MAT - I (2007)

W W W . T C Y O N L I N E . C O M

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MAT – I (2007)

1. In a proportion the multiplication of Ist and 4th terms is 40 and that of 2nd and 3rd terms is 2.5x then the

value of x is: (1) 16 (2) 36 (3) 75 (4) 90 2. Suppose it is 3 o’clock. After 20 minutes the angle between the smaller and bigger hands will be: (1) 20° (2) 30° (3) 110° (4) 120° 3. Two trains are moving in opposite directions at speeds of 60 km/hour and 90 km/hour. Their lengths are

1.10 km and 0.9 km respectively. The time taken by the slower train to cross the faster train in seconds is:

(1) 36 (2) 49 (3) 45 (4) 48 4. Ram takes a loan of Rs 10,000 and pays back Rs. 13,000 after 3 years. The compound interest rate

per annum will be approximately: (1) 8% (2) 9% (3) 10% (4) 11% 5. Hari buys a horse at a discount of 25%. At what percentage above the cost price should he sell to make

a profit of 25% over the original list price? (1) 25 (2) 30 (3) 40 (4) 66.67 6. The first three numbers in a series are –3, 0, 3. The 10th number in the series will be: (1) 18 (2) 21 (3) 24 (4) 27 7. Two solid spheres of radii 5 cm and 2 cm were melted and combined to form a bigger sphere. The

radius of the bigger sphere is:

(1) 2 31

(2) 3 31

(3) 8 31

(4) 9 31

8. The simplest value of

(1) 2 (2) 1.5 (3) 1.45 (4) 11

9. A solid cube with an edge of 10 cm is melted to from two equal cubes. The ratio of the edge of the smaller cube to the bigger cube is:

(1) 31

31 (2)

21 (3) 3

1

21 (4) 3

1

41

10. An angle is equal to 31 rd of its supplement. Find its measure.

(1) 60° (2) 80° (3) 90° (4) 45° 11. A man goes 15 metres due west and then 8 metres due north. How far is he from the starting point? (1) 19 metres (2) 16 metres (3) 17 metres (4) 15 metres 12. 25 bags of wheat each weighing 40 kg cost Rs. 2750. Find the cost of 35 bags of wheat if each bag

weighs 50 kg. (1) Rs. 5812.50 (2) Rs. 6212.50 (3) Rs. 4812.50 (4) Rs. 3812.50 13. Find the whole number which when increased by 20 is equal to 69 times the reciprocal of the number: (1) 7 (2) 5 (3) 3 (4) 2.5 14. A father’s age is three times the sum of the ages of his two children, but 20 years hence his age will be

equal to the sum of their ages. Then the father’s age is: (1) 30 years (2) 40 years (3) 35 years (4) 45 years 15. Ratio of Ashok’s age to Pradeep’s age is 4 : 3. Ashok will be 26 years old after 6 years. How old is

Pradeep now? (1) 18 years (2) 21 years (3) 15 years (4) 24 years


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16. A room 5 m × 8 m is to be carpeted leaving a margin of 10 cm from each wall. If the cost of the carpet is

Rs. 18 per m2, the cost of carpeting the room will be: (1) Rs. 702.60 (2) Rs. 691.80 (3) Rs. 682.46 (4) Rs. 673.92 17. A circle road runs around a circular garden. If the difference between the circumference of the outer

circle and the inner circle is 44 m, the width of the road is: (1) 4 m (2) 7 m (3) 3.5 m (4) 7.5 m 18. A garden is 24 m long and 14 m wide. There is a path 1 m wide outside the garden along its sides. If

the path is to be constructed with square marble tiles 20 cm × 20 cm, the number of tiles required to cover the path is:

(1) 1800 (2) 200 (3) 2000 (4) 2150 19. How many small cubes, each of 96 cm2 surface area, can be formed from the material obtained by

melting a larger cube of 384 cm2 surface area? (1) 8 (2) 5 (3) 800 (4) 8000 20. 2 cm of rain has fallen on a sq km of land. Assuming that 50% of the raindrops could have been

collected and contained in a pool having a 100 m × 10 m base, by what level would the water level in the pool have increased?

