Maths Olympiad

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Eur ka ACADEMY FOR EXCELLENCE

I N D E X

Sr. No. Content Page No.

1 Introduction - Eureka Academy 1 to 5

2 NTSE 6 to 8

3 Pravinyapragana 9 to 10

4 Homibhabha 11 to 12

5. RMO 13 to 14

6. Exams at a Glance 15

7. NTSE Question Set - MAT 16 to 23

8. Competitive Exam Detail 24

9. NTSE Question Set - SAT 25 to 34

10. NTSE Question Set - MAT 34 to 39

11. Answer Key NTSE 40

12. Eureka Results 41 - 48

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When Archimedes exclaimed “Eureka!” he meant that he had found the solution…

That's precisely what is appropriate for Eureka Academy.

Under the prudent and able guidance of Prof. Amit Sonthalia and Prof. Manish Nagdev, Eureka Academy is doing the same… finding solutions to parents' and students' academic problems!

“In this part of the city”, observes Prof. Amit Sonthalia, “there are typical problems faced by students. Poor understanding of Languages, weak Mathematical background, difficulties in understanding the intricacies of Scientific Laws and their applications, etc. are a few to start with.” “Moreover”, says Prof. Manish Nagdev, “the students are so stressed out with their daily routine that they hardly pay attention to 'understanding' and fall prey to 'rote' learning, leaving themselves in dark about the clarity of concepts.”

Prof. Amit Sonthalia and Prof. Manish Nagdev, the two mentors of Eureka Academy have been using uncomplicated, simple and easy to comprehend techniques to make the students understand the complex and difficult theories. “We have been coaching students for the last 15 years and we know exactly what your child wants”, they tell the parents excitedly, “and we provide them the same with the utmost enthusiasm!”

OUR MISSION : SUCCESS

All our dreams can come trueif we have the courage to

pursue them !


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S.S.C 2014-2015

• Batches commence in first week of June.

• Daily 3hr lectures.

• Two tests per week.

• We conduct unit test & semester exams before school exams.

• School wise syllabus completed well in advance.

• Printed notes given for all subjects.

• Attendance & Tests reports are sent on monthly basis.

• Regular follow up in case the student remains absent.

VIII & IX 2014-2015

SYSTEMATIC STUDY PATTERN

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5

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1) Intro - National Talent Search Examination (NTSE) is a national-level

scholarship program in India to identify and recognize students with high intellect

and academic talent. It is one of the most prestigious exams in India.Close to

1,500,000 students appear in this scholarship exam every year. The scheme is open

to students of Indian nationality. Only students studying in Class X are eligible to

appear for the selection process. As it is organized by an official body (NCERT), it is

widely regarded by the Government of India as the toughest and most prestigious

examination at high school level in the country2) Who conducts - The National Council of Educational Research and Training

(NCERT) - Official web site - http://www.ncert.nic.in/index.html-NTSE will be

conducted for Class X students3) Benefit - 1) Each year 1000 students get this scholarship 2) Reservation: 15% scholarships will be reserved for students belonging to the SC

category, 7,5% scholarships for students belonging to the ST category and 3% for

Physically Challenged Group of Students, 3) The amount of scholarship will be Rs. 500/- per month for all the students

studying 4) Subject (portion)- The NCERT has not prescribed any set syllabus for the NTSE.

The NTSE is conducted by NCERT for the students who are studying in X standard.

The NTSE comprises of two level tests:Physics -12,Chemistry -11,Biology -

12,Mathematics -20, History-10,Geography -10,Pol. Science -10,Economics-05 There is no prescribed syllabus for the NTS Examination The National Talent Search

Examination will be conducted for students studying at class X level. The

examination consists of two tests namely the Mental Ability Test (MAT) and the

Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT). Each test consists of 9O multiple choice type

questions. Each question has four alternatives marked 1,2,3 and 4. The candidate has to select

one correct answer from the given alternatives and mark its number in the answer-

sh««t. Each correct answer carries one mark. Thus the total score of a candidate in a

test is equal to the number of questions answered correctly by him/her. Mental Ability Test Items (MAT) There will be 9O multiple choice type items, with

four/five alternatives, out of which only one will correct answer. This test is given to

the candidates to judge their power of reasoning, ability to think ability to judge,

evaluate or discriminate, ability to visualize in the space, spatial orientation, etc. A

variety of questions e.g. analogies, classification, series, pattern perception, hidden

figures, coding-decoding, block assembly, problem solving etc. are used for this

purpose.

NTSE

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Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT) : The Scholastic Aptitude Test consists of 90 multiple

choice items of one mark each. Each item shall have four alternatives, out of which only

one will be the correct answer. These questions are from Science(Physics, Chemistry

and Biology), Mathematics, History, Geography, Political Science And Economics and

also includes Language Comprehensive Test. These questions are basically multiple-

choice questions where one alternative is correct. However, some questions are of

different types like matching type, arrange the sequence, true and false statements and

questions based on passages apart from simple multiple choice questions.

6) Format (Q/Hrs) First stage (STSE – State Talent Search Examination) is the

state level. After clearing stage -1 selected student are eligible to write Stage- II.

Each Test consists of 90 multiple choice type questions. Wherein each question has

4 alternatives marked 1, 2, 3 and 4. The candidate has to select one correct answer

from the given alternatives and mark its number in the provided answer sheet. Each

correct answer carries one mark each and for each wrong answer there is a negative

marking scheme announced from session 2013-14. Stage two has negative

marking but not stage 1.7) Age restriction : Only 10th class studying students can appear in NTSE. Those

students who have appeared in NTSE while studying in class VIII are not eligible to

write the exam again.8) Process to fill up form - *Use Legal (8.5” X 14”) size paper for taking print.

Instructions for filling up the application form for State Level National Talent

Search Examination 1. The application form is meant for the students appearing at the State Level

NTS examination conducted by each state/UT. 2. The candidate/ Principal shall submit the form directly to the state/UT liaison

officer only. 3. The candidate/Principal must deposit the application fee, if any, prescribed by

state/UTs with application form.


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4. The candidate/Principal should leave the 4-Digit Centre code blank, to be

filled by the liaison officer / other authorities. 5. Note : – Students can enroll themselves for the examination through the

school only.For form submission details contact your regional NTSE Liaison Officer – Click here

for NTSE Liaison Officers ListFirst Stage: It has to be attested by your school Principal . And normally it is routed

through your school only. For Second level, you need not to apply , you will be

receiving the admit card from NCERT for the second stage Fees - 100 rs per candidates

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1) Intro – The Briham Mumbai GanitAdhyapak Mandal, an off-shoot of the Maharashtra

GanitAdhyapak Mandal was established in the year 1979 under the Public

Charitable Trust, Mumbai .GanitPravinya, and Pradnya, are two examinations that are organized by the Mandal

every year for the students of 5th and 8th Standards, while GanitParangat is conducted

for the students of 10th Standard. The Pravinya examination is open for all students of the

5th and 8th Standards who have secured more than 60% or more marks in the subject of

Mathematics in the final examination of the 4th and 7th school examination.2) Who conducts – The Briham Mumbai GanitAdhyapak Mandal, an off-shoot of the

Maharashtra GanitAdhyapak Mandal was established in the year 1979 under the

Public Charitable Trust, Mumbai .3) Benefit- Removing fear of Mathematics among the students, and To develop

interest and confidence in learning of mathematics among them Mandal celebrates its

prize distribution ceremony every year in April and felicitates the talented students.

Mathematics Pravinya Examination · Cash prizes to the first 25 students scoring 75% & above marks · Cash prizes to the first 2 students [each for standard 5th and 8th] · Certificates to each student eligible for Mathematics Talent Competition for

securing 75% & above marks in Mathematics Pravinya Examination.4) Subject (portion) – The candidates are advised to refer to the official website of

the Briham Mumbai GanitAdhyapak Mandal http://www.mumbaiganitmandal.com

/engreferencebooks.htm for the recommended list of Books and Periodicals

6) Schedule GanitPravinya Every year the schools receive the notification for the examination from the Mandal between 25th August and 10th September. The schools are required to submit the list of the students along with the prescribed fees for the examination to the Mandal between 20th September and 30th September. The examination is conducted normally on the first Sunday of December or the last Sunday of November. The result is generally declared on 5th of January and only the names of the students securing 75 or more marks out of 100 in the Pravinya examination are announced for the next level Pradnya examination.

