety altitudes as necessary to ensure the safe navigation of Air Systems within their Area of Resposibility. In doing so, the following principles apply.

69. En Route. The safety altitude for a particular route or exercise area should be calculated by adding a minimum of 1000 ft to the elevation (ie height above mean sea level) of the highest obstacle located, as a minimum, within 5 nm of the Air System’s position rounded up to the next 100 ft. If the flight is to take place over mountainous terrain - defined as terrain of 3000 ft AMSL or higher - the increment will be increased to a minimum of 2000 ft. When severe turbulence is anticipated, consideration should be given to increasing the safety altitude further to compensate for the hazardous conditions that are likely to occur. Where areas of turbulence associated with mountain and leewaves are forecast or known to be present, a minimum in-flight clearance of 5000 ft is necessary above mountains which are up to 5000 ft in height above the surrounding terrain. For higher mountains the clearance should be at least equal to their height above the terrain.

Descent Below Safety Altitude

70. Over Land. Unless specifically Authorized, Aircraft Commanders or handling Pilots should not descend below safety altitude, except when compelled to do so in an emergency, unless the ►handling◄ Pilot is in visual contact with the surface, is using a serviceable terrain-following radar equipment or can let down by means of an approved radio or radar terminal approach procedure provided by Air System ATC units. Instructions for Air Systems equipped with terrain-following radar, both in IMC and at night, should be issued by ADH and AM(MF).

71. Offshore. Unless ►specifically Authorized for a Tactical Maritime Sortie iaw Table 2 or unless◄ special dispensation has been granted by the MOD, ►◄ subject to any more stringent regulations that ADH and AM(MF) may have imposed, when descending over the sea more than 5 nm from the coast, ►Aircraft◄ should only descend below safety altitude in IMC to a minimum of 500 ft above Authorized MSD in an attempt to achieve VMC below cloud. If cloud is not cleared by 500 ft above authorized MSD, or VMC cannot be achieved from this position, ►Aircraft◄ should climb to safety altitude and, if still IMC, climb until VMC is achieved or until above 3000 ft AMSL. Whenever possible, descents should be planned such that, if made in IMC, they will occur in areas clear of known airborne activity (for example, civil helicopter offshore operations) or where such activity can be determined and avoided.

►Aircraft◄ Lighting

72. Navigation Lights. Between sunset and sunrise, navigation lights should be displayed by ►Aircraft◄ in flight, taxiing, being towed and whenever possible when being ground-run. At night, in the event of a navigation light failure in flight, the ►Aircraft◄ should be landed as soon as practicable unless authorized by the appropriate ATC unit to continue.

a. Within the United Kingdom. In exceptional circumstances, between sunset and sunrise, planned activity without navigation lights should only take place as follows:

(1) Within segregated airspace. This option should be used wherever and whenever practical; or,

(2) Air Systems should be in receipt of a radar service from an Area Radar Unit as follows:

(a) In accordance with the recurring Airspace Change Notice issued for the conduct of lights out activity in non-segregated airspace.

(b) All Air Systems should squawk Mode 3A with C and Mode S where fitted.




2307(1)

(c) In the event of transponder failure or the failure of the radar being used to provide the radar service, navigation lights should be turned on immediately; or,

(3) Under the terms of the UK AIP, which describes the procedures for the notification and clearance of Unusual Aerial Activity; or,

(4) When low flying without lights in the UK Low Military Flying System, such flying should be conducted iaw the UKMLFH; or,

b. Outside the United Kingdom. In accordance with appropriate national requirements. Clearances for such flights should be negotiated locally with the national authorities concerned.

73. Anti-Collision Lights (Including High-Intensity Strobe Lights (HISLs)). If any anti-collision lights fail during flight at night the ►Aircraft◄ should land as soon as it is safe to do so, unless authorized by the appropriate ATC unit to continue its flight. An ►Aircraft◄ may continue to fly during the day in the event of a failure of an anti-collision light provided the light is repaired at the earliest practicable opportunity. When installed, anti-collision lights should be used as follows:

a. During Flight. Anti-collision lights should be selected on at all times when the ►Aircraft◄ is being operated with the following exceptions:

(1) During exercises with night vision aids that ►might◄ be adversely affected by high intensity lighting.

(2) When ►Aircraft◄ are conducting aerial photographic operations and the anti-collision lights might cause unwanted reflection.

(3) During night operations in the immediate vicinity of the flight-deck at sea.

(4) During Formation Flying, when anti-collision lights can be switched off at the discretion of the Formation Leader.

(5) At any other time when the Aircraft Commander determines that the safe operation of ►their◄ or any other Air System is being jeopardized.

b. On the Ground

(1) Fixed wing Air Systems anti-collision lights (not HISL) should normally be selected on for engine starting (except in an ►Aircraft◄ Shelter) and while taxiing.

(2) Helicopter anti-collision lights should normally be selected on whenever the rotors are running or about to run.

►Aircraft◄ Marshalling Signals and Airfield Ground Signals

74. Personnel involved in flying operations should remain proficient in the use and interpretation of ►Aircraft◄ marshalling signals and airfield ground signals. ►Aircraft◄ marshalling signals for military operations are detailed in STANAG 311710. Military Airfield ground signals are detailed in the ►RA 3500 series.◄ ICAO Annex 211

details the marshalling signals and visual ground signals used at civilian airfields. The details of STANAG 3117 are available to Defence Contractor Flying Organizations by request to the MAA.

Miscellaneous Rules of the Air

75. Aerobatic Manoeuvres. Unless necessary and specifically Authorized, aerobatic manoeuvres should not be performed: over the Congested Area of any city, town or settlement; or, within controlled airspace except with the consent of the appropriate ATC unit.

76. Simulated Instrument Flying. Simulated Instrument Flying (IF) where Authorized, should normally only be carried out in ►Aircraft◄ fitted with dual controls and ►◄ be supervised by a second Pilot ►holding a valid Certificate of Qualification on Type (CQT).◄

10 Refer to STANAG 3117 - Aircraft Marshalling Signals. 11 Refer to ►ICAO Annex 2 - Rules of the Air.◄




2307(1)

a. ►◄

b. ►◄

c. ►◄

d. ►◄

77. ►ADH / AM(MF) orders should detail specific circumstances where a safety lookout who is a Suitably Qualified and Experienced Person (SQEP) can be utilized for simulated IF instead of a second Pilot holding a valid CQT. SQEP for safety lookout is defined as qualified Pilots, Observers or, as specified in ADH / AM(MF) orders, other personnel who have completed an appropriate safety lookout training package. Simulated IF utilizing a SQEP safety lookout should not include Unusual Positions or Practice Forced Landings.

78. For Aircraft where a second Pilot holding a valid CQT or SQEP safety lookout is not (or, in the case of single seat Aircraft, cannot be) carried, ADH / AM(MF) should issue orders and instructions detailing the approved specific circumstances for ‘single-Pilot’ simulated IF, which is to be conducted as follows:

a. Unusual Positions or Practise Forced Landings should not be practised.

b. Where possible, segregated airspace should be used.

c. An appropriate radar service should be used.

d. Supernumerary Crew, Supernumerary Support Crew and Passengers should not be carried.◄

79. Test Flying Over Congested Areas4. Unless necessary and specifically Authorized, Test Flying should not be conducted over a Congested Area except to the extent that it is necessary to do so in order to take-off or land iaw normal aviation practice.

80. Reporting Hazardous Conditions. If an Aircraft Commander encounters hazardous conditions in the course of a flight, ►they◄ should inform the appropriate ATC unit of the particulars of such conditions that ►might◄ be pertinent to the safety of other Air Systems.

Guidance Material

2307(1)

Rules of the Air

Applicability of Rules of the Air

81. These regulations reflect the Rules of the Air as applicable within the UK FIR and are based upon the UK ANO and any agreed military exemptions. For operations outside UK airspace, flights will be conducted iaw national procedures unless specific exemptions have been agreed.

82. For the avoidance of doubt, any reference to ‘Competent Authority’ within the wider SERA regulations will mean the MAA in the first instance for any UK military registered Air System.

Avoidance of Collisions

83. Right-Hand Traffic Rule. The handling Pilot of an ►Aircraft◄ which is flying within the UK in sight of the ground and following a road, railway, canal or coastline, or any other landmarks, is recommended to keep such a line of landmarks on ►their◄ left, except where promulgated locally or when acting upon instructions given by the appropriate ATC unit.

84. Use of ACAS Equipment fitted with Resolution Advisory Mode. The use of ACAS equipment in TA-only mode, or in standby / off mode, may be ordered where it would not be appropriate to use Resolution Advisory mode. These circumstances may include, but are not restricted to: circuit flying; air intercept training; air to air refuelling; air combat training; formation flying; and high energy manoeuvring. ADH and AM(MF) ►will◄ consider the impact of an unserviceable ACAS on Air System operating procedures.

85. Prohibition or Restriction of Military Flying Within the UK FIR and UIR. When necessary, the MOD may prohibit, restrict or impose conditions on flights by UK



Guidance Material

2307(1)

military Air Systems or military Air Systems of any visiting force in any airspace within the United Kingdom FIR / UIR. Prohibitions, restrictions or conditions imposed by the MOD may apply either generally or in relation to a specific class of Air System. Unless operationally necessary, UK military Air Systems or military Air Systems of any visiting force will observe all UK National and Military, Prohibited and Restricted Areas detailed within the ►UK AIP,◄ UK MILAIP and ►UKMLFH.◄

86. ’Due Regard’. Freedom of the high seas includes the right of Air Systems of all nations to use the airspace over the high seas iaw the international Law of the Sea Convention of 1958 and 1982 which state that the freedom of the high seas includes the right of military Air Systems to use the airspace above those seas without the permission of the Coastal States for over-flight and related military operations. The sovereignty of a nation state extends beyond its land area to the outer limit of its territorial seas. The airspace beyond the territorial sea is considered international airspace, where permission of the coastal state is not required for over flight and related military operations. Where for reasons of military contingencies or routine aircraft carrier operations or other training activities over the high seas, the principles of ‘Due Regard’ apply.

87. IFR Flight. IFR flying may be conducted in VMC. Whenever possible, it is recommended that an appropriate radar service is used when operating under IFR, irrespective of meteorological conditions.

88. Operational Pattern Flying. Where an ►Aircraft◄ is flying an operational pattern (eg on a Combat Air Patrol station or monitoring a Joint Engagement Zone barrier) and cannot maintain VMC, it will seldom be practicable to fly at appropriate cruising levels. In such cases, the ►Aircraft◄ will be deprived of even the limited protection afforded by the semi-circular system. In these circumstances and when the EMCON policy permits, it is recommended that a radar service be sought wherever possible.

Airspace and Air Traffic Management – General

89. International Categorization. Airspace is subdivided into various classes and functional areas in order to meet national or international airspace management requirements. For the purposes of international standardization, certain of these subdivisions are classified according to an ICAO system within which minimum ATS are specified. The 7 airspace classifications (Classes A to G) agreed within ICAO have been adopted by the UK and are described in the UK AIP.

90. UK FIR and UIR. UK airspace, including that over the surrounding waters, is divided into 2 FIR. Above each of these FIR is a UIR. These 4 regions are collectively termed the London and Scottish FIR / UIR. The London and Scottish FlR / UIR are divided vertically into the following bands:

a. UIR. Upper Airspace (UAS) from FL245 to unlimited.

b. FIR. Lower Airspace (LAS) from surface level to below FL245.

Full details of airspace boundaries are detailed in the UK AIP and RAF FLIPs.

91. Controlled Airspace (CAS). This is a generic term which is used to describe airspace which is ‘notified’ as such in the UK AIP; within this airspace, civil Pilots and military Aircraft Commanders are required to comply with ATC and other regulations forming part of the UK ANO and Rules of the Air Regulations. In essence, CAS comprises different types of control zone and control area to which are assigned one of the ICAO Airspace Classifications A to E (classes F and G are reserved for ‘uncontrolled’ airspace). See UK AIP for a breakdown of UK airspace by class.

92. Air Traffic Management. In the UK, the system of ATC is based on a joint civil / military scheme in which the military aviation authorities observe such ICAO regulations as have been accepted by the Civil Aviation Authority, provided they do not impair the operational freedom of military Air Systems. UK flight information services, separation standards and procedures applicable to all classes of airspace are detailed in the ATM 3000 series and CAP 774►12◄.

93. Cruising Levels. ►Cruising Levels◄ are detailed within the UK AIP.

12 ►Refer to CAP 774 – The UK Flight Information Services.◄



Regulation

2307(2)

Air System Lighting



2307(2)

Air System Lighting


Guidance Material

2307(2)

Air System Lighting







RA 2309 - Flight Procedures

Rationale Across Defence Aviation activities, planning any sortie carries a degree of complexity. Without a clear understanding of the risks and hazards involved, Aircrew will expose themselves, the Air System and the public at increased risk. This Regulatory Article requires all Aircrew to execute their mission in a safe and effective manner, in order to reduce these risks.

Contents 2309(1): Landing away from Active Airfields

2309(2): Fire Precautions and Smoking in Aircraft

2309(3): Carriage of Loose Articles and Stores

2309(4): Dropping or Jettisoning of Articles

2309(5): Handing over Control in Air Systems with Dual Controls


2309(7): Flying in the Company of Civil Aircraft


2309(9): Aerobatics

2309(10): Air to Air Refuelling

2309(11): Electromagnetic and Cosmic Radiation

2309(12): Oxygen and Cabin Pressure

2309(13): Altitude Limitations

2309(14): Simulated and Practice Emergencies

2309(15): Refuelling Aircraft - Engines and/or Rotors Running

2309(16): Night Vision Device Flying

Regulation

2309(1)

Landing away from Active Airfields

2309(1) Landing away from active airfields shall be authorized and, where necessary, permission shall be gained.


2309(1)


1. Scheduled landings (non-emergency) on private property or public places should be authorized in advance. Furthermore, the permission of relevant landowners or authorities should be gained, and when appropriate the local police informed. Landing on government property where no recognized airfield or Helicopter Landing Site (HLS) exists should not be permitted without the permission of the appropriate government authority.

2. When a pilot is forced to make an unscheduled landing away from base, the parent Operating Unit should be informed at the earliest opportunity and the

occurrence recorded in the flight authorization records.

3. Sites that do not fall within the normal organic infrastructure of a Main Operating Base should be considered for the provision of appropriate support and safety services. Where necessary, Aviation Duty Holders (ADH) and Accountable Managers (Military Flying) (AM(MF)) should, as a minimum, address the following in Orders:

a. Crash Fire and Rescue Services, and Medical Facilities.

b. Hangarage and Security.

c. Operating in Confined Areas.

d. Specific orders, instructions and guidance pertaining to the site for support personnel.

4. A safety assessment should be completed for those austere sites that cannot




2309(1)

be described as a recognized airfield or HLS.

5. Landings should not be made where damage or unnecessary nuisance is likely to be caused, unless in an emergency.

Guidance Material

2309(1)


6. Nil.

Regulation

2309(2)

Fire Precautions and Smoking in Aircraft

2309(2) Smoking in Aircraft shall be prohibited and, as a precaution against fire, smoking-related items shall not be carried by occupants of, or by personnel working on, UK Military Aircraft.


2309(2)


7. Except as provided by DSA03 DLSR1 or extant Defence Instructions and Notices the following items should be prohibited:

a. Matches, other than of the safety type.

b. All types of petrol or gas lighters, capsules and cylinders.

c. Potassium chlorate tablets or powder, or other similar materials.

Guidance Material

2309(2)


8. Nil.

Regulation

2309(3)

Carriage of Loose Articles and Stores

2309(3) The Aircraft Commander shall be responsible for the custody and stowage of any loose articles and equipment.


2309(3)


9. The Aircraft Commander should ensure that all loose articles, stores and equipment carried in the Air System are properly stowed such that there is no possibility of fouling the flying controls, ejection seat mechanisms or other equipment.

10. Aircrew should ensure that any loose articles, stores and equipment are stowed such that the Air System can continue to be operated safely, and that any such items are removed after flight.

11. Aircraft Commanders should ensure that any Passengers are checked for the carriage of loose articles, and that Passengers are made aware of the requirement to stow such articles safely during flight.

Guidance Material

2309(3)


12. ‘Loose articles’, for the purpose of this regulation, means any carry-on items, personal or otherwise, that have no formal stowage on an Air System. The Aircraft Commander may delegate the checks for loose articles, stores and equipment to a designated Suitably Qualified and Experienced Person (SQEP) crewmember, such as a Loadmaster.

1 Refer to DSA03 DLSR - Movement and Transport Safety Regulations – Dangerous Goods Manual (DGM), formally JSP800 (Defence Movement and Transport Policy) Volume 4a (Dangerous Goods by Air Regulations).



Regulation

2309(4)

Dropping or Jettisoning of Articles

2309(4) Unauthorized dropping or jettisoning of articles from Aircraft shall be prohibited.


2309(4)


13. The Aircraft Commander should only permit dropping or jettisoning of articles when authorized:

a. For training;

b. For operational or trials purposes; or,

c. When the safety of the Aircraft is otherwise seriously endangered.

Guidance Material

2309(4)


14. Nil.

Regulation

2309(5)

Handing over Control in Air Systems with Dual Controls

2309(5) Handing over or taking over control of Air Systems fitted with dual controls shall be conducted formally.


2309(5)


15. When it is necessary to hand over control of an Air System fitted with dual controls, a formal instruction to take control and to accept control should be made. In some cases (eg during instruction) it is necessary to take control in the first instance - this should also be formally declared and accepted. Formal statements of ‘I have control’ and ‘You have control’ should be made and acknowledged as appropriate.

16. ADH and AM(MF) should produce orders or instructions detailing actions in the event that verbal communication becomes impossible (eg intercom failure or suspected incapacitation).

Guidance Material

2309(5)


17. Nil.

Regulation

2309(6)

Formation Flying

2309(6) Withdrawn – Incorporated into RA 2307


2309(6)

Formation Flying

18. Withdrawn – Incorporated into RA 2307.

Guidance Material

2309(6)

Formation Flying

19. Withdrawn – Incorporated in RA 2307.

Regulation

2309(7)

Flying in the Company of Civil Aircraft

2309(7) Pilots shall fly in company with civil Aircraft only when specifically approved and authorized.




2309(7)


20. UK Military Aircraft should only fly in the company of civil Aircraft on the following occasions:

a. Protection of Civil Aircraft. When an escort is provided to protect civil Aircraft from hostile action, the arrangements made should include confirmation by the owners or operators of the civil Aircraft that they will comply with the instructions issued by the escorting Aircraft.

b. Ceremonial or Publicity. When flying in the company of civil Aircraft is required for ceremonial or publicity purposes, all Aircraft should operate to a pre-arranged plan that has been approved by ADH, AM(MF) and, where appropriate, civil authorities. The plan should allow for safety of all participants and consider societal concerns, when applicable. Civil Aircraft carrying Very Important Persons (VIP) should not be escorted by UK Military Aircraft unless reliable two-way voice communication can be established and maintained, except in an emergency.

c. Operational Training and Air Intercept Missions. ADH and AM(MF) should issue orders detailing when Aircraft within their Area of Responsibility (AoR) may fly in the company of civil Aircraft. These orders should also detail the procedures and minimum separation criteria for the activity.

d. Trials and Evaluation. Where it is necessary to fly in the company of civil Aircraft as part of a trials programme, ADH and AM(MF) should ensure that full details of the activities involving civil Aircraft are detailed in the Trials Instruction.

Guidance Material

2309(7)


21. Nil.

Regulation

2309(8)

Aircraft Marshalling Signals

2309(8) Withdrawn – Incorporated into RA 2307


2309(8)



Guidance Material

2309(8)



Regulation

2309(9)

Aerobatics

2309(9) Aircraft Commanders shall only undertake aerobatic manoeuvres permitted by the Air System Document Set (ADS).


2309(9)

Aerobatics

24. Aerobatics should not be carried out:

a. When they are likely to endanger other Aircraft.

b. In formation, except when specifically authorized.

c. Over towns or congested areas.

d. At night or in cloud, or in conditions where recovery is likely to take place




2309(9)

in cloud.

e. Within controlled airspace, including Military Aerodrome Traffic Zones, except with the permission of the appropriate air traffic control authority.

f. At less than 3000 ft above ground or sea level unless specifically authorized in connection with a particular exercise or practice.

Guidance Material

2309(9)

Aerobatics

25. Nil.

Regulation

2309(10)

Air to Air Refuelling

2309(10) All UK-managed Air to Air Refuelling (AAR) shall be conducted in accordance with (iaw) ATP 3.3.4.2 as amplified and supplemented by the National Standards Related Document - United Kingdom.


2309(10)


26. ADH and AM(MF) should publish AAR orders and relevant guidance, specific to Aircraft type.

Guidance Material

2309(10)


27. ATP 3.3.4.2 defines the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) standardized procedures, techniques and terminology for AAR.

Regulation

2309(11)

Electromagnetic and Cosmic Radiation

2309(11) Aircraft shall not be intentionally exposed to electromagnetic radiation outside of the limits specified in the ADS or, for non-Release To Service (RTS) flying operations: the Military Flight Test Permit or Certificate of Usage.


2309(11)


28. ADH and AM(MF) should take appropriate measures to assess the exposure to cosmic radiation, when in flight, of those members of aircrew who are liable to be subject to cosmic radiation in excess of 1 milliSievert per year.

29. Within the United Kingdom (UK) the avoidance criteria for High Intensity Radio Transmission Areas (HIRTA), as detailed in UK Military Low Flying Handbook, should be observed.

Guidance Material

2309(11)


30. Outside of the UK, only a limited number of countries publish HIRTA information in National Aeronautical Information Publications. Where no HIRTA information is available, aircrew need to be aware that they may at any time experience the effects of external electro-magnetic radiation.

Regulation

2309(12)

Oxygen and Cabin Pressure

2309(12) Aircraft shall not be flown above FL100 unless it is fitted with serviceable oxygen equipment for all of the crew.




2309(12)


31. All aircrew should be fully proficient in the use of the appropriate oxygen equipment, including emergency oxygen equipment in use in the type of Aircraft in which they are flying.

32. ADH and AM(MF) should ensure that Aircrew receive training in the use of pressure breathing systems or partial pressure garments before they fly in Aircraft so equipped.

33. In Aircraft fitted with oxygen equipment, oxygen should be used as follows:

a. In pressurised Aircraft where the cabin altitude does not normally exceed 10,000 ft, all flight deck crew should don and use oxygen equipment between 8000 ft and 10,000 ft cabin altitude. Oxygen equipment can be removed for occasional periods of up to 15 minutes, for example to eat or to conduct load checks. When cabin altitude is below 8000 ft, the crew should have their oxygen equipment available so that each can be breathing oxygen within 5 seconds of cabin altitude exceeding 10,000 ft. When the Aircraft is at FL400 or above, the watch-keeping pilot should have oxygen immediately available. In the case of Aircraft where oxygen masks are suspended from a headset, crew should wear and use the oxygen equipment at all times. In those Aircraft equipped with quick don oxygen masks, this mask should be ready for immediate use.

b. In all Aircraft operating above a cabin altitude of 8000 ft and where the rate of climb exceeds 2000 ft per minute oxygen should be used from ground level. At lower rates of climb, including helicopters, the crew should use oxygen by a cabin altitude of 8000 ft and Passengers should use oxygen by a cabin altitude of 12,000 ft.

c. In pressurised Aircraft fitted with Passenger emergency oxygen systems the equipment should be presented to the Passengers before the cabin altitude exceeds 15,000 ft.

Guidance Material

2309(12)


34. Where practicable, Aircraft not fitted with oxygen equipment will not be flown above FL80.

Regulation

2309(13)

Altitude Limitations

2309(13) Flight at altitude shall be confined to safe limits.


2309(13)


35. The following limitations apply to flight at altitude:

a. Aircrew should minimize time above a cabin altitude of FL180/18,000 ft unless operationally required, and be alert to the onset of symptoms of decompression illness.

b. Unpressurised Aircraft should not be flown above FL250 in normal operations.

c. Unpressurised Aircraft should not fly above FL300 under any circumstance.

d. Pressurised Aircraft should not be flown with a cabin altitude above 25,000 ft in normal operations.

e. If cabin pressurisation fails above FL400 an immediate descent at maximum rate should be made to bring the cabin altitude below 40,000 ft. The descent should continue at a rate and to an altitude consistent with safe operation of the Aircraft, preferably below FL180.

f. If flight test procedures require a pressurised Aircraft to be depressurised above FL300 the crew should breathe 100% pure oxygen from take-off until pressurisation is restored. The time spent depressurised should be the




2309(13)

minimum required for test purposes. Aircraft should not be intentionally depressurised above FL400.

g. In the event of an operational or experimental requirement for pressurised Aircraft to be depressurised above FL250, ADH and AM(MF) should obtain and adhere to the advice of the RAF Centre of Aviation Medicine on the precautions to be taken to protect personnel from decompression illness. As a minimum requirement, all personnel should breathe 100% oxygen (pre-breathe) at a cabin altitude below 16,000 ft prior to depressurisation and limit the period of depressurization iaw the following table:

Table 1. Pressurization Limits.

Depressurised to Pre-breathe time Depressurisation time

FL250 to < FL300 60 minutes 60 minutes

FL300 to < FL350 60 minutes 30 minutes

FL350 to FL380 90 minutes 30 minutes

36. Whenever an Aircraft is flown depressurised above FL250, a primary oxygen supply for all personnel should be provided. Above FL300 the handling pilot and any co-pilot should be provided with an independent emergency oxygen system in addition to the primary oxygen system.

Guidance Material

2309(13)


37. Decompression illness may occur at cabin altitudes above FL180/18,000 ft, although it is rare below FL250/25,000 ft.

38. Exceptionally, ADH and AM(MF) may authorize unpressurised Aircraft to fly for not more than 10 minutes between FL250 and FL300. This authorization may be delegated down to Commanders of 1-star rank and above or nominated Post Holders (Defence Contractor Organizations).

Regulation

2309(14)

Simulated and Practice Emergencies

2309(14) ADH and AM(MF) shall issue orders governing the conduct of simulated and practice emergencies2 when conducted on an Air System within their AoR.


2309(14)


39. ADH and AM(MF) orders should include advice on what constitutes a simulated or practice emergency on Air Systems within their AoR.

40. ADH and AM(MF) orders should reflect that:

a. During the conduct of a practice emergency, a system may be degraded such that it is not immediately and fully available for use if required and;

b. During the conduct of a simulated emergency, a system should not be degraded such that it is not immediately available for use if required.

41. ADH and AM(MF) orders should detail as a minimum:

a. The minimum crew requirements to conduct practice or simulated emergencies;

b. Any restrictions on aircrew qualifications, competencies or experience levels to be applied during practice and simulated emergencies;

c. The approval and authorization process to conduct practice or simulated emergencies;

2 Refer to MAA02: MAA Master Glossary, for definitions.




2309(14)

d. Any restrictions to be applied during the conduct of practice or simulated emergencies;

e. When the conduct of practice or simulated emergencies is prohibited.

42. ►When considering restricting or prohibiting practice or simulated emergencies in orders or instructions, ADH/AM(MF) should consider the impact of any synthetic training conducted immediately prior to flight in an Air System. The effect of conducting ‘live’ inputs during emergency handling in Synthetic Training Devices immediately prior to the conduct of the same simulated or practice emergency during an Air System flight should be assessed by the ADH/AM(MF) and mitigations put in place to ensure the Risk to Life associated with the subsequent flight is As Low As Reasonably Practicable and Tolerable.

43. When authorizing a flight, the Authorizing Officer3 should consider the impact of any synthetic training conducted immediately prior to the flight on the authorized sortie content.◄

Guidance Material

2309(14)


44. ►Aviation accident investigations have suggested a potential for Aircrew to incorrectly make ‘live’ inputs to emergency systems during the conduct of simulated or practice emergency handling on an Air System in flight immediately after conducting the same exercise ‘live’ in a Synthetic Training Device. This cognitive phenomenon might be mitigated by appropriate authorization, crew composition and other supervisory factors and must be considered by ADH and AM(MF)s when publishing orders and instructions to their Aircrew.◄

45. See RA 23104 for regulation concerning the conduct of asymmetric flight.

Regulation

2309(15)

Refuelling Aircraft - Engines and/or Rotors Running

2309(15) ADH and AM(MF) shall state in orders how and when refuelling Aircraft - engines and/or rotors running shall be permitted.


2309(15)


46. To refuel Aircraft - engines and/or rotors running, the Aircraft should be cleared in the RTS, Military Flight Test Permit or Certificate of Usage.

47. Rotors running refuelling should be carried out iaw the Aircraft-specific procedure, sponsored and published in the technical publications.

48. Orders should consider the following, as a minimum:

a. Fire cover.

b. Guarding of flying controls.

c. Training and authorization requirements for all personnel involved, including bowser drivers.

d. Safety procedures and hazard management, for example earthing and safe distances.

Guidance Material

2309(15)


49. Nil.

3 ►Refer to RA 2306 – Authorization of Flights.◄ 4 Refer to RA 2310 - Role Specific Fixed Wing.



Regulation

2309(16)

Night Vision Device Flying

2309(16) ADH and AM(MF) shall publish orders regarding the conduct of Night Vision Device (NVD) flying on Air Systems within their AoR.


2309(16)


50. ADH and AM(MF) orders regarding NVD flying should include as a minimum:

a. The minimum illumination levels and weather limits for Air Systems within their AoR to conduct NVD flying, including consideration of training, tasking, operational flying and any flying involving high technical merit such as5:

(1) Operations to Temporary Landing Zones (TLZ), including Bare Minimum TLZ;

(2) Air refuelling;

(3) Formation flying;

(4) Embarked operations;

(5) Operations in a degraded visual environment such as dust or snow;

(6) Low level flying;

(7) Air intercepts;

(8) Weaponeering.

b. Air System/role-specific planning considerations to be applied to NVD operations within the AoR;

c. The minimum crew composition, experience, qualifications and currency required to operate on NVD;

d. The minimum serviceable Air System equipment and Equipment Not Basic to the Air System (ENBAS) required for NVD flying;

e. Procedures for pre-flight check of NVD serviceability and method of pre-flight calibration of individual equipment;

f. Actions to be taken in the event of NVD failure during flight;

g. Any restrictions to be applied during flight on NVDs;

h. The ground and airborne training required before Aircrew or Supernumerary Crew can fly or operate using NVD on Air Systems within their AoR.

51. NVD equipment planned to be used should be assessed to be serviceable and correctly set up for use prior to flight.

52. Aircrew routine ‘check of fit’ helmet assessments conducted in conjunction with Survival Equipment personnel should include an assessment of associated NVD equipment fit and function.

53. ADH and AM(MF) orders should state the requirement for Aircrew and Supernumerary Crew to attend the NVG Familiarisation Course, at the RAF Centre of Aviation Medicine, prior to operating/flying Air Systems within their AoR.

54. Forecast illumination levels employed during planning for NVD flight should be relevant to the planned operating areas.

5 This list is not exhaustive and ADH/AM(MF) should provide additional detail as necessary.



Guidance Material

2309(16)


55. Where operational or security implications prohibit the use of routine forecast products, consideration is to be given to the use of local Developed Vetting weather forecasters or liaison with the Joint Operational Meteorology and Oceanography Centre6 (JOMOC) at Northwood HQ who are able to provide products at a higher classification level.

6 Duty Forecaster: 9360 58111 / 01923 958111.



RA 2310 - Role Specific Fixed Wing

Rationale ►UK Military fixed wing aviation presents unique challenges that must be identified and regulated. This Regulation provides discrete and specific assurance to Aviation Duty Holders (ADH) and Accountable Managers (Military Flying) (AM(MF)) to enable them to maintain Risk to Life within boundaries that are As Low As Reasonably Practicable and Tolerable.◄

Contents 2310(1): Supersonic Flight

2310(2): Withdrawn - Content Incorporated into RA 2309(9)

2310(3): Spinning

2310(4): Asymmetric Power

2310(5): Single-Engine ►Air System◄ Engine Shutdowns





Regulation

2310(1)

Supersonic Flight

2310(1) Supersonic flight shall be specifically approved when not for operations, training, tests and trials.


2310(1)

Supersonic Flight

1. Approval Process. The prior approval of the MOD (ACAS) should be obtained for supersonic flights carried out for other purposes, eg demonstrations, or when flights do not conform to these regulations. Requests for such flights are to be addressed to CAS-AS Strat 1 (MIL: 9621 83202 – CIV: 0207 218 3202).

2. Conduct and Positioning of Supersonic Flights in the UK Flight Information Region (FIR). In the UK FIR, all supersonic flights should be conducted over the sea. Aircraft Commanders should ensure their ►Air System◄ is at least 10 nautical miles (nm) out to sea and along a line of flight at least 20º divergent from the mean line of the coast. When the purpose of a dive manoeuvre is to achieve supersonic flight, the angle of dive should not exceed the minimum necessary. Supersonic flights with the ►Air System◄ pointing towards the land, turning or flying parallel to the coast should take place at least 35 nm from the nearest coastline. Low-level supersonic flight should only take place if a radar/visual search is maintained to avoid the following by the margins stated: 3 nm from shipping and fixed or mobile oil and gas installations; 6 nm from civilian or military transport ►Air Systems,◄ helicopters, helicopter main routes and corridors. If more than one radar unit is controlling within the same airspace, close co-ordination should be effected before any supersonic runs take place. Aircraft Commanders that know or suspect that they have infringed any of these criteria should follow the reporting procedure for Inadvertent Supersonic Flight, below.

3. Recording of Supersonic Flights. With the exception of operational missions that require supersonic flight, Commanders should notify the appropriate radar station of all planned supersonic flights in advance. Where supersonic flights do not conform to the pre-flight briefing, Aircraft Commanders should make a record of the details of the supersonic flight in the flight authorization record. Similarly, radar stations should maintain a permanent record of supersonic flights carried out under their control. The permanent record should contain the following details:

a. ►Air System.◄

b. Time period during which supersonic flight conducted.




2310(1)

c. Heading and speed of ►Air System◄ (where known).

d. Position (area in the case of sustained supersonic flight).

e. Altitude and attitude (where known).

4. Inadvertent Supersonic Flight. If any Aircraft Commander knows or suspects that his ►Air System◄ has inadvertently made a supersonic flight that breaches this regulation, he should make a permanent record, as listed above, of the breach in the flight Authorization record. In addition, it is the responsibility of his parent unit concerned to notify the appropriate Control and Reporting Centre or Control and Reporting Point, Senior Military Supervisor at London Air Traffic Control Centre (Mil) or Naval Radar Unit of the flight within 30 minutes of the ►Air System’s◄ landing. The radar station should maintain a record of all such occurrences.

5. Supersonic Flights outside the UK FIR. Supersonic flight should only be carried out iaw host nation regulations.

Guidance Material

2310(1)

Supersonic Flight

6. Routine Supersonic Flight. ►Air Systems◄ may routinely fly at supersonic speed during practice intercept sorties or when taking part in exercises or during Authorized training. Routine supersonic flight in the approved operating area need not be recorded as directed above.

7. Supersonic Flights outside the UK FIR. Where there are no host nation regulations, these UK regulations must be used.

Regulation

2310(2)

Aerobatics

2310(2) Incorporated into RA 2309(9).


2310(2)

Aerobatics

8. Incorporated into RA 2309(9).

Guidance Material

2310(2)

Aerobatics

9. Incorporated into RA 2309(9).

Regulation

2310(3)

Spinning

2310(3) Intentional spinning shall be prohibited in all ►Air Systems◄ unless specifically Authorized.


2310(3)

Spinning

10. Intentional spinning should be permitted only where clearance is given in the Release to Service (RTS) for the aircraft as reflected in the ►Air System◄ Document Set (ADS) or, for non-RTS flying operations the ►Military Permit to Fly (MPTF)◄ or Certificate of Usage (CoU).

11. If still spinning by the minimum heights given in the ADS or, for non-RTS flying operations, the ►MPTF◄ or CoU, or higher if stipulated in ADH and AM(MF) orders, the ►Air System◄ should be abandoned.

Guidance Material

2310(3)

Spinning

12. Nil.



Regulation

2310(4)

Asymmetric Power

2310(4) Airborne practice and simulated asymmetric flying shall be specifically approved and Authorized.


