Q1. The traditional view of marketing is that the firm makes something and then ________ it.a) marketsb) sellsc) distributesd) prices e) services

Q2. Today, the “mass-market” is actually splintering into numerous ________, each with its own wants, perceptions, preferences, and buying criteria.

a) micro-marketsb) market targetsc) macro-marketsd) customer cliquese) demographic units

Q3. The ________ is a tool for identifying ways to create more customer value.a) value chainb) customer surveyc) brand loyalty indexd) promotion channele) supplier database 

Q4. Negative externality is also known asa) external diseconomies.b) marginal damage.c) public goods.d) resource curse.

Q5. International trade and specialization are determined by a) absolute advantage.b) comparative advantage.c) absolute costs.d) production possibility frontier.

Q6. With respect to the core business processes, all the activities involved in researching, developing, and launching new high-quality offerings quickly and within budget are referred to as the ________.

a) new product processb) new offering realization processc) product development processd) product launch processe) return on investment process

Q7. Suppose a project results in a net stream of $200 per year for 4 years, but nothing thereafter. Assume that the discount rate is 5 percent. The discounted value of the total income stream over the 4-year period is

a) 800.b) 40,000.c) more than zero but less than 800. d) less than zero.

Q8.  If a firm pursues a ________ strategy, it must be good at engineering, purchasing, manufacturing and physical distribution. 

a) differentiation b) overall cost leadershipc) focusd) domestic customer relationship e) market share

Q9. Which of the following terms matches to the phrase “it is a single business or collection of related businesses that can be planned separately from the rest of the company”? 

a) Strategic business unit.b) Diverse business unit.c) Growth business unit.d) Niche market unit.e) Specialized business unit.

Q10. Market-driven organizations excels in three distinctive capabilities: ________, customer linking and channel bonding.

a) target marketingb) market research c) fulfilling customer needsd) market sensinge) customer service relationships

Q11. Today, a growing number of firms now outsource some or all of their logistics to a) competitors

b) third party logistics provider c) channel memberd) cross functional teamse) disintermediaries

Q12. In the WBS, the name of the entire project is the top box, called Level ____.          a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3

e) none of the above

Q13. Project management software highlights the critical path in ____ on a network diagram.           a) blue b) yellow c) green d) red e) other, it depends

Q14. Listed in Column A are four (4) descriptions associated with certain key words in Project Time Management. Column B contain the key words. Match correctly the

description to the most appropriate key word.

Column A Column BI) A network diagramming

technique used to predict totalproject duration

A) Critical Path

II) Series of activities thatdetermine the earliest time by

which the project can becompleted

B) Slack or Float

III) Involves doing activities inparallel that you would normally

do in sequence

C) Critical path method

IV) Is the amount of time an activitymay be delayed without

delaying a succeeding activity

D) Program Evaluation and ReviewTechnique (PERT)

E) CrashingF) Fast tracking

The correct matching is:a) I – D, II – A, III – E, IV – Bb) I – C, II – A, III – E, IV – Bc) I – D, II – A, III – F, IV – Bd) I – D, II – A, III – C, IV - Be) I – C, II – A, III – F, IV – B

Q15. Identify from the statements given below the correct statement/s that is/are associated with Risk Management. a) The risk mitigation approaches to be used have to be addressed in the risk management plan. b) It is not necessary to identify the individuals responsible for implementing the risk management plan as any project staff member can attend to it. c) Contingency plans are not predefined actions that the project team will take if an

identified risk event occurs. d) Fallback plans are developed for risks that have a high impact on meeting project

objectives. e) Poor allocation and management of float is a potential risk condition associated with the scope management knowledge area.

Q16. Identify from the list given below what should be in a Project Procurement Management plan.

a) Risk mitigation strategies for purchases and acquisitions, such as insurance contracts and bonds.

b) Scope & location of work.c) Lead times for purchases and acquisitions.d) Standard procurement documents or templates to be used, if applicable.e) Acceptance criteria.

Q17. The annual demand for a product is 1,000 units. The company orders 200 units each time an order is placed. The lead time is 6 days, and the company has determined that 20 units should be held as a safety stock. There are 250 working days per year. What is the reorder point?

a) 20b) 24c) 44d) 120e) none of the above

Q18. Critical chain scheduling protects tasks on the critical chain from being delayed by using ____, which consist of additional time added before tasks on the critical chain that are preceded by non-critical-path tasks.

a) critical paths b) feeding buffers c) dummy activities d) fast tracking

Q19. Many people are familiar with SWOT analysis—analyzing Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Threats—which is used to aid in ____.

a) project initiationb) project planning

c) strategic planningd) strategic initiatione) internal Analysis

Q20. There are ____ main processes involved in project integration management.           a) three b) six c) ten d) fifteen e) two

Q21. Project managers often illustrate progress with a ____ showing key deliverables and activities.          a) tracking gantt chart b) gantt chart c) network diagram

d) pert chart e) s-curve

Q22. The term ____ describes a product produced as part of a project.          a) end-product b) scope c) deliverable

d) outcome e) includes b, c, d

Q23. In a ____ relationship, one task cannot finish before another finishes.          a) start-to-start

b) finish-to-startc) finish-to-finishd) start-to-finishe) all of the above

Q24. The limitations of scope, time, and cost goals are sometimes referred to as the__.          a) double bind b) triple constraint

c) double constraintd) double obstaclee) includes b, c

Q25. The project time management knowledge area maps to the ____ process group through the activity of schedule control.           a) initiating

b) planning c) executing

d) monitoring and controllinge) all of the above

Q26. You can determine a project’s ____ by finding what discount rate results in an NPV of zero for the project.  a) internal rate of return(IRR) b) required rate of return c) payback period

d) return on investment (ROI)e) discounted Cash Flow

Q27.  Project managers must use discipline to control ____.a) project burstsb) project schedulesc) project critical pathsd) project dependenciese) time constraints

Q28. The ____ is the minimum acceptable rate of return on an investment.a) return on investmentb) internal rate of returnc) external rate of returnd) required rate of returne) discounted Cash Flow

Q29.  In the ____ phase, the project team creates a definitive or very accurate cost estimate, delivers the required work, and provides performance reports to stakeholders.            a) development

b) implementation

c) conceptd) close-oute) commissioning

Q30. The cost of common equity for a firm is a) required rate of return on company's stockb) yield to maturity of bondc) risk free rated) market risk premiume) others