Syllabus:- For 5th std :- 1st to 4th std. and upto 1st semester of std.5th

For

8th

std

:-

5th

to

7th

std.

and upto 1st semester of

std. 8th Ref. Books :-

Text

Books

+ Ganit Prabhutva (5th)

Text

Books

+

Ganit Prabhutva (8th)

Date ofResult :-

10rd January 2013on our website

Pravinyapragana

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GanitPradnya The names of the students securing 75 or more marks out of 100 in the Pravinya examination are announced for the next level Pradnya examination every year between 5th and 10th January. The list is sent to the school though the students are NOT required to apply separately for this examination.

The examination is conducted normally on the first or second Sunday of February while the result is generally declared between 10th and 15th of March.

GanitParangat Every year the schools receive the notification for the examination from the Mandal between 10th and 15th of October. The schools are required to submit the list of the students along with the prescribed fees for the examination to the Mandal between 10th and 15th of December. The examination is conducted normally on the first or second Sunday of December / February. The result is generally declared on 20th of March.

7) Format (Q/Hrs)-duration - The question papers are available for Pravinya Examination in Marathi, English,

Hindi, Urdu, and Gujrathi languages, while for Pradnya they are available in Marathi, English, Hindi, and Gujrathi languages.

The Pravinya examination duration is three hours, with 100 marks, while for Pradnya examination for 100 marks the allocated time is only two hours. There is no negative marking.

The following table summarizes the examination details Sr. No. Examination Time Marks 1 Pravinya 3 Hours 100 2 Pradnya 2 Hours 100 3 Parangat Hours 1008) Age restriction• The Pravinya examination is open for all students of the 5th and 8th Standards who

have secured more than 60% or more marks in the subject of Mathematics in the final examination of the 4th and 7th school examination. This is the qualifying examination for the Ganit Pradnya examination.

• The Pradnya examination is open for all students of the 5th and 8th Standards who have successfully cleared the Ganit Pravinya examination by securing 75 or 75 + marks out of 100

• The Ganit Parangat is conducted for the students of 10th Standard.9) Fees : Fees Rs.50/- per student

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1) Intro - Dr.HomiBhabhaBalvaidnyanikSpardha is an excellent way to make a

strong foundation for Science subject. It will help the student to be much ahead in the

science knowledge .The competition consists of Written Test, Practical Work and

Project work The examination consists of three stages 1.Written Test 2.Practical Examination 3.Viva Voce & Project 2) Who conducts : The Mumbai Science Teachers' Association conducts Dr. Homi

Bhabha Balvaidnyanik Spardha since 1981 to encourage students to take interest in

science, to inculcate scientific attitude and to search science talent in students. The

competition is conducted for the students studying in VI and IX Std. This competition

is based on scientific knowledge acquired by the students up to std. VI and IX. This

competition is conducted in English and Marathi Media.4) Subject (portion)-benefit-duration -

PhaseNo.

Descrip�on of the phase

Max Marks

Dura�on of exam.

Selec�on Procedure

Phase I Wri�en test100 mul�ple choice ques�ons based onscience & G.K.in science

100 90 min. a) Top 7.5% students are selected for phase IIb) Students obtaining marks above 35 will get Passing cer�ficate

Phase II Prac�cal Test :For VI std.:There will be 10experiments of 3 marks each based on general science.For IX std. :Physics:Chemistry:Biology:

30

10

10

10

30 min.

10 min.

10 min.

10 min.

a) All candidates getmerit cer�ficate.b) Selec�on for phase III -30%of the marks obtained in phase I and marks obtained in phase II

are considered.c) Top 10 % students areselected for phase III

Phase III Interview-a) Generalinterviewb) Evalua�on of ac�on research report

3030

5 to 10 min.5 to 10 min.

a) Considering 30% marks of Phase I, + Marks of Phase .II &Ph.III., top 10% will get Gold Medal, cer�ficateand scholar ship of Rs. 700/-b) Rest of the candidates will get silver medal, cer�ficates and prize of Rs. 100/-

HOMIBHABHA

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• Textbooks of IV, V and VI std of SSC syllabus and Content related to the above

from ICSE and CBSE books for 6th std.• Textbooks of VII, VIII and IX std of SSC syllabus and Content related to the above

from ICSE and CBSE books for 9th std.• Marathi medium students should refer the English medium textbooks and the

ICSE, CBSE books for examples.• Majority of the questions will be from SSS board text books.• Less emphasis will be given for knowledge based questions and more emphasis for

understanding, reasoning, correlation, etc.• The questions related to general knowledge in science will be based on the topics

like happenings of the last year and science around day to day life.• The written test consists of 100 questions :• 30 Physics • 30 Chemistry • 30 Biology • 10 General Science Awareness6) Schedule : Stage 1 : Mid September, 100 Marks, 90 Minutes Stage 2 (Practical Competition): Mid January Stage 3 (Interviews): Mid February7) Format (Q/Hrs)• There are no fixed cut-offs per se. Every year the cutoffs vary. They are mentioned

at the time of declaration of results.• The examination consists of three stages 1.Written Test 2.Practical Examination 3.Viva Voce &ProjectOne mark is alloted for each question. Total marks are

hundred. There is no negative marking.• 9) Fees 60 Rs per students ( 30 Rs for municipal school)

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1) Intro – A Mathematical Olympiad is a problem solving competition open to all

"mathletes". The aim of the competition is to test innate problem solving skills. The

problems are restricted to those that require minimal background and high

ingenuity. Since one of the goals of such olympiads is to identify talent at a young

age, these olympiads are usually restricted to students not yet admitted to any

undergraduate programme.2) Who conducts The Regional vMathematical Olympiad is a state level

examination, a stepping stone towards the national level examination, the INMO.

The Regional Mathematical Olympiad 2013 (RMO-2013) for Maharashtra and

Goa Region RMO stands for regional maths olampiad… but there are such

olmpiads for each subjects.2) Benefit – selected students from RMO goes to further level like imo (international

maths Olympiads)3) Subject (portion) Mathematical Olympiad Examinations have no specific

syllabus. However,the students are assumed to have knowledge of pre-calculus

Mathematics. In Mathematics Olympiad examination, there are no theory

questions. Generally,in RMO examination there are 6-7 problems to be solved in

three hours. Here is a brief outline of the topics to be studied. It is expected that the

student is well versed in all the topics that he/she has studied up to the 10th

Standard, as well as in the topics from the 11th Standard. syllabus such as:

Trigonometry, Geometry, Surds, Complex numbers, Quadratic Equations,

Permutations and Combinations, Binomial theorem, A.P., G.P.,H.P. and Principle

of Mathematical Induction. 1. Number Theory: Divisibility of integers, Euclid's algorithm to nd the GCD of

two integers. Expressing the GCD of two integers as a linear combination of the

two. There are in nitely many prime numbers. The fundamental theorem of

arithmetic. Arbitrarily large gaps in the sequence of primes. Representation of

positive integers in any base. Congruences. Chinese Remainder Theorem. Euler's

function,(n): Fermat's little theorem. Greatest integer function, Arithmetic

functions, Pythagorean triplets. 2. Algebra: Factorisation theorem. Remainder theorem. A polynomial of degree n

has at most n roots. Relations between roots and coefficients ofpolynomials of

degree n: Symmetric functions of roots. De Moivre's theorem and its applications.

A.M.-G.M. inequality, Root mean square inequality,Cauchy-Schwarz Inequality,

Tchebychev's Inequality. 3. Geometry: Euler line. Nine-point circle. Ptolemy's theorem. Ceva's theorem.