2310(4)

Asymmetric Power

13. ADH and AM(MF) should promulgate orders that apply to practice and simulated asymmetric flight and stipulate; the minimum height for each ►Air System;◄ the frequency of training; weather limitations; and, operating conditions.

14. The number of staff Authorized to supervise asymmetric flying should be kept to a minimum.

15. Asymmetric approaches and landings should be practised only in weather conditions within the handling competence of the individual Pilot under training. Other operating criteria for asymmetric flying training should be iaw specific ►Air System◄ operating procedures.

16. Simulated engine failure on take-off below 500 ft above ground or sea level should only be carried out under the direction of a suitably qualified and authorized ►Qualified Aircrew Instructor or when authorized under a trials instruction.◄

Guidance Material

2310(4)

Asymmetric Power

17. Due to the element of risk attached to asymmetric flying training, asymmetric practice will be closely supervised; training will be regular and limited to the amount necessary to achieve the aim. The aim of practice and simulated asymmetric flying is to ensure that Pilots are capable of making safe, competent and confident approaches and landings ►if◄ an unplanned asymmetric situation arise.

18. For the purposes of this regulation, practice asymmetric flying means the actual shutdown of a power unit(s); simulated asymmetric flying means the use of ‘idle’ or ‘feather’ for a power unit(s). Furthermore in accordance with RA 2305(3) ►1◄, any practice asymmetric flying is only permissible if the RTS allows.

19. Flight on practice and simulated asymmetric power must be conducted in such a manner that safe flight can be continued in the event of a real engine failure.

20. Full-stop landings and touch-and-go landings following simulated asymmetric approaches and touchdowns may be carried out providing that approval for the ►Air System◄ has been granted by the appropriate ADH or AM(MF).

Regulation

2310(5)

Single-Engine ►Air System◄ Engine Shutdowns

2310(5) Engine shutdowns and re-lights in single-engine ►Air Systems◄ shall not be carried out in the air, except where Authorized for flight tests and trials.


2310(5)


21. Engine shutdowns and relights should only be carried out in single-engine ►Air Systems◄ when part of an approved Flight Test Schedule or MOD trials programme.

Guidance Material

2310(5)


22. This Regulation does not apply to self-launching motor gliders or Remotely Piloted Air Systems ►◄ that can only recover by means of a parachute.

Regulation

2310(6)

Air to Air Refuelling (AAR)

2310(6) Incorporated into RA 2309(10)

1 ►Refer to RA 2305(3): Aircraft Limitations.◄




2310(6)


23. Incorporated into RA 2309(10)

Guidance Material

2310(6)



Regulation

2310(7)




2310(7)



Guidance Material

2310(7)



Regulation

2310(8)




2310(8)



Guidance Material

2310(8)



Regulation

2310(9)




2310(9)



Guidance Material

2310(9)





RA 2315 – Role Specific Rotary Wing

Rationale ►United Kingdom military rotary wing aviation presents unique challenges that must be identified and regulated. This Regulation provides discrete and specific assurance to Aviation Duty Holders (ADH) and Accountable Managers (Military Flying) (AM(MF)) to enable them to maintain Risk to Life within boundaries that are As Low As Reasonably Practicable and Tolerable.◄

Contents 2315(1): Withdrawn - Content Incorporated in RA 2309(15)

2315(2): Withdrawn - Content Incorporated in RA 2309(1)




2315(6): ►Rotary Wing Air System◄ Ground Runs


Regulation

2315(1)

Refuelling ►Rotary Wing Air Systems◄ Engines and Rotors Running

2315(1) Withdrawn - Incorporated in RA 2309(15).


2315(1)


1. Withdrawn - Incorporated in RA 2309(15).

Guidance Material

2315(1)


2. Withdrawn - Incorporated in RA 2309(15).

Regulation

2315(2)

Helicopter Landing Sites (HLS)

2315(2) Withdrawn – Incorporated in RA 2309(1).


2315(2)


3. Withdrawn – Incorporated in RA 2309(1).

Guidance Material

2315(2)



Regulation

2315(3)

Use Of The Dispatcher Harness



2315(3)





Guidance Material

2315(3)



Regulation

2315(4)

Simulated Emergencies 2315(4) Withdrawn – Incorporated in RA 2309(14).


2315(4)

Simulated Emergencies


Guidance Material

2315(4)

Simulated Emergencies


Regulation

2315(5)

Electromagnetic Radiation Hazards



2315(5)



Guidance Material

2315(5)


Withdrawn – Incorporated in RA 2309(11).

Regulation

2315(6)

►Rotary Wing Air System◄ Ground Runs

2315(6) Where ►ADH,◄ and ►AM(MF),◄ operate ►Rotary Wing Air Systems,◄ they shall define procedures for the conduct of ground runs with rotors turning.


2315(6)


10. The ►Rotary Wing Air System◄ should be fully prepared for flight in so far as the purpose of the ground run permits.

11. Aircrew, and other personnel participating as crew members, for the purpose of the ground run, should be fully briefed and equipped for the possibility that flight may become necessary.

Guidance Material

2315(6)


12. Ground resonance may occur during un-tethered ground runs with rotors running.

Regulation

2315(7)

Oxygen





2315(7)

Oxygen


Guidance Material

2315(7)

Oxygen







►This RA has been substantially re-written; for clarity, no change marks are presented – please read RA in entirety◄

RA 2320 – Role Specific Remotely Piloted Air Systems

Rationale The use and number of UK military Remotely Piloted Air Systems (RPAS) will continue to increase. This could present a Risk to Life (RtL) to RPAS operators, manned Air Systems and other personnel if operated in an unsafe or unregulated manner. This Regulatory Article requires that Aviation Duty Holders (ADH) and Accountable Managers (Military Flying) (AM(MF)) operate their RPAS in a manner that keeps the RtL As Low as Reasonably Practicable (ALARP) and Tolerable.

Contents Definitions relevant to this RA

2320(1): Remotely Piloted Air Systems Collision Avoidance

2320(2): Control of Remotely Piloted Air Systems

2320(3): Management of Control data-link

2320(4): Remotely Piloted Air Systems Operating Bases

Definitions Definitions relevant to this RA

1. Layered Safety Approach. A range of measures to reduce the likelihood of loss of safe separation of an RPAS with other air users.

Regulation

2320(1)

Remotely Piloted Air Systems Collision Avoidance

2320(1) ADHs / AM(MF)s shall operate RPAS with due consideration for the safety of vessels, vehicles, structures and personnel.


2320(1)


2. ADHs / AM(MF)s should ensure that the RtL from collision of RPAS with any vessels, vehicles, structures, personnel or the surface is ALARP and Tolerable. Where this cannot be achieved through Visual Line of Sight (VLOS) operations or the use of an appropriate Detect & Avoid capability1, this should be achieved, using a Layered Safety Approach.

Inside UK Airspace

3. Beyond Visual Line of Sight (BVLOS) operations should only be conducted if:

a. They employ an appropriately approved Detect & Avoid capability to enable compliance with the Rules of the Air2 appropriate to the class of airspace, or;

b. They are flown using a Layered Safety Approach that specifically requires flight in segregated airspace3.

4. All BVLOS RPAS operations should be appropriately notified to other airspace users and approved by the relevant Airspace Control Authority.

5. RPAS operations within designated UK Danger Areas3, 4 should be approved by the relevant Danger Area Airspace Controlling Authority. When operated in accordance with (iaw) specific range or operational area operating instructions, ADH / AM(MF) orders should as a minimum:

a. Meet the requirements of the Danger Area Airspace Controlling Authority.

b. Meet the range safety requirements4 and any other orders or conditions issued by the Danger Area Airspace Controlling Authority.

1 The "Detect & Avoid capability" is a combination of equipment, maintenance procedures, training, operating procedures, etc. 2 Refer to RA 2307 – Rules of the Air. 3 Refer to MAA02 – MAA Master Glossary. 4 Refer to DSA 03.OME Part 3 (Formerly JSP 403 Volume 2) – Defence Code of Practice (DCOP) for Ranges.




2320(1)

c. Meet the requirements of Standard Agreement (STANAG) 2402 and take into account range / area specific advice. The details of STANAG 2402 are available to Defence Contractor Flying Organizations5 by request to the MAA.

Outside UK Airspace

6. ADH / AM(MF)s should ensure that RPAS operations outside UK airspace are conducted iaw either:

a. The relevant national or international legal requirements, or;

b. For operations conducted under Crown Prerogative (ie not under The International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) procedures):

(1) Under ‘Due Regard6’ and:

(2) Operated outside Controlled Airspace, unless the Controlled Airspace has been created or assigned for the purposes of the RPAS operation.

Guidance Material

2320(1)


7. Layered Safety Approach. The Layered Safety Approach concept requires the following as a minimum to be considered, by the ADH / AM(MF)7:

a. Utilization of Segregated Airspace which will be notified using the appropriate aeronautical notification methods8. This must include a means of separating the RPAS from other Air Systems that may be operating within the same segregated airspace, and a means of avoiding collisions with other Air Systems operating within the same segregated airspace, in case of failure of the primary means of separation.

b. Provision of suitable surveillance of the operating area which allows for the detection of intruding Air Systems during the period of operation of the RPAS.

c. A method of communication between the surveillance provider(s) and the Remote Pilot.

d. A method of providing the precise location of the RPAS at all times.

e. A method of providing conspicuity to other airspace users (eg Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B)).

f. A method of avoiding intruding Air Systems (ability to manoeuvre the RPAS out of harm’s way, cut down etc) while remaining within the notified area.

8. Segregated Airspace. Segregated Airspace, for the purposes of this regulation, means airspace specifically designated for RPAS operations that will:

a. Be established, and appropriate warnings issued for the purpose of RPAS operations (even if within an existing Danger Area or other airspace reservation), and;

b. Have specific geographic, horizontal, vertical, and time boundaries, and;

c. Include transit corridors from / to the take-off / landing area to / from the planned operating area, and;

d. If outside a designated UK Danger Area, be agreed with the Civilian Aviation Authority (CAA) Safety and Airspace Regulation Group.

e. In the UK Flight Information Region (FIR), Segregated Airspace includes Airspace established for RPAS operations (permanent or tactical), designated Danger Areas, existing Controlled Airspace (Classes A-D) when in agreement

5 Refer to RA 1028 – Contractor Flying Approved Organization Scheme – Responsibilities. 6 Refer to RA 2307(1): Rules of the Air for the definition of ‘due regard’. 7 The MAA RPAS Letter of Endorsed Categorization may highlight additional area for consideration. 8 Without an approved Detect & Avoid capability, operations in the UK FIR must be conducted in Segregated Airspace or approved on a case-by-case basis should there be an Operational Imperative to do so by the RPAS Commander (refer to RA 1020 – Aviation Duty Holder and Aviation Duty Holder-Facing Organizations - Roles and Responsibilities). The MAA may be contacted for further guidance ahead of approving such operations.



Guidance Material

2320(1)

with Air Navigation Service Provider (ANSP), or Controlled Airspace (temporary) when in agreement with ANSP.

Regulation

2320(2)

Control of Remotely Piloted Air Systems

2320(2) ADHs / AM(MF)s shall detail the procedures to be followed for either piloted control or automated flight of RPAS.


2320(2)


9. Where periods of automated flight are planned:

a. The Remote Pilot or RPAS Commander should be able to intervene immediately at any stage of the flight or;

b. Where it is not possible to intervene immediately (eg handover between Ground Control Stations or automated take-offs and landings), ADHs / AM(MF)s should specify additional mitigation (eg loss-of-link procedures) in orders.

10. Orders should specify the responsibilities and procedures for any Air System command and control transfers, including flight preparation, flight servicing, ground taxi, take-off, landing, and flight.

11. ADHs / AM(MF)s should detail in orders the emergency procedures applicable to each RPAS type, including any requirements for pre-planned emergency recovery sites.

Guidance Material

2320(2)


12. Nil.

Regulation

2320(3)

Management of Control data-link

2320(3) ADHs / AM(MF)s of RPAS utilizing Control data-links shall detail in orders, the protocols required to manage the RPAS Control data-links.


2320(3)


13. Spectrum Management. Appropriate spectrum management should be employed to minimize the probability of loss of, or interference to, the Control data-link.

14. Data-Link Protection. Measures should be implemented to protect the Control data-link in areas such as: protection and / or redundancy of power supplies; ability to hand-off to another site and robust land-line communications.

15. Orders to manage the loss of the control data link should detail the following as a minimum:

a. Pre-flight planning of Control data-link loss strategy, automated recovery routes and altitudes.

b. Deconfliction procedures.

c. Communications, including:

(1) Transponder codes9.

(2) Agencies to be contacted.

d. Emergency recovery protocols and locations.

e. Flight Termination protocols.

9 When the Remotely Piloted Aircraft is required to be fitted with a Transponder.



Guidance Material

2320(3)


16. Nil.

Regulation

2320(4)

Remotely Piloted Air Systems Operating Bases

2320(4) ADHs / AM(MF)s shall detail in orders, RPAS specific safety and administration considerations for all RPAS operating bases within their Area of Responsibility.


2320(4)


17. ADHs / AM(MF)s should provide detailed orders for RPAS operating bases to include, as a minimum:

a. An operating risk assessment.

b. Airspace management, including: Air Traffic Control or surveillance provision; lost link protocols; and any Notice to Airmen (NOTAM) requirements.

c. Spectrum management (eg Electromagnetic Compatibility) and control links.

d. Ground operations, including: post crash management; ground manoeuvre; medical facilities; personnel and equipment safety; and procedures for managing hazardous materials.

e. Flight plan requirements2 and Diplomatic clearance requirements10.

Guidance Material

2320(4)


18. Nil.

10 Refer to RA 2305 – Supervision of Flying.



RA 2325 - Air Weapons Carriage, Training and Demonstrations

Rationale United Kingdom military ►registered Aircraft◄ may be required to carry weapons during training and operational flying. The carriage of air weapons can increase Risk to Life (RtL) for Aircrew, ground personnel and third parties. This Regulatory Article puts in place measures and procedures to mitigate this increase in RtL.

Contents ►Definitions Relevant to this RA◄

2325(1): Carriage of Air Weapons ►and Towed Targets◄

2325(2): Air Weapons Training and Demonstrations

Definitions ►Definitions Relevant to this RA

1. Air Weapons. For the purposes of this RA, air weapons are considered to include both live and inert variants of Air Launched Weapons (ALW)1, captive carriage weapons (where the weapon is secured to the Aircraft and unable to be released or jettisoned), guns, ammunition, pyrotechnics and countermeasures containing Ordnance, Munitions and Explosives when installed on the Aircraft (not carried as cargo).◄

Regulation

2325(1)

Carriage of Air Weapons ►and Towed Targets◄

2325(1) Air weapons ►and towed targets◄ shall be carried in accordance with (iaw) the Release To Service (RTS) or, for non-RTS flying operations, the Military Permit to Fly ►◄.


2325(1)


2. The operation, handling and Maintenance of air weapons should be iaw approved data and procedures.

3. Aviation Duty Holders (ADH) or Accountable Managers (Military Flying) (AM(MF)) should publish orders laying down the safety precautions to be observed and procedures to be followed when ►air weapons and towed targets◄ are carried on, ►released, or jettisoned◄ from, ►Aircraft.◄

4. ADH and AM(MF) should ensure that warning notices detailing the dangers posed and precautions to be taken, are displayed at access points to any area where ►Aircraft◄ carrying weapons may be operating on the ground. Additionally, local bye-laws and other civil regulations that impose further restrictions should be adhered to.

Performance Failure of Air Weapons

5. After the performance failure of an air weapon, which includes inadvertent release of a towed target, the Aircraft Commander should ensure that:

a. The positions of all relevant switches / mechanisms are noted and then set to 'safe'.

b. All necessary actions are taken to minimize the risk of further hazard. In the event of a length of cable trailing from the ►Aircraft,◄ which cannot be retracted, the Aircraft Commander should take such action that will minimize the risk of damage to personnel and property and inform the controlling authority (if in receipt of an Air Traffic Service).

c. The incident is reported to the ground control with which the Air System is in communication, giving the location of the weapon / target and any other relevant information.

d. Air Traffic Control at the destination is informed of the incident so that the appropriate personnel may meet the ►Aircraft◄ on landing.

1 ►ALW are defined in the MAA02: MAA Master Glossary; ALW are a subset of air weapons.◄




2325(1)

e. A full investigation of the incident, iaw ►DSA 03 OME Part 22◄, is made after landing. ►◄

Misfire and Hang-Up Precautions

6. When a misfire of ►guns,◄ ammunition, ►countermeasures,◄ rockets, guided missiles or ►stores◄ hang-up occurs, the Aircraft Commander should keep

the weapon pointed into a safe area for the time required to allow for a late discharge.

►Thereafter, the Aircraft should be recovered to a suitable location appropriately able to deal with the misfire / hang-up.◄ The weapon should be assumed to be dangerous until rendered safe by appropriate armament personnel.

After-Flight Safety Precautions

7. At the end of every flight, the Aircraft Commander should ensure that ►they have◄ returned the ►Aircraft◄ to the ►appropriate◄ armed state iaw the Air System ►Document Set◄ or that no explosive armament stores are fitted.

Guidance Material

2325(1)


Performance Failure of Air Weapons

8. The term ‘performance failure’ as stated in ►DSA 03 OME Part 22◄ includes:

a. Failure to Release or Launch. A failure to release (ie hang-up) or launch (ie misfire) occurs when any ►air weapon or equipment◄ is retained by an ►Aircraft◄ after the normal or emergency release sequence has been completed.

b. Irregular Release. An irregular release occurs when any ►air weapon or equipment◄ is released, launched or fired from an ►Aircraft◄ in a different manner than that selected by the Aircrew. This includes premature or delayed releases / launches.

c. Failure to Function. A failure to function occurs when any ►air weapon or equipment,◄ after successful release / launch from an ►Aircraft,◄ fails to operate iaw the Aircrew pre-release selections ►(eg non detonation).◄

d. Irregular Functioning. Irregular functioning occurs when any ►air weapon or equipment◄ is released, launched or fired correctly, but operates in a manner different to that selected or programmed during preparation or loading. ►Such occurrences would include premature detonation of a bomb or missile warhead.

9. Inadvertent Release. An inadvertent release occurs when the Air System stores management system operates as selected, but not as intended (eg stores released by mistake, at the wrong instant, or as a result of incorrect switch selection).

10. Irrespective of whether a report is required by DSA 03 OME Part 22, a DASOR iaw RA 14103 may still be appropriate.◄

11. Where appropriate processes exist, the Aircraft Commander may ►delegate◄ responsibility for the replacement of safety pins to external stores to ►appropriately qualified◄ ground crew / engineers.

Regulation

2325(2)

Air Weapons Training and Demonstrations

2325(2) Air weapons training and demonstrations shall only be ►conducted◄ within approved areas or ranges.

2 ►Refer to DSA 03 OME Part 2 (Formerly JSP 482), available on the gov.uk website. 3 Refer to RA 1410 – Occurrence Reporting and Management.◄




2325(2)


12. All air weapons training and demonstrations should be conducted iaw the published orders for the area to be used.

13. ►Outside a promulgated area or range, air weapons training and demonstrations should only be conducted at sea, iaw BRd 10434.◄

14. The marking of buildings for training or demonstrations should be iaw STANAG 35645.

15. Live air weapons demonstrations should be carried out iaw STANAG 35645.

Guidance Material

2325(2)


16. The details of STANAG 3564 are available to Defence Contractor Flying Organizations by request to the MAA.

4 ►Refer to BRd 1043 - Gunnery and Guided Weapon Practices User Instructions.◄ 5 Refer to STANAG 3564 Rules for Live Air Weapons Demonstrations.






RA 2327 - Air Combat and Evasion Training

Rationale Air Combat Training (ACT) and Evasion Training (ET) is required to prepare Aircrew for operations. It is innately hazardous, therefore those engaged in the conduct and supervision of such training need to be appropriately qualified and must apply the highest standards of flying discipline, pre-flight preparation and briefing.

Contents 2327(1): Air Combat and Evasion Training

Regulation

2327(1)

Air Combat and Evasion Training

2327(1) Supervision and conduct of ACT and ET shall be carried out by suitably qualified, competent and current Aircrew, who have been specifically Authorized.


2327(1)


1. Aviation Duty Holders and Accountable Managers (Military Flying) should issue orders and instructions for ACT and ET stipulating the following as a minimum:

a. The minimum height at which training may be conducted.

b. The minimum separation between Air Systems.

c. The manoeuvring limits for the Air Systems.

d. Authorizing personnel and their responsibilities.

e. Initial qualifications, training and currency.

f. Planning and briefing requirements, including tactics and procedures.

g. Safety and emergency procedures.

h. Dissimilar-type procedures.

Guidance Material

2327(1)


2. Aircrew must not conduct ACT between formations of Air Systems until the Aircrew have completed the appropriate single-Air System versus single-Air System training.

Joint Service and International Training

3. When ACT and ET is part of exercises conducted between UK Armed Forces, or between UK Armed Forces and foreign armed services, the most stringent ACT and ET rules, applicable to any one of the participating Services, must be observed.

4. To ease the coordination of ACT and ET between UK Armed Forces, ►◄ Air Training Instructions will be used. In addition, HQ USAFE Air to Air Plan 4636 ‘Fighting Edge’ may be used to regulate ACT and ET between UK Armed Forces and other NATO nations.






►This RA has been substantially re-written; for clarity, no change marks are presented – please read RA in entirety◄

RA 2330 - Low Flying

Rationale Low Flying (LF) is a core Defence Aviation skill which delivers operational effects and reduces operational risk. It is necessary both on operations and in training for operations and requires significant derogation from the Air Navigation Order (ANO). Historically, flight at low level has been a factor in a number of fatal accidents and Mid-Air Collisions (MAC). It reduces the margin for error in Air System operations and can cause unnecessary annoyance to the public. To enable Risk to Life (RtL) to be managed to As Low As Reasonably Practicable (ALARP) and Tolerable, this Regulatory Article (RA) requires those engaged in the conduct and supervision of LF to ensure the highest standards of flying discipline, pre-flight preparation and briefing are maintained.

Contents Definitions Relevant to this RA

2330(1): Low Flying Governance

2330(2): Aviation Duty Holders / Accountable Managers (Military Flying) Orders and Instructions

2330(3): Low Flying - General

2330(4): UK Low Flying System - Specific

Definitions Definitions Relevant to this RA

Low Flying.

1. Day. By day, Air Systems are to be considered to be conducting LF when:

a. Fixed Wing1 (FW). FW Air Systems when operating at less than 2000 ft Above Ground Level (AGL) / Above Mean Sea Level (AMSL);

b. Light Air System and Rotary Wing (RW). Light propeller-driven Air Systems and RW are considered to be LF when operating at less than 500 ft AGL / AMSL.

2. Night. By night, all Air Systems are considered to be LF when operating at less than 2000 ft AGL / AMSL.

3. Air Systems will not be considered to be LF:

a. If they are directed by Air Traffic Control;

b. During departure or arrival at an airfield, helicopter landing site or maritime platform;

c. During an emergency, or when making a precautionary or forced landing.

Regulation

2330(1)

Low Flying Governance

2330(1) LF and the UK Low Flying System (UKLFS) shall be governed.


2330(1)


4. Air Systems should normally comply with the LF rules of the country over which they are flying, unless UKLFS criteria or Aviation Duty Holders (ADH) and Accountable Managers (Military Flying) (AM(MF)) orders and instructions are more restrictive, in which case the most restrictive should be applied.

1 Including Texan but excluding light propeller-driven Aircraft.




2330(1)

Assistant Chief of the Air Staff (ACAS)

5. ACAS should:

a. Provide tri-service military LF policy;

b. Provide a UKLFS that is appropriately managed to assure that the hazards associated with its use are reduced to a level that can it be recommended to ADH and AM(MF) as ALARP2;

c. Provide a data service to promulgate activity throughout the UKLFS and state the policy for its use;

d. Publish the policy and processes for use of the UKLFS in the UK Military Low Flying Handbook (UKMLFH), to include as a minimum:

(1) The geographic boundaries of the UKLFS by day and night, including definitions of specific designated areas and their use;

(2) UKLFS operating hours;

(3) Booking and post-flight procedures;

(4) Action to be taken in the event of unauthorized LF;

(5) Communications procedures;

(6) Policy for airspace allocation priorities;

(7) Exercise restrictions;

(8) General and specific restrictions within the UKLFS;

(9) Airspace Reservations, Transit Areas, Avoidance Areas and warnings;

(10) Reporting of hazards, incidents and accidents, including uncharted obstructions.

e. Provide a Low Flying Booking Cell that is established as the co-ordinating authority for all UKLFS bookings; authority may be delegated to specified areas.

f. As the Defence Aeronautical Information Authority, ACAS should appoint an Aeronautical Information Service Provider (AISP) who will provide an Aeronautical Information Management Service (AIMS) in accordance with (iaw) RA 1030 and JSP 4953.

Aeronautical Information Documentation Unit (AIDU)

6. As the AISP, AIDU should produce accurate planning documents as part of the AIMS.

Regulation and Compliance

7. RA 23074, RA 23355 and the Manual of Military Air Traffic Management (MMATM) also contain relevant supporting regulations with respect to weather conditions and unusual air activity / exercises and should be followed.

Guidance Material

2330(1)


8. LF is a specific area in which the UK military claims exemption from the civilian Rules of the Air under ANO 2016. The UK Military Low Flying Regulations described in this RA and the procedures described in the UKMLFH must be followed, including where the exemption under the ANO is applied by an organization to a civilian registered Air System which is under the command of a member of Her Majesty’s naval, military or air forces.

2 This applies only to hazards impacting aerial activity in the UKLFS that ACAS can reasonably influence. There may be other factors, such as horses and riders, that present a third-party risk that cannot be reasonably influenced but should be considered by ADH and AM(MF). 3 Refer to RA 1030 – Defence Aeronautical Information Management and JSP 495. 4 Refer to RA 2307 – Rules of the Air. 5 Refer to RA 2335 – Flying Displays and Flypasts.



Guidance Material

2330(1)

9. There are several offences which may arise from the manner in which an Air System is flown. These offences include: dangerous flying (Section 33 Armed Forces Act 2006 or its amendments), low flying (Section 34 Armed Forces Act 2006 or its amendments) and annoyance by flying (Section 35 Armed Forces Act 2006 or its amendments). In addition, an offence may be committed where Aircrew contravene standing orders (Section 13 Armed Forces Act 2006 or its amendments) or perform their duty negligently (Section 15 Armed Forces Act 2006 or its amendments).

10. The orders and instructions created by the ADH and AM(MF) together with the relevant parts of the Military Aviation Authority (MAA) Regulatory Publications (MRP) and the Armed Forces Act 2006, provide the disciplinary framework governing military flying.

11. Users of the UKLFS must be aware that the restrictions in this RA and the UKMLFH do not apply to General Aviation (GA) traffic; attention is drawn to flow arrows and choke points where GA are not obliged to follow the flow direction depicted on the Low Flying Charts.

Regulation

2330(2)

Aviation Duty Holders / Accountable Managers (Military Flying) Orders and Instructions

2330(2) ADH and AM(MF) shall publish procedures, orders and instructions to ensure that the risk associated with LF on Air Systems in their Area of Responsibility (AoR) is ALARP and Tolerable.


2330(2)


12. ADH and AM(MF) should:

a. Ensure that crews within their AoR are appropriately trained and competent to conduct LF;

b. Assure that the risk associated with LF and use of the UKLFS is ALARP and Tolerable;

c. Ensure that crews within their AoR comply with LF policy through the publication of appropriate orders and instructions.

13. As a minimum, orders and instructions should include:

a. The required Aircrew qualifications and competence levels to conduct LF on Air Systems within the AoR;

b. The approval, authorization and supervision process to conduct LF on Air System within their AoR;

c. Any specific authorization procedures for LF activity. As a minimum the authorization should include;

(1) Details of the route or area of operation;

(2) FW1. For all flying below 2000 ft AGL / AMSL the Minimum Separation Distance (MSD) should be stated;

(3) Light Air Systems and RW. For all flying below 2000 ft AGL / AMSL, the minimum AGL / AMSL or MSD should be stated. At or below 500 ft AGL / AMSL the MSD, or Minimum Separation Criteria (MSC) and AGL, should be stated;

d. Minimum heights for LF, which should not be below:

(1) FW. 250 ft AGL / MSD unless authorized to conduct Operational Low Flying Training (OLFT);




2330(2)

(2) RW. 100 ft AGL unless a lower minima is approved within ADH or AM(MF) orders and instructions for specific exercises6 (see Para 14).

e. The use and employment of Air System Collision Avoidance Systems and Ground Collision Avoidance Systems, where fitted, including serviceability go / no-go criteria.

f. Any additional criteria to be applied for LF at night in consideration of the following:

(1) Mitigation for unmarked obstacles;

(2) Additional minima to be applied to terrain and obstacle separation criteria;

(3) Equipment serviceability and minimum equipment requirements;

(4) Supervision, authorization and currency;

(5) Minimum safe operating light levels (millilux) / environmental conditions pertinent to night vision systems used;

(6) Air System de-confliction in time and space;

(7) Air System lighting;

g. Operational Low Flying (OLF), if applicable, as a minimum:

(1) OLF or OLFT may be authorized lower than 250 ft MSD but should not be authorized below 100 ft MSD;

(2) OLF and OLFT should only be conducted within designated areas, such as Tactical Training Areas (TTA);

h. Weather minima for LF, which should not be less restrictive than the weather minima detailed in RA 23074 for Visual Flight Rules flight;

i. Any prohibited flight profiles, training events or manoeuvres during the conduct of LF on Air Systems within their AoR;

j. Reporting of uncharted obstructions;

k. Minimum avoidance criteria for ships and oil / gas installations;

l. For high energy FW detail the specific activities and maximum times when the speed limits at paras 49a and 49b can be applied;

m. Where the see and avoid principle is relied upon as a means of Air System deconfliction ADH and AM(MF) should define how this is to be employed and give directions on the use of other MAC mitigation barriers.

14. Where the ADH or AM(MF) approve RW within their AoR to operate below 100 ft, this activity should be specifically reflected within the Air System Safety Case (ASSC) iaw RA 12057.

Guidance Material

2330(2)


15. Due to the range of activity that takes place on military registered Air Systems within the UKLFS, ADH and AM(MF) orders and instructions will provide specific direction to their AoR as to how this RA is to be applied and define the minimum requirements to ensure that the RtL associated with the conduct of LF on Air Systems within their AoR remains ALARP and Tolerable.

Authorization

16. Subject to MOD (ACAS)8 approval and allocation of airspace, ADH and AM(MF) may authorize LF exercises in the UK or overseas subject to the following provisions:

6 Such as Concealed Approach and Departures, LF at 50 ft, winching activity etc. 7 Refer to RA 1205 – Air System Safety Cases. 8 Approval can be sought via OC Low Flying Operations Flight.




a. Air System will be routed so as not to cause unnecessary annoyance to the public, commensurate with meeting operational and training requirements.

b. Air System may not be routed within:

(1) Danger Areas without the permission of the controlling authority;

(2) Any area subject to LF avoidance criteria as detailed in this RA, UKMLFH, RA 23074 or promulgated by Notice to Airmen (NOTAM).

17. Sponsors of all exercises within the UK Flight Information Region (UK FIR) will notify Officer Commanding Military Airspace Management Cell (OC MAMC) of the numbers and types of participating Air System, together with details of proposed routes, targets, planned sortie rate and operating times, no later than 30 days in advance of the start of the activity / exercise. Procedures and information required are contained in the UKMLFH Annex A9.

Regulation

2330(3)

Low Flying - General

2330(3) LF shall be conducted to a common set of regulations and processes.


2330(3)


18. Rules of the Air. RA 23074 should also be complied with when conducting LF.

19. LF Areas. Unless written authorization to the contrary has been obtained from ADH or AM(MF), LF should be conducted only within the confines of the UKLFS and along routes and in areas abroad which have been formally approved by the appropriate national / local authority for use by UK military Air Systems.

20. Communications. LF crews should monitor a common Low Level frequency together with 243.0 MHz (Guard), whenever possible, iaw local or national procedures.

21. Use of Identification Friend or Foe (IFF) / Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) Transponder. Air System should not LF without a serviceable IFF / SSR transponder.

22. All Air Systems should “squawk” the mode 3/A/C conspicuity (and mode S where fitted) code appropriate to Air System type when conducting flights within the UKLFS or iaw local National procedures outside of the UKLFS.

23. Minimum Separation Considerations. When authorizing LF, the following should be used:

a. FW1. Flying below 2000 ft AGL / AMSL should be iaw MSD;

b. Light Air Systems and RW:

(1) Flying below 2000 ft AGL / AMSL, should be iaw AGL / AMSL or MSD;

(2) Flying at or below 500 ft AGL / AMSL should be iaw MSD or MSC in conjunction with AGL.

24. Low Flying over Congested Areas10 and Public Assemblies. Air System flying over Congested Areas of cities, towns and settlements should be flown at an altitude sufficient, in the event of a power unit failure, to permit a safe emergency landing or safe abandonment outside the Congested Area. The transit height should not be less than 2000 ft AGL (1000 ft AGL in the case of RW Air Systems and light propeller driven Air Systems) over those cities, towns and settlements detailed in Section 2 of the UKMLFH, except when complying with RA 23355.

25. Environmental, Industrial, Medical and Nature Sites. Air Systems should avoid environmental, industrial, medical and nature sites by a minimum of 2000 ft AGL and 0.25 nm laterally unless otherwise specified by local or national procedures.

9 Refer to UKMLFH Annex A - Use of the UK Low Flying System - A Planning Guide for Exercise Sponsors. 10 Refer to MAA02 – MAA Master Glossary for definition.




2330(3)

26. Free-fall Parachute Areas. Air Systems should avoid free-fall parachute areas by a minimum of 2000 ft AGL and 1 nm laterally unless otherwise specified by local or national procedures.

27. Small Arms Ranges. Air Systems should avoid small arms ranges by a minimum of 500 ft AGL unless otherwise specified by local or national procedures.

Planning Considerations

28. All LF should be planned on the latest Special Air Chart (LFC or M5219-Air), applicable 1:50,000 series chart or ADH / AM(MF)-approved electronic planning equipment.

29. All charts used for the planning of LF should include latest Chart Amendment Low Flying (CALF), NOTAM and any other relevant LF information.

30. Where an ADH or AM(MF) allows the use of electronic planning tools for LF on Air Systems within their AoR, the ADH or AM(MF) should ensure:

a. Electronic charts include the latest CALF, NOTAM and any other relevant LF information;

b. The information contained within electronic LFC has been appropriately assured;

c. Electronic planning tools used on Air Systems within their AoR are appropriately approved for flight;

d. The use of electronic planning tools is specifically reflected within the ASSC iaw RA 12057.

31. Weather Limitations. Weather limitations for LF outside UK Airspace should be iaw ADH or AM(MF) orders and instructions or RA 23074 unless the regulations promulgated by the national or local authorities are more restrictive, in which case they should be adhered to

32. Flying near Ships and Oil / Gas Installations at Sea. Where ADH or AM(MF) orders and instructions do not specify a minimum, Air Systems should avoid ships and fixed or mobile oil / gas installations at sea by the following margins:

a. Aircraft Carriers and Ships Known to be Operating FW Air Systems. 5 nm laterally or above 3000 ft AMSL.

b. Other Warships:

(1) FW Air Systems. 2 nm laterally or above 2000 ft AMSL. No ship is to be over flown deliberately more than twice.

(2) RW Air Systems. By a margin sufficient to avoid interference with other RW Air Systems or ships operations.

(3) Some warships, such as the Royal Navy Type 45, present a hazard through High Intensity Radio Transmission Area (HIRTA) and should be afforded avoidance according to Air System susceptibility and HIRTA classifications detailed in the UKMLFH.

c. Fixed or Mobile Gas Installations. 1.5 nm laterally or above 2000 ft AMSL.

d. Other Shipping. By a margin sufficient to obviate disturbance and disruption of operations, but not less than 250 ft MSD.