(1) 15 m (2) 20 m (3) 10 m (4) 25 m 21. A private telephone company serving a small community makes a profit of Rs. 12 per subscriber, if it

has 725 subscribers. It decides to reduce the rate by a fixed sum for each subscriber over 725, thereby reducing the profit by 1 paise per subscriber. Thus, there will be profit of Rs. 11.99 on each of the 726 subscribers, Rs. 11.98 on each of the 727 subscribers etc. The number of subscribers which will give the company the maximum profit is:

(1) 961 (2) 962 (3) 963 (4) None of these 22. A student is to answer 10 out of 13 questions in an examination such that he must choose at least four

from the first five questions. The number of choices available to him is: (1) 140 (2) 196 (3) 280 (4) 346 23. The number of ways in which a team of eleven players can be selected from 22 players including 2 of

them and excluding 4 of them is: (1) 16C11 (2) 16C5 (3) 16C9 (4) 20C9 24. An examination paper contains 8 questions of which 4 have 3 possible answers each, 3 have 2

possible answers each and the remaining one question has 5 possible answers. The total number of possible answers to all the questions is:

(1) 2880 (2) 78 (3) 94 (4) 3240 25. Five distinct letters are to be transmitted through a communication channel. A total number of 15 blanks

are to be inserted between the two letters with at least three between every two. The number of ways in which this can be done is:

(1) 1200 (2) 1800 (3) 2400 (4) 3000 26. A person standing on the bank of a river observes that the angle of elevation of the top of a tree on the

opposite bank of the river is 60° and when he retires 40 metres away from the tree the angle of elevation becomes 30°. The breadth of the river is:

(1) 40 m (2) 30 m (3) 20 m (4) 60 m 27. The horizontal distance between the two towers is 60 m. The angular elevation of the top of the taller

tower as seen from the top of the shorter one is 30°. If the height of the taller tower is 150 m, the height of the shorter one is: (1) 115 m (2) 200 m (3) 216 m (4) None of these


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28. A man observes that when he moves up a distance x metres on a slope, the angle of depression of a

point on the horizontal plane from the base of the slope is 30°, and when he moves up further a distance x metres the angle of depression of that point is 45°. The angle of inclination of the slope with the horizontal is:

(1) 60° (2) 45° (3) 75° (4) 30° 29. A class consists of 100 students. 25 of them are girls and 75 boys; 20 of them are rich and remaining

poor; 40 of them are fair complexioned. The probability of selecting a fair Complexioned rich girl is: (1) 0.02 (2) 0.04 (3) 0.5 (4) 0.08 30. In a class of 125 students, 70 passed in Mathematics, 55 in Statistics and 30 in both. The probability

that a student selected at random from the class, has passed in only one subject is:

(1)2513 (2)

253 (3)

2517 (4)

258

31. At a college entrance examination, each candidate is admitted or rejected according to whether he has passed or failed the test. Of the candidates who are really capable, 80% pass the test and of the incapable, 25% pass the test. Given that 40% of the candidates are really capable, then the capable college students are about:

(1) 68% (2) 70% (3) 73% (4) 75% 32. A committee consists of 9 experts taken from three institutions A, B and C, of which 2 are from A, 3

from B and 4 from C. If three experts resign, then the probability that they belong to different institutions is:

(1) 729

1 (2) 241 (3)

211 (4)

72

33. The number of observations in a group is 40. If the average of the first 10 is 4.5 and that of the remaining 30 is 3.5, then the average of the whole group is:

(1)4

15 (2)51 (3) 8 (4) 4

34. The mean of five observations is 4 and their variance is 5.2. If three of these observations are 1, 2 and 6, then the other two are:

(1) 2 and 9 (2) 3 and 8 (3) 4 and 7 (4) 5 and 6 35. The mean of 25 observations was found to be 78.4. But later on it was found that 96 was misread as

69. The correct mean is: (1) 79.48 (2) 76.54 (3) 81.32 (4) 78.4 36. From the top of a tower of height 100 m, a ball is projected with a velocity of 10 m/sec. It takes 5

seconds to reach the ground. If g = 10m/sec2, then the angle of projection is: (1) 30° (2) 45° (3) 60° (4) 80° 37. From the salary of an employee, 10% is deducted as house rent, 15% of the rest he spends on

children’s education and 10% of the balance, he spends on clothes. After this expenditure he is left with Rs. 1377. His salary is:

(1) Rs. 2000 (2) Rs. 2040 (3) Rs. 2100 (4) Rs. 2200 38. The price of an article is cut by 20%. To restore it to its original price, the new price must be increased

by:

(1) 20% (2) 22 %21 (3)25% (4) 40%

39. The average of marks obtained by 120 candidates was (1) 100 (2) 110 (3) 120 (4) 150


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39. If the average of the passed candidates was 39 and that of the failed candidates was 15, then the

number of candidates who passed the examination was: (1) 100 (2) 110 (3) 120 (4) 150 40. A student scored 30% marks in the first paper of Physics out of 180 marks. He has to get an overall

score of at least 50% in two papers. The second paper is carrying 150 marks. The percentage of marks he should score in the second paper to get the overall average score is:

(1) 80% (2) 76% (3) 74% (4) 70% 41. Who is the Secretary General of SAARC? (1) Ban Ki-moon (2) Dr. Karan Singh (3) Q.A.M.A. Rahim (4) None of these 42. Which is the largest tea-producing country? (1) China (2) India (3) Sri Lanka (4) Kenya 43. Which of the following Indian banks is not a nationalized bank? (1) Syndicate Bank (2) Bank of India (3) Federal Bank (4) Vijaya Bank 44. Which two-wheeler major has recently announced that it is developing a concept for a small car? (1) TVS (2) Hero Honda (3) Bajaj Auto (4) Kawasaki 45. Which group has recently launched its mobile services into the European market? (1) Tata Group (2) Bharti Group (3) Idea Cellular (4) Hutch 46. Which bank is known to be India’s second-largest? (1) SBI (2) PNB (3) ICICI (4) HDFC 47. interestingly, which well-known industrialist(s) subscribed in a big way to the recently launched ICICI’s

mega equity offer? (1) Mukesh Ambani (2) Azim Premji (3) Rahul Bajaj (4) All of these 48. Who has been recently appointed as Chairman of ONGC? (1) R.S. Sharma (2) Subir Raha (3) Bimal Jalan (4) G.N. Bajpai 49. The Union government has exited Maruti Udyog completely by selling its residual stake of ___ for Rs.

2,360 crore to financial institutes. (1) 15.27% (2) 20.27% (3) 13.27% (4) 10.27% 50. Navratna status has been conferred on: (1) HAL (2) BEL (3) PFC (4) All of these 51. India’s economic growth rate is the second highest in the world after: (1) China (2) Japan (3) UK (4) Russia 52. which of the following countries is the largest trading partner and foremost export destination of India? (1) Russia (2) China (3) USA (4) Brazil 53. Who among the following Bollywood actors was presented the Silver Star award for outstanding

contribution in increasing HIV/AIDS awareness? (1) Shabana Azmi (2) Rekha (3) Amitabh Bachchan (4) Shilpa Shetty 54. Which of the following companies is associated with the exploration and commercial production of oil in

Barmer- Sanchore basin of Rajasthan? (1) Reliance Energy (2) ONGC (3) Cairn Energy (4) Indian Oil Corporation 55. G-8 group of nations consists of ___ nations of the world: (1) Developing (2) most industrialized (3) poor nations (4) populous 56. Who is India’s first trillionaire with over Rs 1, 00,000 crore of net worth in his company’s share

holdings? (1) Anil Ambani (2) Azim Premji (3) Mukesh Ambani (4) Ratan Tata 57. Miss Universe 2007 crown was won by Ms Riyo Mori of: (1) Brazil (2) Venezuela (3) USA (4) Japan