Menelaus' theorem, Constructions and Geometric inequalities.4. Combinatorics : Pigeonhole principle, Permutations and Combinations, Inclusion

RMO

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exclusion principle, Basic combinatorial numbers and combinatorial identities. Reference book - Mathematical Circles : Dmitri Fomin and others (University Press). Mathematical Circles : Dmitri Fomin and others (University Press).6) Schedule – it’s a theory based paper and not MCQ. paper attached here with

solution 7) Format (Q/Hrs) The RMO will consist of two tests, the first of duration 2 hours and the second of 3

hours. The first test will be based on multiple-choice questions (MCQ), and in the

second about 6 to 7 problems will be asked which the applicants will have to solve.

We shall grade all the answer-scripts of the first MCQ-based test and based on the

performance of the participants in it (i.e., the first test), we shall select an

appropriate number of participants whose answer-scripts of the second test will be

graded.8) Age restriction : The RMO is meant primarily for students of Class IX--XII. As

special cases, exceptionally talented students from Class VIII may be allowed to

appear at the discretion of the Regional Coordinator.9) Fees : 100 Rs

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EXAM ELIGIBILITY TENTATIVE DATE SYLLABUS EXAM PATTERN

KVPY

Students enrolled in the Std. XI & have secured a min of 80% marks in PCMB

Oct. 2014Anything from both CBSE and ICSE board

80 Objective Questions

NTSEStudents of Class- X

Nov. 2014Syllabus of class X along with advance level

MAT 50 & SAT - 90 Language Comprehensive test - 40.

NSEJSStudents born after 01-01- 1998 are eligible.

Nov. 2014CBSE up to 10 PCMB roughly equal weightage

CBSE up to 10 PCMB roughly equal weightage

INJSO (NSEJS: L-2)

Students selected from Stage I examination (NSEJS)

Feb. 2015CBSE up to 10 PCMB roughly equal weightage

Time: 3 hrs.

HBBVSStudents in Class

9th Sept. 2014

Textbooks of VII ,VIII and IX std of SSC, CBSE and ICSE

100 Q in 90 min PCB- 30 M each GK – 10M

NSTSE Class 2-12 Feb. 2015Based on the CBSE syllabus

100Q-100M-90minutes, M- 25, P25, C20, B20, General-10

RMO Class IX-XII Dec. 2014 Up to class XII3-hour written test 6 to 7 problems.

MTSE (Maths) Class 3-9 Feb. 2015As per syllabus of CBSE and ICSE of respective classes

50Q -90Minute +2M for correct and -0.5 for wrong

Ganit Pravinya

Aspirants who have passed 7th class with min score of 60% in Maths

Dec. 201460% Mathex Book, 20% Text book, 20% advance level

Time: 3 hours Marks : 100 Marks

NEMC (Prabhutva)Students of Class V & VIII

Dec. 20145th to 7 std. & upto 1st semester of 8th

Time: 3 hours Marks : 100 Marks

IMO Class 1-12 Dec. 2014

Syllabus mentioned on the science Olympiad foundation website

50Q in 1hr divided into 3 sections

NSO Class 1-12 Nov. 2014

Syllabus mentioned on the science Olympiad foundation website

50Q in 1hr Section I: 15Q on MA Section II: 35Q on PCB

EXAMS AT A GLANCE

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GENERAL MENTAL ABILITY TEST

Directions : Find the odd term out.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

(1) (2) (3) (4)

Q. 1 and 2.

1.

2.

Directions : In the following questions a specificQ. and 4.

group is given. From the given alternatives, find out the right termwhich matches the given group.

3 123, 147, 173

(1) 201 (2) 225 (3) 169 (4) 144

4 XWVU, SRAP, NMLK

(1) BCDE (2) QRST (3) MNOP (4) IHGF

Directions : Write which number or alphabet inQ. 5 to 8.

sequence replaces the question mark (?)

5 1234, 1240, 1246, 1258, 1268, ?

(1) 1280 (2) 1284 (3) 1285 (4) 1290

6 21, 23, 29, 47, 75?

(1) 87 (2) 92 (3) 99 (4) 110

7 K16M, H19J, E22G?

(1) D23B (2) B24D (3) B25D (4) C24E

8 MNZA, LOYB, KPXC, JQWD?

(1) IREV (2) HSUF (3) GTTG (4) IRVE

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Q. 9 to 12. —> Directions :— In each of the following questions there is a specific relationship between the first and second term. The same relationship exists between the third and fourth term which will replace the question mark (?). Select the correct term from the alternatives given.

9. EFH : ILM : : ? : ?.

(1) ILM : OPQ (2) EGH : IMN (3) OPR : URT (4) OPQ : UBT

10 BJH : EQL : : DNJ : ? (1) IYO (2) KZQ (3) GKI (4) GUN

11.

?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

12.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

?

: :: :

: :: :

13. ambccmamcbcamcabacamcmamcb. In the given alphabet series how many times 'm' is preceded by 'a' and succeeded by 'c'

(1) 6 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 4

14. In a certain code language if SAM is written as 15321, then in the same code how will the word ART be written ?

(1) 32022 (2) 20181 (3) 11820 (4) 22203

15. In a certain code language if D = 4 and DEAR = 7, then how will the ward HOTEL be written ?

(1) 8 (2) 10 (3) 12 (4) 20

16. A, B, C, D, E and F are six families living in different houses in a row. F and D are neighbours of B. E is neighbor of A and C. A is not a neighbour of F or D also if C is not a neighbour of D, then who is the neighbors of F ?

(1) B and C (2) B and F (3) B and D (4) Only B.

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Q. 17 and 18.—> Directions :— Suresh and Urmila are good at singing. Suman being expert in elocution sings sweetly. Parag being an orator is also good at acting and singing. Vijaya, a dramatist, also delivers good lectures. Pictures drawn by Parag and Suresh are in great demand. Find answers to the following questions from the given alternatives.

17. Who has all the skills ?

(1) Suman (2) Urmila (3) Vijaya (4) Parag

18. Who is not an expert in elocution ?

(1) Suman and Vijaya (2) Vijaya (3) Suresh and Urmila (4) Urmila

19. A transparent square shaped paper is folded along the dotted lines. What figure will be obtained ? Find the figure from the alternative figures given :

(1) (2) (3) (4)

Answer FigureQuestion Figure :

Q. 20 and 21.—> Directions :— Find the correct alternative which will replace the

question mark.

21

(1) 262 (2) 622 (3) 631 (4) 824

22

(1) 5 (2) 19 (3) 27 (4) 89

22. Birthday of three siblings falls on 1st August. Ages of Kshama and Rama on 1st August

2002 were seven years and three years respectively. If Uma is neither elder to Kshama, nor

younger to Rama, then among the following, which is the birth year of Uma ?

(1) 1995 (2) 1994 (3) 1997 (4) 1999

Q. 23 to 25. —> Directions :— Find the odd term out.

23. (1) 7830 (2) 6234 (3) 3246 (4) 7521

24. (1) R22D (2) P36T (3) M29G (4) V24B

25. (1) CGLN (2) BDFH (3) EJOT (4) DHLP

1

59

36

4

551

4

35

78

9

246

6

38

24

1

?

5

6 1593

3

7

6

59 ?

18

8

4 50 1

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Q. 26 and 27. —> Directions :— Using alphabets A to Z in sections of figure I and II a code

has been created. First letter in every section is coded according to its shape and the

second letter is coded using a dot.

e.g. A is coded as ; C is coded as ; T is coded as ; L is

coded as

Figure Figure

26. What will be the code of RING ?

27. What will be the code of SEVAK ?

28. A rhythmic arrangement of alphabets is given. The missing letter alphabets appear in the same order in one of the alternative answers.

Find the correct alternative : ---bc--ca--cba--c--ca (1) abbcc (2) bacba (3) bbbcc (4) abcbb

AM OS BZ

NK WP FJ

XR HV UC

EL

TD IQ

YG

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

(1)

(3)

(2)

(4)

29. How many trapeziums are there in the following figure ?

(1) 20 (2) 10 (3) 08 (4) 24

Q. 30 and 31—> Directions :— In each of the following question figures changes in a particular order. Find out the correct figure from the alternatives which will replace, the question mark (?).