33. Flying near Russian Ships. In addition to the provisions above, Air System Commanders should be aware of Article IV of the Bi-lateral UK / Russia Agreement on the Prevention of Incidents at Sea, which states:

“Commanders of Air System of the Parties shall use the greatest caution and prudence in approaching Air System and ships of the other Party, in particular ships engaged in the launching or landing of Air System, and, in the interests of mutual safety, shall not permit simulated attacks by the simulated use of weapons against Air System or ships of the other Party, or dropping objects near them in such a manner as to be hazardous to ships or constitute a hazard




2330(3)

to navigation. Such actions shall also not be taken by Air System of each Party against non- military ships of the other Party.”

And

“Air System of the Parties flying in darkness or under instrument conditions shall, wherever feasible, display navigation lights.”.

34. Retention of Sortie Data. Air System Head Up Display (HUD) and sensor data media should be retained for a minimum of 4 weeks, or iaw RA 120711, before re-use unless further retention has been requested. It is accepted that electronic data retention is limited by the volume of available electronic media; units should make best effort where a 4 week retention period is not achievable.

35. Records of Flight. A Record of Flight (RoF) for each low-level sortie should be completed prior to the sortie and amended post-flight to indicate any deviations. RoF should be retained for 6 months.

Guidance Material

2330(3)


36. Minimum Separation Considerations. In the sea areas of the UKLFS, outside 3 nm from the coastline, ADH and AM(MF) may authorize LF below 250 ft MSD for specialised operational training or trials.

37. Flying near Ships and Oil / Gas Installations at Sea. For the avoidance of doubt, when specifically authorized by ADH or AM(MF), Air Systems are permitted closer than the limits detailed in paras 32a to 32d. Additionally, Air Systems specifically authorized to operate to / from / with a particular ship for a particular sortie are not required to abide by the minimum avoidance criteria detailed in paras 32a to 32d.

38. Operations in support of HM Coastguard or Fishery Protection Tasks. FW and RW Air Systems briefed for sorties in co-operation with HM Coastguard or for fishery protection tasks may be authorized to approach ships and fishing vessels not closer than 100 metres at a minimum height of 200 ft AMSL. Approaches will be made across the ship's quarter and on a diverging heading.

Regulation

2330(4)

UK Low Flying System - Specific

2330(4) Air Systems operating in the UKLFS shall conform to common standards to minimize risk and to avoid nuisance to the public.


2330(4)


39. Communication. The full UKLFS Communications Procedures are detailed in the UKMLFH and should be used when operating in the UKLFS.

40. IFF / SSR. Air Systems operating within the UKLFS should transmit iaw the UKMLFH.

41. Exercises Involving Warships. SSR should only be selected to standby if required for tactical purposes, and in this circumstance, only for the minimum time needed to achieve the aim.

42. Avoidance Criteria. The avoidance criteria contained in this RA, RA 23074 and the UKMLFH should be adhered to when operating in the UKLFS.

43. TTA. OLF should be pre-booked iaw the procedure detailed in the UKMLFH. When TTA are active, the airspace is allocated to a single military Air System / Formation; activity in the overlapping LFAs should be subject to height restrictions and detailed in the UKMLFH.

44. Transit Areas.

a. FW Air Systems should not overfly Transit Areas below 2000 ft AGL;

11 Refer to RA 1207 – Air Safety Data Management and Exploitation.




2330(4)

b. RW Air Systems (Maximum All Up Mass >5700 kg) should not overfly Transit Areas below 1000 ft AGL;

c. All other Air Systems should not overfly Transit Areas below 500 ft AGL in rural areas, and 1000 ft AGL in Congested Areas;

d. Transit Areas should be considered as congested areas for the purposes of conducting a flypast under RA 23355.

45. Avoidance Areas.

a. FW Air Systems should not enter Avoidance Areas without the prior approval of OC MAMC. When approved, the transit height should not be less than 2000 ft AGL, except when complying with RA 23355.

b. RW and light propeller-driven Air Systems may enter Avoidance Areas but, without the prior approval of OC MAMC, should remain above 500 ft AGL in rural areas and 1000 ft AGL in Congested Areas.

46. When transiting the Thames Valley Avoidance Area (TVAA) under Controlled Airspace the limits from the UKMLFH apply. If sufficient height cannot be maintained (consider if forced down by weather or other cause), a flight path should be chosen to avoid overflight of the Congested Area, wherever possible, unless doing so would endanger the Air System.

47. Flying over any place where large numbers of people are assembled, or a public assembly is taking place should be prohibited below 1000 ft AGL except when:

a. Approved by MOD8;

b. In connection with Flying Displays, Role Demonstrations or Flypasts conducted in iaw RA 23355;

c. It is necessary to do so while carrying out arrival or departure.

48. Flypasts over Central London (eg R160 ‘the Specified Area’) should obtain prior approval from ACAS through OC MAMC.

49. Speed Limitations Within the UKLFS. For specific tactical flying activities approved by the ADH or AM(MF), accept in connection with Flying Displays, Role Demonstrations or Flypasts conducted iaw with RA 23355, the following speed dispensation is permitted:

a. Operating Height at or below 150 ft MSD. Maximum speed for short-term activity should be 500 KIAS

b. Operating height above 150 ft MSD. Maximum speed for short-term activity should be 550 KIAS.

50. At all other times the maximum cruise speed within the UKLFS should be 450 kts.

51. Use of Reheat. Reheat should not be used within the UKLFS except for essential training requirements, Air System emergencies or authorized Flying Displays, Role Demonstrations or Flypasts conducted iaw RA 23355

.

52. UKLFS Warnings. The UKMLFH lists warnings Aircrew should be aware of when operating within the UKLFS.

Guidance Material

2330(4)


53. Nil.



►This RA has been substantially re-written; for clarity no change marks are presented – please read RA in entirety◄

RA 2335 - Flying Displays, Display Flying, Role Demonstrations and Flypasts

Rationale Military involvement in Flying Displays, Display Flying, Role Demonstrations and Flypasts plays an important role in Defence Engagement in the UK and abroad. These activities also allow Heads of Establishment (HoE) to engage with the families and friends of serving military personnel, and Commanders to engage with their local communities. Flying Displays, Display Flying, Role Demonstrations and Flypasts can involve Air Systems or Aircraft operating in close proximity to gatherings of people; this activity involves an increase in Risk to Life (RtL) over normal operating and if not managed effectively this risk could become intolerable. This Regulatory Article (RA) regulates all UK military-registered Air Systems1 (when conducting Display Flying, Role Demonstrations and Flypasts (Mil) worldwide) and foreign military-registered Aircraft (when conducting Display Flying, Role Demonstrations and Flypasts (Mil) in the UK); additionally, it regulates all Flying Displays held over MOD-Occupied Property2 in the UK, and, Flying Displays held over non MOD-Occupied Property in the UK that involve military-registered Air Systems only. It ensures that appropriate individuals are made responsible for all facets of planning, organizing, managing and delivering Flying Displays, Display Flying, Role Demonstrations and Flypasts (Mil) to ensure RtL remains As Low As Reasonably Practicable (ALARP)3 and Tolerable.

Contents Applicability of this RA

Definitions Relevant to this RA

2335(1): Flying Display Organization and Management

2335(2): Display Flying, Role Demonstrations and Flypasts (Mil)

2335(3): Separation Distances, Minima and Restrictions

Applicability Applicability of this RA

1. Applicability of this RA. This RA applies to the following:

a. The HoE, Event Organizers (EO) and Flying Display Directors (FDD) of Flying Displays held over MOD-Occupied Property.

b. Aviation Duty Holders (ADH), Accountable Managers (Military Flying) (AM(MF), EO and FDD involved in Display Flying over non MOD-Occupied Property that involves military-registered Air Systems only.

c. All personnel involved in conducting Display Flying, Role Demonstrations or Flypasts (Mil) utilizing military-registered Air Systems4.

d. All personnel involved in conducting Display Flying or Flypasts utilizing civil-registered Aircraft over MOD-Occupied Property.

e. All foreign military-registered Aircraft when conducting Display Flying, Role Demonstrations and Flypasts (Mil) in the UK.


2. Aerobatic Manoeuvres. Intentionally performed manoeuvres which involve angles of pitch or bank greater than 90º to the horizon or yawing through angles greater than 20º. Exceptions to this definition are:

a. Stalling and spinning.

1 That is any Air System on the Military Aircraft Register or any Aircraft operated by the MOD. 2 The term ‘over MOD-Occupied Property’ refers to Display Flying, Role Demonstration or Flypast activity conducted for personnel located within the boundaries of a MOD site even if the activity is conducted over civilian land or water. 3 Refer to RA 1210 - Ownership and Management of Operating Risk (Risk to Life). 4 This includes all military-registered Remotely Piloted Air Systems (RPAS) detailed in the RA 1600 Series: Remotely Piloted Air Systems.

https://www.gov.uk/government/publications/regulatory-article-ra-1210-ownership-and-management-of-operating-risk-risk-to-life

https://www.gov.uk/government/collections/1000-series-general-regulations-gen#1600-series:-remotely-piloted-air-systems-(rpas)




Definitions b. Operational training manoeuvres stipulated by ADH / AM(MF).

c. Yawing turns in Rotary Wing Air Systems and Vertical and Short Take-Off and Landing (VSTOL) Air Systems.

d. Trials or air weapons range manoeuvres stipulated by appropriate authorities.

3. Car Parks. Where the term ‘Car Park’ is used in this RA, it applies to Car Parks to which Spectators have access during Flying Displays, Role Demonstrations or Flypasts and as such will be considered in the same manner as the Spectator Area.

4. Civil Aviation Authority (CAA) Flying Display Permission. A Permission granted by the CAA for a Flying Display in accordance with (iaw) the Air Navigation Order (ANO) and Civil Aviation Publication (CAP) 403 through either an Article 86 Permission or a Standardised European Rules of the Air (SERA) 5005(f)(2) Private Flying Display Permission; throughout this RA these are referred to as a CAA Flying Display Permission.

5. Congested Areas5. Any area in relation to a city, town or settlement which is substantially used for residential, industrial, commercial or recreational purposes.

6. Crowd Line. The line delineating the closest edge of any area, including Car Parks, accessible to Spectators with respect to the Display Area / Display Line.

7. Display Area. The Display Area is the ground area footprint of the airspace within which displaying Air Systems may be manoeuvred at a height below that imposed by the following, subject to the limits of the CAA Flying Display Permission (if applicable), any further restrictions imposed by the FDD, and the individual Participant’s Public Display Authority (PDA) or Display Authorization (DA):

a. Military Air Systems:

(1) 500’ Minimum Separation Distance (MSD) for aerobatic manoeuvres.

(2) 250’ MSD for non-aerobatic manoeuvres in Fixed Wing Air Systems.

(3) 100’ MSD for non-aerobatic manoeuvres in Rotary Wing Air Systems.

b. Civilian Aircraft6:

(1) SERA.5005(f)(1) and SERA.5005(f)(2).

All flight outside the Display Area must comply with sub paras a. and b. above.

8. Display Authorization (DA). A national document detailing the groups and categories of civilian Aircraft in which a pilot is authorized to display, together with any limitations and other specific endorsements.

9. Display Datum. The Display Datum is the point on the Display Line upon which individual displays are based and is normally the centre point of the crowd7.

10. Display Flying. Any flying activity designed to demonstrate an Air System’s performance beyond that normally carried out during routine operations and training, whether or not it is performed in front of the public. A DA, PDA or foreign equivalent is required (except during Display Flying work-up training as per RA 2335(2)).

11. Display Flying Supervisor. A Suitably Qualified and Experienced Person (SQEP) selected by the ADH / AM(MF) to supervise Display Flying Aircrew during their work-up period and throughout the display season.

12. Display Team / Display Item. A single, formation or group of Air Systems and / or Aircraft, flying as one single display ‘act’ throughout.

5 Refer to Schedule 1 of the ANO 2016. For planning purposes and clarification, a golf course attached to a Congested Area is considered part of that Congested Area and must be treated as such when considering overflight restrictions. 6 Civil registered Aircraft limitations and minima are detailed in the ANO, SERA.5005 Visual Flight Rules and CAP 403. 7 FDD may elect not to mark the Display Datum if there is a suitable and easily recognisable physical feature in the correct position.



Definitions 13. Display Line / Display Axis. A line defining the track along which displaying Air Systems and / or Aircraft may operate.

14. Display Pilot. A pilot who holds a DA, DA Exemption, or civilian equivalent issued by their National Aviation Authority, or a military PDA, which allows them to participate in a Flying Display.

15. Display Sequence. The Display Sequence is a complete list of all the individual manoeuvres, in chronological order, that are intended to be demonstrated by a Participant during a Flying Display8.

16. Event Organizer (EO). The EO is the person responsible for all matters pertaining to the wider planning and execution of an event that includes a Flying Display and for the safety of the general public, both at the event and those affected by the wider impacts of the event.

17. Flying Control Committee (FCC). A group of suitably experienced persons appointed to assist the FDD with the safety management of a Flying Display

18. Flying Display. Any event at which Display Flying is deliberately performed for the purpose of providing an exhibition or entertainment.

19. Flying Display Director (FDD). The person responsible for the safe conduct of a Flying Display9.

20. Flying Display Director Mentor (FDD Mentor). A FDD that has been accredited under the joint CAA / MAA FDD accreditation scheme so endorsed as to permit mentoring of aspiring FDDs10.

21. Flypast (Mil). A Flypast (Mil) involves military-registered Air Systems flying, either singly or in formation, over or past a gathering of Spectators along a pre-planned route without manoeuvring, other than when necessary for safe and accurate navigation. Accordingly, they will not include aerobatic manoeuvres.

22. High and Low Energy Display Flying. Display Flying is considered High Energy if it contains Air Systems with a Max Take Off Mass of >1200 kg or the Air Systems display at >150 Knots Indicated Air Speed (KIAS); all other Display Flying is considered Low Energy.

23. MOD-Occupied Property11. An aerodrome in the occupation of the MOD or of any visiting force in the UK12 or any other premises in the occupation or under the control of the MOD.

24. Participant. An airborne performer (or any person directly involved in the conduct of a performance) conducting Display Flying, Role Demonstrations or Flypasts.

25. Public Display Authority (PDA). A document detailing the Display Sequence or individual manoeuvres a military Display Pilot is authorized to conduct in a specific Air System or Aircraft, together with any limitations and other specific endorsements.

26. Role Demonstration. Any flying activity designed to demonstrate an Air Systems performance commensurate with that normally carried out during routine operations and training.

27. Secondary Spectator. A person viewing a Flying Display from a location which has not been specifically designated for Spectators by the EO or FDD.

28. Spectator. A person attending a Flying Display specifically to witness the event.

29. Spectator Area. An area specifically designated for Spectators by the EO or FDD and approved by the FDD for Flying Display safety purposes which includes all areas to which Spectators have access during the Flying Display.

8 The CAP 403 equivalent is a Display Routine - A series of linked manoeuvres to be performed during a Flying Display. 9 The EO and FDD might in some cases be the same person. 10 The CAA and MAA review the FDD accreditation list annually and invite SQEP Tier 3 FDD’s to become FDD Mentors. Whilst FDD Mentors are usually Tier 3, experienced FDDs from Tier 1 and Tier 2 will be considered, but will not mentor a FDD of a higher Tier. 11 Refer to the ANO 2016, Article 86 Para 15 (a). 12 Visiting Force is any visiting foreign military in this context.

http://www.legislation.gov.uk/uksi/2016/765/article/86/made



Regulation 2335(1)

Flying Display Organization and Management

2335(1) All Flying Displays shall be planned, managed, organized and delivered in order to reduce the RtL to at least ALARP and Tolerable.



30. Applicability of this Regulation. RA 2335(1) should apply to:

a. The HoE, EO and FDD of all Flying Displays held over MOD-Occupied Property;

b. ADH / AM(MF), EO and FDD for events held over non MOD-Occupied Property where the only Participants are military-registered Air Systems.

HoE Responsibilities

31. HoE. The HoE should:

a. Be accountable for planning, managing, organizing and delivering a Flying Display, assuring themselves that RtL is at least ALARP and Tolerable;

b. Issue Terms of Reference (ToRs) to the EO and FDD that appropriately bound their responsibilities (see para 60 for guidance);

c. Provide a safe operating environment within which Air Systems and Aircraft can conduct Display Flying;

d. As an ADH-Facing entity, actively support the relevant ADH / AM(MF), or equivalent, in their management of Air Safety and identify any decision, activity or change in circumstances that has the potential to introduce new or increased RtL to an ADH / AM(MF)’s operations, or which challenges the achievement of their ALARP and Tolerable status13.

32. Appointing Flying Display Executives. The HoE should appoint suitably experienced Flying Display Executives as follows:

a. EO. The post of EO should be held by a suitably experienced person.

b. FDD. The post of FDD (and Deputy FDD, when appointed) should be held by a SQEP who should not be a Participant in the Flying Display. Additionally, the FDD should:

(1) Hold a valid FDD accreditation for the Tier of Flying Display being held, iaw para 39, 63, 64, 65 and 66;

(2) Be current for the Tier of Flying Display being held, iaw para 39, 63, 67 and 68;

c. The FDD should have primacy over the EO in all matters concerning Air Safety.

33. Flying Displays held over non MOD-Occupied Property with military-registered Air Systems only. Where a Flying Display is held over non MOD-Occupied Property and / or there is no HoE, the EO should accept accountability for the HoE responsibilities listed at para 31 and 32 of this RA. If the EO is unable or unwilling to accept accountability the Flying Display should not involve military-registered Air Systems.

ADH / AM(MF) Responsibilities

34. ADH / AM(MF) Responsibilities. ADH / AM(MF) should retain responsibility for the safe operation of Air Systems in their Area of Responsibility (AoR) when they are involved in Display Flying, Role Demonstrations and Flypasts (Mil).

35. ADH / AM(MF) should ensure that Display Flying conducted by Air Systems within their AoR is specifically included within the Air System Safety Case (ASSC) iaw RA 120514.

13 Refer to RA 1020(4): Responsibilities of Aviation Duty Holder-Facing Organizations. 14 Refer to RA 1205 – Air System Safety Cases.

https://www.gov.uk/government/publications/regulatory-article-ra-1020-roles-and-responsibilities-aviation-duty-holder-adh-and-adh-facing-organisations

https://www.gov.uk/government/publications/regulatory-article-ra-1205-air-system-safety-cases




Authority and Permissions

36. Authority to conduct Flying Displays. Authority to conduct a Flying Display over MOD-Occupied Property should be given by the HoE and the MAA informed ([email protected]) at least 42 days prior to the event using RA 2335 Form 1 (Flying Display Notification Form). Administrative arrangements for such events should be detailed in orders or instructions.

37. Events over non MOD-Occupied Property in the UK. Where an event is held over non MOD-Occupied Property, military-registered Air Systems should only conduct Role Demonstrations or Flypasts (Mil), unless a CAA Flying Display Permission is in place.

a. Flying Displays over non MOD-Occupied Property in the UK with military-registered Air Systems only. Such events are MAA regulated for which a CAA Flying Display Permission will not be issued; in these circumstances Participant’s ADH / AM(MF) should (providing they assess the activity is appropriate, ALARP and Tolerable) apply to the MAA for a Waiver to para 37 iaw MAA0315 having:

(1) Assured themselves that an EO and FDD have been appointed;

(2) Ensured that the EO understands and accepts accountability for planning, managing, organizing and delivering the Flying Display, and assuring themselves that RtL is ALARP and Tolerable in lieu of a HoE as per para 31;

(3) Ensured that the FDD understands that this RA applies to the event and complies with its requirements fully;

(4) Confirmed that the venue is suitable for their Air Systems to conduct Display Flying.

b. Where there are multiple Participant’s and more than one ADH/AM(MF), the ADH/AM(MF) with the majority of Air Systems involved in the Flying Display should liaise with the other Participant’s ADH/AM(MF) prior to submission of a combined Waiver request, covering all Air Systems involved, to the MAA.

38. Participation of non-Release To Service (RTS) UK military-registered Air Systems. Participation of non-RTS UK military-registered Air Systems at Flying Displays, Role Demonstrations or Flypasts (Mil) should be approved by the Air System ADH / AM(MF). Such activity should conform with the Air System Military Permit to Fly or the limitations as articulated in the appropriate Certificate of Usage. The MAA should be informed of such activity ([email protected]) at least 14 days prior to the event.

39. Flying Display Categorization. The following criteria should be used by HoE, EO and FDD in conjunction with Table 1 to categorize Flying Displays into Tiers16; FDDs should be accredited to at least the same Tier as that of the Flying Display.

a. High / Low Energy Air Systems. As per para 22.

b. Complexity. HoE, EO and FDD should consider the following criteria when making a judgement on whether an event is High or Low complexity:

(1) Airspace. Consider the complexity of the airspace surrounding the display venue, including proximity to Controlled Airspace or areas with specific limitations that may affect the type of Air Systems and/or Aircraft displaying.

(2) Geography. Consider the hazards posed by the terrain along with the event layout.

(3) Congested Areas. Consider the proximity, density and size of Congested Areas.

(4) Secondary Spectators and Third Parties. Consider the likelihood and controllability of Secondary Spectators gathering outside

15 Refer to Annex C of MAA03: MAA Regulatory Processes. 16 The MAA may increase the Tier of event anticipated by the HoE, EO and FDD.


https://www.gov.uk/government/publications/regulatory-article-ra-2335-flying-displays-and-special-events


https://www.gov.uk/government/publications/maa03-military-aviation-authority-maa-regulatory-processes




the designated Spectator Areas and any effect the Flying Display might have on members of the public in the vicinity. Consider the proximity of major roads, railway lines and local infrastructure and how busy they are likely to be during the event.

(5) Display Length. Consider the effect of the Flying Display window on deconfliction issues, eg 3 items over 2 hrs may be less complex than 3 items over 15 min.

(6) Display Team / Display Item Size. Consider the number and type of Air Systems and/or Aircraft in a Display Team/Display Item with respect to the size and nature of the display venue.

(7) Event Type. Consider the type of event and how Display Flying activity is integrated; is the Flying Display the focus of the event or just an additional attraction?

Table 1. Flying Display Tiers

No of Items17 Low Complexity High Complexity

Low Energy High Energy Low Energy High Energy

1 Tier 1 Tier 1 Tier 1 Tier 1

2-3 Tier 1 Tier 2 Tier 1 Tier 2



13+ Tier 3 Tier 3 Tier 3 Tier 3

Note: Any Flying Display with a High Energy Display Team of 3 or more Air Systems or Aircraft should be categorized as a minimum Tier 2.

EO, FDD and FCC Responsibilities

40. EO. The EO should be responsible for all matters pertaining to the wider planning and execution of the event. As a minimum the EO should18:

a. Be responsible for the production of an event Risk Assessment;

b. Ensure that appropriate insurance arrangements are in place for all participating Air Systems and / or Aircraft, whether participating as a Static Display, Flypast, Role Demonstration or conducting Display Flying.

41. FDD19. As a minimum, the FDD should be responsible for18:

a. Designating a Display Area. Details of obstacles, hazards, structures occupied by non-essential personnel and any anticipated areas of Secondary Spectators within the Display Area should be annotated on a 1:50,000 scale map which is promulgated to all Participants at least 42 days prior to the event;

b. Hazard identification and the subsequent assessment of risk, application of control measures and mitigations associated with the Flying Display elements of an event;

c. Production and promulgation of a Flying Display Risk Assessment to all Participants at least 42 days prior to the event;

d. The coordination, control and safety of all flying activities conducted as part of a Flying Display;

e. Monitoring flying discipline during a Flying Display;

f. The scrutiny of all Participants’ DA, DA Exemption, PDA or foreign Participants national equivalents for regulatory compliance;

g. The briefing (including the production of written Display Pilots’ notes) and debriefing of all Participants;

17 A Display Team is classed as a single Display Item. 18 This list is not exhaustive, and the HoE may wish to expand responsibilities within ToRs. 19 At events held over MOD-Occupied Property the FDD is responsible to the HoE for the safe conduct of the Flying Display.




h. Control of the Flying Display programme and cancellation or modification of the programme in the case of adverse weather or other conditions that directly affect the Flying Display;

i. The appointment and management of a FCC, if applicable (see para 42 and 43);

j. Ensuring appropriate orders or instructions for the Flying Display are in place, including orders or instructions for incident and Post-Crash Management;

k. Coordinating the completion and submission of RA 2335 Form 2 (Foreign Military Participant Application Form) seeking approval from the MAA ([email protected]) for foreign military-registered Aircraft involvement at least 42 days prior to the event and RA 2335 Form 3 (Foreign Military Participant Validation Form) iaw para 45 and 74;

l. Event occurrence reporting;

m. Ensuring the Local Authority Safety Advisory Group (SAG) is involved in the planning from the earliest opportunity possible.

n. Ensuring appropriate airspace reservations have been considered iaw CAP 403 and the relevant submissions are made using CAA Form DAP1920D (Flying Displays) or DAP1920F (Flypasts) within the timescales specified20.

o. Providing written feedback to the MAA ([email protected]) using RA 2335 Form 4 (Flying Display Director Post Event Feedback Form) within 7 days of the event.

p. When appointed, issue the FCC with ToRs that bound its responsibilities.

42. FCC. A FCC should be appointed by the FDD for Flying Displays where there are 4 or more Display Items.

43. FCC Responsibilities. As a minimum, the FCC’s responsibilities should include:

a. Assisting the FDD with the safe execution of the Flying Display;

b. Assisting the FDD to monitor the standard and Flying Display related discipline of Participants;

c. Assisting the FDD in the validation of any display Participants, if required;

d. Providing the FDD with specialist knowledge regarding Display Items;

e. Providing the FDD with SQEP opinion in the case of any regulatory infringements or concerns regarding flying discipline;

f. Advising the FDD on restrictions or additional limitations if required;

g. Monitoring the conduct of all display Participants for regulatory compliance;

h. Intervening or stopping, on the grounds of safety, any display Participant or, in extreme cases where the FDD cannot be consulted, the whole Flying Display;

i. Being available throughout the period of the Flying Display.

Foreign Military Participants at Flying Displays in the UK

44. FDD Responsibilities. If foreign military Aircrew21 intend to participate at a Flying Display in the UK, the FDD should be responsible for ensuring that:

a. Foreign military Participants are approved to conduct Display Flying, Role Demonstrations or Flypast (Mil) at Flying Displays in the UK by the MAA;

20 The establishment of a Restricted Airspace (Temporary) (RA(T)) requires the issue of a statutory instrument by the Department for Transport and as such should be notified a minimum of 90 days in advance of the event. RA(T) applications should be requested from and submitted to the CAA Airspace Regulation department at: [email protected]. 21 For further guidance see para 73-74.







http://publicapps.caa.co.uk/modalapplication.aspx?appid=11&mode=detail&id=7044

http://publicapps.caa.co.uk/modalapplication.aspx?appid=11&mode=detail&id=7044

http://publicapps.caa.co.uk/modalapplication.aspx?catid=1&pagetype=65&appid=11&mode=detail&id=7208









b. Foreign military Participants are validated to conduct Display Flying, Role Demonstrations or Flypast (Mil) at Flying Displays in the UK, if required (see para 45 and 74);

c. A completed RA 2335 Form 2 (Foreign Military Participant Application Form) is submitted to the MAA ([email protected]) at least 42 days prior to the event;

d. The foreign military Participant submits the planned (zero wind speed) ground track of their Display Sequence on suitable scale mapping (or overlaid on imagery) of the display venue to the FDD as part of the RA 2335 Form 2 submission at least 42 days prior to the event. The Display Sequence should include detail on minimum heights and maximum speeds for each manoeuvre. The FDD should use this information to confirm the Participant complies with this RA, the Display Sequence is suitable for the display venue, and incorporate the Display Item into their Flying Display Risk Assessment, if required.

45. Foreign military Participant Validations. If required by the MAA, HoE, EO or the FDD, the validation of such Participants should be conducted by the FDD, or a suitably experienced individual nominated by, and on behalf of, the FDD.

a. Validation Reporting. The FDD should complete and submit RA 2335 Form 3 (Foreign Military Participant Validation Form) to the MAA ([email protected]) prior to the Flying Display for which the validation is intended. For further guidance see para 74;

b. Validation during a Flying Display. Validation of a Participant should not take place during the Flying Display for which the validation is intended.

Foreign Military-Registered Aircraft conducting Flypasts (Mil) or at Other Events

46. Foreign Flypast (Mil). Foreign military-registered Aircraft conducting a Flypast (Mil) at an event other than a Flying Display in the UK do not require formal MAA approval; however, the relevant sections of RA 2335 Form 2 (Foreign Military Participant Application Form) should be submitted to the MAA ([email protected]) at least 14 days prior to the event and the activity should be conducted iaw RA 2330 and the UK Military Low Flying Handbook (UKMLFH)22.

Safety Considerations

47. Secondary Spectators and Third Parties. The EO and FDD should take all reasonable steps to minimize the risk to Secondary Spectators and third parties. Particular consideration should be given to the following:

a. Congested Areas. The EO should put in place and record appropriate mitigations taken to ensure RtL is reduced to at least ALARP and Tolerable for personnel within Congested Areas;

b. Roads and Railways. The EO should put in place and record appropriate mitigations to ensure RtL is reduced to at least ALARP and Tolerable for third parties on busy roads and railways surrounding a Flying Display venue;

c. Secondary Spectators. The EO should identify areas likely to be occupied by Secondary Spectators, take all reasonable steps to prevent Secondary Spectators gathering in high risk areas and record the mitigations taken. Prevention will not always be possible; in this case the EO should take all reasonable steps to inform Secondary Spectators of the risk to them;

d. Curtailing a Flying Display due to Secondary Spectators or Third Parties. The presence of Secondary Spectators or third parties may not automatically require a Flying Display to be curtailed or abandoned; an EO and / or FDD should use their judgement to assess the risk against the mitigations taken and satisfy themselves that all reasonable steps to ensure any RtL is reduced to at least ALARP and Tolerable.

22 UKMLFH para 01.04.07 and 01.04.08 refers.















48. Arrivals and Departures at Flying Display venues. All arrivals and departures at display venues should be conducted iaw aerodrome procedures and / or extant regulations.

49. Use of PDA or DA privileges during arrivals and departures. Participants should not use the privileges of their PDA or DA during arrivals or departures unless explicitly approved by the FDD; such approvals should be limited to pre-arranged Display Flying practices or when the arrival or departure is conducted as part of the Display Sequence during the Flying Display itself.

50. Minimum Public Safety Considerations. HoE, EOs and FDDs should ensure that, as a minimum, the following specific requirements for public safety are met:

a. Spectator Areas (defined as designated Spectator Areas and associated Car Parks) should be clearly delineated by barriers. The forward boundary of the Spectator Area, beyond which Display Flying is conducted, is referred to within this RA as the ‘Crowd Line'. At display venues where the Spectator Area also defines sides, the Crowd Line, for the purpose of an Air System or Aircraft maintaining the correct lateral separation distances, should be considered to run along the front and down the sides of the Spectator Area.

b. Adequate markings should be set up in the Display Area to enable Participants to maintain appropriate separation from the Spectator Areas. Details of ground markings and lateral separation distances are at para 52 and 109 respectively.

c. Air System and / or Aircraft approach and departure routes to the Display Area should be chosen to avoid overflight of Spectator Areas. These routes should minimize risk for adjacent Congested Areas.

d. Air System or Aircraft parking areas should be out of bounds to Spectators when engines are running or Air Systems or Aircraft are taxiing.

e. Suitable routes for emergency vehicles should be established, clearly marked, and kept free from obstruction at all times.

f. Participants should advise the FDD of specific hazards relating to their Air Systems or Aircraft. The EO and / or FDD should check the hazardous materials of military-registered Air Systems on the MOD Aircraft Crash Hazards Document Set (accessible via MOD computer systems only)23.

51. Risk Management. HoE, EOs and FDDs should ensure that any other hazards to public safety specific to their events are identified, recorded, risk assessed, and that appropriate mitigations are put in place to ensure RtL is at least ALARP and Tolerable.

52. Main Display Line and other Ground Markings.

a. Full use should be made of existing ground features such as runways or taxiways, supplemented as necessary by other visual means including markers (preferably with vertical extent) and lighting. Markers should be fixed firmly to minimize the effect of downwash;

b. The Main Display Line should be 230 m from the Crowd Line and parallel to it;

c. FDDs should be cognisant of recognisable and / or compelling features that may be a distraction to Participants when considering the requirement to mark the Main Display Line, eg a non-parallel taxiway or runway24.

d. FDDs should mark the Display Datum if there is not a suitable and easily recognisable physical feature to identify the correct position24.

e. FDD should provide additional markings to assist Participants identify appropriate minimum separation distances from the Crowd Line for various aspects of each Participants’ Display Sequence, where these are different from

23 MOD Aircraft Crash Hazard information can be obtained from the RAF Events Team, Royal Navy or Joint Helicopter Command Flying Display Tasking Cells, from the Display Teams themselves or, in extremis via the RAF Regional Liaison Officer (RAFRLO). 24 The FDD may elect not to mark features such as Display Datum, supplementary Display Lines and even the Main Display Line if there is a suitable and easily recognisable physical feature, at least the minimum required lateral separation distance from the Crowd Line, and in the correct orientation.




the 230 m minimum separation distance24. If used, FDD should ensure that Participants are fully briefed on their position and meaning iaw para 41.g.

53. Control of Explosives and Pyrotechnics. The use of explosives and blank ammunition for simulated ground-bursts, smoke, pyrotechnics or other special effects displays during a Flying Display should be strictly controlled by a competent person appointed by the EO. Debris from such effects should not impinge on Air Systems, Aircraft, Spectators, Third Parties or the runway / taxiways and the scale of any effects should be known prior to the event. Briefings for ground officials and Participants’ should draw attention to the hazardous nature of such devices. Furthermore, Participants should be appropriately authorized to conduct such activity.

Civil Registered Aircraft at Flying Displays over MOD-Occupied Property

54. The FDD should ensure that pilots flying civil registered Aircraft25:

a. Hold a valid DA, DA Exemption, or national equivalent as evidence of their competence to conduct Display Flying, even if only conducting a Flypast;

(1) If a civilian pilot does not hold a valid DA then they should not be permitted to utilize a SERA.5005(f)(2) Exemption as per para 76.

b. Notify the FDD of their intended Display Routine at least 24 hours in advance;

(1) This should include the measures the pilot would take if they needed to diverge from the intended Display Routine (for example due to wind effects), and confirm that the intended Display Routine complies with the airspace restrictions (local avoids, the anticipated location of Secondary Spectators and third parties) derived from the event Risk Assessment.

c. Demonstrate that the intended manoeuvres comply with the conditions placed on their Air System’s Certificate of Airworthiness or Permit to Fly;

d. Do not breach the minima permitted by their DA, DA Exemption or national equivalent;

e. Comply with the separation distances, minima and restrictions detailed within RA 2335(3).

55. CAA Exemptions26 at MAA-Regulated Events. A FDD at a MAA-regulated event should not accept a CAA Exemption26 for a pilot flying a civil registered Aircraft where that Exemption would allow the pilot to breach any part of this RA. If the FDD considers that the CAA Exemption26 is appropriate for their event, the HoE should apply for a Waiver iaw MAA0315.

56. Civil Registered Aircraft flown over MOD-Occupied Property by pilots without a DA for that Aircraft. FDD should not allow civil registered Aircraft flown by pilots without a DA or DA Exemption for that Aircraft to conduct Display Flying, Role Demonstrations or Flypasts over MOD-Occupied Property without first seeking endorsement from the CAA via [email protected]. The MAA should be informed of such activity ([email protected]) at least 14 days prior to the event.

57. Minimum Height for Participants flying Civil Registered Aircraft. The pilot’s DA specifies the minimum heights to which the holder may display, and FDDs should consider permitting them to operate to those minima with the approval of the HoE.

58. Minimum Lateral Separation Distances for civilian Participants. The minimum lateral separation distances specified at para 109 should apply to all Air Systems or Aircraft in all cases.

Warning and Stop Calls

59. Standard Warning and Stop Calls. If the FDD and / or FCC perceive minima are being encroached, breached or have safety concerns that require the cessation of a Participants Display Sequence / Routine, the Standard Warning and Stop Calls and responses at Table 2 should be used:

25 For military Display Pilots flying MOD-owned civil-registered Aircraft the requirements detailed in RA 2335(2) should apply. 26 Other than a DA Exemption which permits a pilot to conduct Display Flying without a DA.