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58. What is the targeted literacy rate by the end of the Tenth Plan? (1) 70% (2) 80% (3) 65% (4) 75% 59. World Population Day is observed on: (1) June 11 (2) August 11 (3) July 11 (4) December 11 60. Which group has stepped into the retailing segment with the launch that will operate under the brand

name ‘More’? (1) Tata group (2) Reliance group (3) Aditya Birla group (4) Mahindra & Mahindra group Directions for questions 61 – 64: Answer these questions based on the information given. In a car exhibition, seven cars of seven different companies viz. Cadillac, Ambassador, Fiat, Maruti, Mercedes, Bedford and Fargo were displayed in a row, facing east such that: I. Cadillac car was to the immediate right of Fargo. II. Fargo was fourth to the right of Fiat. III. Maruti car was between Ambassador and Bedford. IV. Fiat, which was third to the left of Ambassador Car, was at one of the ends. 61. Which of the following was the correct position of the Mercedes? (1) Immediate right of Cadillac (2) Immediate left of Bedford (3) Between Bedford and Fargo (4) Fourth to the right of Maruti 62. Which of the following is definitely true? (1) Fargo car is between Ambassador and Fiat. (2) Cadillac car is to the immediate left of Mercedes. (3) Fargo is to the immediate right of Cadillac. (4) Maruti is fourth to the right of Mercedes. 63. Which of the following is definitely true? (1) Maruti is to the immediate left of Ambassador. (2) Bedford is to the immediate left of Fiat. (3) Bedford is at one of the ends. (4) Fiat is second to the right of Maruti. 64. Which of the following groups of cars is to the right of the Ambassador car? (1) Cadillac, Fargo and Maruti (2) Maruti, Bedford and Fiat (3) Mercedes, Cadillac and Fargo (4) Bedford, Cadillac and Fargo 65. A party consists of grandmother, father, mother, four sons and their wives and one son and two

daughters to each of the sons. How many females are there in all? (1) 14 (2) 16 (3) 18 (4) 24 66. Lakshmi and Meena are Rohan’s wives; Shalini is Meena’s step-daughter. How is Lakshmi related to

Shalini? (1) Sister (2) Mother-in-Law (3) Mother (4) Step-mother 67. Daya has a brother, Anil. Daya is the son of Chandra. Bimal is Chandra’s father. In terms of

relationship, what is Anil of Bimal? (1) Son (2) Grandson (3) Brother (4) Grandfather 68. Rahul’s mother is the only daughter of Monika’s father. How is Monika’s husband related to Rahul? (1) Uncle (2) Father (3) Grandfather (4) Brother


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Directions for questions 69 – 72: Complete the series. 69. MHZ, NIW, OKT, PNQ,? (1) RRN (2) QRN (3) QRM (4) QQN 70. Q1F, S2E, U6D, W21C,? (1) Y66B (2) Y44B (3) Y88B (4) Z88B 71. (2, 3), (3, 5), (5, 7), (7, 11), (11, 13), ? (1) (13, 15) (2) (15, 16) (3) (13, 17) (4) (13, 19) 72. CAT, FDW, IGZ, (1) KJA (2) KTC (3) LHD (4) LJC 73. The burning of coal, oil and other combustible energy sources produces carbon dioxide, a natural

constituent of the atmosphere. Elevated levels of carbon dioxide are thought to be responsible for half the greenhouse effect. Enough carbon dioxide has been sent into the atmosphere already to cause a significant temperature increase. Growth in industrial production must be slowed, or production processes must be changed.Which of the following, if true, would tend to weaken the strength of the above conclusion?

(1) Many areas of the world are cold anyway, so a small rise in temperature would be welcome. (2) Carbon dioxide is bad for health (3) Most carbon dioxide is emitted by automobiles. (4) Industry is switching over to synthetic liquid fuel extracted from coal. 74. Psychological research indicates that college hockey and football players are more quickly moved to

hostility and aggression than are college athletes in non-contact sports such as swimming. But the researchers’ conclusion—that contacts sports encourages and teaches participants to be hostile and aggressive—is untenable. The football and hockey players were probably more hostile and aggressive to start with, than the swimmers. Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the conclusion drawn by the psychological researchers? (1) The football and hockey players became more hostile and aggressive during the season and

remained so during the off season, whereas there was no increase in aggressiveness among the swimmers.

(2) The football and hockey players, but not the swimmers, were aware at the start of the experiment that they were being tested for aggressiveness.

(3) The same psychological research indicated that the football and hockey players had a great respect for cooperation and team play, whereas the swimmers were most concerned with excelling as individual competitors.

(4) The research studies were designed to include no college athletes who participated in both contact and non-contact sports.