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30. Question Figures : Answer Figures :

31. Question Figures : Answer Figures :

(1) (2) (3) (4)

(1) (2) (3) (4)

32. Vivek is standing at the centre of a row of boys. Subhash sixth to the

right of Vivek. Niwas is standing fifteenth to the left of Subhash. Niwas is

standing eleventh to the right of Yogesh. Find the total number of boys

standing in a row.

(1) 38 (2) 41 (3) 40 (4) 42

33. If 'F' letter is on the upper surface of a cube, then which letter will be on the lower

surface ?

(1) B (2) C (3) D (4) E

34. The figure given below is folded to form a cube. Of the following figures, find the non-

relevant figure.

B

CA

D

EC

(1) (2) (3) (4)

Answer Figure

35. The adjoining figure is folded to form a cube. Of the following cub figures,

find the most relevant figure.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

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Q. 36 to 38. —>Directions :— Information was gathered based on observations of readers of three newspapers A, B and C. 26% people read newspaper A, 25% people read newspaper B, 14% people read newspaper C, 11% people read both newspapers A and B, 10% people read both newspapers B and C, 9% people read both newspapers A and C and 0% people read only newspaper C. Based on this information answer the following

36. What is the average of readers of all three newspapers ? (1) 1 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6 37. What is the average of people who read both A and B newspaper; but do not read C

newspaper ? (1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 638. What is the average of number of readers who read at least one newspaper ? (1) 40 (2) 50 (3) 60 (4) 65 39. A folded piece of square paper is shown as question figure. The paper is

unfolded. How will it look is shown in the alternatives. Select the correct alternative.

Question Figure : Answer Figures :

Q. 40 and 41.—> Directions :— Two tables are given below, to which two

groups of alphabets are written. In table I the row and columns are

numbered 0 -- 4 and in table II the rows and columns are numbered 5-9. The

alphabets in the tables represented first by their row number and then by

their columns number e.g. A is represented as A = 12, 44.

Table I Table II

(1) (2) (3) (4)

40 Which group of numbers represents DRAW ?

(1) 41, 66, 23, 55 (2) 14, 89, 12, 78

(3) 23, 57, 30, 68 (4) 32, 75, 44, 76

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41 Which group of numbers represents LOAN

(1) 95, 33, 12, 58 (2) 77, 10, 42, 97

(3) 68, 42, 03, 56 (4) 59, 24, 12, 67

42. A square piece of paper is folded and cut at specific spots as shown in the figure. The paper when unfolded will look as shown in one of the alternatives. Select the correct alternative.

Question Figure : Answer Figures

Q. 43 to 45. -----> Directions :— In each of the following questions there is a specific relationship between the first and second term. The same relationship exists between the third and the fourth term. Understanding the relation find the term which will replace the question mark (?).

43. 82 : 40 : : 36 : ?

(1) 19 (2) 15 (3) 74 (4) 17

44. 4 : 48 : : ? : 180

(1) 8 (2) 6 (3) 10 (4) 12

45. 15 : 36 : : 21 : ?

(1) 48 (2) 35 (3) 45 (4) 23

Q. 46 and 47. Directions :— Frontal surface of a cube of length 4 cm is painted

yellow. Similarly other surface is painted blue, the other two sides are painted

green and red. The cube is then converted into 64 small cubes. Answer the

following questions :

46. How many cubes have maximum two surfaces coloured ?

(1) 56 (2) 48 (3) 24 (4) 8

47. How many cubes have one surface painted yellow ?

(1) 24 (2) 32 (3) 16 (4) 8

48. Prakash is standing facing East. After turning 180° in anticlockwise direction,, he

travels straight for 8 km. Turning to right he travels 2 km, then again turns right

and travels 11 km, again turns right answer covers 6 km. How far is he from his

starting point ?

(1) 10 km (2) 3 km (3) 5 km (4) 13 km

(1) (2) (3) (4)

23


Q. 49 and 50. —> Directions :— Observe the pyramid of alphabets.

Answer the following questions :

49. Which term is related to the terms vwdlkc, qrxedw,

stzgfy ?

(1) fghpoq (2) mnsyxr (3) ubiqph (4) cehmsn

50.Find the term which replaces the question mark (?)

: dheif : mfogp : : sztau : ?

(1) eacif (2) yzsat (3) rxqwp (4) rsyfe

a

b c

d e f

g h i j

k l m n o

p q r s t u

v w x y z a b

c d e f g h i j

k l m n o p q r s

SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST

1. For magnification in spherical mirrors object height is

(1) Negative (2) Positive (3) For real images positive (4) For virtual images negative

2. Nipermag is an alloy of :

(1) iron, nickel, aluminium, cobalt (2) iron titanium, nickel; cobalt

(3) iron, nickel, aluminium, titanium (4) iron, nickel, cobalt, titanium '

3. If 6.4 A current flows continuously for 4 seconds through a circuit, find the number of electrons flowing :

-19 19 -19 19 (1). 4.8 x 10 (2) 4.8 x 10 (3) 1.6 x 10 (4) 16 x 10 4. After refraction of light through a glass slab, incident ray and refracted are :

(1) perpendicular (2) parallel (3) in a straight line (4) (1) and (3)

5. Convex lens is not used in :

(1) simple microscope (2) spectacles (3) telescope (4) flood lights

6. Magnetic field due to current carrying conductor depends on :

(1) current flowing through conductor (2) distance from the conductor

(3) length of the conductor (4) (1) and (2)

7. Correct order of resistivity of materials at 20°C :

(1) Conductors —> Insulators —> Alloys

(2) Alloys —> Insulators —> Conductors

(3) Alloys —> Conductors —> Insulators

(4) Conductors —> Alloys —> Insulators88. If sum of velocities of light in two media is 3.25 x 10 m/s and their difference is

80.75 x 10 m/s, find the refractive index of the second medium with respect to one:

(1) 1.25 (2) 1.6 (3) 1.5 (4) 1.3

9. The ability of a lens to converge or diverge light rays depends on :

(1) principal axis (2) focal length (3) object distance (4) image distance

24

25

26


10. The frequency of direct current is :

(1) 0 Hz (2) 50 Hz (3) 100 Hz (4) 25 Hz

11. As the thickness of the atmosphere increases colour of scattered light is found "

in the ..................................... order.

(1) blue, violet, yellow, red (2) violet, blue, yellow, red

(3) red, yellow, blue, violet (4) violet, blue, red, yellow

12. Value of acceleration due to gravity of earth is maximum :

(1) At centre of earth (2) At surface of earth

(3) At a height of 50 km from earth's surface

(4) At a height of 12 km from earth's surface

13 .......................................is obtained by heating Gypsum.

(1) Alum (2) Unhydrous CuSO (3) Burnt alum (4) Plaster of Paris4

14. S-block elements are :

(1) Elements of group I-A and III-B (2) Elements of group I-A and II-A

(3) Elements of group I-A and I-B (4) Elements of group I-A and II-B

15. Chemical formula of Bleaching powder is :

(1) Ca OCl (2) Ca(OCl ) (3) CaOCl (4) CaCl2 2 2 2 2 2

16. The elements in the same group have :

(1) Same number of shells (2) Atomic size decreases

(3) Same number of valence electrons (4) Metallic properties decreases

17. 2H S + SO —>3S + 2H O In the above reaction :2 2 2

(a) H S gets oxidised (b) SO gets reduced2 2

(c) H S gets reduced (c) S0 gets oxidised2 2

(1) (a) & (c) (2) (b) & (c) (3) (a) & (b) (4) (b) & (d)

18. Which of the following metals exist in their native state ?

(a) Calcium (b) Au (c) Zn (d) Ag

(1) (6) & (c) (2) (a) & (6) (3) (a) & (c) (4) (b) & (d)