Table 2. Standard Warning and Stop Calls

FDD/FCC Warning Call Pilot Response

‘(Callsign) Too Low’ ‘Roger (Callsign)’

‘(Callsign) Too Close’ ‘Roger (Callsign)’

FDD/FCC Terminate Call Pilot Response

‘(Callsign) Terminate’ ‘Wilco (Callsign)’

FDD/FCC Stop Call Pilot Response

‘(Callsign) Stop Stop Stop, Acknowledge’ ‘Wilco (Callsign)’

a. Too Low Call. A ‘Too Low’ Call should be made at an appropriate time if the FDD and / or FCC assess that an Air System or Aircraft has descended below the Participant’s PDA or DA minima or the minima in place for the Flying Display.

b. Too Close Call. A ‘Too Close’ Call should be made at an appropriate time if the FDD and / or FCC assess that an Air System or Aircraft has breached the minimum lateral separation distance appropriate to that Display Item.

c. Terminate Call. A ‘Terminate’ Call should be used when a Participant is required to suspend Display Flying for a reason other than their fitness or competence (eg intruder Aircraft, birds, etc). A ‘Terminate’ Call can also be used by a Participant to notify their intention to halt a display if deemed necessary for any reason. At the discretion of both the FDD and the Participant, the Display Sequence / Routine may be resumed if safe to do so.

d. Stop Call. A ‘Stop’ Call should be made if the FDD and / or FCC has a safety concern related to a Participants’ fitness or competence; additionally, a ‘Stop’ Call should be made if a third Warning Call is required. Once a ‘Stop’ Call has been made, the Participant should not continue their display or recommence their Display Sequence / Routine. A ‘Stop’ Call can be made outright, or as a result of the need to issue a third Warning Call.

e. Where an event has a Participant with a non-radio capable Air System or Aircraft, a fully briefed procedure should be established to enable communication of Standard Warning and Stop Calls.

f. For ‘Stop’ Calls, once the Flying Display is complete (or earlier if safe and practicable) the FDD should:

(1) Confirm the Participant understands they have been stopped and explain why;

(2) Where the Participant is flying a civil registered Aircraft, inform the CAA General Aviation Unit as soon as practicable on 01293 573919 and, if appropriate, submit a Mandatory Occurrence Report (MOR);

(3) Where the Participant is flying a military-registered Air System or the event is conducted over MOD-Occupied Property, submit a Defence Aviation Safety Occurrence Report (DASOR)27.

(4) Record the event on the RA 2335 Form 4 (Flying Display Director Post Event Feedback Form)28;

Further details of the actions to be taken by a military Participant are at para 91.

27 If a FDD is unable to access the Air Safety Information Management System (ASIMS) to submit a DASOR then they should contact the MAA via email ([email protected]) and request guidance on how to submit a DASOR. 28 MAA equivalent to CAA Form SRG 1305.








Management of a Flying Display

60. Boundaries of Responsibility. When HoE are considering the ToRs for the EO and FDD, there are a number of responsibilities that they may wish to allocate. These include, but are not limited to:

a. The location of Car Parks.

b. The location and number of Spectator Areas.

c. Air System or Aircraft parking and marshalling areas.

d. Air System or Aircraft refuelling areas.

e. Emergency vehicle access and egress points.

f. Emergency control centre location and set up.

61. FCC. The FCC will consist of suitably experienced personnel appropriate for the Tier of Flying Display, the Air Systems or Aircraft participating, and will be issued with ToR from the FDD. The FCC may include the FDD, who may act as Chairman of the FCC, and additional members who have the requisite experience of Display Flying and / or Flying Display planning, organization, management and delivery. Chairmanship of the FCC may also be delegated.

62. Categorization of an Event as a Flying Display. The HoE (EO or FDD for events with no HoE), may categorize an event that only has Flypasts or Role Demonstrations as a Flying Display if they consider it necessary. Reasons for this may include:

a. The complicated nature of an event (such as very unusual mixed formations);

b. Large gatherings of people;

c. Complex geography or airspace restrictions.

FDD Accreditation

63. FDD Accreditation Course. The CAA / MAA conduct joint FDD Accreditation Courses in order to qualify FDDs in the UK.

a. Military Applicants. The MAA approves military applicants to attend the FDD Accreditation Course; as such military applicants will provide justification for the application and their suitability for the FDD role, which will be endorsed by the relevant HoE or ADH29.

b. FDD Accreditation. A joint CAA / MAA FDD Accreditation Panel will be convened following FDD Accreditation Courses to review each candidates’ performance during the course. The FDD Accreditation Panel will consider their experience, preparation for and interaction during the course, and their examination results before accrediting them as a Tier 1, 2 or 3 FDD.

c. ‘Mil’ and ‘Civ’ Accreditation. The FDD Accreditation Panel will also consider, based on the experience of individuals, and their knowledge and understanding of the regulations as demonstrated during the course, whether they will be accredited as a ‘Mil’, ‘Civ’ or ‘Civ / Mil’ FDD.

(1) Mil. The individual is only permitted to be FDD / Deputy FDD at Flying Displays regulated by the MAA iaw RA 2335.

(2) Civ. The individual is only permitted to be FDD / Deputy FDD at Flying Displays regulated by the CAA iaw CAP 403.

(3) Civ / Mil. The individual is permitted to be FDD / Deputy FDD at either CAA or MAA regulated Flying Displays. The individual may be accredited to a different Tier for each category.

29 Military applicants will only be accepted when their qualification is primarily for military purposes; supported by the HoE or ADH. Serving military personnel who are not required to act as an FDD for military purposes may apply for accreditation through the CAA.




64. Validity. An FDD’s qualification will remain valid for a period of 3 years from the date of accreditation, subject to ongoing fitness for the role30.

65. Deputy FDD. An appropriately accredited FDD31 may act as Deputy FDD to provide resilience for an event. The individual(s) must be annotated as a Deputy FDD on the RA 2335 Form 1, or application for a CAA Flying Display Permission.

66. Currency. To maintain currency, individuals will act as FDD at the appropriate Tier of event at least once every two years. However if, for example, a Tier 3 FDD only acts as FDD for a Tier 1 or Tier 2 Flying Display within the currency period, Tier 3 currency will be lost and currency at the lower Tier will be maintained.

67. Deputy FDD Currency. Currency may also be maintained by acting as a Deputy FDD provided that:

a. They are annotated on the RA 2335 Form 1 or application for CAA Flying Display Permission;

b. They take an active part in the planning, organization, management and delivery of the Flying Display.

c. They are in attendance for the duration of the Flying Display;

d. The nature and extent of their Deputy FDD participation, and the intent to reset their currency, is annotated by the primary FDD on the RA 2335 Form 4 (Flying Display Director Post Event Feedback Form) / CAA Form SRG 1305.

68. Shadow FDD. Tier 1 or Tier 2 accredited FDDs may Shadow the FDD for a higher Tier event in order to build experience. This Shadow FDD role can be used to improve the level of competence with a view to upgrading to a higher Tier in the future. The primary FDD will record the level of participation of the Shadow FDD on the RA 2335 Form 4 (Flying Display Director Post Event Feedback Form) / CAA Form SRG 1305 which will enable the CAA and MAA to properly assess the level of experience of the individual if an upgrade is requested at a later date.

a. If the primary FDD is an FDD Mentor, the Shadow FDD will ensure that their participation in the planning, organization, management and delivery of the Flying Display is appropriately logged and countersigned by the FDD Mentor so that any experience gained can be demonstrated at the time of application for an upgrade.

69. FDD Revalidation. A qualified FDD may renew their accreditation following successful completion of a FDD Revalidation Course. The FDD Revalidation Course considers the same criteria as the FDD Accreditation Course and is also assessed by a joint CAA / MAA FDD Accreditation Panel. Candidates’ successful completion of the FDD Revalidation Course will extend their FDD qualification for a further 3 years.

70. FDD Upgrades. To upgrade to a higher FDD Tier or from ‘Mil’ or ‘Civ’ to ‘Civ / Mil’, FDDs are required to provide the CAA / MAA with a list of events they have been involved with to demonstrate that they have gained the necessary experience to be considered for an upgrade to the higher Tier. Their submission is required to include detail on their involvement in the planning, organization, management and delivery of the events and provide a written narrative from at least 2 separate sources detailing their performance in the events they have been involved in. Trusted sources include:

a. FDD Mentors (‘Civ’ or ‘Mil’), if one was involved;

b. Other FDD (‘Civ’ or ‘Mil’) of the Tier the applicant aspires to (or higher);

c. The HoE of an event the applicant was involved in, providing they played a substantial part in planning, organizing, managing or delivering the Flying Display.

71. Revocation. If an FDD underperforms at an event, an investigation will be undertaken iaw the Defence Aviation Flowchart Analysis of Investigation Results II

30 Successful completion of a FDD Accreditation Course is required every 3 years to maintain the qualification. 31 A FDD who is accredited for the Tier of Flying Display at which they are Deputising.







(DA FAiR II) system detailed in the MAA Manual of Air Safety32. After the investigation, the following actions are available to the CAA and / or MAA:

a. No action.

b. Downgrade Tier.

c. Further training.

d. Suspension.

e. Complete revocation.

72. SQEP Recording. The CAA will administer a combined military / civilian FDD list that will be available to HoE and EO. The list will detail an individual qualification (ie the Tier and Category of Flying Display they are accredited to conduct) and will record the Flying Displays that they have directed33. The MAA is responsible for administering military personnel on the combined list and will also ensure the correct competency is recorded on the military Joint Personnel Administration System.

Foreign Military-Registered Aircraft Participating at UK Flying Displays

73. Responsibilities of the MAA. On behalf of the MOD, the MAA maintains oversight of all foreign military-registered Aircraft participating at UK Flying Displays. The MAA ensures the Participant is SQEP, suitably approved at a national level and the proposed Display Sequence complies with this RA using the documentation supplied by the Participant and the FDD.

74. Validation. The MAA and / or the FDD can mandate the validation of any display Participant. When the MAA mandates validation, then that validation may take place at any display venue within the same display season and, where a Participant has more than one authorized Display Sequence, then validation of any one of the Display Sequences is normally accepted by the MAA as sufficiently appropriate to validate all Display Sequences.

a. Guidance on Requirement for Validation. The MAA is likely to require validation where an individual Participant is new, they have not displayed in the UK before, or for any formation Display Team. This is guidance only and the MAA may require validation of any foreign military Participant.

Public Safety

75. Safety and Risk Assessment. Guidance on managing and recording risk is contained within RA 12103.

76. Civil Participants Operating Minima. The CAA has granted the MOD a Permission for civilian Participants holding a DA or DA Exemption to operate below the minima stated in SERA.5005(f)(2) during Flying Displays held over nominated MOD-Occupied Properties. The Permission is obtained annually and is held by the MAA.

77. CAP 403 - Flying Displays and Special Events: Safety and Administrative Requirements and Guidance. CAP 403 provides additional guidance to EO and FDD for the safety planning associated with a Flying Display, including working with Local Authorities, Emergency Services, Highways Authorities, SAG and wider Health and Safety Executive requirements.

Regulation

2335(2)

Display Flying, Role Demonstrations and Flypasts (Mil)

2335(2) ADH / AM(MF) shall ensure that personnel involved in conducting Display Flying, Role Demonstrations and Flypasts (Mil) are competent and appropriately trained, approved, authorized and supervised.

32 The CAA also uses the Flowchart Analysis of Investigation Results (FAIR) System which is detailed in CAP 403. 33 If recorded on the Flying Display Notification / CAA Flying Display Permission Application and FDD Post Event Feedback Form.




2335(2)


78. Applicability of this Regulation. RA 2335(2) should apply to all personnel involved in conducting Display Flying, Role Demonstrations and Flypasts (Mil) in UK military-registered Air Systems and, as far as reasonably practicable, foreign military-registered Aircraft participating at events in the UK. Additionally, at all times, the most restrictive limitations of this RA or the following should be applied:

a. North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) Standardization Agreement (STANAG) 3533 / Allied Flight Safety Publication (AFSP) 5, if applicable34.

b. Orders or instructions issued by the ADH / AM(MF) for Air Systems in their AoR conducting Display Flying, Role Demonstrations or Flypasts (Mil).

c. Orders or instructions issued by the HoE, EO or FDD for a specific event.

d. CAP 403 where a CAA Flying Display Permission exists for an event. Whilst the CAA Flying Display Permission will be time bounded, any Participants flying military-registered Air Systems on the same day should apply the limitations of the CAA Flying Display Permission and CAP 403 regardless of what time they conduct their flying activity unless approval is obtained from the MAA ([email protected]) at least 14 days prior to the event.

e. PDA, DA or DA Exemption.

f. Any host nation regulations and orders or instructions when conducting Display Flying, Role Demonstrations or Flypasts (Mil) outside the UK.

Aircrew and Support Personnel

79. Display Flying Aircrew. ADH / AM(MF) should ensure that:

a. The Aircrew selected to conduct Display Flying are SQEP in both airborne and ground-based aspects of Display Flying;

b. Where Display Flying Aircrew are responsible for conducting Risk Assessments, they are appropriately trained and supported;

c. Display Flying Aircrew hold a valid PDA and / or DA prior to conducting Display Flying at a Flying Display.

80. Display Flying Supervisor. ADH / AM(MF) should nominate a SQEP Display Flying Supervisor.

81. Display Flying Support Personnel. ADH / AM(MF) should allocate sufficient support personnel and / or resource to allow Aircrew selected for Display Flying to safely and effectively conduct activity throughout the display season.

82. Ground Knowledge. ADH / AM(MF) should ensure that, in addition to the pre-season Display Flying work-up detailed in para 85, Aircrew and support personnel selected for Display Flying are appropriately trained in the relevant non-flying aspects of Display Flying, such as Human Factors, Fatigue Management, Supervision and relevant regulatory knowledge (ie RA 2335, the ANO, CAP 403 and CAP 1724).

Pre-Season and Practice Display Flying

83. Practice Display Flying. ADH / AM(MF) should assure themselves that practice Display Flying is conducted in such a way and at such a location as to ensure that RtL to Participants, Secondary Spectators and third parties is at least ALARP and Tolerable.

84. Practice Display Flying Minimum Height. ADH / AM(MF) should promulgate orders or instructions stipulating who can approve Display Flying Aircrew to operate at a height lower than those specified in orders or instructions for routine operations and training; this should not be delegated below Sqn Cdr / OF-4. The individuals detailed in orders or instructions are responsible for signing the Display Flying Aircrew’s training folder35.

34 If a Flying Display involves Participants from two or more NATO Nations the NATO STANAG / AFSP 05 applies. 35 Or electronic equivalent.





2335(2)

85. Pre-Season Display Flying Work-Up and PDA. Pre-season Flying Display practices should be personally authorized by the Display Flying Supervisor. The following points should be applied when authorizing and supervising Display Flying work-up flights:

a. The work-up should be of a progressive nature leading, in stages, down to the approved display heights, and initially conducted only over their own airfield unless the ADH / AM(MF) directs otherwise;

b. Consideration should be given to the use of appropriate Synthetic Training Devices for initial practice displays;

c. The previous season’s Display Pilot should be used in an advisory and / or monitoring capacity during practice and validation;

d. Each practice Display Flying sortie should be monitored by the Display Flying Supervisor. If the Display Flying Supervisor is on the ground, they should be in a suitable position to ensure they are not a distraction to the Display Flying Aircrew;

e. All practice Display Flying below 2000’ MSD should be video recorded;

f. A record of Display Flying practices detailing weather, runway, etc. should be maintained in the Display Flying Aircrew’s training folder;

Public Display Authority

86. ADH / AM(MF) Display Sequence Approval. The Display Flying Aircrew and the Display Sequence should be approved by the ADH / AM(MF) using RA 2335 Form 5 (Public Display Authority Form) as the mechanism to signify that final approval has been granted to conduct Display Flying in front of the general public. The MAA should be provided with a completed copy of RA 2335 Form 5 (Public Display Authority Form) once the PDA has been awarded via [email protected];

87. PDA Form. The PDA, as detailed on the approved RA 2335 Form 5, should detail all of the permitted activity, as well as any limitations, and should be made available to the FDD. Deviations should not be permitted without authorization by the ADH / AM(MF). If a FDD is unable to accept the Participant’s approved PDA or Display Sequence the Participant should not perform.

88. Deviations from PDA. Deviations from the PDA or permitted modifications to the Display Sequence, as detailed on the approved RA 2335 Form 5 (Public Display Authority Form), should not be permitted without authorization by the ADH / AM(MF). If a FDD is unable to accept the Participant’s approved PDA or Display Sequence the Participant should not perform.

89. Role Demonstrations. Role Demonstrations do not necessarily require a PDA, however, ADH / AM(MF) should issue orders or instructions that, as a minimum, detail the following:

a. Approved Role Demonstration manoeuvres that may be conducted on Air Systems within their AoR;

b. The approval mechanism, clearance procedures and authorization process for Role Demonstrations;

c. Safety management procedures, limitations and restrictions;

d. Competence / SQEP requirements of the Aircrew and other personnel in the air and on the ground.

90. Flypasts (Mil). Flypasts (Mil) do not constitute Display Flying so do not normally require a PDA. However, ADH / AM(MF) should publish orders or instructions detailing appropriate limitations specific to the conduct of Flypasts (Mil) on Air Systems within their AoR.








2335(2)

Stop and Warning Calls

91. ‘Stop’ Calls. Where the FDD / FCC has issued a ‘Stop’ Call36 due to a breach of minima or limits, or other safety concerns surrounding the Display Flying Aircrew fitness or competence, the Aircrew:

a. Should not conduct further Display Flying until they have permission from their ADH / AM(MF);

b. Should submit a DASOR as soon as practicable.

92. Warning Calls. ADH / AM(MF) should issue orders or instructions which state the actions to be taken by Display Flying Aircrew after a Warning Call is issued.

Display Venue Suitability

93. Display Venues. ADH / AM(MF) should take reasonable measures to assure themselves that display venues at which Air Systems within their AoR perform are suitable, safe and appropriate for the Air System and its intended Display Sequence. This should include being satisfied that:

a. The EO and FDD are suitably experienced or qualified iaw RA 2335(1).

b. RtL attributable to Display Flying, Role Demonstrations or Flypasts (Mil) remains at least ALARP and Tolerable including having reviewed the FDDs briefing material and Flying Display Risk Assessment.

Parachuting at Flying Displays

94. Parachuting37. When participating at a Flying Display, MOD-approved parachute display teams38 should be deemed to be on duty. MOD personnel participating in non MOD-approved parachute display teams are deemed to be part of a civilian parachute display team and are not on duty.

95. Parachuting Permission. Parachute display teams should be in possession of a valid Parachuting Permission or Exemption Certificate issued by the CAA, and the parachute display should be conducted iaw that Permission or Exemption.

96. Parachuting Governance. MOD-approved parachute display teams should comply with orders or instructions issued by their Parachuting Duty Holder. Parachute display team leaders should be responsible for parachuting and flying operations carried out by that display team, the provision of a qualified Drop Zone Safety Officer39, and ensuring adequate liaison and co-ordination is conducted with the FDD.

Guidance Material

2335(2)


97. Applicability of RA 2335 or CAP 403. Tables 3 and 4 show Flying Display Participants which regulations (relevant to Flying Displays) apply and therefore what flying activity is permitted.

Table 3. Events over MOD-Occupied Property

MOD-Occupied Property

Military-Registered Air Systems Civil Registered Aircraft

Flying Display Other Event Flying Display Other Event

Permitted Activity Display Flying,

Role Demonstrations and Flypast (Mil) (iaw para 107 and 108)

Role Demonstrations and Flypast (Mil) (iaw para 110)

Display Flying and Flypast

As per the ANO/SERA

Regulation (most restrictive of)

RA 2335 RA 2335 RA 2335

CAP 403

As per the ANO/SERA

36 iaw para 59. 37 While parachuting itself does not constitute a Participant iaw RA 2335, this para is included for the assistance of the EO and FDD. 38 Both those governed by the MRP (ie generation of Force Elements at Readiness parachuting, commonly referred to as “combat” or “military” parachuting), and those recorded as being on duty but governed by the CAA via CAP 660 - Parachuting (ie parachuting commonly referred to as “sports” or “non-combat” parachuting). 39 Drop Zone Safety Officers are not required to attain FDD Accreditation.



Guidance Material

2335(2)

Table 4. Events over non MOD-Occupied Property

Non MOD-Occupied Property in the UK

CAA Flying Display Permission40

Yes No

Military-Registered

Civil Registered

Military-Registered

Civil Registered

Permitted Activity Display Flying,

Role Demonstrations and Flypast (Mil) (iaw para 107 and 108)

Display Flying and Flypast

Display Flying41, Role Demonstrations and Flypast (Mil) (iaw para 110)

As per the ANO/SERA

Regulation (most restrictive of)

RA 2335

CAP 403

CAP 403 RA 2335 As per the ANO/SERA

Note: For Flying Displays outside the UK, military-registered Air Systems must comply with the most restrictive of RA 2335 and relevant national regulations iaw42.

98. Role Demonstrations or Flypast (Mil) being Categorized as Display Flying. ADH / AM(MF) may, if they deem appropriate, categorize Role Demonstrations or Flypast (Mil) as Display Flying.

Regulation

2335(3)

Separation Distances, Minima and Restrictions

2335(3) Authorized minimum vertical and lateral separation distances, and other applicable minima and restrictions shall be complied with at all times during Display Flying, Role Demonstrations and Flypasts.


2335(3)


General

99. Congested Areas. Display Flying, Role Demonstrations or Flypasts (Mil) below 2000’ MSD over Congested Areas (as detailed in the UKMLFH) should be conducted iaw RA 233043 and the UKMLFH.

100. ADH / AM(MF) Approval for overflight of Congested Areas. Display Flying, Role Demonstrations and Flypasts (Mil) over Congested Areas should be approved by the Air System ADH / AM(MF) in advance.

101. Performance Limitations - Speed. An absolute true limit of Mach 0.90 or 600 KIAS (whichever is reached first) should not be exceeded.

102. Performance Limitations - Multi-Engine Fixed Wing Air Systems. Multi-Engine Fixed Wing Air Systems should not fly below the speed at which it is still possible to climb away, without change of configuration, if any one engine fails.

103. Weather Minima. ADH / AM(MF) should stipulate the minimum weather conditions for Display Flying, Role Demonstrations and Flypasts (Mil) by Air Systems in their AoR. The following table should be the absolute minimum weather conditions for Participants that hold a valid PDA or DA when operating at a Flying Display (or during PDA work-up iaw RA 2335(2)); the Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC) minima in RA 230744 apply at all other times:

40 Unless the MAA have approved a Flypast (Mil) to be conducted on the same day as the CAA Flying Display Permission. 41 For an event which involves military-registered Air Systems only (see para 37a of this RA). 42 NATO Standardization Agreement (STANAG) 3533 / Allied Flight Safety Publication (AFSP) 5 governs military Display Flying. 43 Refer to RA 2330 – Low Flying. 44 Refer to RA 2307 - Rules of the Air.

https://www.gov.uk/government/publications/regulatory-article-ra-2330-low-flying

https://www.gov.uk/government/publications/regulatory-article-ra-2307-rules-of-the-air




2335(3)

Table 5. Weather Minima.

Notes: (i) Where a ‘flat aerobatic display’ is a Display Sequence considered for the Air System it should be formally approved as part of the Participant’s PDA.

(ii) Subject to FDD approval, Air Systems unable to display because of low cloud base may fly an instrument approach to land, touch-and-go or low approach.

Flying Display Separation Distances, Minima and Restrictions

104. Overflight of Spectators. All Participants should avoid overflight of Spectator Areas and Secondary Spectators at a Flying Display.

105. MSD Inside the Display Area.

a. Participants should not perform aerobatic manoeuvres above any structures occupied by non-essential personnel or Secondary Spectators within the Display Area.

b. Participants should not perform non-aerobatic overflight of any structures occupied by non-essential personnel or Secondary Spectators during a Display Sequence at less than 500’ MSD within the Display Area.

106. MSD Outside the Display Area. UK and foreign military Participants should adhere to the following MSD outside of the Display Area at Flying Displays in the UK46:

a. Aerobatic Manoeuvres – All Air Systems47. 500 feet MSD;

b. Fixed Wing Air Systems – Non-Aerobatic Manoeuvres. 250 feet MSD;

c. Rotary Wing Air Systems – Non-Aerobatic Manoeuvres. 100 feet MSD.

107. Minimum Heights at a Flying Display. ADH / AM(MF) should specify minimum heights for Display Flying, Role Demonstrations and Flypast (Mil) flown by their Aircrew, dependent upon the Air System type, Aircrew experience and location of the event. However, they should not be less than the MSD48 specified in Table 6:

Type of Aircraft Type of displayWeather Minima

cloud base visibility

VSTOL45, Rotary Wing and other Air Systems or Aircraft with a stalling speed below 50 KIAS

Flypasts, non-aerobatic Display Flying and Role Demonstrations

Solo Aircraft 500 feet 1500 metres

Formations 500 feet 3000 metres

Aerobatic Display Flying

Solo Aircraft 800 feet 3000 metres

Formations 1000 feet 5 km

All other Air Systems

Flypasts, non-aerobatic Display Flying, ‘flat’ Aerobatic Display Flying and Role Demonstrations

Solo Aircraft 500 feet 5 km

Formations 1000 feet 5 km

Aerobatic Display Flying

Solo Aircraft 1000 feet 5 km

Piston Formations 1000 feet 5 km

Jet / Turboprop Formations

1500 feet 5 km

45 This only applies to Vertical and Short Take Off and Landing (VSTOL) Air Systems operating in VSTOL mode. 46 Civilian Participants are to adhere to the ANO / SERA outside the Display Area. 47 This limitation applies from when the Air System commences its run in for its Display Sequence, Role Demonstration or Flypast (Mil) to when it has completed its Display Sequence, Role Demonstration or Flypast (Mil). 48 Where the Flying Display is outside the UK, the most restrictive of this Regulation and any applicable local/national orders should be complied with.




2335(3)

Table 6. Minimum Heights Part 1

MSD (feet) as part of PDA Display Sequence at a Flying Display

Fixed Wing

Rotary Wing

Fixed Wing Close

Formation

Rotary Wing Close

Formation

Flypast Only - Wings Level Flight ≤20° Angle of Bank (AOB)

100 50 250 100

Non-Aerobatic Flight ≤90° AOB 100 100 300 100

Aerobatic Manoeuvres, Inverted Flight and Link Manoeuvres

300 300 300 300

a. Link Manoeuvres. Where one aerobatic manoeuvre is linked directly to another, Air Systems or Aircraft should remain above the minimum height for aerobatic manoeuvres throughout the transition. Where an aerobatic manoeuvre is followed by a non-aerobatic manoeuvre, Participants should be certain of capturing the minimum height for aerobatic manoeuvres during the recovery before continuing descent to the non-aerobatic minima specified in Table 6;

b. Manoeuvre After Take-Off. Once safely airborne and not below 50 feet MSD throughout the manoeuvre, the Participant may commence a turn away from the Crowd Line to capture the appropriate Display Line. No more than 60° AOB should be used and a positive climbing vector should be maintained throughout the manoeuvre. On crossing the appropriate Display Line (if the runway is inside it) the Participant should be at or above 100 feet MSD;

c. Rotary Wing and VSTOL Air Systems. Rotary Wing and VSTOL Air Systems may operate below the MSD in Table 6 during hovering and transition manoeuvres49.

108. Minimum Heights when not part of a PDA Display Sequence at a Flying Display. ADH / AM(MF) should specify minimum heights for Role Demonstrations and Flypasts (Mil) when not part of a PDA Display Sequence at a Flying Display. These heights should be dependent upon the Air System type, Aircrew experience and the location of the event. However, they should not be less than the MSD specified in Table 7:


MSD (feet) when NOT part of a PDA Display Sequence at a Flying Display

Fixed Wing

Rotary Wing

Fixed Wing Close

Formation

Rotary Wing Close

Formation

Flypast Only - Wings Level Flight ≤20° AOB

100 50 250 100

Role Demonstration Manoeuvres - Non-Aerobatic Flight ≤90° AOB

250 100 500 250


500N/A PDA Required

N/A PDA Required

N/A PDA Required

109. Lateral Separation. The following minimum lateral separation distances should apply to all military-registered Air Systems and Aircraft at all Flying Displays and civilian Aircraft at Flying Displays over MOD-Occupied Property. Where a FDD, Participant or their Aircraft Operating Authority considers that a greater separation is required for any specific Air System, Aircraft or manoeuvre, that minimum should be identified and complied with:

49 and iaw para 109.c (3) and (4).




2335(3)

a. Ground Operations. During all ground operations, including refuelling, servicing and at any time when engines or rotors are running, a minimum separation distance of 15 m should be maintained between Spectator Areas and the nearest point of the Aircraft concerned. This limit applies to Aircraft taxiing or air-taxiing, except when such taxiing is away from a marked taxiway and without the assistance of a marshaller, when the minimum separation distance should be increased to 65 m;

b. In-Use Runways. The minimum separation distance between the near edge of any runway used for conventional Fixed Wing take-off and landing (including ‘touch and go’ and ‘low approach’) and the Crowd Line should be 100 m. However, for light Air Systems or Aircraft with a MTOM of ≤1200 kg, and a take-off and landing speed of less than 100 KIAS, this separation may be decreased to 65 m. Other than for emergencies, a runway should only be used for non-standard take-off or landing (defined as one not practised as a Standard Operating Procedure conducted during routine operations and training for that Air System or Aircraft), if its near edge is at least 230 m from the Crowd Line at all points;

c. In Flight. The normal minimum separation distance between the Crowd Line and Air Systems or Aircraft conducting Display Flying, including Rotary Wing displays that involve aerobatics, should be 230 m. However, the following additional minima apply for specific circumstances:

(1) High Speed Air System or Aircraft. Where the displaying Air System or Aircraft is at a speed in excess of 300 KIAS, and has a velocity vector towards a Spectator Area, the minimum separation distance should be increased to 450 m;

(2) Low Energy Display Flying. For Low Energy Display Flying, as defined in para 22, the minimum separation distance should be 150 m;

(3) Rotary Wing. For normal take-off and landing, and during transitional manoeuvres, the minimum separation distance should be 65 m. For other stages of non-aerobatic flight, or at any time when an underslung load is carried, the minimum separation distance should be increased to 100 m;

(4) VSTOL Air Systems (including V-22). For vertical take-off and landing, and during non-wing borne flight at low speed, the minimum separation distance should be 150 m. By the time conventional wing borne flight is achieved, the Air System should be at the normal minimum separation distance of 230 m;

(5) Balloons. At displays where balloons operate, FDD should follow the guidance in CAP 403 and CAP 173950;

(6) Airships. Airships are operated as lighter-than-air Air Systems or Aircraft, and as such should be subject to regulations applying to Fixed Wing Air Systems or Aircraft;

(7) Model Aircraft. FDD should follow the guidance given in CAP 403 and CAP 722 Unmanned Aircraft System Operations in UK Airspace51;

(8) Remotely Piloted Air Systems (RPAS)52. RPAS should not be operated in a manner that presents undue risk or hazard to any person, vessel, structure, vehicle or infrastructure and iaw the RA 1600 Series for military RPAS and iaw CAP 722.

d. Dual Spectator Areas. In the case of Flying Displays at airfields / locations where Spectator Areas (and/or concentrations of Secondary Spectators) are on, or expected to be on, both sides of the Display Axis, the

50 CAP 1739 due to be published by the CAA in spring 2021. 51 Refer to CAP 722 Unmanned Aircraft System Operations in UK Airspace 52 Refer to RA 1600 Series: Remotely Piloted Air Systems.

https://publicapps.caa.co.uk/modalapplication.aspx?appid=11&mode=detail&id=415





2335(3)

minimum separation distance between the Display Line and the Spectator Areas, specified above, should apply on both sides of the Display Line.

Role Demonstrations and Flypasts (Mil)

110. Minimum Heights at any other event. ADH / AM(MF) should specify minimum heights for Role Demonstrations and Flypasts (Mil) not conducted as part of a Flying Display. These heights should be dependent upon the Air System type, Aircrew experience and the location of the event. However, they should not be less than the MSD specified in Table 8:


MSD (feet) at any other event

Fixed Wing

Rotary Wing

Fixed Wing Close

Formation

Rotary Wing Close

Formation

Flypast Only – Wings Level Flight ≤20° AOB

250 100 500 250

Role Demonstration Manoeuvres - Non-Aerobatic Flight ≤90° AOB

25053 10054 500 250


500N/A PDA Required

N/A PDA Required

N/A PDA Required

Other Restrictions when conducting Display Flying, Role Demonstrations or Flypasts (Mil)

111. Control of Engines. Engines should not be deliberately shut down or feathered in flight; symmetrical thrust should be maintained at all times. In the event of an engine failure or unintended shutdown, the Display Sequence, Role Demonstration or Flypast should be Terminated;

112. Armament. Live weapons should not be carried at Flying Displays and all weapons circuit-breakers and switches should be in the 'safe' condition (except for flares and pyrotechnics when approved under the conditions at para 115);

113. Rotary Wing and VSTOL Air Systems. Rotary Wing and VSTOL Air Systems or Aircraft should not be flown in such proximity to buildings or Air Systems or Aircraft on the ground as to cause a hazard from downwash. If conducting underslung load activity, due consideration should be given to the load becoming unstable or detached;

114. Parachute Demonstration / Display. During the whole period scheduled for parachuting, all flying activity within the descent airspace and Parachute Landing Area55, except that which is necessary for dispatching parachutists, should cease. The engines of Fixed Wing Air Systems or Aircraft should be shut down and Rotary Wing Air System or Aircraft rotors should not be turning until the last parachutist has landed;

115. Use of Flares and Pyrotechnics. The use of flares and pyrotechnics during a Flying Display should be subject to a specific Risk Assessment and final approval by the ADH / AM(MF) of the participating Air System or Aircraft, the HoE, the EO and the FDD. Flares, signal and smoke cartridges, and pyrotechnics should only be fired from such a height and position that prevents any remnants of the device landing among Spectators, near taxiing or static Air Systems or Aircraft, supporting personnel, ground equipment or Third Parties.

Guidance Material

2335(3)


116. CAA Acceptance of PDA. Civilian FDD and EO for UK Flying Displays may accept the PDA of military-registered Air Systems as proof that they are competent and current in all required facets of Display Flying, as detailed in CAP 403.

53 VSTOL Air Systems may operate below the MSD in Table 8 during hovering and transition manoeuvres iaw para 109.c (4). 54 Rotary Wing Air Systems may operate below the MSD in Table 8 during hovering and transition manoeuvres iaw para 109.c (3). 55 Including planned alternate Parachute Landing Areas.



RA 2340 Supernumerary Crew, ►Supernumerary Support Crew◄ and Passengers

Rationale On occasion, ►personnel other than a military registered Air System’s Aircrew◄ are required to be employed or carried ►◄ where there is a justifiable and valid Service or Defence Contractor Flying Organization (DCFO) requirement; the scope of activity varies greatly dependent on the Air System type and the task that is being conducted. Such personnel are not necessarily trained to the same level as Aircrew, nor do they undergo the same medical screening and as such there may be additional Risk to Life (RtL) associated with the activity. To enable RtL to be managed to As Low As Reasonably Practicable (ALARP) and Tolerable, this Regulatory Article (RA) ►◄ details the regulatory framework to be applied when Supernumerary Crew, ►Supernumerary Support Crew◄ and Passengers are employed or carried on military registered Air Systems. However, due to the broad nature of the type of employment of ►these personnel◄ across the Regulated Community, this RA requires Aviation Duty Holders (ADH) and Accountable Managers (Military Flying) (AM(MF)) to provide further detail within their orders and instructions regarding the conduct of this activity in their Areas of Responsibility (AoR).


2340(1): Supernumerary Crew

►2340(2): Supernumerary Support Crew◄

2340(►3◄): Passengers - General

2340(►4◄): Routine Air Transport Passengers

2340(►5◄): Tactical Passengers

2340(►6◄): Familiarization Flight Passengers

2340(►7◄): Air Experience Flight Passengers

2340(►8◄): Carriage of VIP Passengers

2340(►9◄): Carriage of Cadets as Passengers

2340(►10◄): Carriage of Working Dogs


1. For the purpose of the authorization of flights on military registered Air Systems, the following definitions apply:

a. Aircrew. Persons authorized to conduct duties concerned with: operating or flying the Air System or; with the management of Passengers or cargo when in flight; and who are also qualified in accordance with (iaw) RA 21011.

b. Supernumerary Crew. A Supernumerary Crewmember is an individual, military or civilian, who is employed►2◄ on an Air System and authorized to carry out a specific duty (that does not require an Aircrew qualification►3◄) while in flight or ground taxiing. This specific duty is to have an active role in achieving the purpose of the authorized flight and may involve the operation of Air System equipment / systems or authorized Equipment Not Basic to the Air System (ENBAS)4 under the supervision of the Air System’s Aircrew. ►See RA 2340(1).◄

1 Refer to RA 2101 – Aircrew Qualifications. 2 ►This RA uses the term ‘employed’ on Air Systems as opposed to ‘carried’ to distinguish that Supernumerary Crew have a role on the Air System while Supernumerary Support Crew and Passengers are carried. 3 Guidance for Aircrew who do not also hold a Certificate of Qualification on Type (CQT) is contained in RA 2101(2): Entitlement to Conduct Flying Duties.◄ 4 Refer to RA 1340 – Equipment Not Basic to the Air System.



Definitions c. ►Supernumerary Support Crew. A Supernumerary Support Crewmember is an individual, military or civilian, carried on an Air System to conduct specific duties essential to the execution of the Air System’s mission or task, but not required to carry out those duties while in flight or ground taxiing. The specific duty is not to have an active role in achieving the purpose of the authorized flight but is to contribute to its overall conduct through pre or post flight activity. See RA 2340(2).◄

d. Passengers. All personnel, military or civilian, who are not authorized as the Air System’s Aircrew, ►◄ Supernumerary Crew, ►or Supernumerary Support Crew◄ for a flight are deemed to be Passengers. ►See RA2340(3).◄ Due to the broad nature of the method in which Passengers are carried, the following sub-divisions are to be used:

(1) Routine Air Transport Passengers. Those Passenger flights governed by JSP800 Defence Movement and Transport Regulations. ►See RA 2340(4).◄

(2) Tactical Passengers. Passenger flights, not governed by JSP800, where Passengers are required to fly on or in support of operations or exercises, to meet essential tasking or as essential elements of training ►(including, but not limited to, Parachutists). See RA 2340(5).◄

(3) Familiarization Flight Passengers5. A flight designed to familiarize Aircrew, who do not hold a CQT for the Air System, with the characteristics of an Air System or its systems. The Passenger is permitted to handle6 Air System controls or operate systems and occupy a crew position that routinely7 requires a CQT, provided that the Passenger is qualified Aircrew►8◄. ►See RA 2340(6).◄

(4) Air Experience Flight Passengers9. A flight designed to give the recipient airborne experience where the Passenger occupies a seat that does not demand an Aircrew occupant. Such flights can include the handling of Air System flying controls by the Passenger but are subject to greater restrictions than Familiarization Flights. ►See RA 2340(7).◄

Regulation

2340(1)

Supernumerary Crew

2340(1) ADH and AM(MF) shall publish orders that detail the requirements regarding the employment►◄ of Supernumerary Crew on military registered Air Systems within their AoR.


2340(1)

Supernumerary Crew

General

2. ►An individual, military or civilian, should be categorized and authorized as Supernumerary Crew when they are employed on an Air System and authorized to carry out a specific duty (that does not require an Aircrew qualification3) while in flight or ground taxiing, or is undergoing a recognized training course to be qualified to do so. This specific duty should have an active role in achieving the purpose of the authorized flight and may involve the operation of Air System equipment / systems or authorized ENBAS under the supervision of the Air System’s Aircrew.◄

5 For the purposes of this RA, Familiarization Flights also cover those activities often referred to as Passenger demonstration flights for industry or commercial purposes. From this point on in this RA the phrase “Familiarization Flight” will be used. 6 For the purposes of this RA, handling is the physical interaction between an individual and any Air System control that alters the Air System’s flight path, height or speed. 7 As per any applicable orders, instructions and rules such as the Air System Document Set, Release To Service, ►◄ and any wider ADH or AM(MF) orders. 8 ►Refer to RA 2101 – Aircrew Qualifications para 2. a(1), b, c, d or e.◄ 9 For the avoidance of doubt, this type of Passenger flight encompasses the carriage of Passengers of any age, whether military or civilian, Aircrew or non-Aircrew.




2340(1)

3. ADH and AM(MF) should publish orders that define the Supernumerary Crew roles within their AoR.

4. Supernumerary Crew should not be unnecessarily exposed to hazardous flight profiles.

5. ADH and AM(MF) should ensure that Supernumerary Crew are only employed on military registered Air Systems within their AoR where there is a justifiable and valid Service or DCFO10 requirement.

6. ADH and AM(MF) should publish orders or instructions that detail, as a minimum:

a. The required Supernumerary Crew qualifications and competence levels within their AoR;

b. The approval and authorization process to be followed for Supernumerary Crew to be employed on Air Systems within their AoR;

c. When Supernumerary Crew are prohibited from being employed on Air Systems within their AoR ►(they should not be employed during Simulated Instrument Flying (IF) where no Suitably Qualified Experienced Person (SQEP) safety lookout is present)11;◄

d. Restrictions on Supernumerary Crew operating Air System equipment, systems or ENBAS;

e. The minimum Aircrew qualifications, experience or currency required to operate with Supernumerary Crew;

f. Prohibited flight profiles, training events or manoeuvres for flights involving Supernumerary Crew;

g. The safety and survival drill requirements12 for Supernumerary Crew;

h. The wearing and carriage requirements12 of approved Aircrew Equipment Assemblies (AEA) and safety equipment including the level of survival equipment to be available to, or issued to, Supernumerary Crew according to the likely hazards that might be met in the event of an emergency.

7. To be authorized as Supernumerary Crew, the duty that an individual is performing on an Air System should take place while the Air System is in flight or ground taxiing. An individual whose role or duty is associated with activity pre or post-flight should not be authorized as Supernumerary Crew.

8. ►ADH and AM(MF) should detail in orders instances where Supernumerary Crew who are also appropriately qualified Aircrew8 are permitted to handle Air System flying controls, and any changes to the orders and instructions at para 6. a-e that apply. Other Supernumerary Crew should not handle Air System Flying Controls during flight or ground taxi.◄

Medical Employment Standards for Supernumerary Crew

9. ADH and AM(MF) should determine the appropriate medical standard for Supernumerary Crew within their AoR based on the activity that is being conducted.

10. ADH and AM(MF) should detail in orders the required medical standard and any anthropometric requirements for Supernumerary Crew to be employed on Air Systems within their AoR.

11. The minimum medical standard for the employment of Supernumerary Crew are:

a. Physiological Flight Categories 1 or 2 (see Annex A for definition). Military and civilian Supernumerary Crew employed on Air Systems classified as Category 1 or 2 iaw Annex A should meet the respective medical requirements listed for Category 1 and 2 Passengers at Annex A.

10 As approved under the Contractor Flying Approved Organization Scheme (Refer to RA 2501 – Contractor Flying Approved Organization Scheme). 11 ►Refer to RA 2307 – Rules of the Air.◄ 12 Refer to RA 2130 – Safety Equipment, Survival Drills and Training.




2340(1)

b. Physiological Flight Category 3 and Remotely Piloted Air Systems (RPAS) – Military. As a minimum, military Supernumerary Crew should hold a Joint Medical Employment Standard (JMES) of A4 L2 M4 E2.

c. Physiological Flight Category 3 and RPAS – Civilian. As a minimum, civilian Supernumerary Crew should meet the medical standards for a Driver and Vehicle Licensing Agency (DVLA) Group 1 Licence and complete the Civilian Supernumerary Crew Medical Self Declaration form13.

12. If any doubt exists regarding the required JMES for Supernumerary Crew within their AoR, ADH should consult with the Command Flight Medical Officer (CFMO)(RAF), SO1 Aviation Medicine (Joint Helicopter Command (JHC)) or respective Command Advisor Aviation Medicine (RN / Army); AM(MF) should consult with the CFMO(RAF).


13. Supernumerary Crew should hold a Certificate of Competence14.

14. ADH and AM(MF) should define the content of the Certificate of Competence for Supernumerary Crew within their AoR based on the activity that is being conducted.

15. ADH and AM(MF) should issue orders detailing the Supernumerary Crew competence levels required for the safe operation of Air Systems within their AoR in terms of experience, qualifications and skill sets for each Air System and role.

16. ADH and AM(MF) should issue orders that detail the format and content of the Certificate of Competence for Supernumerary Crew within their AoR.

17. The Certificate of Competence should be documented in a formal and auditable record to be determined by the ADH / AM(MF).

Guidance Material

2340(1)

Supernumerary Crew

General

18. Due to the range of activity that takes place on military registered Air Systems, ADH and AM(MF) orders will provide specific direction to their AoR as to how this RA is to be applied and define the minimum requirements to ensure that the RtL associated with the employment of Supernumerary Crew within their AoR remains ALARP and Tolerable.

Medical Employment Standards for Supernumerary Crew

19. Due to the range of activities in which Supernumerary Crew may be employed, this RA requires ADH and AM(MF) to consider the activities within their AoR in which Supernumerary Crew operate and to ascertain the correct medical and anthropometric requirements.

20. Military and civilian Aircrew holding an appropriate and valid Aircrew JMES may be employed as Supernumerary Crew without additional medical examination, subject to the anthropometric clearance required for the Air System.

21. The Medical Standard required for a DVLA Group 1 Licence is based on a 20% risk of incapacitation of the individual. Where Supernumerary Crew are likely to be employed in safety critical roles on an Air System, ADH / AM(MF) may wish to increase the minimum civilian Medical Employment Standard (MES) to DVLA Group 2 – HGV, which is based on a 2% risk of incapacitation of the individual.


22. The Supernumerary Crew Certificate of Competence will provide auditable evidence that the individual has achieved the level of competency required by ADH / AM(MF) orders to operate / be employed on the Air System.

13 This can be found on the MAA websites. 14 ►A Certificate of Competence should be issued using the same process as for Aircrew;◄ refer to RA 2102 – Aircrew Competence in Role.



Regulation

2340(2)

►Supernumerary Support Crew

2340(2) ADH and AM(MF) shall publish orders that detail the requirements regarding the carriage of Supernumerary Support Crew on military registered Air Systems within their AoR.


2340(2)

Supernumerary Support Crew

General

23. An individual, military or civilian, should be categorized and authorized as Supernumerary Support Crew when they are carried on an Air System to conduct specific duties essential to the execution of the Air System’s mission or task, but are not required to carry out those duties while in flight or ground taxiing, and are not otherwise authorized as a Passenger iaw RA 2340(3). The specific duty should not have an active role in achieving the purpose of the authorized flight but should contribute to its overall conduct through pre or post flight activity.

24. ADH and AM(MF) should publish orders that define the Supernumerary Support Crew roles within their AoR.

25. Supernumerary Support Crew should not be unnecessarily exposed to hazardous flight profiles.

26. ADH and AM(MF) should ensure that Supernumerary Support Crew are only carried on military registered Air Systems within their AoR where there is a justifiable and valid Service or DCFO10 requirement.

27. ADH and AM(MF) should publish orders or instructions that detail, as a minimum:

a. The required Supernumerary Support Crew qualifications and competence levels within their AoR;

b. The approval and authorization process to be followed for Supernumerary Support Crew to be carried on Air Systems within their AoR;

c. When Supernumerary Support Crew are prohibited from being carried on Air Systems within their AoR (they should not be carried during Simulated IF where no SQEP safety lookout is present)11;

d. The minimum Aircrew qualifications, experience or currency required to carry Supernumerary Support Crew;

e. Prohibited flight profiles, training events or manoeuvres for flights involving Supernumerary Support Crew;

f. The safety and survival drill requirements12 for Supernumerary Support Crew;

g. The wearing and carriage requirements12 of approved AEA and safety equipment including the level of survival equipment to be available to, or issued to, Supernumerary Support Crew according to the likely hazards that might be met in the event of an emergency.

28. To be authorized as Supernumerary Support Crew, the duty that an individual is performing on an Air System should not take place while the Air System is in flight or ground taxiing. An individual whose role or duty is associated with activity during flight or ground taxiing should be authorized as Supernumerary Crew iaw RA 2340(1).

29. Supernumerary Support Crew should not handle Air System flying controls during flight or ground taxi.

Approval and Authorization

30. For all Supernumerary Support Crew flights, ADH and AM(MF) should appoint approving officers iaw Annex A.

31. Approving officers should, in the first instance, assure themselves that the flight is appropriate, before approving the flight iaw Annex A.




2340(2)

32. Medical approval for the flight should:

a. Be iaw Annex A and;

b. Take into account the Supernumerary Support Crew’s anthropometric fitness for the Air System.

33. The Authorizing Officer or Aircraft Commander should seek medical advice from a Military Aviation Medical Examiner (MAME) for any Supernumerary Support Crew whose fitness is in doubt.

Physiological Flight Categories

34. Physiological flight categories for all Supernumerary Support Crew should be iaw AP1269A – Assessment of Medical Fitness and Annex A).

Guidance Material

2340(2)

Supernumerary Support Crew

General

35. Due to the range of activity that takes place on military registered Air Systems, ADH and AM(MF) orders will provide specific direction to their AoR as to how this RA is to be applied and define the minimum requirements to ensure that the RtL associated with the carriage of Supernumerary Support Crew within their AoR remains ALARP and Tolerable.◄

Regulation

2340(►3◄)

Passengers - General

2340(►3◄) ADH and AM(MF) shall publish orders that detail the requirements regarding the carriage of Passengers on military registered Air Systems within their AoR.


2340(►3◄)


General

36. ►All personnel, military or civilian, who are not authorized as the Air System’s Aircrew, Supernumerary Crew or Supernumerary Support Crew for a flight should be categorized and authorized as Passengers. Due to the broad nature of the method in which Passengers are carried, the following sub-categories should be used:

a. Routine Air Transport Passengers.

b. Tactical Passengers.

c. Familiarization Flight Passengers5.

d. Air Experience Flight Passengers9.◄

37. ADH and AM(MF) should ensure that Passengers are only carried on Air Systems within their AoR where there is a justifiable and valid Service or DCFO10 requirement.

38. Passengers should not be unnecessarily exposed to hazardous flight profiles.

39. ADH and AM(MF) orders or instructions should detail the following:

a. The application of RA 2340 ►(4), (5), (6) and (7)◄ to activity within their AoR;

b. The approval and authorization process to be followed for Passenger flights;

c. Any limitations, based on physiology, to be applied to ensure the safe carriage of passengers on Air Systems within their AoR (ie age, weight, height, anthropometrics etc);

d. Aircrew qualifications and / or experience required to fly Passengers;




2340(►3◄)

e. The prohibited flight profiles, training events or manoeuvres for flights involving Passengers within their AoR ►(they should not be carried during Simulated IF where no SQEP safety lookout is present)11;◄

f. Safety and survival drill requirements12 for Passengers;

g. The wearing and carriage requirements12 of approved AEA and safety equipment, including the level of survival equipment to be available to, or issued to Passengers according to the likely hazards that might be met in the event of an emergency;

h. Passenger approach, boarding and departure procedures.


40. For all Passenger flights, ADH and AM(MF) should appoint approving officers iaw Annex A.

41. Approving officers should, in the first instance, assure themselves that the flight is appropriate, before approving the flight iaw Annex A.

42. Medical approval for the flight should:

a. Be iaw Annex A and;

b. Take into account the Passenger’s anthropometric fitness for the Air System.

43. The Authorizing Officer or Aircraft Commander should seek medical advice from a MAME for any Passenger whose fitness is in doubt.

Physiological Flight Categories (Passenger)

44. Physiological flight categories for all Passengers should be iaw AP1269A – Assessment of Medical Fitness and Annex A.

Authority of the Aircraft Commander

45. Passengers should be made aware that, regardless of rank, they are subordinate to the Aircraft Commander and crew for the duration of the flight in all matters relating to the direction and handling of the Air System and the safety of its Passengers, crew and equipment.

Emergencies, Safety and Survival Equipment, and Briefing

46. Before any flight in military registered Air Systems, Passengers should receive a safety briefing that covers as a minimum15:

a. Air System emergencies (including ditching / ejection), safety and survival systems, methods of escape, and likely rescue methods;

b. Use of protective clothing, safety and survival equipment;

c. Forbidden items that are not to be carried or used in the Air System;

d. Baggage handling and stowage;

e. Procedures before and after flight;

f. Facilities and use of the Air System’s emergency systems and pertinent survival drills;

g. Use of switches or other controls for comfort, or for the safe operation of the Air System;

h. Loose articles and Foreign Object Damage / Debris;

i. Any other safety-critical Air System equipment and systems that they might have cause to interact with either intentionally or unintentionally;

j. Dangers of interfering with Air System controls;

15 Due to the nature of Tactical Passenger flights it may not always be possible for some Tactical Passengers to receive a full pre-flight brief. See RA 2340(►5◄) for details on reduced briefing requirements for some Tactical Passengers.




2340(►3◄)

k. Air System approach, boarding and departure procedures.

l. ►The use of Portable Electronic Devices.◄

47. Safety and survival equipment briefings should be given by Aircrew with a CQT or Certificate of Competence for the Air System, or suitably qualified survival equipment personnel. Emergency and ditching / ejection briefings should only be given by Aircrew with a valid CQT or Certificate of Competence for the Air System.

48. The Aircraft Commander should ensure that Passengers do not carry unrestrained articles that might affect the operation of Air System equipment, systems or flying controls16.

49. Authorizing Officers, Aircraft Commanders or those responsible for safety briefings should deny or withdraw Passenger approval to fly if they are not satisfied that a Passenger has fully understood the safety briefing, or that a Passenger is incapable of carrying out briefed emergency procedures.

Carriage of Passengers During Display Flying, Flypasts and Role Demonstrations

50. Passengers should not be carried during Display Flying17.

51. ADH / AM(MF) orders should detail when Passengers may be carried during Flypasts and Role Demonstrations within their AoR.

52. ADH / AM(MF) orders should detail the approval and authorization process to be followed when Passengers are carried on Flypasts and Role Demonstrations.

Boarding Procedures and Supervision for Helicopters

53. Passengers should board or depart the helicopter under the supervision of a crew member or suitably authorized personnel as detailed within ADH / AM(MF) orders.

54. Boarding procedures for helicopters should take into account rotor blade ‘sail’.

55. Aircraft Commanders should not allow Passengers beneath rotor blades while they are engaging or disengaging.

56. Passengers should not be permitted under rotating rotor blades unless authorized by the handling pilot.

57. Passengers travelling in the cabin of a helicopter should be supervised by a member of the Air System’s Aircrew. In helicopters where the cockpit is integral with the cabin, this supervisory requirement should only be relaxed at the discretion of the Authorizing Officer.

58. Passengers should be suitably secured at all times when the helicopter is moving, except when authorized by the Aircraft Commander. The Aircraft Commander should take the following into account when allowing Passengers to unstrap or move about the helicopter:

a. The security of cabin doors and hatches;

b. The availability of dispatcher harnesses and connection to a serviceable intercom system;

c. Essential mission or training requirements;

d. Poor weather, especially anticipated turbulence;

e. The ability of crew members to manage emergencies.

16 Refer to RA 2309(3): Carriage of Loose Articles and Stores; and RA 2360 – Portable Electronic Devices. 17 Refer to RA 2335 – Flying Displays, ►Display Flying, Role Demonstrations◄ and Flypasts.



Guidance Material

2340(►3◄)


General

59. ►Familiarization Flight Passengers5. The Passenger may be permitted to handle6 Air System controls or operate systems and occupy a crew position that routinely7 requires a CQT, provided that the Passenger is qualified Aircrew8.

60. Air Experience Flight Passengers9. Such flights may include the handling of Air System flying controls by the Passenger and will normally be subject to greater restrictions than Familiarization Flights.◄

61. Medical Examination. Aircrew holding a valid Aircrew JMES may fly as Passengers without additional medical examination subject to anthropometric clearance18 as required. Iaw RA 213519, consideration must be given to the relevance of their aviation medicine knowledge for the intended flight. The medical assessment and level of aviation medicine training required of all other Passengers is related to the category and frequency of flight as detailed in AP1269A and at Annex A.

Safety Responsibility for Passengers

62. The specific operational role, mission or task may dictate the level of ►safety and◄ survival equipment to be provided to Passengers as there will be occasions where the requirement for troops to wear full safety and survival equipment may not be compatible with operational effectiveness. Where ADH / AM(MF) allow levels of safety ►and survival◄ equipment to be reduced to facilitate a ‘train-as-you-fight’ approach, this activity must be specifically reflected within the Air System Safety Case iaw RA 120520.

Emergencies, Safety and Survival Equipment, and Briefing

63. Passenger Briefing Cards and Videos. Passenger Briefing Cards and video presentations may be used as an aid to Passenger briefing.

Carriage of Passengers During Display Flying, Flypasts and Role Demonstrations

64. Display Flying, Flypasts and Role Demonstrations can involve an increase in RtL over normal operating and must be managed appropriately, iaw RA 233517.

65. To provide assurance of the processes that manage this RtL, this RA prevents the carriage of Passengers during Display Flying unless MAA approval has been granted by following the AAMC / Waiver / Exemption processes described in MAA0321.

66. This RA allows ADH and AM(MF) to determine the conditions where Passengers may be carried during Flypasts and Role Demonstrations. Where an ADH and AM(MF) allows the carriage of passengers during Flypasts and Role Demonstrations, this activity must be specifically reflected within the Air System Safety Case iaw RA 120520.

Boarding Procedures and Supervision for Helicopters

67. Helicopter Safety Notice. A notice will be prominently displayed in all helicopter cabins as follows:

Figure 1. Passenger Notice.

18 Refer to RA 2130(6): Ejection Seat Anthropometrics; and RA 2135 - Aircrew Medical Requirements. 19 Refer to RA 2135 – Aircrew Medical Requirements. 20 Refer to RA 1205 – Air System Safety Cases. 21 Refer to MAA03: Military Aviation Authority Regulatory Processes.



Guidance Material

2340(►3◄)

Note:

For ►Aircraft◄ under-pinned by a civil Type Certificate, it may not be possible to affix the above notice to the Aircraft cabin. In this situation crews will ensure that a briefing card containing the information in the notice above is brought to the attention of all Passengers prior to or immediately after boarding the Aircraft.

68. Helicopter Blade Sail. In gusty or turbulent conditions some helicopter main rotors are liable to 'sail', and the effect of this has been known to make them dip low enough to hit the ground or deck. This can occur at any time, but the effect is particularly marked when the rotors are being engaged or disengaged.

Passenger Records

69. The Passenger Briefing Form13 is designed to capture the minimum details required to be recorded for Familiarization and Air Experience Flight Passenger flying. Locally produced variants of this form or local processes may be used provided they capture, as a minimum, all the details contained within the Passenger Briefing Form13 for each Passenger. While the Passenger Briefing Form13 is not mandated for Tactical Passengers, this form may be an appropriate template for Tactical Passenger flights where it is practical to complete.

Regulation

2340(►4◄)

Routine Air Transport Passengers

2340(►4◄) ADH and AM(MF) shall publish orders that detail the requirements regarding the carriage of Routine Air Transport Passengers on military registered Air Systems within their AoR.


2340(►4◄)


General

70. The Authorizing officer and Aircraft Commander should be satisfied that:

a. The requirements of JSP800 are met for Routine Air Transport Passengers;

b. The names of Routine Air Transport Passengers have been recorded and retained outwith the Aircraft for the duration of the flight iaw JSP800.

Guidance Material

2340(►4◄)


71. This regulation must be read in conjunction with RA 2340(►3◄).

Regulation

2340(►5◄)

Tactical Passengers

2340(►5◄) ADH and AM(MF) shall publish orders that detail the requirements regarding the carriage of Tactical Passengers on military registered Air Systems within their AoR.


2340(►5◄)

Tactical Passengers

General

72. ADH / AM(MF) orders should state the restrictions to be applied within their AoR when Tactical Passengers are carried.

73. Tactical Passengers should not handle Air System flying controls or operate Air System systems.

74. Tactical Passengers should not be carried during:

a. Practice emergencies;




2340(►5◄)

b. Air Combat and Evasion Training (except for dedicated Special Forces training).

75. ADH / AM(MF) orders should detail the approval and authorization process and any applicable restrictions to be applied when Tactical Passengers are carried during:

a. Test and Evaluation flying;

b. Simulated emergencies;

c. Post-Maintenance test flights;

d. Dedicated Special Forces Air Combat and Evasion Training.

Passenger Briefing

76. It might not always be possible for Tactical Passengers to receive a pre-flight brief iaw RA 2340(3)22. ADH / AM(MF) should stipulate in orders:

a. The reduced briefing requirements to be applied in such situations;

b. When the reduced briefing can be applied;

c. Who is able to conduct such briefings where Aircrew with a CQT for the Air System or suitably qualified survival equipment personnel are not present.

77. The dispensation for reduced briefings should not apply to the carriage of Cadet Forces.

78. The Aircraft Commander should ensure that Tactical Passenger briefing arrangements are in place prior to the sortie.


79. The Aircraft Commander should be satisfied that as far as practicable, Tactical Passengers:

a. Have received and understood the minimum briefing requirements stipulated by ADH / AM(MF) orders or instructions;

b. Are confirmed medically fit for the flight being undertaken iaw Annex A and their anthropometrics are within limits;

c. Who are carried as Aeromedical patients, are reviewed in advance by medical staff and deemed fit to either travel unassisted or assisted by additional Aeromedical escorts.

Passenger Records

80. Passenger Manifest. The names of all Tactical Passengers should be recorded and retained outwith the Aircraft for the duration of the flight by either:

a. The flight authorization record or on a suitable Passenger manifest13, or;

b. When Passengers are carrying out a recognized military task or essential training and it is impractical to record their details, the parent authority of the Passengers or the tasking authority for such movements should retain a list of those personnel until the flight is complete and all personnel have been accounted for.

81. The Aircraft Commander should ensure that a suitable method of recording Passenger details is in place prior to flight.

22 Such situations might include where Passengers are collected from ships, field locations or other remote areas.



Guidance Material

2340(►5◄)

Tactical Passengers


Passenger Records

83. While the Passenger Briefing Form13 is not mandated for Tactical Passengers, this form may be an appropriate template for Tactical Passenger flights where it is practical to complete before flight (ie the Passengers are collocated where the flight is commencing) to provide auditable evidence of pre-flight briefings and medical self-certification.

Regulation

2340(►6◄)

Familiarization Flight Passengers

2340(►6◄) ADH and AM(MF) shall publish orders that detail the requirements regarding the carriage of Familiarization Flight Passengers on military registered Air Systems within their AoR.


2340(►6◄)


General

84. Familiarization Flight Passengers should be Aircrew1.

85. ADH / AM(MF) orders should state the restrictions to be applied within their AoR when Familiarization Flight Passengers are carried. As a minimum, these orders should include:

a. The minimum flying qualifications, experience and skill sets required for Familiarization Passengers;

b. The training packages required for Familiarization Flight Passengers.

86. Familiarization Flights that include the handling of Air System flying controls by the Passenger should be carried out in an Air System fitted with dual controls and supervised from a control position by an appropriately qualified Aircrew Instructor.

87. Handling of an Air System’s flying controls by a Familiarization Flight Passenger should only be undertaken when the characteristics of an Air System and / or its systems cannot be adequately demonstrated in a Flight Simulator Training Device. ►ADH / AM(MF) orders should state when it is more appropriate for the characteristics of an Air System and / or its systems to be demonstrated in flight.◄

88. Familiarization Flight Passengers should not handle Air System flying controls, operate Air System systems, or occupy a CQT crew position during any of the following profiles / events23:

a. Operational tasks;

b. Practice emergencies;


89. If ADH / AM(MF) orders allows Familiarization Flight Passengers to be carried, consideration should be given as to whether it is appropriate for Familiarization Flight Passengers to handle Air System flying controls, operate Air System systems, or occupy a CQT crew position during the following profiles / events23:

a. Test and Evaluation test points;

b. When other Passengers or non-essential personnel are being carried;

c. Weaponry;

d. Simulated emergencies;

e. Air Combat and Evasion Training;

23 This list is not exhaustive and ADH / AM(MF) should provide additional detail as necessary.




2340(►6◄)

f. Low Flying;

g. Mountain flying;

h. Air Drop - personnel or stores;

i. Night flying;

j. Formation flying;

k. Hovering in confined areas;

l. Flight in Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC);

m. Take-off and landing.


90. The Authorizing Officer should confirm and indicate via signature on the Passenger Briefing Form13 that the requirements listed within the form have been completed for Familiarization Flight Passengers.

91. The Aircraft Commander should be satisfied that the Authorizing Officer has signed the Passenger Briefing Form13 for Familiarization Flight Passengers.

Passenger Records

92. The flight authorization record should be used, or a suitable Passenger manifest13 (to be retained with the flight authorization record).

93. A Passenger Briefing Form13 should be completed before flight for all Familiarization Flight Passengers, which should be retained with the flight authorization record.

Guidance Material

2340(►6◄)



Regulation

2340(►7◄)

Air Experience Flight Passengers

2340(►7◄) ADH and AM(MF) shall publish orders that detail the requirements regarding the carriage of Air Experience Flight Passengers on military registered Air Systems within their AoR.


2340(►7◄)


General

95. ADH / AM(MF) orders should state the restrictions to be applied within their AoR when Air Experience Flight Passengers are carried.

96. Air Experience Flight Passengers should only occupy a seat that does not demand an Aircrew occupant7.

97. Air Experience Flight Passengers should only handle Air System flying controls in Air Systems fitted with dual controls.

98. The following profiles / events23 should not be undertaken during flights with Air Experience Flight Passengers:

a. Operational tasks;

b. Practice emergencies;


99. Air Experience Flight Passengers should not handle Air System flying controls or operate Air System systems during the following profiles / events23:

a. Test and Evaluation test points;




2340(►7◄)

a. When other Passengers or non-essential personnel are being carried;

b. Weaponry;

c. Simulated emergencies;

d. Air Combat and Evasion Training;

e. Low flying;

f. Mountain flying;

g. Air Drop - personnel or stores;

h. Night flying;

i. Formation flying;

j. Hovering in confined areas;

k. Flight in IMC;

l. Take-off and landing.


100. The Authorizing Officer should confirm and indicate via signature on the Passenger Briefing Form13 that the requirements, as listed within the form, have been completed for Air Experience Flight Passengers.

101. The Aircraft Commander should be satisfied that the Authorizing Officer has signed the Passenger Briefing Form13 for Air Experience Flight Passengers.

Passenger Records

102. The flight authorization record should be used, or a suitable Passenger manifest13, (to be retained with the flight authorization record).

103. A Passenger Briefing Form13 should be completed before flight for all Air Experience Flight Passengers, which should be retained with the flight authorization record.

Guidance Material

2340(►7◄)



Regulation

2340(►8◄)

Carriage of VIP Passengers

2340(►8◄) ADH and AM(MF) shall publish orders that detail the requirements regarding the carriage of VIP Passengers on military registered Air Systems within their AoR.


2340(►8◄)


105. The approval of the Head of Royal Travel should be obtained before a Royal Flight is carried out in military registered Air Systems.

106. ADH and AM(MF) should take Societal Concern into account when approving the carriage of VIPs as Passengers in military registered Air Systems and:

a. Should provide guidance on persons deemed to hold VIP status24;

b. Should define the specific experience level and qualifications required by Aircraft Commanders (and other crew as applicable) before they can be considered for flying VIPs.

24 Further tri-service guidance on VIP status is in Appendix 44 to J741, Queen’s Regulations for the Royal Air Force.



Guidance Material

2340(►8◄)


107. The Head of Royal Travel is contactable via the Royal Household switchboard.

Regulation

2340(►9◄)

Carriage of Cadets as Passengers

2340(►9◄) ADH and AM(MF) shall publish orders that detail the requirements regarding the carriage of Cadet Forces as Passengers on military registered Air Systems within their AoR.


2340(►9◄)


108. Members of Cadet Forces should only fly as Passengers in military registered Air Systems provided that:

a. The cadets are conducting authorized activities;

b. The flight does not extend beyond the UK territorial boundaries or the territorial boundaries of a military airfield / unit abroad unless approved by the appropriate Commander;

c. Flights in single-engine Aircraft do not proceed over water unless within range of a suitable forced landing area;

d. Each cadet has a certificate giving:

(1) The written consent of ►their◄ parent or guardian and;

(2) For cadets still at school the written permission of the Head of School for any flying activity arranged by the school which takes place during school time.

109. The safety and duty of care arrangements for the carriage of cadets undertaken outside the Cadet HQ’s AoR should:

a. Be reflected in the orders of the relevant ADH or AM(MF);

b. Include proof of membership of the respective Cadet Force organization and proof of parental ►/ guardian◄ permission to fly;

c. Include requirements for the briefing of cadets at least as stringent as those for other Passengers;

(1) The dispensation for reduced Tactical Passenger briefings at RA 2340(5) should not be used for the carriage of cadets.

110. Arrangements for the flying of Cadet Forces with Volunteer Gliding Squadrons, Air Experience Flights25 or the Air Cadet Pilot Scheme should be iaw the detailed Cadet Force management arrangements specified by Cadet HQ and the relevant ADH or AM(MF) orders.

Passenger Records

111. A Passenger Briefing Form13, or equivalent local variant / process, should be completed for the carriage of cadets, unless the flight is classified as a Routine Air Transport flight.

Medical Standards for Cadets Carried as Air Experience Flight Passengers

112. Cadets carried as Air Experience Flight Passengers should meet the medical standards defined in ►Annex A.◄

25 This refers to specific Air Experience Units, not the type of Passenger flight.



Guidance Material

2340(►9◄)



114. For the purposes of this RA, Cadet Forces are defined as

a. The MOD-Sponsored Cadet Forces listed in JSP 81426;

b. The MOD-Recognized Youth Organizations listed in JSP 814 who have been formally recognized by the MOD through a RAF General Administrative Instruction or equivalent single-Service document.

115. Further guidance on the recognition of Cadet Forces can be found in JSP 814 and 2017DIN05-019 - Support to Non MOD-Sponsored Cadet Units and Organizations.

Regulation

2340(►10◄)

Carriage of Working Dogs

2340(►10◄) ADH and AM(MF) shall detail the requirements regarding the carriage of Working Dogs on military registered Air Systems within their AoR.


2340(►10◄)


116. In addition to the requirements of JSP800 for the movement of animals:

a. All dogs should be muzzled, restrained on a leash, and accompanied by a dog handler, while inside or in the vicinity of the Aircraft;

b. Dog handlers should occupy a rear seat in the Aircraft, with the animal restrained between their legs;

c. Aircraft Commanders should ensure that dog handlers are aware of the safe procedures for boarding and departing the Aircraft.

Guidance Material

2340(►10◄)


117. Nil.

26 JSP 814 – Policy and Regulations for MOD - Sponsored Cadet Forces.



ANNEX A - PASSENGER ►AND SUPERNUMERARY SUPPORT CREW◄ APPROVALS

Physiological Flight

Categories

1 ►(See Note 1)◄

2 3 ►(See Note 2)◄

DefinitionCabin altitude exceeding 18,000 ft; and / or rates of ascent / descent greater than 10,000 ft / min; and / or acceleration forces exceeding +4.5 g or -1 g.

All flights in ejection seat Aircraft but of lesser severity than Category 1 flights. Due to the enhanced protection afforded by its AEA, Category 2 limits for Typhoon are extended to include cabin altitudes of up to 20,000 ft with no greater than 15 mins above 18,000 ft, and acceleration forces not exceeding +7 g or -1 g.

Flight conditions less severe than Category 2 and flights in normal Passenger carrying Air Systems.