19. Which of the solution will remain colourless with phenolphthalein indicator?

(1) Soap solution (2) Ca(OH) solution 2

(3) Vinegar solution (4) Baking soda solution

20. Aquaregia is a mixture of :

(1) 3:1 conc. HC1 and conc. HNO (2) 3:1 conc. HNO and conc. H SO3 3 2 4

(3) 3:1 conc. HNO and conc. HC1 (4) 1:3 conc. HC1 and conc. HNO3 3

21. The correct structural formula of Benzene is :

27


22. Identify the functional group present in Acetic Acid

23. Amongst the following, which solution shows Tyndall effect ?

(a) Salt solution (b) Milk (c) CuS0 solution (d) Starch solution4

(1) (a) & (d) (2) (c) & (d) (3) (a) & (c) (4) (b) & (d)

24. Which is the largest gland in the body ?

(1) Liver (2) Pancreas (3) Salivary glands (4) Stomach

25. Find the correct order of blood circulation through heart :

(1) Right atrium —> Right ventricle —> Lungs —> Left atrium —> Left

ventricle —> Body

(2) Right ventricle —> Right atrium —> Lungs —> Left atrium —> Left

ventricle —>Body

(3) Left atrium —> Left ventricle —> Lungs —> Right atrium —> Right

ventricle —> Body

(4) Left ventricle —> Left atrium —> Lungs —> Right atrium —> Right

ventricle —> Body

26. Of the following which plant hormone inhibits growth ?

(1) Cytokinins (2) Gibberelins (3) Auxins (4) Abscisic acid

27. Where are reflex arcs formed ?

(1) Brain (2) Spinal chord (3) Muscle (4) Skin

28. Two individuals produced from a single zygote are :

(1) Two girls looking similar (2) Two girls not looking similar

(3) Two boys not looking similar (4) One boy and one girl not looking similar

29 Of the following cross-pollination does not take place due to

(1) Wind (2) Water (3) Light (4) Animals

30. In hybrid cross the phenotypic ratio for F2 generation is :

(1) 1:3 (2) 3 : 1 (3) 1 : 2 : 1 (4) 2 : 1 : 1

31. Which is not a vestigial organ in human body ?

(1) Tail-bone (2) Ear Muscle (3) Inertial (4) Nail

32 .............................................is a man-made source of air pollution.

(1) Desert (2) Farming (3) Dust storms (4) Volcanic eruptions

33 .......................................can replace wood in cement bonded particle board.

(1) Rice straw (2) Glass (3) Wheat straw (4) Paper

28


34. Of the following which is a greenhouse gas ?

(1) Nitrogen. dioxide (2) Sulphur dioxide

(3) Carbon dioxide (4) Carbon monoxide

35. Every trophic level transfers.................................of its energy to the next level,

(1) 0.1% (2) 1% (3) 10% (4) 100%

36. "One nation, one voice, one leader and one flag", which person of the following

proclaimed the above slogan ?

(1) Mussolini (2) Hitler (3) Kemal Pasha (4) Napoleon Bonaparte

37. Find out the statement which does not cause to Imperialism :

(1) Prosperity of Asia and Africa

(2) Weakness of Asian and African Nations

(3) Need of raw material from Asia and Africa

(4) Growing agitation in Nationalistic movement in African and Asian continent

38. "Without Rousseau, the French Revolution would not have taken place",

proclaimed by :

(1) Napoleon Bonaparte (2) Mirabo (3) Robespierre (4) Callone

39. The person shown in picture is related to which incident ?

(1) Diplomatic Groupism in Europe

(2) The assassination of Francis Ferdinand

(3) Rebuilt and repaired the Keil canal

(4) 14 points.scheme had planned

40. Arrange the following events in chronological order :

(I) Warsaw Treaty (II) SEATO Treaty (III) Paris Summit (IV) NATO

Treaty

(1) (IV), (I), (II), (III) (2) (IV), (II), (1), (111)

(3) (III), (IV), (I), (II) (4) (III), (II), (I), (IV)

41. Which tax on salt was to be paid by the French people ? '

(1) Crown tax (2) Tally (3) Wainstam' (4) Gabble

42. The French were defeated due to diplomacy of.........................................in

Second Karnatic War between the British and the French.

(1) Robert Clive (2) Lord Dalhousie (3) Lord Ripon (4) Lord Wellesley

43. Who is considered to be first communist revolutionary in the World ?

(1) Kurensky (2) Kar Marx (3) Lenin (4) Trotski

44. Which one is incorrect pair about the computer peripherals ?

(1) Input Devices — Web Camera (2) Output Devices — Printer

(3) Communication Devices — Network Adaptor Card

(4) Storage Devices — Touch Screen

29


45. From which movement Ras Behari Bose got inspiration to establish Azad

Hind Sena ?

(1) The Civil Disobedience Movement (2) Quit India Movement

(3) Home Rule Movement (4) The Non-co-operation Movement

46. Which is the correct order of districts of Maharashtra from East to West ?

(1) Chandrapur —> Amravati —> Aurangabad —> Nasik

(2) Nasik —> Aurangabad —> Amravati —> Chandrapur

(3) Aurangabad —> Amravati —> Nasik —> Chandrapur

(4) Chandrapur —> Amravati —> Nasik —> Aurangabad

47 .............................................soil is known as regur.

(1) Laterite (2) Red (3) Black (4) Brown

48. In the given map of India, the shaded portion shows :

(1) Northern plain region

(2) Southern plateau region

(3) Coastal region

(4) Coastal region and Ghat region

49. Which group has correct matching, choose the correct answer from the codes

given below :

50. The cold desert in Himalaya is :

(1) Karakoram range (2) Ladakh range

(3) Kailas range (4) Siwalik range 151. Which of the following is a famous place associated with Mahabharat from

Punjab-Haryana plain ?

(1) Amritsar (2) Gurudaspur (3) Kurukshetra (4) Panipat

52. Which alphabet represents gulf in the given map of India ?

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

Group 'A' Group 'B'

(A) Tea' (I) Tripura

(B) Pineapple (II) Manipur

(C) Betel nut (III) Meghalaya

(D) Mulberry (IV) Assam

Codes :

(1) (A) - (I) (B) - (II) (C) - (III) (D) - (IV)

(2) (A) - (IV) (B) - (III) (C) - (I) (D) - (II)

(3) (A) - (II) (B) - (III) (C) - (IV) (D) - (I)

(4) (A) - (III) (B)- (IV) (C) - (II) (D) - (I)

30

Eur ka ACADEMY FOR EXCELLENCE53. In India, the state celebrates Bihu festival is :

(1) West Bengal (2) Bihar (3) Assam (4) Rajasthan

54. The temple shown below is located in which state ?

(1) Andhra Pradesh

(2) Tamil Nadu

(3) Kerala

(4) Karnataka

55. The river Bhagirathi originates at :

(1) Man Sarovar (2) Dev Prayag (3) Gangotri (4) Yamunotri

56. After partition how many members were there in Indian Constitution ?

(1) 399 (2) 389 (3) 299 (4) 289

57. In which form of the democracy people could directly rule over

themselves from the following given alternatives ?

(1) Direct democracy (2) Parliamentary democracy

(3) Presidential democracy (4) Indirect democracy

58. Find out the person from the picture and mention to which work he is

related ?

(1) Voting Rights of Women

(2) Status of women in law council

(3) Caste system is alike a hierarchy he exclaimed

(4) Eradication of caste inequality

59. According to "one person one vote" principle, where do we see equality in

our country with regards to the following domain ?

(1) Economic (2) Political (3) Social (4) Cultural

60. He/She can be called back with the written request of specific number of

voters, which country is adopted this method ?

(1) Australia (2) Fiji (3) United Arab Emirates (4) Switzerland

61. Which of the following is elected by direct voting ?

(1) President (2) Member of Lok Sabha

(3) Member of Rajya Sabha (4) Member of Vidhan Parishad

62. Which one of the following countries is not banned political parties ?

(1) Qatar (2) America (3) Oman (4) United Arab Emirates

63. In Asia and Africa continents women account in legislatures

is.............percent.

(1) 40 (2) 20 (3) 16.5 (4) 4.9

31


64. .......................................means accepting that opinions of others can be different

from, one's own opinion and so allowing other opinions to be expressed.