Approval for Flight: Civilian ►Personnel (See Note 3)◄

►Commanding Officers, of at least OF4 rank, who have been formally empowered to approve the carriage of civilian personnel within their AoR by ADH orders or instructions;

or,

Flight Operations post holders, who have been formally empowered to approve the carriage of civilian personnel within their AoR by AM(MF) 27 orders or instructions.◄

►Commanding Officers, of at least OF4 rank, who have been formally empowered to approve the carriage of civilian personnel within their AoR by ADH orders or instructions;

or,

Flight Operations post holders, who have been formally empowered to approve the carriage of civilian personnel within their AoR by AM(MF) 27 orders or instructions.◄

Approval for Flight: Service28 Personnel ►(See Note 3)◄

►Commanding Officers, of at least OF4 rank, who have been formally empowered to approve the carriage of Service personnel within their AoR by ADH orders or instructions;

or,

Flight Operations post holders, who have been formally empowered to approve the carriage of Service personnel within their AoR by AM(MF)27 orders or instructions.◄

►Commanding Officers, of at least OF3 rank, who have been formally empowered to approve the carriage of Service personnel within their AoR by ADH orders or instructions;

or,

Flight Operations post holders, who have been formally empowered to approve the carriage of Service personnel within their AoR by AM(MF)27 orders or instructions.◄

Medical Approval ►: Civilian and Service Personnel28◄ (See Note 4)

Occasional / Frequent ►◄ Examination/Anthropometry iaw AP1269A Lflt 3-03 Annex C.

All individuals should hold a minimum JMES of A4 L2 M4 E2, MFD or meet this equivalent standard if civilian.

Further advice on fitness and JMES can be sought from CFMO (RAF) Hd AvMed RN or CA AvMed (Army).

Occasional / Frequent ►◄ Examination / Anthropometry iaw AP1269A Lflt 3-03 Annex C.

All individuals should hold a minimum JMES of A4 L2 M4 E2, MFD or meet this equivalent standard if civilian.

Further advice on fitness and JMES can be sought from CFMO (RAF) Hd AvMed RN or CA AvMed (Army).

Medical examination is not normally required.

Familiarization Flight, ►Supernumerary Support Crew◄ and Air Experience Flight Passengers self-certify using the Passenger Briefing Form13.

Cadets carried as Air Experience Flight Passengers should meet the medical standard defined in AP1269A, Leaflet 3-03, Annex F.

If the Aircraft Commander has any doubts regarding a Passenger’s fitness to fly, a MAME should be contacted.

27 Refer to RA 1024 – Accountable Manager (Military Flying). 28 Regular and Reserve.



Notes:

1. ►The Passenger or Supernumerary Support Crew should have had the appropriate elementary practical instruction on hypoxia and the use of oxygen equipment.

2. Approval to fly and medical administration prior to flight for Routine Air Transport Passenger flights is governed by JSP800.

3. This responsibility may be delegated to an individual deemed to be suitably qualified and experienced to approve flight for passengers and Supernumerary Support Crew. Where this responsibility is delegated:

a. It should be done in writing;

b. An auditable record of the delegation should be retained with the flight authorization record;

c. ADH / AM(MF) orders or instructions should detail the process within their AoR for delegating authority to approve flight for passengers.◄

4. A Passenger who undertakes no more than one flight in a four-month period is classed as undertaking an ‘occasional’ flight whereas Passengers who exceed this frequency are classed as undertaking ‘frequent’ flights. However, in the case of Service personnel flying as Passengers to undertake an operational task, the series of flights required to complete the task might be considered a single ‘occasional’ flight. Such personnel undertaking more than one operational task of this nature in a four-month period are considered to be undertaking ‘frequent’ flying.



►This RA has been substantially re-written; for clarity no change marks are presented -

please read RA in entirety◄

RA 2345 - Aircrew Fatigue Management

Rationale Fatigue poses a well-documented risk to aviation and can significantly reduce Aircrew performance. This Regulation places limits on Aircrew maximum flying times, cockpit alert time and compulsory rest periods in order to reduce this risk to a level that is As Low As Reasonably Practicable and Tolerable.

Contents 2345(1): Management of Aircrew Fatigue

2345(2): Use of Temazepam in the Management of Work and Rest in Aircrew

Regulation

2345(1)

Management of Aircrew Fatigue

2345(1) Aviation Duty Holders (ADH) and Accountable Managers (Military Flying) (AM(MF)) shall define the maximum allowable flying hours and measures to provide for compulsory rest periods for Aircrew.


2345(1)


1. ADH and AM(MF) should define in orders the ‘crew duty day’ that is allowable for Aircrew in any 24-hour period. They should also take into account the aspects required to perform special operations and missions, and as a minimum consider:

a. Maximum flying times.

b. Cockpit alert time.

c. Standby duties.

d. Compulsory rest periods.

2. Periods of activity should alternate with compulsory rest periods. The maximum accumulated flying hours should not exceed the hours stipulated in the table below1:

Table 1. Maximum Accumulated Flying Hours.

Flying Hours Type of Air System

Single Pilot

Multi-pilot (unpressurized)

Multi-pilot (pressurized)

Per Month 90 125 150

Per Quarter 240 330 400

Per Annum 850 1200 1400

3. Supervisors should monitor and enforce the fatigue management limits and measures stated in orders.

4. Prior to their next planned duty cycle, Aircrew should make full use of opportunities to rest and avoid activity detrimental to the next crew duty period. Non-military flying and other fatiguing activities should be considered when reviewing activity prior to the next planned duty cycle.

5. ADH and AM(MF) should define in orders the procedures for granting extensions or exceptions to fatigue management limitations.

1 Table as per STANAG 3527 - Aircrew Fatigue Management.



Guidance Material

2345(1)


6. The following factors may be useful when defining Aircrew maximum flying times and compulsory rest periods:

a. The need for climatic or environmental acclimatization.

b. The type and distance of accommodation used by Aircrew from the operating base.

c. Disturbance and actual rest taken during the stand-down period.

d. The time that Aircrew arrived on duty.

e. Flying related ground activities (instructions, briefings, mission planning, simulator training etc).

f. Type of Air System (in relation to Air System performance, noise and vibration, workload and effort of the individual Aircrew).

g. Cumulative and/or split duty periods.

h. Extremes of temperature during ground operations.

i. The time taken to complete the task, delays incurred and expected (latest) landing time.

j. Trans-meridian flight.

k. Personal and social situation of individual Aircrew.

l. The fatiguing effect of non-military flying.

7. Supervisors at all levels may impose more stringent Aircrew fatigue management limits in the interests of flight safety.

Regulation

2345(2)

Use of Temazepam in the Management of Work and Rest in Aircrew

2345(2) ADH shall issue orders regarding the use of Temazepam in the management of work and rest schedules in their Area of Responsibility (AoR).


2345(2)


8. Temazepam should be prescribed and used in accordance with (iaw) AP1269A2.

9. ADH should issue orders regarding the planned use of Temazepam within their AoR in consultation with Aviation Medical Subject Matter Experts and iaw AP1269A2.

10. ADH orders should reflect that the use of Temazepam should only be considered as an adjunct and should not be considered a substitute for effective scheduling and rest patterns.

11. Aircrew should undergo a successful ground trial2 of temazepam, with the outcome recorded in their logbook, in advance of any intended use to ensure no adverse side effects are experienced.

12. Temazepam should not be taken for any longer than 5 days consecutively and should not be taken for more than a total of 20 days in a 60-day period.

13. The use of Temazepam should only be used by Aircrew in the management of work and rest on operations, operational training and route flying. Accordingly, the use of Temazepam should not be considered by Defence Contractor Flying Organizations.

2 Refer to AP1269A - Assessment of Medical Fitness, Leaflet 5-19 Annex C - Temazepam in the Management of Work and Rest in Aircrew.



Guidance Material

2345(2)


14. Military Aviation Medical Examiners may prescribe Temazepam for use by Aircrew in the management of work and rest in operational scenarios, operational training and route flying. The drug is effective in inducing sleep and leaves no residual conditions or complications when used judiciously. Its short duration of activity prevents significant accumulation in the body, and extensive testing has failed to detect any harmful effects on individuals’ performance 6 hours after ingestion. However, the use of Temazepam is an adjunct to an effective management plan for work and rest schedules, it is not a substitute.

15. Further guidance on the management and employment of Temazepam can be found in AP1269A2.






RA 2350 - ►Air System◄ Emergencies

Rationale ►Air System emergencies pose a significant Risk to Life and must be managed in a manner that reduces this risk to a level that is As Low As Reasonably Practicable and Tolerable. In order to achieve this Aircrew must use a standard set of immediate actions during an emergency situation and support these with common verbal or visual instructions.◄

Contents 2350(1): ►Air System◄ Emergencies

Regulation

2350(1)

►Air System◄ Emergencies

2350(1) Aircrew operating ►UK military Air Systems◄ shall have a thorough knowledge, appropriate to their Aircrew specialization, of the emergency procedures and drills specific to the ►Air System◄ they are operating.


2350(1)

Aircraft Emergencies

1. Emergency procedures and drills should be as detailed in the ►Air System◄ Document Set ►◄ or, for non-Release to Service ►◄ flying operations, the Military Permit to Fly ►◄ or Certificate of Usage ►◄.

2. Emergency Codewords. If the Aircraft Commander considers it probable that the Aircraft must be abandoned, or that a state of emergency exists, the following executive orders should be used:

Table 1. Emergency Codewords.

EMERGENCY CODEWORDS

MEANING OCCASION FOR USE

EJECT! EJECT! Abandon the aircraft immediately by ejection seat

When necessary to abandon the aircraft immediately

JUMP! JUMP! Abandon the aircraft immediately by parachute

As above

DITCHING! DITCHING! PREPARE FOR DITCHING!

The aircraft is about to touch down on water; take up ditching stations, and prepare to abandon the aircraft as soon as it is safe to do so

When ditching is imminent

BRACE! BRACE!

The aircraft is about to be arrested violently, prepare for the impact by locking safety harness and bracing limbs and head

By the first Pilot immediately prior to touchdown in a controlled ditching or forced landing

OXYGEN! OXYGEN!

There is reason to believe a crew member is hypoxic or about to become hypoxic. Check equipment and descend

When one crew member has reason to believe that another is displaying symptoms of hypoxia and/or his equipment is malfunctioning. (Also used air/air and ground/air.)

CUT! CUT! Operate the winch cutter thereby shearing the cable

When the helicopter winch or target towing cable has been fouled to an extent that has jeopardized the safety of the aircraft




2350(1)

ABORT! ABORT! or TAKE-OFF ABANDONED or as specified in Type SOPs

The take-off run is being abandoned

For any reason when time and circumstances permit. This executive command is never to be transmitted by the staffs of ATC, neither is it to be interpreted as an executive order from a Pilot for the barrier to be raised

BARRIER!BARRIER!BARRIER!

The airfield emergency up-wind barrier for the appropriate runway is to beraised to the fully upposition

By the Pilot if required during take-off or landing. By Officer-in-Charge of flying or his deputyor, exceptionally, by the dutyATC officer at their discretion if it is considered circumstances warrant. The action of raising the barrier is always to be accompanied by passing the message 'Barrier up' to the pilot

CABLE! CABLE!CABLE!

A cable engagement isimminent

By the Pilot if required during take-off and landing

3. Forced Landings. When a forced landing incident occurs, the Aircraft Commander, or if he is injured, the next senior uninjured member of the crew, should ensure that where it is safe to do so:

a. All ejection seats and weapons are rendered 'safe'.

b. The engine, fuel and electrical supplies are shut off.

c. Any classified equipment or material does not fall into unauthorized hands.

d. The incident is reported by the quickest means to the Commanding Officer of the nearest Service unit.

e. The ►Air System◄ is not left unguarded.

f. An Aircraft Commander of a Remotely Piloted Air System (RPAS) should comply where possible with the above, or delegate responsibility to the Post Crash Management Incident Officer ►◄.

4. When a forced landing is categorized as an accident, the Post-Crash Management Procedures detailed in the Manual of Post-Crash Management should be followed.

5. Ditching and Salvage. When an ►Air System◄ ditches and it is both safe and practical to do so, the Aircraft Commander should take every possible step to ensure the safety or to affect the salvage of his ►Air System.◄ If the alighting takes place at a distance from his operating location he should comply with the instructions contained above, as soon as possible and in so far as these may be applicable.

6. In-Flight Signals. When it is necessary to pass information between a radio inoperative aircraft and an assisting aircraft or an ATC unit, the standard in-flight visual signals and procedures, detailed in STANAG 3379►1◄, should be used. ►Aviation Duty Holder (ADH)◄ and Accountable Manager (Military Flying) (AM(MF)) should issue additional in-flight visual signals or procedures to meet individual aircraft needs but they should be consistent with, and not lead to confusion with, the signals and procedures detailed in STANAG 3379.

Guidance Material

2350(1)

►Air System◄ Emergencies

7. The details of STANAG 3379 are available to Defence Contractor Flying Organizations by request to the MAA.

1 ►Refer to STANAG 3379 In Flight Visual Signals.◄




RA 2355 - Static Line and Freefall Parachuting

Rationale Static Line and Freefall Parachuting have resulted in numerous injuries. Failure to manage the activity appropriately could result in damage to the Aircraft and increase Risk to Life (RtL) to 1st and 3rd party personnel. This Regulatory Article (RA) relates to the Aircraft's clearance to conduct the activity and must be read in conjunction with RA 11501 which covers the end to end governance of the activity. Aviation Duty Holders (ADH) and Accountable Managers (Military Flying) (AM(MF)) are to ensure Aircraft within their Area of Responsibility (AoR) are cleared for the activity and are to carefully manage the activity through specific approvals and detailed procedures.

Contents 2355(1): Approval for Static Line and Free Fall Parachuting

2355(2): Procedures for Static Line and Free Fall Parachuting

2355(3): Withdrawn – Incorporated into RA 2357

Regulation

2355(1)

Approval for Static Line and Free Fall Parachuting

2355(1) ADH and AM(MF) shall approve all Static Line and Free Fall parachuting from UK Military Registered Aircraft.


2355(1)


1. ADH or AM(MF) should only approve Static Line and Free Fall parachuting from Aircraft within their AoR that are specifically cleared for the role in the Aircraft's Release To Service (RTS) or, for non-RTS operations, the Military Permit to Fly (MPTF) or Aircraft limitations document as referenced in the Certificate of Usage (CofU)2.

2. ADH or AM(MF) Orders for non-RTS operations should specify the requirements for Static Line and Free Fall parachuting from UK Military Registered Aircraft taking account of the Tactical Air Transport (Tac AT) manuals and HQ 2 Gp Operations Manuals.

3. ADH or AM(MF) should assure that any UK Military Airborne Equipment3 (AE) used for Static Line parachuting is approved for use within the RTS of the intended Aircraft.

4. ADH or AM(MF) should ensure that any non-UK Military Static Line AE is cleared for use on Aircraft within their AoR.

5. ADH or AM(MF) should assure that any non-UK Military Free Fall AE is safe to be carried on Aircraft within their AoR.

Guidance Material

2355(1)


6. This RA relates to the Aircraft's clearance to conduct the activity and does not detail the complex RtL and safety responsibilities. These responsibilities are divided between those pertinent to aviation and those pertinent to the specific conduct of the activity and are detailed in RA 11501, which must be read in conjunction with this RA.

Regulation

2355(2)

Procedures for Static Line and Free Fall Parachuting

2355(2) ADH, AM(MF) and Commanders shall publish Orders for the conduct of all Static Line and Free Fall parachuting from Aircraft within their AoR.

1 Refer to RA 1150 - Airborne Equipment and Airborne Forces. 2 Refer to RA 1123 – Certificate of Usage for Military Registered Civil-Owned Aircraft. 3 Airborne Equipment can be split into Airborne Forces Equipment (AFE), equipment and ancillary items used to insert personnel into Drop Zones, and Aerial Delivery Equipment (ADE), equipment and ancillary items, including an Airdrop Platform where used, to deliver Cargo to Drop Zones.




2355(2)


7. The Tac AT manuals and HQ 2 Gp Operations Manuals should be used as the definitive document for all Military Static Line and Free Fall parachuting.

8. Any Military Static Line and Free Fall parachuting activity that is required to deviate from the Tac AT manuals and HQ 2 Gp Operations Manuals should be discussed with HQ 2 Gp, except Test and Evaluation conducted by an approved organization4 in accordance with (iaw) their procedures. If the deviation is associated with the procedures for the Aircraft, it should be approved by the relevant ADH or AM(MF).

9. Parachuting programmes not conducted under Tac AT Manuals and HQ 2 Gp Operations Manuals are designated Sport Parachuting. Sport Parachuting from UK Military Aircraft should be specifically approved by the appropriate ADH or AM(MF).

10. Where approved, Sport Parachuting procedures should be promulgated by ADHs, AM(MF) and Commanders.

11. All reportable occurrences should be reported iaw RA 14105.

12. All units conducting parachuting operations should ensure that the correct Notice to Airmen (NOTAM) action has been put in place for the duration of the activity.

Guidance Material

2355(2)


13. Sport Parachuting can be conducted for military purposes, eg engagement events such as air shows.

14. Where Sport Parachuting has been approved by the ADH or AM(MF) the National Governing Body procedures detailed in the British Skydiving Operations Manual may provide some guidance for orders and procedures. However, the procedures set out in the Tac AT manuals and HQ 2 Gp Operations Manuals for equivalent military parachute systems provide sound guidance on how the activity may be conducted which the ADH or AM(MF) may wish to consult prior to promulgating Sport Parachuting procedures.

Regulation

2355(3)

Procedures for Fast Roping and Abseiling

2355(3) Withdrawn – Incorporated into RA 23576.


2355(3)



Guidance Material

2355(3)



4 As recognized by the MAA. 5 Refer to RA 1410 – Occurrence Reporting and Management. 6 Refer to RA 2357 – Troop Insertions and Extraction Systems.


RA 2357 Initial Issue UNCONTROLLED COPY WHEN PRINTED Page 1 of 2

RA 2357 – Troop Insertions and Extraction Systems

Rationale The use of Troop Insertions and Extraction Systems (TIES) is conducted to generate a range of military capabilities. However, these activities may be associated with increased levels of Risk to Life (RtL). This Regulatory Article requires that Aviation Duty Holders (ADH) and Accountable Managers (Military Flying) (AM(MF)) understand the division of safety responsibilities and have robust orders and procedures in place to govern TIES activity.

Contents 2357(1): Troop Insertions and Extraction Systems Governance

Regulation

2357(1)

Troop Insertions and Extraction Systems Governance

2357(1) ADH and AM(MF) shall ensure the RtL associated with TIES is managed within their Area of Responsibility (AoR) and that safety responsibilities associated with the activity are properly defined.


2357(1)


1. The Joint Air Delivery Test and Evaluation Unit (JADTEU) should produce and maintain Digital Air Publication (DAP) 101A-1114 Troop Insertions and Extraction Systems Manual (hereafter referred to in this Regulatory Article as the DAP). This publication should set out the techniques, limitations, equipment and training to be undertaken by those units conducting TIES.

2. Where TIES activities are conducted, ADH and AM(MF) should publish orders and instructions that detail how TIES activity is to be conducted on Aircraft within their AoR.

3. TIES activity should be conducted in accordance with (iaw) the DAP, the relevant Air System Document Set or, for non-Release To Service flying operations, the Military Permit To Fly or Contractors Flight Limitations Document and applicable ADH/AM(MF) orders and instructions.

4. Any deviation from the DAP should be discussed with JADTEU. If the deviation is associated with activity on the Aircraft, it should be approved by the relevant ADH or AM(MF).

5. Where TIES activity is conducted within their AoR, ADH and AM(MF) should ensure that this activity is specifically included within the Air System Safety Case (ASSC) iaw RA 12051. The ASSC should define the boundaries of safety responsibility between the ADH/AM(MF) and any ADH-Facing Organizations (such as the persons’ Chain of Command) conducting the TIES activity.

6. The Chain of Command of the person(s) conducting TIES activity, as an ADH-Facing Organization, should ensure (through their Duty of Care responsibilities) that the person(s) are fully trained, competent, current, suitably equipped and fit to conduct the TIES activity iaw the DAP and any additional requirements stated in ADH/AM(MF) orders and instructions.

ADH/AM(MF) Orders and Instructions

7. Where TIES activities are conducted within their AoR, ADH and AM(MF) should publish orders and instructions that detail, as a minimum2:

a. The required Aircrew and Supernumerary Crew qualifications and competence levels required to conduct TIES within their AoR;

b. Aircrew and Supernumerary Crew training requirements prior to the conduct of TIES activity on Aircraft in their AoR;

1 Refer to RA 1205 - Air System Safety Cases. 2 This list is not exhaustive and ADH/AM(MF) should provide additional detail as necessary.


Page 2 of 2 UNCONTROLLED COPY WHEN PRINTED RA 2357 Initial Issue


2357(1)

c. The approval and authorization process to be followed for TIES activity on Aircraft within their AoR;

d. Restrictions or prohibited flight profiles, training events or manoeuvres for flights involving TIES;

e. The minimum Aircrew qualifications, experience or currency requirements to conduct TIES activity on Aircraft within their AoR;

f. The safety and survival drill requirements for TIES activity on Aircraft within their AoR;

g. The wearing and carriage requirements of approved Aircrew Equipment Assemblies (AEA) and Safety Equipment during TIES activity;

h. Training and operating requirements for ADH-Facing Organizations.

TIES Accident and Incident Reporting

8. TIES accidents or incidents should be reported iaw RA 14103. Consideration should also be given to reporting under the respective single-service reporting mechanisms iaw JSP 3754.

Guidance Material

2357(1)


9. Safety responsibilities for TIES are divided between those pertinent to aviation and those pertinent to the specific conduct of the activity. For example, there are responsibilities regarding on-Aircraft safety and the air-delivery of personnel to within safe navigation parameters etc that would routinely be the responsibility of the ADH or AM(MF). Similarly, there are responsibilities regarding personnel and equipment, such as fitness and training etc that would be the responsibility of the Commander who holds Duty of Care responsibility for the personnel undertaking the specific activity.

10. Where TIES is conducted on Aircraft within their AoR, ADH and AM(MF) orders and instructions will have robust procedures and processes for the management of the RtL associated with the activity but also how the ADH-Facing/Duty of Care responsibilities of ground commanders or other organizations involved with the activity are to be conducted. Both the ADH (or AM(MF)) and the Commander will understand the division of responsibilities prior to conducting the activity.

11. For the purposes of this RA, TIES include the following techniques:

a. Fast Roping;

b. Abseiling from helicopters;

c. Deplaning Rope Descender;

d. Ladder Troop Extraction Systems, and;

e. Rope Troop Extraction Systems.

3 Refer to RA 1410 – Occurrence Reporting and Management. 4 Refer to JSP 375 - Management of Health and Safety in Defence.



RA 2360 - Portable Electronic Devices

Rationale ►Portable electronic devices (PED) are portable information systems or devices with or without the capability of wireless local area network (WLAN) or wireless personal area network (WPAN) connectivity. These include, but are not limited to, mobile telephones, pagers, personal digital assistants, laptops, memory sticks, thumb drives, and two-way radios. PED may interfere with Air Systems by means of electro-magnetic interference or battery pack fire. Consequently carriage and operation of PED within UK military Air Systems needs to be controlled.◄

Contents 2360(1): Portable Electronic Devices

Regulation

2360(1)

Portable Electronic Devices

2360(1) Aviation Duty Holders ►(ADH)◄ and Accountable Managers (Military Flying) (AM(MF)) shall publish orders for the carriage and operation of PED in or near ►Air Systems,◄ or Remotely Piloted Air System (RPAS) ►Remote Pilot Stations (RPS),◄ within their Area of Responsibility (AoR).


2360(1)


Operation of Intentionally Transmitting PED

1. All PED that are known, or suspected, to intentionally transmit radio frequencies should be switched off for the entire duration of the flight, including start and shut down periods. This prohibition does not apply to intentionally transmitting PED that have been specifically cleared for use by the appropriate Type Airworthiness Authority (TAA) or Release to Service Authority (RTSA) or, for non-RTS flying operations, are included in the Military Permit to Fly (MPTF) or Certificate of Usage (CofU).

Operation of Unintentionally Transmitting PED

2. All other PED may be classed as unintentionally transmitting, and should not be used in the following phases of flight (as a minimum): taxi, take-off, approach, landing, fuelling and arming operations, during mission critical stages and during abnormal or emergency conditions. These restrictions do not apply to unintentionally transmitting PED that have been specifically cleared for use by the appropriate TAA or RTSA or, for non-RTS flying operations, are included in the MPTF or CofU. Prohibition should also be applied in the vicinity of RPAS and RPAS ►RPS◄ where vulnerability is identified.

Guidance Material

2360(1)


Operation of Intentionally Transmitting PED

3. Examples of intentionally transmitting PED include:

a. Cell phones (cellular, portable or mobile phones), personal computer equipment with cellular network devices, two-way pagers, satellite phones and two-way radios.

b. Personal computer equipment with ►◄ WLAN or ►◄ WPAN devices, radio transmitters and remote control equipment.

Operation of Unintentionally Transmitting PED

4. Examples of unintentionally transmitting PED include:

a. Personal computing equipment (with any intentional transmitting function disabled), radio receivers and ►Global Positioning Systems.◄

b. Audio and video equipment, electronic games, time measuring equipment and medical equipment.



Guidance Material

2360(1)

Operation of Negligible Transmitters

5. Certain items of unintentionally transmitting PED, eg implanted medical devices, time measuring equipment or permitted medical equipment are of sufficiently low power that they may be regarded as negligible transmitters and therefore not subject to these restrictions. In cases where it is impossible or unreasonable to request the device be switched off for critical phases of flight, and where doubt exists about the whether or not a device constitutes 'negligible' power status, advice may be sought from the appropriate TAA or RTSA.



RA 2370 – Test and Evaluation

Rationale Test and Evaluation (T&E) activity provides evidence that is used to support the Air System Safety Case (ASSC►1◄). The Risks to Life (RtL) associated with this activity are two-fold: firstly the process of evidence gathering has the potential to present a greater RtL than that associated with the routine operating environment, and secondly the generation of flawed evidence may negatively impact on the subsequent ASSC. Therefore T&E activity, and the associated evidence-generation, needs to be conducted and supervised by approved organizations and Suitably Qualified and Experienced Person (SQEP).

Contents Applicability of this RA

2370(1): Test and Evaluation Governance

2370(2): Test and Evaluation Personnel

2370(3): Test and Evaluation Activity

Applicability Applicability of this RA

1. The T&E activities covered by this Regulatory Article are defined as flights, ground taxi, ground runs and / or other on-Air System assessments that generate evidence in support of the ASSC►1◄.

Regulation

2370(1)

Test and Evaluation Governance

2370(1) T&E activity shall be subject to governance by SQEP.


2370(1)


2. Endorsement.

a. Aviation Duty Holders (ADH), ►Remotely Piloted Air Systems (RPAS) Duty Holders (RPAS DH),◄ Accountable Managers (Military Flying) (AM(MF)), or ►RPAS Accountable Managers (RPAS AM)◄ who manage or conduct T&E activity should be endorsed by the Military Aviation Authority (MAA)2.

b. When not themselves T&E SQEP; ADH, ►RPAS DH,◄ AM(MF), ►or RPAS AM◄ should appoint SQEP to oversee T&E activity. In these cases ADH, ►RPAS DH,◄ AM(MF), ►or RPAS AM◄ should provide evidence of said individual’s SQEP when submitting their application for endorsement by the MAA2 and note that accountability remains with the endorsed ADH, ►RPAS DH,◄ AM(MF), ►or RPAS AM.◄

c. ADH-Facing organizations that manage or conduct T&E activity should do so in accordance with (iaw) RA 10203 and RA 12054.

3. Nomination of Units and organizations. ADH, ►RPAS DH,◄ AM(MF), ►or RPAS AM◄ should:

a. Nominate Units and organizations for T&E activity and its associated T&E category iaw the endorsement issued by the MAA.

b. Nominate SQEP5 for T&E activity.

4. Approval of T&E activity. ADH, ►RPAS DH,◄ AM(MF), ►or RPAS AM◄ should:

a. Detail in orders the manner in which T&E activity is to be approved as follows:

1 ►The means by which the ASSC is satisfied for RPAS operating in the Open Category and Specific S1 sub-category is detailed at RA 1601 - Remotely Piloted Air Systems Open A1 sub-category (Fly ‘Over’ People), RA 1602 – Remotely Piloted Air Systems Open A2 sub-category (Fly ‘Close To’ People), RA 1603 – Remotely Piloted Air Systems Open A3 sub-category (Fly ‘Far From’ People) and RA 1604 – Remotely Piloted Air Systems Specific S1 sub-category. 2 The T&E Endorsement application form is available on the MAA’s website.◄ 3 Refer to RA 1020 – ►Aviation Duty Holder and Aviation Duty Holder–Facing Organizations - Roles and Responsibilities.◄ 4 Refer to RA 1205 – Air System Safety Cases. 5 ►iaw◄ Annexes ►A◄, B and C.




2370(1)

(1) The scope of involvement of the ADH, ►RPAS DH,◄ AM(MF), ►or RPAS AM◄ in the approval process.

(2) The composition and competency of the Approval Board, which is to be SQEP for the activity being conducted, include minimum T&E qualifications iaw Annexes B ►and C◄ and include representatives from the following areas as appropriate: Design Organization, T&E, Continuing Airworthiness, Type Airworthiness and flight operations.

(3) The categorization of T&E activity.

b. Detail in orders the process for allocating T&E activity to specific Units or organizations.

5. T&E Approval Board. The Approval Board should:

a. Approve T&E activity on behalf of the ADH, ►RPAS DH,◄ AM(MF), ►or RPAS AM.◄

b. Examine each trial before planning commences and endorse the proposed T&E categorization.

c. Ensure that those designing, planning, supervising and conducting T&E activity are SQEP.

d. Ensure that the trial design is capable of generating the appropriate level and fidelity of evidence.

e. ►Ensure that, for RPAS T&E, the trial design remains within the scope of the MAA RPAS Letter of Categorization (LEC).◄

6. Combined Test Teams (CTT). CTT should operate under the governance of a single clearly identifiable ADH, ►RPAS DH,◄ AM(MF), ►or RPAS AM◄ and within the boundaries of a governance arrangement agreed by all relevant participants / stakeholders (eg T&E Organizations, Design Organization, ►Delivery◄ Team).

7. ►Open Category and Specific S1 sub-category RPAS T&E. All T&E on RPAS operating in the Open Category and Specific S1 sub-category should be conducted under the authority of a RPAS DH / RPAS AM and supported by appropriate persons6. The RPAS DH / RPAS AM should ensure that the RPAS has been appropriately evaluated by SQEP for basic Airworthiness requirements7, that it is “Safe to Operate” in the Defence Air Environment (DAE) and can be registered iaw RA 11618.◄

Guidance Material

2370(1)


8. ADH-Facing organizations. To ensure that evidence generated in support of the ASSC is reliable, ADH-Facing organizations that manage or conduct T&E activity may wish to consider adopting the processes described in this Regulation.

9. RPAS categorization►9◄. RPAS T&E activity may warrant a different RPAS ►categorization◄ to the eventual, envisaged or in-use RPAS categorization. The scope of any T&E activity will be considered during the ►RPAS◄ categorization process. ►Where the proposed T&E activity is outside the scope of an extant MAA RPAS LEC, a new RPAS Categorization Submission and corresponding LEC will be required.◄

6 ►This explicitly includes the requirement for a RPAS DH / RPAS AM for T&E activities on Sub 250 g RPAS operating in the Open Category. Refer to RA 1601, RA 1602, RA 1603 and RA 1604 for the responsibilities of the RPAS DH / RPAS AM and supporting appropriate persons. 7 For Open Category and Specific S1 sub-category RPAS this would normally be achieved through endorsement of the manufacturer by the Defence Equipment and Support (DE&S) Unmanned Air System Team (UAST) Type Airworthiness Authority (TAA); refer to RA 1601, RA 1602, RA 1603 and RA 1604. This RA 2370 derogation allows the RPAS DH / RPAS AM to ensure the basic Airworthiness of an RPAS in the early stages of experimentation and development via another route, appropriate to the context of the Air System and T&E activity to be undertaken. 8 Refer to RA 1161 – Military Registration of Air Systems Operating within the Defence Air Environment. 9 Refer to RA 1600 – Remotely Piloted Air Systems.◄



Regulation

2370(2)

Test and Evaluation Personnel

2370(2) T&E activity shall only be designed, planned, supervised and conducted by SQEP.


2370(2)


10. ADH, ►RPAS DH,◄ AM(MF), ►or RPAS AM◄ should detail in orders the T&E competencies required of those designing, supervising and conducting T&E across the T&E categories. These T&E competencies should meet or exceed the minimum qualification requirements5 and include appropriate experience in the following:

a. Test programme management, risk management and T&E governance.

b. The planning, conduct and reporting of T&E activity.

c. The intended functionality of the Air System and / or the system under test.

d. The application of relevant test techniques.

11. ADH, ►RPAS DH,◄ AM(MF), ►or RPAS AM◄ should record evidence of T&E competencies (including training, qualifications, and experience) and T&E currency.

Guidance Material

2370(2)


12. Nil.

Regulation

2370(3)

Test and Evaluation Activity

2370(3) ADH, ►RPAS DH,◄ AM(MF), ►or RPAS AM◄ shall issue orders detailing the governance, categorization, planning, conduct and reporting of T&E activity.


2370(3)


13. T&E categorization. ADH, ►RPAS DH,◄ AM(MF), ►or RPAS AM◄ should categorize T&E activity as follows:

a. Cat 1. Experimental / Developmental T&E.

b. Cat 2. Flight Safety-critical T&E.

c. Cat 3. Production T&E.

d. Cat 4. Non-Flight Safety-critical T&E.

e. Cat 5. Operational T&E.

14. T&E documentation. ADH, ►RPAS DH,◄ AM(MF), ►or RPAS AM◄ should detail in orders the processes for determining:

a. T&E objectives.

b. Hazard identification and risk management processes specific to T&E.

c. Test plans, flight test cards, post-flight reports and trial reports.

d. Ground, simulator and air trials specific training.

e. Specific currency requirements for the T&E activity.

f. Additional / specific safety and survival training requirements.

g. Any T&E specific procedures for engineering and flight line personnel.

h. SQEP to approve, supervise, plan and conduct T&E activity.

i. SQEP to author and release trials reports.



Guidance Material

2370(3)


15. Determination of T&E objectives. When formulating test plans containing the T&E objectives, ADH, ►RPAS DH,◄ AM(MF), ►or RPAS AM◄ may refer to the Integrated Test and Evaluation Acceptance Plan.

16. Categorizing T&E activity. Advice for Contractor Flying Approved Organization Scheme (CFAOS) and MOD units and organizations is available from ►the◄ Air ►and Space◄ Warfare Centre (►ASWC◄) or the Maritime Warfare Centre.

17. T&E categories. The following provides guidance for determining the category of T&E Activity:

a. Cat 1. Experimental / Developmental T&E. T&E that expands the flight envelope, extends the flight limitations or develops the handling techniques of an Air System. This entails operations outside, or to the limits of, existing temporary or proposed airworthiness and flight limitations of the Air System. It may include, but is not exclusive to, assessment of:

(1) Initial flight or significantly modified Air Systems.

(2) Changes in flight characteristics or flight envelope definition or expansion.

(3) Novel or unusual design, features or techniques.

(4) Changes to handling qualities of an Air System that might include changes to visual references, flight instruments and symbology, flying controls, flying control systems, Air System performance, external stores and weapons carriage / release / jettison and underslung loads.

b. Cat 2. Flight Safety-critical T&E. T&E that is conducted on a production standard Air System that provides evidence for an airworthiness clearance of Flight Safety-critical systems. This will entail operating to the limits of existing, temporary or proposed airworthiness and flight limitations of the Air System. It may include, but is not exclusive to, assessment of:

(1) Communications systems.

(2) Navigation systems.

(3) Sensors that affect Flight Safety.

(4) Weapon integration.

(5) Collision avoidance systems.

(6) Secondary role systems.

c. Cat 3. Production T&E. This may be referred to as post-manufacture test flying or post-factory flight test. This activity assures the production standard of a newly built Air System and / or associated systems that have been newly installed; this activity is not Maintenance test flying. ►Production T&E may not be required for all RPAS, particularly those of smaller physical attributes and / or complexity.◄

d. Cat 4. Non-Flight Safety-critical T&E. Assessment of new systems or software whose operation ►is not considered Flight Safety-critical◄, but which requires T&E activity for clearance. Flying conducted by an Air System to facilitate the testing of a system with which it would not normally be fitted in order to assess that system in the airborne environment. It may include, but is not exclusive to, assessment of:

(1) New cabin installations.

(2) Passenger radio systems.

(3) Mission system software.

(4) Aircrew Equipment Assemblies.



Guidance Material

2370(3)

e. Cat 5. Operational T&E. T&E aimed at determining the performance or effectiveness of an Air System’s non-Flight Safety-critical systems / software and developing or ensuring the validity of tactics, techniques and procedures of the Air System and associated doctrine, ►where they affect the ASSC.◄ It is normally carried out within the limits of existing or temporary Airworthiness limitations of the Air System. It may include, but is not exclusive to, assessment or development of the following:

(1) Tactics, Techniques and Procedures. ►◄

(2) Weapon effectiveness.

(3) The operational employment of mission systems.

18. Trials supervisors. Trial supervisors are responsible to the endorsed ADH, ►RPAS DH,◄ AM(MF), ►or RPAS AM◄ for ensuring that T&E Activity is carried out safely iaw the direction of the T&E Approvals Board. They are not required to be flying supervisors or authorisers.



►This Annex has been substantially re-written; for clarity no change marks are presented - please read Annex in entirety◄

ANNEX A

T&E QUALIFICATIONS

1. The T&E qualifications used in Annexes B and C are defined below:

Qualification Description

Class A Test Pilot (TP) Long Course Test Pilot graduate of Empire Test Pilot School (ETPS), United States Navy Test Pilot School (USNTPS), United States Air Force Test Pilot School (USAF TPS), L’Ecole du Personnel Navigant d’Essais et de Reception (EPNER) or an equivalent course that is approved and assured by ASWC on behalf of the Air T&E ADH or AM(MF).

Class B TP Short Course Test Pilot graduate of ETPS or EPNER or an equivalent course that is approved and assured by ASWC on behalf of the Air T&E ADH or AM(MF).

Class A Flight Test Engineer (FTE)

Long Course Flight Test Engineer graduate of ETPS, USNTPS, USAF TPS, EPNER or an equivalent course that is approved and assured by ASWC on behalf of the Air T&E ADH or AM(MF).

Class B FTE Short Course Flight Test Engineer graduate of ETPS or EPNER or an equivalent course that is approved and assured by ASWC on behalf of the Air T&E ADH or AM(MF).

Qualified AeroSystems (QAS) Graduate of the ASWC AeroSystems Course or an equivalent course that is approved and assured by ASWC on behalf of the Air T&E ADH, RPAS DH, AM(MF) or RPAS AM.

Evaluator Aircrew (EA) Aircrew who have successfully completed a dedicated training course that includes the competencies listed at paragraph 10 and who are deemed SQEP and are authorised to participate in T&E by the ADH, RPAS DH, AM(MF) or RPAS AM.

Production Pilot Aircrew approved as SQEP, competent and endorsed by the ADH, RPAS DH, AM(MF) or RPAS AM to conduct Production T&E.

2. Hierarchy. For the purposes of Annexes B and C, when determining SQEP minima the qualification hierarchy is (in descending order): Class A TP / FTE, Class B TP / FTE, QAS, EA and Production Pilot.



ANNEX B

T&E CATEGORIES AND MINIMUM QUALIFICATION REQUIREMENTS FOR MANNED AIR SYSTEMS

T&E Category

T&E Activity Description

Minimum DDH ►, AM(MF)◄ or

CFAOS Post Holder Qualification

T&E Approval Board Qualification (Minimum one per Approval Board)

Trial Supervisor

Qualification

Aircrew Qualification (Minimum one per Air System Crew)

CAT 1Experimental /

Developmental T&EClass A ►TP◄

/ ►Class A FTE◄Class A TP /

►Class A◄ FTEClass A TP /

►Class A◄ FTEClass A TP

CAT 2 Flight Safety-critical T&EClass B TP

/►Class B◄ FTEClass B TP /

►Class B◄ FTEClass B TP /

►Class B◄ FTE

If pilot workload or HMI assessment required:

Class B TP. For all else: ►EA◄

CAT 3 Production T&E N/A N/A N/A Production Pilot

CAT 4 Non-Flight Safety-critical T&E NilClass B TP

/►Class B◄ FTEEA EA

CAT 5 Operational T&E Nil ►QAS◄ EA EA

►◄



►This Annex has been substantially re-written; for clarity no change marks are presented - please read Annex in entirety◄

ANNEX C

T&E CATEGORIES AND MINIMUM QUALIFICATION REQUIREMENTS FOR RPAS

Table 1. RPAS operating in the Certified Category.

T&E Category


Minimum DDH, AM(MF) or


T&E Approval Board Qualification

(Minimum one per Approval Board)

Trial Supervisor

Qualification


CAT 1Experimental /

Developmental T&EClass A TP / Class A

FTEClass A TP / Class A

FTEClass A TP / Class A

FTEClass A TP

CAT 2 Flight Safety-critical T&EClass B TP / Class B

FTEClass B TP / Class B


FTE1

If aircrew workload or HMI assessment required:

Class B TP1. For all else: EA


CAT 4 Non-Flight Safety-critical T&E NilClass B TP / Class B

FTEEA EA

CAT 5 Operational T&E Nil QAS EA EA

Note:

1. Where appropriate for the nature of the T&E activity being conducted, the T&E Approval Board may approve lesser qualification requirements for the Trials Supervisor (but not below QAS) and Aircrew (but not below EA) on Cat 2 trials. The argument for using this clause should be articulated within the ASSC and the T&E Approval Board should notify the MAA with a summary of the decision at least 14 days prior to the T&E activity commencing. Contact: [email protected], copied to [email protected].





Table 2. RPAS operating in the Specific S2 sub-category.

T&E Category


Minimum DDH, AM(MF) or




Trial Supervisor

Qualification


CAT 1Experimental /

Developmental T&ENil

Class B TP / Class B FTE

Class B TP / Class B FTE1 Class B TP1

CAT 2 Flight Safety-critical T&E NilClass B TP / Class B


FTE1

If aircrew workload or HMI assessment required:

Class B TP1. For all else: EA


CAT 4 Non-Flight Safety-critical T&E NilClass B TP / Class B

FTEEA EA

CAT 5 Operational T&E Nil QAS EA EA

Note:

1. Where appropriate for the nature of the T&E activity being conducted, the T&E Approval Board may approve lesser qualification requirements for the Trials Supervisor (but not below QAS) and Aircrew (but not below EA) on Cat 1 and Cat 2 trials. The argument for using this clause should be articulated within the ASSC and the T&E Approval Board should notify the MAA with a summary of the decision at least 14 days prior to the T&E activity commencing. Contact: [email protected], copied to [email protected].





Table 3. RPAS operating in the Specific S1 sub-category.

T&E Category


Minimum RPAS DH / RPAS AM or

CFAOS(BR) Post Holder Qualification



Trial Supervisor

Qualification

Remote Pilot (RP) Qualification (Minimum one per Air

System Crew)

CAT 1Experimental /

Developmental T&ENil QAS QAS EA

CAT 2 Flight Safety-critical T&E Nil QAS QAS EA


CAT 4None-Flight Safety-critical

T&ENil QAS EA EA1

CAT 5 Operational T&E Nil QAS EA EA1

Note:

1. For Cat 4 and Cat 5 T&E, the minimum T&E qualification may be held by another individual, other than the RP, who is directly supporting the RP in the operation of the RPAS. The T&E qualified individual should be empowered to influence the conduct of the T&E activity, whilst recognising the authority of the RP, akin to a crew member on a manned Air System or a multi-crew RPAS.



Table 4. RPAS operating in the Open Category.

T&E Category


Minimum RPAS DH / RPAS AM or

CFAOS(BR) Post Holder Qualification



Trial Supervisor

Qualification

RP Qualification (Minimum one per Air

System Crew)

CAT 1Experimental /

Developmental T&ENil QAS EA EA

CAT 2 Flight Safety-critical T&E Nil QAS EA EA


CAT 4 Non-Flight Safety-critical T&E Nil QAS EA EA1

CAT 5 Operational T&E Nil QAS EA EA1

Note:

1. For Cat 4 and Cat 5 T&E, the minimum T&E qualification may be held by another individual, other than the RP, who is directly supporting the RP in the operation of the RPAS. The T&E qualified individual should be empowered to influence the conduct of the T&E activity, whilst recognising the authority of the RP, akin to a crew member on a manned Air System or a multi-crew RPAS.






►This RA has been substantially re-written; for clarity no change marks are presented – please read RA in its entirety◄

RA 2375 – Qualification, Approval and Use of Flight Simulator Training Devices

Rationale Flight Simulation Training Devices (FSTD) are used across the Defence Air Environment as preparation, or substitution, for live flying. FSTD that misrepresent the real behaviour, performance or have significant material differences to the associated Air System could jeopardize the safe operation of the live Air System and increase Risk to Life (RtL). This RA requires Senior Responsible Owners (SRO), Aviation Duty Holders (ADH) and Accountable Managers (Military Flying) (AM(MF)) to ensure that FSTD within their Area of Responsibility (AoR) are appropriately qualified, fit for purpose for the approved use and ensure that they do not jeopardize the safe operation of the live Air System, or at least understand where it could.


2375(1): Qualification of Flight Simulator Training Devices

2375(2): Approval of Flight Simulator Training Devices

2375(3): Use of Flight Simulator Training Devices


1. For the purposes of this RA, the following definitions apply. The definitions intentionally align with civilian terminology, amended to suit military application where appropriate, to allow industry partners to apply recognized civilian standards where military standards are not codified or readily available.

2. Flight Simulation Training Device (FSTD). Is categorized as a device which is a Full Flight Simulator, a Flight Training Device, a Flight and Navigation Procedures Trainer, or a Basic Instrument Training Device.

a. Full Flight Simulator (FFS). Means a full-size replica of a specific Air Systems flight deck/cockpit, including the assemblage of all equipment and computer programmes necessary to represent the Air System in ground and flight operations, a visual system providing an out of the flight deck/cockpit view and a force cueing motion system.

b. Flight Training Device (FTD). Means a full-size replica of a specific Air Systems instruments, equipment, panels and controls in an open flight deck/cockpit area or an enclosed flight deck/cockpit, including the assemblage of equipment and computer software programmes necessary to represent the Air System in ground and flight operations to the extent of the systems installed in the device. It does not require a force cueing motion or visual system.

c. Flight and Navigation Procedures Trainer (FNPT). Means a training device which represents the flight deck, cockpit environment, Rear Crew Trainer (RCT) or other crew station that may, or may not, be linked to a FFS or FTD for whole crew training, including the assemblage of equipment and computer programmes necessary to represent an Air System in flight operations to the extent that the systems appear to function as they would in the live Air System. Where civilian standards have been used to aid Qualification any reference to a flight deck or cockpit is also applicable to a RCT or other crew work station.

d. Basic Instrument Training Device (BITD). Means a ground-based training device which represents the student pilot’s station of an Air System. It may use screen-based instrument panels and spring-loaded flight controls, providing a training platform for at least the procedural aspects of instrument flight.



Definitions 3. Other Training Device (OTD). Means a training aid other than an FSTD which facilitates training where a complete flight deck/cockpit environment is not necessary.

4. Qualification Test Guide (QTG). Means a document designed to demonstrate that the performance, handling qualities and synthetic environment of an FSTD, including mission systems, are within prescribed limits and that all applicable requirements have been met. The QTG includes both the flight data from the Air System and data from the FSTD used to support the validation. The QTG may be part of a wider set of compliance demonstration documentation designed to demonstrate all aspects of the device against its requirements.

5. Master QTG. Means document designed to demonstrate that the performance, handling qualities and synthetic environment of an FSTD, including mission systems, are within the prescribed limits from the agreed baseline QTG results. It is derived from the QTG but may include only the minimum objective and subjective tests to assure the continued performance of the FSTD.

6. Qualification Statement. Means a top-level statement developed, managed and owned by the SRO, Operational Duty Holder (ODH) or AM(MF) on completion of the Qualification Process detailed at para 9.

7. FSTD Operator. Means the contracted organization responsible for the provision of the FSTD or OTD, availability, maintenance and testing. This may be different to the original manufacturer and any third party that provides instructional services.

Regulation

2375(1)

Qualification of Flight Simulator Training Devices

2375(1) The SRO1 shall ensure that the FSTD2 within their AoR are Qualified for their intended use.


2375(1)


8. The SRO should own, develop and manage a Qualification Statement for all FSTD that are categorized as an FFS or FTD within their AoR that are to be used for the preparation, or substitution, for live sorties subject to the following:

a. A Qualification Statement should have a single owner at any one time.

b. For new Air Systems that requires an FSTD, the SRO should own the Qualification Statement until transfer of the device to the ODH or AM(MF).

c. For In-Service Air Systems that require a new FSTD or modification of an existing FSTD, the SRO should own, develop and manage the Qualification Statement throughout1.

d. Transfer of ownership of the Qualification Statement from the SRO to ODH or AM(MF) should take place before any routine In-Service employment of the FSTD. Where the FSTD is being used to train ahead of Air System delivery the SRO may retain ownership of the Qualification Statement until the Air System is accepted into Service.

9. For all other categories of FSTD or OTD3 within their AoR, the SRO should own, develop and manage a Qualification Statement, in accordance with (iaw) para 8 if the device is used to:

a. Support claims made in the Air System Safety Case (ASSC)4;

b. To claim training credit;

c. To claim currency.

1 Where an SRO is not appointed the ODH, AM(MF) or In-Service Capability Manager, on behalf of the ODH or AM(MF), shall fulfil this responsibility, ie In-Service modification where an SRO is not appointed or Contractor Flying Approved Organization Scheme (CFAOS) organizations. 2 Where multiple devices of the same specification exist, they will need to be individually assessed and qualified. 3 Where an OTD is required to be qualified any relevant reference to an FSTD is to be applied to the OTD throughout the entire RA. 4 Refer to RA 1205 - Air System Safety Cases.




2375(1)

10. The Qualification Statement should be produced on completion of the Qualification Process detailed below, which is also depicted pictorially at Annex A:

a. The SRO should:

(1) Define the category of device required;

(2) Define the intended use of the device, including any specific military or training tasks that may be performed in addition to, or are different to, that of an equivalent type of civilian Air System;

(3) Define the desired training output and what level of fidelity is required for each training objective, including any environmental considerations;

(4) Ensure, where possible, that the Air System or Commodity Delivery Team Leader contracts the device manufacturer to use the Air System Design Organizations flight data5 and any available flight test data to achieve the required fidelity levels;

(5) Assure that the Air System or Commodity Delivery Team Leader contracts the device manufacturer to apply the appropriate design standards for FSTD6;

(6) Ensure that a QTG is produced by the FSTD Operator, in consultation with Test and Evaluation (T&E) Suitably Qualified and Experienced Person (SQEP), that demonstrates compliance against the performance and tolerance criteria that has been agreed by the SRO. This should include any objective and subjective tests that are required to evaluate specific military tasks and capabilities.

b. The QTG should:

(1) Be provided to the evaluating organization to form part of their evaluation and support their statement of material differences and RtL assessment;

(2) Prescribe desired performance criteria and tolerances for assessment.

c. Where the military Air System is based on a civilian Air System that has an FSTD, that has been qualified or certified by a National Aviation Authority, the qualification or certification data should be considered, where possible, during the evaluation of the military Air System FSTD.

d. Following the evaluation of the device, three artefacts7 should be produced:

(1) A T&E report that includes the relevant material differences between the device and the live Air System, with an assessment of associated RtL that may occur in the live Air System;

(2) A Master QTG that should be used as a baseline for future evaluations, and;

(3) A recommendation for release to training, underpinning what the device is and is not suitable to be used for, including any possible transfer of training risk to the live Air System.

e. For a device that has been procured through Foreign Military Sales it is unlikely that T&E independent of the Air System Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM) will have full access to the device or the live Air System to conduct an evaluation during its initial development. The SRO should ensure that an independent T&E SQEP is able to observe, where possible, and validate the T&E assessment conducted by the foreign military provider to enable an

5 RA 5810 - Military Type Certificate (MRP 21 Subpart B) requires that where Operational Suitability Data, which includes Air System validation source data to support the objective qualification of simulator(s), is available it should be included as part of the Military Type Certification or Changes in Type Design. 6 International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO), Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) or an equivalent agreed by the MAA. 7 These artefacts are to be maintained and updated, as required, throughout the life of the device.




2375(1)

initial Qualification Statement to be produced. If evidence gaps exist, the SRO should develop a plan to gather the evidence required to support a full Qualification Statement.

11. A suggested Qualification Statement template can be found on the MAA website which should include, as a minimum:

a. The qualification category of the device.

b. The training objectives the device can and cannot support, including the currency limitations, qualifications, ratings and supervisory checks and that may be carried out in the device.

c. Detail the implications of any environmental misrepresentation and the environmental conditions in which the device may be used.

d. Detail any relevant material differences between the device and the ‘as flown’ Air System. This may be refenced to an appropriate document that is available to Aircrew and training staff.

e. Detail any areas where there is a reasonable prospect of negative training occurring, specifying any associated limitations or exceptions and where RtL may be increased in the live Air System as a result.

12. The initial qualification should be conducted by T&E Aircrew8 where accurate handling qualities, quality of the mission system representation, synthetic environment or Air System performance are material to the intended usage.

13. The re-qualification of a device should be conducted by T&E Aircrew8 where accurate handling qualities, quality of the mission system representation, synthetic environment or Air System performance are material to an expansion in the intended usage, or; following a modification to the device that might have reasonably affected the representation of accurate handling qualities or quality of the mission system representation.

14. Qualification of the device conducted by T&E Aircrew8 should include an assessment of training as effective, limited or negative.

15. Where the representation of the operational performance of non-flight safety critical mission systems is material to the intended usage, qualification of the device should be conducted by personnel deemed SQEP by the SRO9.

16. Where the requirement for the device is a low level of fidelity that is not intended to represent the handling qualities, flight model and performance characteristics throughout the flight envelope of the live Air System, the SRO should consider reducing the T&E Aircrew8 requirement to a lower level, if appropriate, depending on the intended use, eg mission specific training or tactical training10.

17. An appropriate SQEP stakeholder group, which includes T&E Aircrew8, should be established where unique and emerging technologies are involved and there is no end user expertise.

18. Qualified FSTDs with force cueing motion systems that are not intended to be mobile should be requalified if they are moved from one location to another.

19. Where an Aircrew Instructor is expected to manage the Instructor Operating Station (IOS), whilst simultaneously monitoring the trainee, an assessment of the IOS functionality should be made against any impact on the supervision and training risk.

20. Where a commercially contracted civilian Air System FSTD are intended to be used the SRO should produce a Qualification Statement based on the device’s civilian Qualification Statement or Certification but supported by a T&E assessment of the devices suitability for military use. Whilst it may be the same type of Air System there may be significant material differences or intended use between the civilian

8 Class A or B Test Pilot iaw RA 2370 – Test and Evaluation for handling qualities, pilot workload or Human Machine Interface (HMI) assessment and Evaluator Aircrew for other systems, including whole crew environment assessment and work station HMI. They should be assisted by an Aircrew Instructor who is deemed SQEP and current on type. 9 Considered on a case by case basis, eg tactical mission systems may be more appropriately evaluated by an Operational Evaluation Unit or specialized role mission equipment may require end user SQEP advice during evaluation. 10 This could also apply to FSTD modifications that are limited to mission or tactical systems and do not modify the handling qualities, flight model and performance characteristics throughout the flight envelope.




2375(1)

FSTD and the In-Service Air System which should be quantified, assessed and recorded.

21. Where devices can be network linked, they should be assessed individually and linked. Where differences in performance or use exist, they should be included in the Qualification Statement.

22. The SRO should ensure that the FSTD Operator:

a. Is contracted to progressively test the FSTD against the Master QTG over a rolling 12-month period.

b. Can demonstrate they have a suitable management system to enable compliance with this RA.

23. The SRO should ensure that the Air System TAA and/or Commodity Delivery Team Leader manages the configuration between the FSTD and live Air System (quantifying any risk posed by differences) through the acquisition, development and maintenance of FSTD within their AoR.

Guidance Material

2375(1)


24. EASA Certification Specifications for Aeroplane Flight Simulation Training Devices (CS-FSTD(A)) or Helicopter Flight Simulation Training Devices (CS-FSTD(H))11, detail the civilian legal and regulatory requirements for civilian FSTD qualification; other equivalent civilian certification specifications are also available. These documents are derived from ICAO Doc 9625 Volume 1 and Volume 2 respectively, which provide a structured means of determining qualification criteria according to training requirement. These specifications may assist the SRO to determine the category of FSTD and the qualifications, ratings and training output that can be conducted in the FSTD. These documents provide guidance on the construction of a QTG and fidelity levels. However, the guidance is based on civil Air Systems, designed to conduct civil flying tasks and these may not fully satisfy military usage. Therefore, specific military tasks and capabilities may need to be included in the device QTG, such as Night Vision Device visual systems, and acceptance criteria and tolerances adjusted to suit military usage.

25. Where a Training Service Provider has been contracted to provide end to end training to requirements set by the SRO it is recognised that this may include the procurement and employment of one or more FSTD. In this situation the SRO will still be the owner of the Qualification statement iaw para 8 and 9 but the development and management of the Qualification Statement may be the responsibility of the contracted Training Service Provider, subject to agreement by the SRO.

26. The following could be used to describe the qualifications, rating and types of training that may be conducted in an FSTD and assist with the creation of a matrix of training objectives to be evaluated:

a. Certificate of Qualification on Type (CQT).

b. Instrument Rating (IR).

c. Currency Requirements.

d. Competency Training.

27. Where CS-FSTD(A/H), ICAO 9625 Vol 1/2 or other civilian specifications do not provide sufficient guidance for assessing the fidelity of military devices the following considerations are applicable:

a. Handling characteristics throughout the flight envelope, including ground handling;

b. Flight model performance characteristics throughout the flight envelope;

11 CS-FSTD(A) is derived from ICAO Doc 9625 Volume 1, Manual of Criteria for the Qualification of FSTD — Aeroplanes and CS-FSTD(H) is derived from ICAO Doc 9625 Volume 2, Manual of Criteria for the Qualification of FSTD — Helicopters which could also be used to assist the qualification of an FSTD. Where the term 'cockpit representation' is used, this is equally applicable to mission systems and mission workstations.



Guidance Material

2375(1)

c. Mission realism, including specific military role manoeuvres and tasks;

d. Accuracy of cockpit layout and structure;

e. Accuracy of whole crew environment;

f. Realistic systems architecture (eg software menus etc);

g. Representative malfunctions, including isolated and compound degraded modes;

h. Representative visuals, sound and motion cues;

i. Environmental characteristics to include Air Traffic Control, navigation, atmosphere, weather, aerodromes, terrain, threats and external players;

j. IOS operator and system interaction capabilities;

k. Linked capability or formation with entity/other FSTD;

l. Mission planning, briefing and debriefing facilities;

m. Accuracy of sensor system simulations to be used for provision of flight safety critical activities such as aircraft guidance;

n. Fidelity of systems used to support weapon targeting.

28. There are several acceptable methodologies that could be used to determine the required fidelity level for specific training objectives. These include, but not exclusively, ICAO 9625 Vol 1/2 and the Liverpool Rating Scale for Subjective Testing of Simulator Fidelity. Based on a modified version of the ICAO 9625 Vol 1/2 fidelity levels could be applied against each training objective, see Annex B for greater detail:

a. None or Not Required (N).

b. Generic (G).

c. Representative (R).

d. Specific (S).

29. CS-FSTD(A/H), ICAO 9625 Vol 1/2 or other civilian specifications could be used to determine the statements of compliance and testing requirements for the FSTD when constructing the QTG.

30. Relevant material differences could be extensive so may be referenced in the Qualification Statement but recorded in an F700 style document, that will be familiar to Aircrew and training staff, for the device. Acceptable Deferred Faults could also be recorded and tracked with this document.

Regulation

2375(2)

Approval of Flight Simulator Training Devices

2375(2) The ADH and AM(MF) shall approve the use of the FSTD within their AoR.


2375(2)


31. The ADH or AM(MF) should approve an FSTD for use based on the Qualification Statement specific to that device.

32. FSTD should be approved on initial entry into service.

33. FSTD approvals should be renewed and recorded at least annually, following an assessment of the Master QTG progressive testing conducted by the FSTD Operator. This assessment should be conducted by SQEP and the subjective assessment of the FSTD by SQEP Aircrew, both determined by the ADH or AM(MF).

34. The FSTD approval should be renewed following any modification to the Qualification Statement, and an assessment by SQEP Aircrew, determined by the ADH or AM(MF).

35. If at any time the performance of the device is suspected to have degraded, undermining the validity of the Qualification Statement, the FSTD Operator should conduct an assessment against the Master QTG in addition to referral to T&E




2375(2)

Aircrew8, subject to paragraphs 14-16, to evaluate the device using the Master QTG and the T&E report as a baseline.

36. The ADH or AM(MF) should assess the material differences between the FSTD and the ‘as flown’ Air System as part of the ASSC4 and ensure that any differences are published and reflected in the training documentation.

37. The ADH or AM(MF) should ensure that the FSTD Operator can demonstrate they have a suitable management system in place to demonstrate compliance with this RA as part of the annual approval process.

Guidance Material

2375(2)


38. As part of the annual renewal of approval for use of the device, the evidence of both the objective and subjective Master QTG progressive testing provided by the FSTD Operator is to be compared with the baseline testing conducted for initial qualification. ADH or AM(MF) could use appropriate SQEP for the comparison, eg an engineer or the Air System STANEVAL. If differences are identified that cannot be explained, the FSTD Operator could re-test the device (if appropriate) or the ADH or AM(MF) could refer to T&E Aircrew8 iaw para 35.

39. The ADH or AM(MF) could use appropriate SQEP Aircrew, eg the Air System STANEVAL or Aircrew Instructor, rather than T&E Aircrew8 to conduct some subjective assessment in order to validate the approval for use annually, assuming there have been no modifications to the live Air System, or the FSTD, or its use, that have the potential to impact on the safe operation of the live Air System.

40. Re-qualification of the FSTD, iaw RA 2375(1), will be required following any significant modification to the live Air System, or the FSTD, or its use, that has the potential to impact on the safe operation of the live Air System. The updated Qualification Statement may be used to support the approval for use of the FSTD.

41. Where training objectives may be prohibited in the live Air System, eg practice single or multiple engine failures, and specific live Air System performance is unknown or the data is unavailable, a lower fidelity level may be acceptable if the training benefit achieved synthetically will enhance safety in the live Air System.

42. Where High Risk Area (HRA) or high cost training is conducted in environmental conditions that would not be routinely practised, or would be highly undesirable to practise, in the live Air System, a lower fidelity level may be acceptable if, through T&E verification, the training benefit achieved synthetically enhances safety in the live Air System.

Regulation

2375(3)

Use of Flight Simulator Training Devices

2375(3) The ADH and AM(MF) shall determine the extent that FSTD can be used as preparation for, or as a substitute for, live flying.


2375(3)


43. The ADH or AM(MF) should use the Qualification Statement to determine the suitability of an FSTD to conduct Qualifications, Ratings and type of training, including currency and competency requirements.

44. The ADH or AM(MF) should specify in orders and instructions the amount of synthetic flying time and the training objectives that should be conducted in an FSTD, the periodicity that applies and how the training is to be recorded.

45. Where a Training Service Provider has been contracted to provide an end to end training solution, this may include the requirements stipulated in para 43 and 44 but should be agreed by the ADH or AM(MF).

46. Currency and training hours flown in an FSTD should be recorded in the relevant section of the Aircrew logbook or record.




2375(3)

47. The ADH or AM(MF) should specify in orders and instructions when incidents during the use of an FSTD should be reported iaw RA 141012.

48. Where FSTD substitute live flying training, currency and competency requirements, including CQT and instrument flying, due consideration to other RA concerning live flying should be applied, where deemed appropriate by the ADH or AM(MF).

Guidance Material

2375(3)


49. It may not be appropriate to report all incidents in the FSTD as they would be in the live Air System. The stage of training or experience level is to be considered when deciding if reporting an incident is appropriate. Where FSTD systems have been intentionally degraded for training to induce an emergency or the environmental conditions have been manipulated to create a scenario at the extremes, or even outside, of limits it may be anticipated that the likelihood of a mishap is increased, therefore reporting may not be appropriate. However, reporting is to be considered if an adverse outcome has resulted from incorrect procedures or poor handling. Equally, if there is value to other users from lessons identified, eg relevant material differences between the FSTD and the live Air System or incorrect procedures, reporting is to be considered.

50. Due consideration of other RAs will include areas such as: RA 2307 – Rules of the Air; RA 2309 – Flight Procedures; RA 2310 – Role Specific Fixed Wing; RA 2315 – Role Specific Rotary Wing; RA 2320 – Role Specific Remotely Piloted Air Systems; RA 2125 – Aircrew Instructor Training; RA 2350 – Air System Emergencies etc. However, RA 2306 – Authorization of Flights; RA 2135 – Aircrew Medical Requirements, and RA 2345 – Aircrew Fatigue Management, for example, may be relaxed at the discretion of the ADH or AM(MF).

12 Refer to RA 1410 – Occurrence Reporting and Management.



ANNEX A

Qualification Process

Desired Trained Output

Contractor Manufactures FSTD

Qualification Test Guide (QTG)

Evaluation

SRO / ODH / AM(MF)

SRO, ADH (ODH) or AM(MF) Qualification Statement for FSTD

Master QTG

Design Standard eg ICAO or CS-

FSTD(A/H)

Recommendation Release to Training

T&E Report

Air System Design Organization provides

Aircraft Flight Data (Where Possible)

National Aviation Authority Oversight

Type Airworthiness Authority / MAA



ANNEX B

Fidelity Level

Level Air System Simulation Cueing Simulation Environmental Simulation

None Not Required. Not Required. Not Required.

Generic Not specific to Air System model, type or variant.

Can include skills not possible to replicate in aircraft, eg. Air to Ground Gunnery judgemental training engaging targets.

Generic to an Air System of its class. Simple modelling of key basic cueing features.

For visual cueing only: generic visual environment with perspective sufficient to support basic instrument flying and transition to visual from straight-in instrument approaches.

Simple modelling of key basic environment features.

Representative Representative of an Air System of its class,

eg four-engine turbo-fan or tandem rotor helicopter.

Indications can be incorrect, but subsequent technique is correct, an objective that can be contrived to produce a representative outcome.

Can include malfunctions and conditions specific to type that do not require representative handling but cannot be initiated on the live Air System (cannot be turned off/CBs cannot be pulled etc).

For sound and motion cueing only: replicates the specific Air System to the maximum extent possible. However, physical limitations may only provide representative, not specific, cues.

For visual cueing only:

representative of the real-world visual environment and perspective.

Representative of the real-world environment.

Specific Replicates the specific Air System.

The desired objective can be accurately replicated on any sortie, such as those skills that do not require a failure mode or a specific environmental condition.

Applicable to visual cueing: replicates the real-world visual environment and (infinity) perspective. However, is to be supported by the appropriate level of motion and sound cueing.

Replicates the real-world environment, as far as required to meet the training objectives, for any specific location.



RA 2380 – Performance Based Navigation Operations

Rationale Performance Based Navigation (PBN) is one of several enablers of an airspace concept that offers enhanced use of airspace and reduces reliance on legacy fixed navigation aid installations. It has been widely adopted by international military and civilian operators. Without appropriate oversight the use of PBN concepts, equipment and procedures could drive an increased Risk to Life (RtL) to all airspace users. This Regulatory Article (RA) requires that Aviation Duty Holders (ADH) and Accountable Managers (Military Flying) (AM(MF)) have robust orders and procedures in place to enable PBN operations.

Contents 2380(1): Air System and Pilot Requirements

2380(2): Performance Based Navigation Flight Procedures

Regulation

2380(1)

Air System and Pilot Requirements

2380(1) ADH and AM(MF) shall ensure PBN operations are only conducted by Air Systems within their Area of Responsibility (AoR) that are certified in accordance with (iaw) the relevant navigation specification and by pilots who are appropriately qualified.


2380(1)


1. Where there is a requirement to conduct PBN operations, the navigation specification should be detailed in the Air System Release To Service (RTS) or Military Permit to Fly (MPTF) and operations to that specification approved by the ADH / AM(MF) iaw RA 13801.

2. Where pilots are required to undertake PBN operations they should only do so after they have been granted PBN privileges as an endorsement to their instrument rating iaw RA 21202.

3. For multi-crew Aircraft, all flight deck pilots should hold the same PBN endorsement, unless pilots are under training and / or are being supervised by an appropriately Qualified Aircrew Instructor.

Guidance Material

2380(1)


4. Nil.

Regulation

2380(2)

Performance Based Navigation Flight Procedures

2380(2) ADH and AM(MF) shall publish orders that enable the safe conduct of PBN operations, where their Air Systems are so equipped.


2380(2)


Required Navigation Performance Authorization Required Approaches

5. UK military registered Air Systems should not conduct Required Navigation Performance (RNP) Authorization Required Approaches (AR APCH).

1 Refer to RA 1380 - Performance Based Navigation. 2 Refer to RA 2120 - Pilots’ Instrument Rating Scheme.




2380(2)

Required Navigation Performance 0.3 (Helicopters)

6. For RNP 0.3 (H) operations (outside of any final approach)3, the appropriate approvals should be obtained iaw EU Regulation No 965/2012 Annex V (Part-SPA) Subpart B: PBN Operations.

Area Navigation (RNAV) 10

7. Operating procedures and routes should take account of the RNAV 10 time limit declared for the inertial system, if applicable, considering also the effect of weather conditions that could affect flight duration in RNAV 10 airspace. Where an extension to the time limit is permitted, the crew should ensure adequate en-route radio navigation facilities are available before departure and should apply radio updates iaw any RTS or MPTF limitations.

8. If extension of RNAV 10 inertial navigation time by position updating is approved, orders and instructions should include the requirement to calculate, using statistically-based typical wind scenarios for each planned route, points at which updates can be made and the points at which further updates will not be possible4.

Electronic Database Management

9. For RNAV 1, RNAV 2, RNP 1, RNP 2, and RNP APCH, the crew should not insert or modify waypoints by manual entry into a procedure (departure, arrival or approach) that has been retrieved from the database.

10. For RNP 4 operations, the crew should not modify waypoints that have been retrieved from the database.

11. The lateral and vertical definition of the flight path between the Final Approach Fix (FAF) and the Missed Approach Point (MAPt) retrieved from the database should not be modified by the crew.

Preparation for Flight

12. The PBN database validity should be checked before flight and should be valid for the duration of the flight. An expired database should only be used if:

a. The parts of the database which are intended to be used during the flight and any contingencies that are reasonable to expect are not changed in the current version;

b. Maps and charts corresponding to those parts of the flight are current and have not been amended since the last cycle; and,

c. The database has expired by no more than 28 days.

13. The crew should ensure that RNAV 1, RNAV 2, RNP 1, RNP 2, and RNP APCH routes or procedures expected to be used for flight, including for any alternate aerodromes, are available from the navigation database and are not prohibited by Notice to Airmen (NOTAM).

14. When PBN relies on Global Navigation Satellite Systems (GNSS) for which Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) is required for integrity, its availability should be verified during pre-flight planning. If a continuous loss of fault detection of more than 5 min is predicted, planning should be revised to reflect the lack of full PBN capability for that period. Furthermore, the availability of RAIM (or equivalent monitoring system) at the destination should be verified as closely as possible before departure and not more than 24 hrs before take-off. It should be confirmed as available from 15 min before Estimated Time of Arrival (ETA) until 15 min after ETA.

15. For RNP 4 operations with only GNSS sensors, a Fault Detection and Exclusion (FDE) check should be performed. If predictions indicate that the maximum allowable FDE outage of 25 min will be exceeded, the operation should be rescheduled to a time when FDE is available.

3 Operation to a specification of 0.3 within the Final approach segment is implicit within any RNP APCH approval. 4 Refer to ICAO Doc 9613 - Performance-based Navigation Manual Volume II, Part B, Chapter 1 - Implementing RNAV 10, para 1.3.9.6.




2380(2)

16. Where an RNP APCH is expected to be flown in IMC, crews should ensure that an alternative instrument approach system is available at the destination or a suitable alternate aerodrome, which is not dependent on GNSS data and for which the weather is forecast to be suitable to enable a landing.