(1) Tolerance (2) Vigilance (3) Equality (4) Unity

65. Which one of the following is not a national party ?

(1) Indian National Congress (2) Nationalist Congress Party

(3) Trunmul Congress (4) Bahujan Samaj Party

66. Which of the following is not a feature of human wants ?

(1) Wants are complementary (2) Wants are competitive

(3) Wants are limited (4) Wants are variable

67. When did the 'Consumer Protection Act' come into force ?

(1) 1st June, 1986 (2) 1st July, 1989 (3) 1st June, 1988 (4) 1st July, 1987

68. How does inflation affect saving and capital formation?

(1) Decreases (2) Increases (3) Stabilizes (4) Expands

69. Hoarding of goods is a/an :

(1) Effect of inflation (2) Cause of inflation

(3) Effect of production (4) Effect of distribution

70. Which of the following statements is itot applicable to the capitalist economic

system ?

(1) Economic system is based on large production

(2) Means of production are owned by Government

(3) Economic system is based on huge exchange

(4) Only to get maximum profit is the objective3 371. If + = 3 and + = 9, find the quadratic equation whose roots are

and :

(1) x(x - 2) = 3 (2) x + ---- + 3 = 0

2 (3) x - 2x + 3 = 0 (4) x + ---- = 3

72. What type of graphs of the equation x + y = 5 and x - y = 1 will be ?

(1) Parallel lines (2) Intersecting lines (3) Lines coincide (4) Concurrent lines

73. Find the incorrect formula from the following :

2

x

2

x

32


74. In a 400 m running race, there are 'n' competitors and they are numbered at

random. Find the probability that Sujata, numbered 12, will get 6th rank in the

race ?

75. A person got a job with a fixed salary and a certain yearly increment. After 2

years his salary was Rs. 10,000 and after 4 years it was Rs. 15,000. Find his

salary after 10 years.

(1) Rs. 32,500 (2) Rs. 27,500 (3) Rs. 27,250 (4) Rs. 30,000

76. Multiply :

77. An obtuse angle of a rhombus is greater than twice the acute angle by 30°

Find the measure of each angle.

(1) 50° (2) 130° (3) 80° (4) 60°278. Find the sum of the cubes of the roots of the equation 3y - 14y + 8 = 0

3 3 379 Find the factors of the polynomial 8a + 27b + 64c - 72abc.2 2 2(1) (2a + 3b + 4c) (4a + 9b + 16c - 6ab + 12bc - 8ac)2 2 2(2) (2a + 3b + 4c) (4a + 9b + 16c + 6ab - 12bc + 8ac) 2 2 2(3) (2a + 3b + 4c) (4a + 9b + 16c - 6ab - 12bc - 8ac) 2 2 2(4) (2a + 3b + 4c) (4a + 9b + 16c - 6ab - 12bc + 8ac)

80. A class there are 60 students. The following pie diagram shows the number of

students according to blood-group. There are 8 students having lipod-group

A, 18 students having blood-group 'O'. Students having 'B' group are

represented by 120°. Find the number of students having 'AB' blood-group.

(1) 14 (2) 16 (3) 18 (4) 20

1

6(1) (2)

1

n 1(3)

n 1

n 1

n(4)

1728

27(1) 1736

27(2) 1730

27(2) 1732

27(2)

33


81. Which of the following hedrons have only three rectangular faces ?

(1) Right circular cylinder (2) Triangular prism

(3) Prism with square base (4) Triangular pyramid

82. In the figure given below, point D is on side BC of ABC such that

ABC = DAG. If AB = 9, AD = 4, AC = 5, then A ( DC) : ( BAC) =

(1) 81 : 16 (2) 9 : 4 (3) 4 : 9 (4) 16 : 81

83. The angle of elevation and the angle of depression are 30° and 60° respective

when seen from the top of the first building to the top and base of the second

building. If the distance between the bases of two building is 1.2 m, then fid

the height of big building.

(1) 163 m (2) 123 m (3) 143 m (4) 203 m

84. The equations of line AB and line PQ are y = -½ x and x = 2y respectively.

Find the measure of angle BOQ which is formed by intersection of line AB

and line PQ.

(Point P and point A are in first and second quadrant respectively)

(1) 60° (2) 150° (3) 90° (4) 120°

85. The area of triangle formed by joining the centres of three congruent externally

touching circles, is 493 sq-cm, then find the radius of circle.

(1) 7 cm (2) 7 cm (3) 73 cm (4) 43 cm

86. If the angle bisectors of DAB and CBA of any quadrilateral ABCD

intersects at the Point P, then find 2mAPB :

(1) C + D (2) C + B (3) A + B (4) A + D

87. In figure, for ABC, chord AB, chord BC, ABC = 72° and the angle bisector of ABC intersects the circle in Point D, then what is the measure of angle BEA ?

(1) 100° (2) 36° (3) 18° (4) 34°

A

B D C

0

0

D C

A B

P

B

C A

D

34


2 2 2 288. What is the value of sin 0 + sin 1 + sin 2 + .............. +sin 90 ?

(1) 0 (2) 45 (3) (4)

89. In trapezium PQRS, seg PQ seg SR. Diagonal PR and diagonal QS

intersects each other at point O. If PO = x + 4; QO = x + 2; RO = x + 10 and

SO = x + 7, then PQ : RS = ?

(1) 3:2 (2) 2 : 3

(3) 4 : 9 (4) 9 : 4

90. One solid hemisphere melted into solid sphere, then what is the ratio of radius

of solid sphere to radius of solid hemisphere ?

(1) 32 : 1 (2) 8 : 1 (3) 1 : 39 (4) 1 : 8

89

2

91

2

P Q

S R

O

LANGUAGE TESTINGENGLISH Directions (Q. Nos. 1-4) :Read the passage and answer the questions given below it :A large number of people are consuming packaged food because it has become a matter of convenience, pleases the taste buds and feels your stomach. Also, it is important to note the quality of packaging used for these products and whether additives are used or not to increase their shelf-life. For example, dairy products like milk that come tetra packs come without any additive and due to no contact with air, it remains fresh for a long period of time. The ready-to-eat food products are specially laden With preservatives and can have excess oil in form of trans fats, which can be a threat to health. I don't really advocate bakery products whether they are packaged or not. The problem with canned or processed food is that they have excessive salt or sugar. Cooking at home is always a healthy option. For example, even simply eating dal-chawal is far healthier option over junk food. What one needs to do is a little bit of time management and planning. We should stick to those food items that we are genetically used to such as Indian food cooked by traditional methods.1. Why are more and more people, consuming packaged food ? It is

because................................. (1) it is cheap (2) it is convenient, tasty and fulfilling (3) it is time consuming (4) it is good for health2. Ready to eat products are laden with......................... (1) Proteins (2) Vitamins (3) Minerals (4) Preservatives

35


3. Why do you think cooking at home is a healthier option ? It is because.......... (1) it does not contain preservatives or excess salt or sugar (2) it helps in time management and planning (3) it pleases the taste buds and fills the stomach (4) it is genetically good 4. Shelf-life of a product indicates........................ (1) place where it can be kept (2) its expiry date (3) length of time a product can be kept in a shop (4) its date of packagingDirections (Q. Nos. 5-8) :Read the passage and answer the questions given below it : The menace of plastic in the state truly came to the fore when thin plastic bags choked the drains and caused water logging during the 2005 floods in Mumbai. In the aftermath of the incident, the government proposed a complete ban on plastics but later decided to ban only bags of thickness less than 50 microns. Plastic degrades slowly which means it remains in the environment for a long time and is known to release toxic substances. However, it may be a long time before plastic is completely banned in the state due to its widespread utility. But the anti-plastic movement is gaining stream in cities such as Mumbai, Pune and Nagpur where 'Say no to plastic' campaigns have led to various citizens carrying cloth or paper bags for grocery and general shopping, while at the policy level, Mahabaleshwar recently issued a blanket ban on plastic usage in the hill station.5. What was a major cause of the Mumbai floods of 2005 ? (1) There was heavy, incessant rain for many days (2) Thin plastic bags had choked the drains and caused water logging (3) The rivers had too much of water (4) All the above reasons6. Mahabaleshwar has recently issued a blanket ban on : (1) policies against use of plastic (2) widespread anti-plastic bag campaign (3) plastic usage in the hill station (4) citizens carrying cloth or paper bag7. Why is plastic harmful for the environment ? (1) It degrades slowly and releases toxic, substances (2) It causes choking of drains (3) It leads to flood-like conditions (4) It causes waterlogging 8. A toxic substance is one which is............................... (1) non-poisonous (2) poisonous (3) harmful (4) fatal

36


Directions (Q. Nos. 9-12) :

Read the passage and answer the questions given below it :

Toy guns are not an option. Tejaswini, 29, used to do some 22 shooting as an NCC

cadet in Kolhapur but when she wanted to turn professional, she realized she had

no access to equipment and no means to acquire her own. In 1999, a coach,

Jaisingh Kusale, spotted potential in Tejaswini and loaned her a 10-metre air rifle.