Flight Procedures

17. Pre-departure.

a. ADH and AM(MF) should detail in orders the system settings required before flight. As a minimum they should detail:

(1) Checks on database validity iaw para 12.

(2) Checks on any appropriate Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) scaling, alarms, airspace and altitude buffers, map settings and orientation.

(3) Verification of or changes to heading and track display.

(4) Verification of or changes to map datum. Crews should have WGS84 set as the datum.

(5) Verification of or changes to the units of measure of distance, speed, altitude, barometric pressure and position format.

(6) Verification of or changes to the navigation displays.

b. The active flight plan, if applicable, should be checked.

c. The crew should check that the navigation aids critical to the operation of the intended PBN procedure are available.

18. Departure.

a. Prior to commencing a take-off on a PBN procedure, the crew should check that the indicated Aircraft position is consistent with the actual Aircraft position at the start of the take-off roll (fixed wing) or lift-off (helicopters).

b. Where GNSS is used, the signal should be acquired before the take-off roll (fixed wing) or lift-off (helicopters) commences.

c. Unless automatic updating of the actual departure point is provided, the crew should ensure initialisation on the runway or Final Approach and Take-off (FATO) by means of a manual runway threshold or intersection update, as applicable. This is to preclude any inappropriate or inadvertent position shift after take-off.

19. En route, arrival and approach.

a. When navigating under IFR, user defined waypoints should be used only for en route navigation above safety altitude.

b. For RNAV 1, RNP 1 and RN APCH operations, the pilot should use a lateral deviation indicator, and where available, flight director and / or autopilot in lateral navigation mode.

c. The appropriate displays should be selected so that the following information can be monitored:

(1) The waypoint identifier to which navigation is being given;

(2) The GPS computed desired path (DTK);

(3) Aircraft position relative to the lateral path (cross-track deviation) for FTE monitoring;

(4) Aircraft position relative to the vertical path (for a 3-Dimensional (3D)5 operation);

(5) Groundspeed;

(6) Distance to next waypoint; and

5 3D Approaches have lateral and vertical guidance.




2380(2)

(7) Absence of RAIM or Loss of Integrity (LOI) alert.

d. The pilot of an Aircraft with a lateral deviation indicator (eg CDI) should ensure that lateral deviation indicator scaling (full-scale deflection) is suitable for the navigation accuracy associated with the various segments of the procedure.

e. The pilot should maintain procedure centrelines unless authorized to deviate by Air Traffic Control (ATC) or demanded by emergency conditions.

f. Cross-track error / deviation (the difference between the area-navigation-system-computed path and the Aircraft-computed position) should normally be limited to half the RNAV / RNP value associated with the procedure. Brief deviations from this standard (eg overshoots or undershoots during and immediately after turns) up to a maximum of the RNAV / RNP value should be allowable.

g. The pilot should endeavour to maintain Aircraft altitude within +/- 75’ of the advisory Continuous Descent Final Approach descent profile published on the chart and not below the level of any step down fix until the Aircraft has passed it. Where a vertical glidepath is displayed on a 3D approach (either lateral navigation / vertical navigation (LNAV / VNAV) or localiser performance with vertical guidance (LPV)) pilots should endeavour to maintain a steady and stable descent within a half scale deviation of both the glidepath indication and the final approach track in the same way as for an ILS.

h. For a 3D approach operation, the pilot should use a vertical deviation indicator and, where required by Air System Document Set (ADS) limitations, a flight director or autopilot in vertical navigation mode.

i. Any published altitude and speed constraints should be observed.

j. Prior to commencing the approach operation (before the Initial Fix (IF)), the crew should verify the navigation system is operating within the correct specification and that the appropriate sensor is selected. The correctness of the loaded procedure should also be confirmed by comparison of Air System displays with the appropriate approach charts. As a minimum, the crew should check the position of the FAF and the track and distance to the MAPt. For approaches with vertical guidance, the crew should check the correct altitude at the FAF and descent gradient. The flight path between the IF and MAPt should not be modified by the crew.

k. The appropriate chart should be immediately to hand throughout the procedure.

l. Crew of aircraft with RNP input selection capability should confirm that the indicated RNP value is appropriate for the PBN operation.

m. Crews should not activate approach flight plans until clearance has been obtained from ATC.

n. ATC may provide tactical interventions in the terminal area; the crew should be aware of the implications for the navigation system. ‘Direct to’ clearances should not be accepted to the IF if the Aircraft will be unable to establish on the final approach track at least 2 NM before the FAF. ‘Direct to’ clearance to the FAF should not be acceptable. Modifying the procedure to intercept the final approach track prior to the FAF should be acceptable for radar-vectored arrivals or otherwise only with ATC approval.

o. The final approach trajectory should be intercepted no later than the FAF in order for the Aircraft to be correctly established on the final approach track before starting the descent (to ensure terrain and obstacle clearance).

p. ‘Direct to’ clearances to a fix that immediately precede a Radius-to-Fix (RF) leg should not be accepted.

q. For parallel offset operations en route in RNP 4, transitions to and from the offset track should maintain an intercept angle of no more than 45° unless specified otherwise by ATC.




2380(2)

r. Unless the pilot has sufficient visual references to continue the approach operation to a safe landing, an RNP APCH operation should be discontinued if:

(1) Navigation system failure is annunciated (eg warning flag);

(2) Lateral or vertical deviations exceed the tolerances; or

(3) Loss of the on-board monitoring and alerting system.

s. The crew should make the necessary preparation to revert to a conventional arrival procedure where appropriate. The following conditions should be considered:

(1) Failure of the navigation system components including navigation sensors, and a failure affecting flight or technical error (eg failures of the flight director or autopilot);

(2) Multiple system failures affecting Aircraft performance;

(3) Coasting on inertial sensors beyond a specified time limit; and

(4) RAIM (or equivalent) alert or loss of integrity function.

t. In the event of loss of PBN capability, the crew should invoke contingency procedures and navigate using an alternative means of navigation and notify ATC of any reduction in PBN or navigational accuracy. In the event of communication failure, the crew should continue with the operation iaw published lost communication procedures.

u. When Air Systems that are fitted with GNSS are using Satellite Based Augmentation Systems (SBAS) for vertical navigation, the pilot should not fly approaches to LNAV / VNAV minima.

v. On an RNP APCH, other than a notified LPV approach using SBAS, the primary vertical reference should be the Aircraft pressure altimeter and not the GPS derived vertical guidance.

w. Altimetry settings for RNP APCH operations using Baro VNAV.

(1) Barometric settings. The crew should set and confirm the correct altimeter setting and check that two independent altimeters provide altitude values that do not differ more than 100 ft at the most at or before the FAF. The procedure should be flown with the QNH set on the Aircraft’s altimeters.

(2) Temperature compensation for RNP APCH operations to LNAV / VNAV minima using Baro VNAV:

(a) The crew should not commence the approach when the aerodrome temperature is outside the promulgated aerodrome temperature limits for the procedure unless the area navigation system is equipped with approved temperature compensation for the final approach;

(b) When the temperature is within promulgated limits, the crew should not make compensation to the altitude at the FAF and DA/H;

(c) Since only the final approach segment is protected by the promulgated aerodrome temperature limits, the crew should consider the effect of temperature on terrain and obstacle clearance in other phases of flight.

(3) For temperature compensation for RNP APCH operations to LNAV minima the crew should consider the effect of temperature on terrain and obstacle clearance in all phases of flight, in particular on any step-down fix.



Guidance Material

2380(2)


20. For purposes of consistency with the PBN concept, regulation may refer to ‘RNAV 10’ because this specification does not include on-board performance monitoring and alerting, however many routes still use the designation ‘RNP 10’ instead of ‘RNAV 10’. ‘RNP 10’ was used as designation before the publication of the fourth edition of ICAO Doc 9613 in 2013. The terms ‘RNP 10’ and ‘RNAV 10’ will be considered equivalent.

21. RAIM availability may be established either by an internal function of the receiver or an air navigation service provider.

22. Discontinuing an approach operation may not be necessary for a multi-sensor navigation system that includes demonstrated RNP capability without GNSS iaw the ADS.

23. Where vertical guidance is lost while the Aircraft is still above 1000 ft AGL, the crew may decide to continue the approach to LNAV minima, when supported by the navigation system.

24. More detailed guidance material for the operational use of PBN applications can be found in ICAO Doc 9613 Performance-Based Navigation (PBN) Manual.



RA 2401 - Documents and Records

Rationale Documents pertaining to the operation of Air Systems and associated systems form a fundamental part of the Air System Safety Case. They provide essential knowledge to personnel who operate and supervise military flying. Accurate records are required for the management of personnel and equipment, and allow analysis and exploitation of occurrence data to improve Air Safety.

Contents 2401(1): Air System Document Set

2401(2): Use and Carriage of Documents in the Air System

2401(3): Flying Logbooks and Recording of Flying Times

2401(4): Aviation Duty Holder/Accountable Manager (Military Flying) Orders

2401(5): Authorization Record

2401(6): Meteorological Records

2401(7): Training Records

Regulation

2401(1)

Air System Document Set

2401(1) All Aircrew shall be familiar with the elements of the Air System Document Set (ADS) relevant to operation of the Air System.


2401(1)


1. Aircrew should be fully conversant with the following documents:

a. Certificate of Usage (CofU) for Military Registered Civil Owned Aircraft (MRCOA).

b. Release To Service (RTS), Military Permit to Fly (MPTF) or Contractor Flight Limitations Document (CFLD)1, whichever is relevant to the flight being conducted.

c. Aircrew Manuals/Pilot’s Notes.

d. Flight Reference Cards.

e. Operating Data Manuals.

Notes:

(1) For MRCOA, any restrictions or overarching limitations specified in the CofU have primary over (b), (c) (d) and (e) above.

(2) The limitations contained in the RTS, MPTF or CFLD have primacy over (c), (d) and (e) above.

2. Aviation Duty Holders (ADH) and Accountable Manager (Military Flying) (AM(MF)) who wish to authorize temporary alterations to Flight Reference Cards should first forward the proposal to ►Defence Aircrew Publications◄ Squadron for confirmation and approval.

3. Aircrew who observe a deficiency, omission or inaccuracy in the Aircrew Manual, Flight Reference Cards, Flight Test Schedule, Mission Operating Procedure Cards, Flight Test Schedule, Aircrew Landaway Turn-round Schedule or Operating Data Manual should raise a MOD Form 765X and submit it in accordance with the instructions for use printed on the Form.

1 Refer to MAA01 - MAA Regulatory Policy for when a CFLD is permissible.



Guidance Material

2401(1)


4. Alternative methods of recording Flight Reference documentation may be employed where approved through the appropriate Release To Service Authority , eg electronic media.

Regulation

2401(2)

Use and Carriage of Documents in the Air System

2401(2) All Air System checks shall be completed in accordance with the relevant Aircrew Manual/Pilot’s Notes and associated Flight Reference Cards. ADH and AM(MF) shall promulgate in orders the appropriate Flight Reference documentation to be carried in all UK Military Air Systems.


2401(2)


5. Nil.

Guidance Material

2401(2)


6. Nil.

Regulation

2401(3)

Flying Logbooks and Recording of Flying Times

2401(3) Accurate and detailed records of flying times shall be maintained by personnel who are required to fly regularly in the course of their duties, or as directed by ADH and AM(MF) orders.


2401(3)


7. Aircrew serving in non-Aircrew posts, who are permitted to fly when facilities are available, should also maintain flying logbooks. When personnel assume new appointments, they should take their flying logbooks with them.

8. Flying carried out by personnel not connected with the actual operation of the Air System should be regarded as passenger flying and should not be recorded in flying logbooks.

9. Flying logbooks should be completed in accordance with promulgated instructions and the guidance below, which should be amplified by ADH and AM(MF) orders when deemed necessary.

10. Calculation of Flying Times. The period of flight for which flying hours are to be recorded should be specified by platform type in ADH or AM(MF) orders.

Guidance Material

2401(3)


11. Throughout the MRP 2000 series reference is frequently made to ‘flying logbooks’. This term may be interpreted to mean ‘flying record’ where an alternative means of media is used. Where alternative methods to the hard copy flying logbook are used, they must be: readily reproducible in hard copy; afforded protection from retrospective fraudulent entry (eg protected archive); and will be subject to the same level of supervisory scrutiny as traditional formats.

12. Flying logbooks are for official use only. They are a comprehensive record of flying and must be completed meticulously in order to provide an accurate record of all flights undertaken. Individuals will remain responsible for the accuracy of all entries in their flying logbooks. Flying logbooks will not normally be carried in the aircraft in which the individual concerned is authorized to fly as a crewmember.



Guidance Material

2401(3)

13. Hours accrued flying non-UK military Air Systems for purposes other than Defence outputs will not be recorded in a Military Flying Logbook. Where there is any doubt, ADH and AM(MF) will decide.

14. Calculation of Flying Times. Flying times will normally be calculated from the time of take-off to the time of landing. When undertaking circuits and landings, the flying times will be reckoned as the time from the initial take-off to the final landing. For the purposes of recording night flying, 'night' is defined as the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight.

Compilation of Flying Logbooks

15. All flying carried out either by a student Pilot or a qualified Pilot in an Air System fitted with dual controls and under the instruction/direct supervision of a Qualified Aircrew Instructor (Qualified AI) will be recorded as ‘dual’. Pilots flying with an Instrument Rating Examiner (IRE)/Instrument Rating Instructor (IRI) when undertaking an Instrument Rating Test will record the flying hours as dual, unless the IRE/IRI does not occupy a Pilot’s seat during the sortie. In addition, any flying carried out by a qualified Test Pilot, but not qualified on type, in an Air System fitted with dual controls and under the direct supervision of a Pilot qualified on type will be recorded as dual.

16. When a Pilot is the Authorized Aircraft Commander the whole period of the flight will be recorded, where appropriate in the Captain column, in addition to the entry in the First-Pilot’s column, the latter only if the Aircraft Commander is a Pilot.

17. Other Pilots, when fully qualified on type, will log First Pilot time for that part of the flight spent in charge of the flying controls unless specified otherwise in orders. These are to include the use of the second Pilot column.

18. Non-Pilot Aircrew will record flight time as follows:

a. Flying time as Aircraft Commander will be entered in the appropriate column.

b. Flying as a member of a crew, or when detailed to screen, check or examine an Aircrew member carrying out such duties, will be recorded in the crew flying section of the logbook.

19. If two Pilots in the following categories fly together in an aircraft fitted with dual controls, on which they are both qualified, they will both log First Pilot time for the full duration of the flight in the following circumstances:

a. When Pilots are flying together for instrument flying practice.

b. When Qualified Flying Instructors (QFI) or Qualified Helicopter Instructors (QHI) are flying together for mutual practice.

c. When qualified test Pilots or qualified safety Pilots are flying on test/trials sorties.

d. When Pilots are flying together for specialist role mutual practice.

20. Instrument flying time will be recorded as actual or simulated in the appropriate column of the flying logbook. Actual instrument flying conditions exist when the aircraft cannot be controlled by reference to external visual cues and all manoeuvres are carried out solely by reference to the aircraft instruments. Only the Pilot flying the aircraft will record the ‘actual’ instrument flying time, except when a QHI/QFI/IRE/IRI is giving instruction or examining in actual conditions. In such a case the QHI/QFI/IRE/IRI and pupil will both record the time. Simulated instrument flying is conducted under artificially created conditions demanding that all manoeuvres be carried out solely by reference to instruments. Only the Pilot flying the aircraft under simulated conditions will record this instrument flying time.

21. Simulator practices will be recorded in the relevant section of the appropriate logbook in the same manner as normal flying times.

22. Instructions for the completion of periodic summaries must be provided alongside whatever method of flying record is employed. ADH and AM(MF) will determine the timing of periodic summaries. Aircrew not in flying appointments will not



Guidance Material

2401(3)

be required to complete periodic summaries, unless required to do so to maintain currency.

23. Assessments of flying ability will be entered in the relevant flying record.

24. The flying logbooks of all Aircrew employed on flying duties will be inspected monthly and certified correct by the appropriate unit/sub unit commander or Flight Operations post-holder (Defence Contractor Flying Organizations).

25. The flying logbooks of non-Aircrew personnel will be inspected as detailed in ADH and AM(MF) orders.

Retention and Disposal of Flying Logbooks

26. Flying logbooks for military personnel are official documents and as such are the property of HM Government. Personnel ceasing to be employed on flying duties will, however, be allowed to retain their logbooks when all official action for which the books may be required is completed.

27. Flying logbooks will be retained until the individual is no longer eligible for employment for flying duties. Flying logbooks will then be disposed of in accordance with the directions below. At a coroner’s inquest into a fatal accident the flying logbooks of the personnel concerned must be produced for inspection if required.

Security and Disposal

28. When Aircrew are deceased, missing, a prisoner of war, or declared to be illegally absent or insane, their logbook(s) will be impounded by the appropriate ADH or AM(MF). It must be scrutinized to ensure that no security risk is likely to arise from its disposal to the originator or his next of kin, either immediately or in the future. After scrutiny, the logbook may be disposed of in one of the following ways:

a. It may be returned to the originator on application, however if the originator has ceased duties as a result of disciplinary action, the logbook will not be returned.

b. Unless returned to the originator, it will be security classified and retained by the appropriate authority.

29. The logbook(s) of deceased personnel may be forwarded to the next of kin after scrutiny, provided that they contain no information of Secret or higher category, nor contain entries that might cause pain to the next of kin. Under no circumstances may logbooks be forwarded to next of kin without permission of the appropriate command chain (normally not less than 2-star level).

Regulation

2401(4)

Aviation Duty Holder/Accountable Manager (Military Flying) Orders

2401(4) ADH and AM(MF) shall issue Flying Orders.


2401(4)


30. ADH/AM(MF) orders should detail specific activity required to enable compliance with the MRP, and any further orders and instructions deemed necessary by the ADH or AM(MF).

31. An auditable record of ADH/AM(MF) orders should be maintained including details of any provenance for change.

Guidance Material

2401(4)


32. ADH/AM(MF) orders may also contain aviation-related material not directly relevant to the MRP, for the sake of providing a single source document for Aircrew.

Regulation

2401(5)

Authorization Record

2401(5) ADH and AM(MF) shall ensure that accurate and detailed records of flight authorizations are maintained.




2401(5)


33. Squadron or Independent Flight Commanders, or Flight Operations post-holders (Defence Contractor Flying Organizations) should ensure that authorization records are checked for content, accuracy and are certified as correct.

34. Completed authorization records should be retained by the unit for 12 months and ADH and AM(MF) should establish procedures for the continued retention and storage of these records, in accordance with the guidance contained in JSP4412.

Guidance Material

2401(5)


35. Nil.

Regulation

2401(6)

Meteorological Records

2401(6) All relevant meteorological data shall be archived to assist in post incident investigation.


2401(6)


36. ADH and AM(MF) should detail in orders requirements for the retention and disposal of meteorological records by Aircrew.

37. Unit Meteorological Offices should retain records in accordance with instructions issued by the UK Meteorological Office.

Guidance Material

2401(6)


38. Nil.

Regulation

2401(7)

Training Records

2401(7) ADH and AM(MF) shall maintain training records for all Aircrew.


2401(7)

Training Records

39. Training records should be maintained by the supervisory chain that record all relevant training currencies and qualifications as required by the MRP 2000 series Regulatory Articles. An auditable record, normally referred to as the ‘training folder’, should be kept at least for the period of the current Aircrew flying appointment or where appropriate, retained for the subsequent appointments.

Guidance Material

2401(7)

Training Records

40. Where alternative methods to hard copy training records are used, they must be readily reproducible in hard copy and afforded protection from retrospective fraudulent entry (eg protected archive).

2 Refer to JSP 441 Managing Information in Defence.






►This RA has been substantially re-written; for clarity no change marks are presented – please read RA in entirety◄

RA 2415 – Civil Use of Government Aerodromes

Rationale Flying civil registered aircraft from Government Aerodromes1 allows Heads of Establishment (HoE) to support Service sport associations and flying activity for their personnel. The operation of civil registered aircraft is not regulated by the Military Aviation Authority but by the Civil Aviation Authority; failure to adhere to civil regulation could increase the level of risk. This regulation ensures HoE understand the regulations that apply to civil registered aircraft flying from their establishment.

Contents 2415(1): Civil Use of Government Aerodromes 2415(2): Withdrawn – Not deemed regulatory material 2415(3): Withdrawn – Not deemed regulatory material 2415(4): Withdrawn – Not deemed regulatory material

Regulation 2415(1)

Civil Use of Government Aerodromes 2415(1) Government Aerodromes shall only be available for use by

civil aircraft with prior permission and when those aircraft comply with the Air Navigation Order (ANO) 2016.


Civil Use of Government Aerodromes 1. All civil2 flying is regulated by the ANO and should comply fully with its requirements.

2. All civil flying at Government Aerodromes should adhere to the relevant Defence Aerodrome Manual and any additional local orders promulgated by the HoE.

3. Civil Aircraft operators should assure the HoE that they are conducting flying operations in accordance with the ANO.

4. Additionally, commercial aircraft operations should only use Government Aerodromes with the permission of the HoE3.

5. Where civil flying is conducted on Government Aerodromes in UK overseas territories, they should comply with the relevant national civil aviation regulations.


Civil Use of Government Aerodromes 6. For the purposes of this regulation, the definition of non-commercial and commercial may be taken from Article 208 of the ANO.

7. The ANO defines Government Aerodromes1 as follows: ‘Any aerodrome in the United Kingdom which is in the occupation of any Government Department or visiting force’.

8. Detailed instructions for the use of military airfields, and any charges to be raised against civil aircraft operators, are contained in ‘Use of British Military Airfields by British and Foreign Civil Aircraft’ (previously JSP 360).

9. For the purposes of this regulation, civil flying includes civil registered gliders and civil registered gliding support air systems, ie glider tow aircraft.

10. HoE may find useful information regarding civil flying through national governing bodies for light aircraft, microlighting and gliding.

1 Government Aerodromes includes Government Aerodromes that are in UK overseas territories. 2 That is any aircraft on the Civil Aircraft Register. 3 Article 207 of the ANO defines the requirement for aerodrome licensing.

http://www.legislation.gov.uk/uksi/2016/765/contents/made



Regulation 2415(2)

Recreational Flying 2415(2) Withdrawn – Not deemed regulatory material.


Recreational Flying 11. Withdrawn – Not deemed regulatory material.


Recreational Flying 12. Withdrawn – Not deemed regulatory material.

Regulation 2415(3)

Recreational Gliding 2415(3) Withdrawn – Not deemed regulatory material.


Recreational Gliding 13. Withdrawn – Not deemed regulatory material.


Recreational Gliding 14. Withdrawn – Not deemed regulatory material.

Regulation 2415(4)

Glider Towing 2415(4) Withdrawn – Not deemed regulatory material.


Glider Towing 15. Withdrawn – Not deemed regulatory material.


Glider Towing 16. Withdrawn – Not deemed regulatory material.



RA 2501 – Contractor Flying Approved Organization Scheme

Rationale ► Approved Defence Contractor Flying Organizations (DCFO) operate UK military registered Air Systems under civilian Aircraft Operating Authorities (AOA). Without appropriate regulatory oversight Aircrew, groundcrew and third parties could be exposed to unnecessary risk. This Regulatory Article (RA) details the requirements for the Contractor Flying Approved Organization Scheme (CFAOS)1 which in turn ensures such organizations comply with the MAA Regulatory Publications (MRP) and are subjected to oversight.◄

Contents 2501(1): Contractor Flying Approved Organization Scheme Application and Approval

2501(2): Contractor Flying Approved Organization Scheme Approval Changes

2501(3): Contractor Flying Organization Exposition

2501(4): Contractor Flying Approved Organization Scheme MAA Regulatory Publications Applicability

2501(5): Contracted Activities

Regulation

2501(1)

Contractor Flying Approved Organization Scheme Application and Approval

2501(1) To fly or operate UK military Air Systems ►under a civilian AOA2◄, DCFOs shall be approved under the CFAOS►3◄.


2501(1)


1. ►Civilian Operated (Development), Civilian Operated (In-Service) and Special Case Flying UK military registered Air Systems should be operated under a civilian AOA2 approved by the MAA under the CFAOS.◄

2. ►Civilian AOAs /◄ DCFOs should satisfy the MAA that it is in the UK MOD and / or National interest to include the organization in the CFAOS.

3. Applications for CFAOS Approval should be:

a. Made using MAA Form 2 (CFAOS), ►hosted on the MAA’s websites.◄

b. Supported by an appropriate endorsement of MOD / National interest.

c. Supported by a Contractor Flying Organization Exposition (CFOE)4.

4. Applicants should demonstrate to the MAA that Air Systems are to be operated in accordance with the limitations as articulated in one of the following:

a. Military Permit to Fly►5, 6◄.

b. Release To Service►7◄.

c. ►◄.

5. ►A CFAOS Approval should be issued for an unlimited duration and remain valid subject to:

1 ►The CFAOS is the assurance mechanism underpinning the competence of DCFO that operate Air Systems on the UK Military Aircraft Register. DCFOs operating under the CFAOS are referred to as CFAOS organizations. 2 Refer to RA 1160 – The Defence Air Environment Operating Framework, RA 1162 – Air Safety Governance for Civilian Operated (Development) and (In-Service) Air Systems and RA 1163 – Air Safety Governance Arrangements for Special Case Flying Air Systems. 3 For Open Category and Specific S1 Remotely Piloted Air System (RPAS) sub-categories, this RA does not apply. Refer to RA 1031 – Contractor Flying Approved Organization Scheme (Basic Remotely Piloted Air Systems). 4 Refer to◄ RA 2501(3): Contractor Flying Organization Exposition. 5 ►Refer to RA 5880 – Military Permit To Fly (Development) (MRP Part 21 Subpart P). 6 Refer to RA 1305 – Military Permit To Fly (In-Service), (Special Case Flying) and (Single Task). 7 Refer to RA 1300 – Release To Service.◄




2501(1)

a. The CFAOS organization remaining in compliance with the MRP.

b. The MAA being granted access to the CFAOS organization to determine continued compliance with the MRP.

c. The Approval Certificate not being surrendered, suspended or revoked.

d. Continued endorsement of MOD / National interest.◄

6. Revoked or surrendered CFAOS Approval Certificates should be returned to the MAA.

Guidance Material

2501(1)


Application

7. Organizations seeking new approvals ►need to◄ be aware that the timeline from application to approval is likely to be in the region of 9 to 12 months. Early dialogue with the MAA is encouraged; however, organizations ►need to◄ note that formal engagement cannot be initiated until appropriate endorsement of MOD / National interest is in place.

8. CFAOS applications may be ►phased◄; ie initial applications may be made via the MAA Form 2 once endorsement of MOD / National interest has been received, but with the CFOE being submitted at a later date.

9. For ►Special Case Flying◄ the endorsement of MOD / National interest ►needs to◄ be made by the relevant Air System MOD Sponsor8, ►9◄.

10. Further guidance for CFAOS application may be found on the MAA websites►◄.

Approval

11. When it is considered that there is a case for a DCFO to be included in the CFAOS, a detailed appraisal will be carried out by the MAA. The appraisal will seek to establish long-term confidence in the organization's flight operations personnel and in the company structure relevant to the operations concerned. The DCFO will be audited via documentary and on-site inspections which will specifically scrutinize10:

a. Scope of activity.

b. Supporting company structure and facilities.

c. Suitability, qualifications and experience of the relevant staff.

d. Compliance with the MRP.

e. The DCFO’s processes, orders and instructions.

12. Certificate. When evidence presented by the organization demonstrates that it satisfies the MAA requirements, a CFAOS Approval Certificate will be issued listing:

a. A unique identifying reference.

b. The approved organization, including the operating and trading name if different.

c. The organization’s principal place-of-business address.

d. The issue date (and date of revision if required).

e. The title, name and signature of the MAA approving officer.

13. Schedule. A CFAOS Schedule defining the scope of activity allowable within the CFAOS Approval will be issued listing:

a. The ►Air System◄ types and marks for which operation is approved.

b. The aviation activities for which operation is approved.

8 ►Refer to◄ RA 1019 – Sponsor of Military Registered ►Civilian-Owned and Civilian Operated Air Systems◄ – Air Safety Responsibilities. 9 ►Refer to RA 1163 – Air Safety Governance Arrangements for Special Case Flying Air Systems.◄ 10 This list is not exhaustive.



Guidance Material

2501(1)

c. Any applicable special limitations (eg Visual Flight Rules-only, day-only, etc).

d. ►The applicable CFOE reference, including Issue number and date.◄

e. Name and details of the Accountable Manager (Military Flying) (AM(MF)).

f. The title, name and signature of the MAA approving officer.

14. ►◄

a. ►◄

b. ►◄

c. ►◄

d. ►◄

15. A list of DCFOs who have been granted approval under the CFAOS ►is◄ published by the MAA.

Compliance

16. CFAOS organizations will be subject to compliance assurance activities conducted by or on behalf of the MAA. Access will be required to personnel, facilities, ►Air Systems◄, documents, records, data, procedures and any other materials relevant to compliance.

17. The MAA will withdraw ►CFAOS approval from◄ organizations that no longer meet the requirements.

18. Costs for periodic compliance assurance activities conducted by or on behalf of MAA will not be recoverable from MOD.

Regulation

2501(2)

Contractor Flying Approved Organization Scheme Approval Changes

2501(2) Changes to CFAOS Approvals shall be endorsed by the MAA►3◄.


2501(2)


19. CFAOS organizations should:

a. Consult with the MAA on any issue that might affect their CFAOS Approval.

b. Notify the MAA of any change:

(1) Affecting or likely to affect:

(a) The scope of its CFAOS Approval Certificate or Schedule.

(b) Any elements of its management system.

(2) To key CFAOS personnel.

c. Submit a formal application for an uplift11 to its CFAOS scope at the earliest opportunity. ►The MAA CFAOS Branch should be consulted where doubt exists as to whether a scope change is an uplift or otherwise.◄

d. Submit a formal notification of any reduction12 to its CFAOS scope at the earliest opportunity. ►The MAA CFAOS Branch should be consulted where doubt exists as to whether a scope change is a reduction or otherwise.◄

e. Ensure formal applications and notifications are supported by:

11 Such as: addition of Air System type / change of Mark, ►change in Defence Air Environment (DAE) operating Category / Categories,◄ or the addition of further aviation activities ►◄. 12 Such as removal of Air System type ►◄.




2501(2)

(1) Documentation13 detailing the proposed changes.

(2) An updated14 CFOE and / or Operations Manual.

f. Only implement changes to its CFAOS Approval upon receipt of formal MAA approval.

Guidance Material

2501(2)


20. As a minimum, the MAA ►needs to◄ be notified of changes to:

a. Name and details of the AM(MF).

b. Personnel named in the CFOE, including the safety and quality managers.

c. Air System types and marks to be operated.

d. ►The DAE Operating Category / Categories, Test and Evaluation (T&E) categories15, RPAS categories16 and any other aviation activities to be conducted.◄

e. Ownership of the CFAOS organization.

f. The CFAOS organization’s official name, business name, address and / or mailing address.

21. Application to the MAA for a CFAOS Schedule amendment will not constitute approval to operate to the proposed amendment.

22. Following receipt of a scope uplift the MAA will determine continuing compliance with the MRP and amend, if necessary, the CFAOS Approval Certificate and / or Schedule.

Regulation

2501(3)

Contractor Flying Organization Exposition

2501(3) CFAOS organizations shall submit a CFOE to the MAA►3◄.


2501(3)


23. CFAOS organizations should ensure:

a. Their CFOE is current and up-to-date.

b. The MAA is provided with an electronic copy of the current and AM(MF) endorsed CFOE.

24. The CFOE►◄ should:

a. Cover the following subject headings:

(1) Management.

(2) Safety Management.

(3) Quality Management.

(4) Procedures.

(5) Personnel and Training.

(6) Security Management.

b. As a minimum contain the following:

(1) The name of the AM(MF).

13 For uplift the documentation required ►needs to◄ be analogous to that required to support an initial application for that activity. 14 Changes / updates from previous versions ►need to◄ be immediately apparent and clearly marked using methods such as: track change notation; highlighting; sidebars. 15 See RA 2370 – Test and Evaluation, for applicable test and evaluation terms. 16 ►Refer to RA 1600 – Remotely Piloted Air Systems.◄




2501(3)

(2) A statement signed by the AM(MF)17 confirming that the CFOE and any referenced documents define the CFAOS organization’s compliance with the MRP, and ►is to◄ be complied with at all times.

(3) The official name and business name, address and mailing address of the applicant.

(4) The scope of the CFAOS organization including: ►the DAE Operating Category / Categories2, Air System types and marks; T&E categories15; RPAS categories16; other aviation activities; and, details of routine operating bases and requirements to undertake temporary detached operations.◄

(5) A description of the CFAOS organization scale including: numbers of aircrew, supernumerary crew and other ►personnel◄ associated with the task; numbers of ►Air Systems◄; and expected flying rate.

(6) A statement of the operating environments expected to be included in the task, such as: embarked; night-vision / electro-optical; formation; unprepared strips; low level; ordnance, munitions and explosives.

(7) A statement►◄ of which MRP RAs are deemed applicable and the method of compliance.

(8) ►◄

(9) The names, competencies, qualifications, skill sets and experience of post-holders17.

(10) An organizational chart showing CFAOS chains and lines of responsibility.

(11) The names of ►the◄ safety manager and quality manager.

(12) The CFAOS organization’s Safety and Quality Management Systems and associated policy18.

(13) Evidence of experience in flying operations including, where applicable, activities such as training and ►T&E activities.◄

(14) Evidence of familiarity with MOD procedures applicable to the aviation activity to be conducted.

(15) The security procedures18 to be applied to ensure the safety and integrity of the Air System is not compromised.

(16) Evidence of a Quality Management System (QMS) certified by a national accreditation body, and that the QMS has an appropriate scope for the aviation activity to be conducted.

(17) A list of contracted and subcontracted organizations where applicable.

(18) A procedure describing how changes19 not requiring prior MAA approval ►are◄ managed and notified to the MAA. ►Where doubt exists the MAA CFAOS Branch should be consulted as to whether a change requires prior MAA approval or otherwise.◄

(19) A CFOE amendment procedure.

(20) A statement that all documentation sent to the MAA has been verified by the applicant and found in compliance with the applicable requirements.

17 Refer to RA 1024 – Accountable Manager (Military Flying). 18 Referencing out to other management systems, documents or processes is acceptable. 19 Such as grammatical and typographical errors where the meaning of the wording remains unchanged.



Guidance Material

2501(3)


25. A CFOE is the document, or documents, that contain the material specifying the scope of activity deemed to constitute CFAOS Approval and showing how the CFAOS organization intends to comply with the MRP.

26. ►Templates for the CFOE and Operations Manual are on the MAA websites.◄

Regulation

2501(4)

Contractor Flying Approved Organization Scheme MAA Regulatory Publications Applicability

2501(4) An organization subject to the CFAOS shall comply with the MRP►3◄.


2501(4)


27. CFAOS organizations should comply with the latest issues of all applicable RAs.

Guidance Material

2501(4)


28. MRP compliance will be assessed by the MAA using a risk-based approach. The risk-based profile will include such factors as previous regulatory compliance and performance at routine surveillance factored for potential Risk to Life exposure due to factors such as operating environment and / or flying rate.

29. Any change to the approved MAA scope of the CFAOS organization will require reassessment of the MRP RA applicability.

Regulation

2501(5)

Contracted Activities

2501(5) The CFAOS Organization shall ensure that, when contracting or purchasing any part of its activity, the contracted or purchased service or product conforms to MRP requirements►3◄.


2501(5)


30. When a CFAOS organization contracts any part of its activity to another organization that does not hold a CFAOS Approval with an appropriate scope, the contracted organization should work under the CFAOS Approval of the contracting CFAOS organization.

31. The contracting CFAOS organization should ensure that the MAA is given access to the contracted organization to determine continued compliance with the MRP.

Guidance Material

2501(5)


32. Contracted activities include all activities within the CFAOS organization’s scope of CFAOS Approval that are performed by another organization either itself certified to carry out such activity or if not certified, working under the CFAOS organization’s approval.