Just as things were looking up, the coach passed away and the rifle was sent away

with his other belongings. "I had an 18-month break in my shooting career as I

had no access to a rifle," she recounts. "I had to make do with borrowed rifles and,

on one occasion,-even lost out in the trial for the National Games on account of a

bad rifle."

9. What problems did Tejaswini encounter when she decided to turn professional ?

(1) She was opposed by her parents. (2) She did not get proper coaching.

(3) She had no access to equipment and could not acquire it.

(4) She had to borrow rifles.

10. Why was she compelled to have a break of 18 months in her career ?

(1) Her coach passed away. (2) She had no access to a rifle.

(3) His rifle was sent away with his belongings.

(4) Her training was inadequate.

11. To make do with means........................

(1) adjust (2) accommodate (3) tolerate (4) refuse

12. She lost in the trial for National Games because of.....................

(1) bad shooting (2) bad rifle (3) match fixing (4) inadequate equipment

Directions (Q. Nos. 13 and 14) :

The following five sentences form a paragraph. The first and last sentenc are given.

Choose the order in which the three sentences (PQR) should appe to complete

the paragraph :

13. S1 In 1925, a disease destroyed the crops in one village.

S2 ...........................................................................................................

S3 ...........................................................................................................

S4 ...........................................................................................................

S5 The children were very happy to be back with their parents.

P Later the village people went back to retrieve their children.

Q The people began to starve.

R The chief decided to send the children of the village to live in a nea village.

Options :

(1) QRP (2) PQR (3) PRQ (4) RPQ

37


14. SI The month of Ramzaan is holy for the Muslims.

S2 ...............................................................................................................

S3 ...............................................................................................................

S4 ................................................................................................................

S5 On the first day of the next month, ,Shawwal, Id-ul-Fitr is celebrated.

P after sunset the fast is broken with fruits and food.

Q during the day, they say prayers and read the Quran.

R this month Muslims fast from dawn to dusk.

Options : (1) QPR (2) RQP (3) RPQ (4) PRQ

Directions (Q. Nos. 15 and 16) :

The following questions have the second sentence missing. Choose the

appropriate alternative to complete it.

15. A The ozone layer protects us from the harmful UV rays of the Sun.

B ................................................................................................................

C The ozone layer is decreasing due to gases called chlorofluoro-carbons.

(1) The ozone layer is a thin layer. (2) The UV rays cause skin cancer.

(3) Other layers of atmosphere are stratosphere and troposphere

(4) The Sun also gives us heat.

16. A Children were enjoying the dance festival.

B ................................................................................................................

C The Kathak dance style was liked the most.

(1) Good music was being played

(2) The artist wore colourful costumes

(3) It was the annual school festival

(4) Various styles of dance were being performed on stage.


Choose the correct word and fill in the blank :

17. A music festival was being held in the...............................

(1) Stadium (2) Stage (3) Auditorium (4) Emporium

18. One who is brilliant is called a..........................................

(1) Generous (2) Genial (3) Cordial (4) Genius

19. People gave..............................reports of the accident.

(1) ghostly (2) harmful (3) ghastly (4) dangerous

20. The class................................elected the monitor.

(1) unison (2) together (3) united (4) unanimously

21. City................................ have to face traffic jams frequently.

(1) dwellers (2) dealers (3) livers (4) man

38



Choose the correct meaning of the idioms and phrases :

22. A close shave :

(1) Something done badly (2) Clean shave (3) A narrow escape (4) Bad outfit

23. To get into rows :

(1) to arrange in a line (2) to present neatly (3) to get into a boat (4) to quarrel

24. To look upto :

(1) to watch carefully (2) to respect someone

(3) to search for something (4) to pay attention to

25. To be on cloud nine :

(1) to die (2) to win a prize

(3) to be very happy (4) to be unsure


In the following passage, there are some numbered blanks. Fill in the blanks by

choosing the appropriate word from the given options :

Legends will tell you that Flamingoes (26).........................not ordinary visitors to

Kutch. They were the honoured guests of king Lakho and he (27)............ the hunting

of Flamingoes that (28).................................to Kutch from various parts of the world.

For centuries the region (29)......................................a haven (30)..........................this

migratory bird. Flamingo City, an island in the middle of the Rann of Kutch,

(31)...............................the world over as the biggest breeding grounds of the

flamingo, (32).........................with bodies of hundreds of flamingo chicks. The parents

of these chicks (33).........................the island due to lack of food.

26 (1) is (2) are (3) have been (4) have

27. (1) has forbidden (2) forbade (3) forbidden (4) was forbidding

28. (1) comes (2) are coming (3) came (4) come

29. (1) has been (2) was (3) have been (4) is

30. (1) with (2) for (3) in (4) under

31. (1) knows (2) was known (3) are known (4) known

32. (1) is strewn (2) are strewn (3) strewn (4) has strewn

33. (1) fled (2) have fled (3) has fled (4) are fled


Choose the appropriate word and fill in the blanks :

34. The children were.....................by the sound of gunfire.

(1) terror (2) terrified (3) terrible (4) terrific

35. I am...........................than my elder brother.

(1) youngest (2) young (3) most young (4) younger

39


36. ................................use of water will help us conserve it.

(1) Judgmental (2) Judiciary (3) Judicious (4) Judiciously

37. The science project was presented......................

(1) effect (2) effectively (3) affect (4) effective

(Q. Nos. 38-40) :

Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word

38. Elaborate :

(1) decorative (2) short (3) brief (3) detailed

39. Alike :

(1) different (2) similar (3) distinct (4) unique

40. Ferocious :

(1) hungry (2) violent (3) dangerous (4) mild

40

ANSWER KEY NTSE STAGE - 1

Language Test (LT)MAT SAT

41


S.S.C RESULT 2013

st nd rdThey are 1 , 2 & 3 Highestin Entire Bhayandar & Mira Road

in MIRA BHAYANDAR

st

Drashti Bhalala

in SARASWATI VIDYALAYA

95.82 %

in MIRA ROAD

st

Karan Jha

in SARDAR PATEL (SVP)

95.64%

in ST. FRANCIS

st

Shrooti Verma 95.45%

in BHAYANDAR

nd

2

42


1ST RANKERS IN SCHOOL

DRASHTI B.

95.82%

1st in SARASWATI

KARAN JHA

95.64%

1st Rank in SARDAR PATEL

ANAND P.

93.45%

1st Rank in MOTHER MARY

ARCHANA MOURYA

92.18%

1st Rank in OXFORD

SWAPNA BHATT

92.18%

1st Rank in JESUS MARY

SHROOTI V.

95.45%

1st Rank in ST. FRANCIS

MANSI S.

92.55%

1st Rank in QUEEN MARY

DEEPAK SHINDE

92.18%

1st Rank in JESUS MARY

MAHINDER C.

90.00%

1st Rank in GOLDEN NEST

43

EUREKA'S CLUB 90

Anand P.1st Rank Mother Mary

93.45%

Saurav BhowmikSt Francis

93.64%

Shrooti Verma1st Rank in St Francis

95.45%

Karan Jha1st Rank in SVPV

95.64%

Drashti Bhalala 1st Rank in Saraswati

95.82%

92.36%

Archana ShettySt Francis

92.55%

Mansi Sawant1st Rank Queens Mary

Bhagyashree SarafSt Francis

92.91%

Kedar KhedekarMother Mary

93.09%

Omkar GawasSt Francis

93.27%

92.18%

Sahil Bhat2nd in St.xaviers

92.18%

Sumit GuptaOLN

92.36% 92.18% 92.18%

Archana Mourya1st Rank Oxford

Deepak Shinde1st Rank Jesus Mary

Swapna Bhatt1st Rank Jesus Mary

91.64% 91.27%

Aksah JohnsonHCC

Varun ShahSt Francis

91.82% 91.64% 91.64%

Haani NathwalaN.H

Preeti DhupiyaSt Francis

Sahil SurveMother Mary

91.09%

Sachin Nair2nd in Q.M

91.09%

Vinita WarangN.H

91.09% 91.09% 91.09%

Sonam JhaSVPV

Aakansha PandeySt Alloysius

Simran SharmaSt Alloysius

S.S.C. Results 2013Eur ka

ACADEMY FOR EXCELLENCE

50 STUDENTS GOT +90%

44

90.55% 90.55%

Nihal ShettySt Francis

Himanshi KhetanSt Francis

90.73%

Pratik RajkotiaSt Francis

90.73%

Sugandhita M.St Francis

90.73%

Prachi AgarwalSt Francis

90.36%

Shubham PardesiSt Francis

90.36%

Shivam TiwariMother Mary

90.55% 90.55% 90.55%

Shivani MishraSt Francis

Shubham ShahSaraswati

Poonam JajuPorwal

90.00% 90.00%

Mitali JainSt Francis

Abhilasha PoliwalMother Mary

90.18% 90.18% 90.18%

Shruti S.St.francis

Tuba KhanRoyal Girl

Dhruvi JainQ.M

Mahinder C.1st Rank Golden Nest

90.00%90.00%

Piyusha B.SVPV

90.00% 90.00% 90.00%

Gaurav NawalSt Francis

Shreyash ShettySt Francis

Aditya PandeyMother Mary

90.00% 90.00% 90.00%

Shrishti YadavQ.M.

Damini GuptaSt Francis

Shikha MishraSt Francis

90.00%

Vaibhav AgarwalMother Mary

90.00%

Mussadiq JakatiN.H

EUREKA'S CLUB 90S.S.C. Results 2013


45


89.45% 89.45% 89.45% 89.45% 89.27% 89.09%

Aakansha M St Francis

Mahima Nigam St Francis

Shweta Das St Francis

Priyanka K. Mother Mary

Shivani Sharma TSV

Mounish Shah D'Silva

89.09% 88.91% 88.80% 88.73% 88.55% 88.36%

Umar Azmi N.H

Viraj Darji TSV

Harsha Bagaria St Francis

Shivangi S.St Francis

Khushali Jain Porwal

Sanjana Nair St Francis

88.36%

88.00%

Arth Shah St.Xaviers

Rishi Singh GN

87.82%

Aditya Maurya TSV

87.82%

Mamta Suthar TSV

87.82%

Sagar Sen Mother Mary

87.45%

Meenakshi A.Holy Cross

87.27%

Jeevika Gupta St Francis

87.27%

Om Rajesh S.Q. M.

87.27%

Priyanka C.GN

87.09%

Shweta Jha TSV

87.09%

Sakshi Jain Porwal

87.09%

Mukesh M.SVP

86.91%

Pooja Kumavat TSV

88.36%

Kirtija KatheCosmo Po.

88.20%

Amita Panad Q. M.

88.18%

Hardik G.Porwal

88.18%

Shazia Iqbal St.xaviers

88.18%

Vishal Lodhani GN


46


86.00% 86.00%

85.64% 85.09%

84.91% 84.91%

86.91%

Shaina Shaikh TSV

86.91% 86.73% 86.73% 86.73% 86.55%

Sheha G. Q. M.

Akshita C.St Francis

Dimple Poddar Mother Mary

Nitin Pal Mother Mary

Namrata Singh Mother Mary

86.55%

Nishita Mehta TSV

86.00%

Akshay Rathod St Francis

Tushar Churi Divine Image

Anish NairSVPV

85.82%

Diksha Singh St Francis

85.64%

Deepak Yadav St Francis

85.64%

Surabhi Koyilot Mother Mary

85.64%

Tejas Ghag SVPV

Monish Pillai St Francis

85.09%

Chandanbala J.St Francis

Shubham PathakGN

85.45%

Athira AzadSt Francis

84.91%

Namita PoddarSt Francis

84.91%

Abhishek SMother Mary

Kiran KunwarMother Mary

Surbhi JajodiaFather Joseph

84.73%

Vedika BajajMother Mary

84.73%

Malay DoshiQ.M.

86.55%

Jinendra Jain Porwal

86.36%

Sahil Acharekar St Francis

86.36%

Aarti Khetan Holy Cross(W)

86.36%

Rishabh Pandey Mother Mary

86.36%

Sneha SinghSt. Francis

86.00%

Monika Singhal Mother Mary


47

Madhumita DasMother Mary

Shraddha TiwariSt Alloysius

Justy SherlySt. Xaviers

Ashish PramanickHoly Cross(W)

Khushboo ShahSt.Francis

Yogesh RajpurohitSt Francis

Nirav KalsaraSt Francis

Nikhil KawaTSV

Khushboo ShaikhBlossom

84.36% 84.18% 84.18% 84.18%

Chirag PatidarSt Francis

84.00%

Tanvi LokegaonkarSt Francis

84.00%84.00% 84.00% 84.00% 83.64%

Yash GuptaMother Mary

Roshan ShettyMother Mary

83.64% 83.64%83.64%

Rakesh JhawarTSV

Satyawan DhuriSt.Xaviers

Bhavesh MishraSt Francis

83.45% 83.40% 83.27%

Akshay TiwariSVPV

83.27%

Laxminarayan ModiSt Francis

83.09%

Arindam Ghoshal St Alloysius

83.09%

Rishabh MishraSt Francis

TanmaySVPV

82.91% 82.91%

Rohan BelelSt Francis

Pranit PatilSVPV

82.73% 82.73% 82.55%

Ankur BhanushaliSt Francis

82.55%

Dhiraj Sawant TSV

82.55%

Sristi Singh TSV

Ranjeet Pal MM

83.00%

84.55%

Ratan SinghQ.M.

84.60%

Neha BhandareSt Francis

Rutvi ShahDon Bosco

82.60%



48

82.55%

Saurabh JhaGN

Shubhankar S.TSV

Deepali OtiaN.H.

Sudarshan BagriSt Francis

82.36%

Shakeela Mansuri Mother Mary

82.18%

Shreya AgarwalSt Francis

82.18% 81.64% 81.64%

Haris QuaziN.H.

81.64%

Siddhesh JhaSt Francis

81.27%81.27%

Sumit MondalSt Francis

81.27%

Suman MondalSt Francis

81.27%

Rahul SinghRK Memorial

81.09%

Chetan H.SVPV

Saba Mulla N.H.

80.70% 80.20%

Namrata SarafSt Francis

80.55%

Simran BudiaSt Francis

80.55% 80.55%

Abhishek MishraTSV

Akshay KadamST.PAUL'S

80.18%

Shraddha M.Q.M.

80.00%

Sumit AvinashMother Mary

80.18%

Ashika KanchanSt Francis

80.00%

Amol MahadikMother Mary

80.00%

Rajlaxmi M.Mother Mary

80.00%

Reema AcharyaMother Mary

80.00%

Soumein GuchaitMother Mary

80.00%

Ronit PalaiSt Francis

80.00%

Shraddha M. N.H

80.00%

Shweta MishraSt.xaviers



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Maths Olympiad