75. For our nation to compete successfully in the high technology enterprises of the future, workers with skills in maths and science will be needed. But it is doubtful that they will be available, since there is a shortage of high school maths and science teachers that shows no signs of improving. Industry can help alleviate this problem by funding scholarship grants and aid to college students who graduate in maths and science with the hope of pursuing teaching careers. Which of the following, if true, would most probably prevent the proposed plan from achieving its intended effect? (1) After graduation from college, most maths and science graduates opt for jobs in industry rather

than in teaching. (2) Many high schools have been forced to lower their standards in hiring maths and science

teachers.


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(3) More scholarship money is already available for students of maths and science than is available

for those in any other field. (4) Population statistics show that the number of high school students is expected to decline over

the next ten years. 76. Some scientists believe that, in certain species of birds, actual particles of metal within the brain react

to the Earth’s magnetic field in the same way as the needle in a compass. It is this mechanism that is thought to underlie the birds’ amazing ability to navigate accurately over distances of thousands of miles by day and night during migration. To test this theory, researchers surgically removed the metal particles from the heads of some birds and then released them, along with a number of untreated birds, at the usual time and place of their annual winter migration. Which of the following results would most seriously weaken the theory being tested? (1) The untreated birds were confused by the erratic flight patterns of the surgically treated birds and

failed to migrate successfully. (2) The surgically treated birds were able to follow their usual flight patterns successfully by day, but

not by night. (3) The surgically treated birds were able to migrate about as accurately as the untreated birds.

(4) The surgically treated birds were able to migrate successfully only when closely following a group of untreated birds.

Directions for questions 77 – 80: There are six steps on a staircase leading from the ground floor to the first floor. Denote the first step by 1, second by 2, and so on. There are four people P, Q, R and S. No two people can be on the same step. I. P is two steps below R. II. Q is on the next step to S. III. R is two steps below S. 77. If P is on the first step, on which step is S? (1) Third (2) Fourth (3) Fifth (4) Sixth 78. If P is on the first step, which of the following is true? (1) Q is on the second step (2) R is on the fourth step (3) S is on a higher step than R (4) Step four is empty 79. If T was on the third step which of the following pairs is incorrect? (1) Q—fifth step (2) R—fourth step (3) Q—fourth step (4) S—sixth step 80. If T joined P, Q, R and S, and T was on the third step, and Q was on a higher step than T, which step

must be vacant? (1) First (2) Second (3) Sixth (4) Fourth 81. India has collaborated with which country to produce the supersonic cruise missile Brahmos? (1) USA (2) Israel (3) France (4) Russia 82. The global watch brand Citizen is endorsed in India by which personality? (1) Rahul Dravid (2) Yuvraj Singh (3) Sushmita Sen (4) Sachin Tendulkar 83. Which of the following is the world’s largest travel company? (1) Landmark (2) White Mischief (3) Kuoni Travel (4) Thomas Cook


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84. The punch line ‘The Power of Knowledge’ is associated with which newspaper? (1) Hindustan Times (2) The Economic Times (3) The Times of India (4) The Financial Express 85. Which company is India’s largest transporter and marketer of petroleum gas? (1) GAIL (2) ONGC (3) HPCL (4) Reliance 86. The government has approved the merger of Air India and: (1) Jet Airways (2) Indian Airlines (3) Pawan Hans (4) Air Deccan 87. Which countries are separated by the McMahon line? (1) India and Bangladesh (2) India and Pakistan (3) China and Tibet (4) India and China 88. IAEA stands for: (1) Indian Atomic Energy Agency (2) International Atomic Energy Association (3) International Atomic Energy Agency (4) None of these 89. Fortis Health has entered into an agreement with which real estate company for floating a joint venture

to set up hospitals across the country? (1) Unitech (2) Omaxe (3) DLF (4) None of these 90. Which oil company is involved in Greenfield refinery at Bhatinda? (1) HPCL (2) Indian Oil (3) BPCL (4) IBP 91. The proposed ‘Micro-Finance Bill’ is concerned with: (1) Regional Rural Banks (2) Co-operative Banks (3) NABARD (4) All of these 92. For attaining 9% growth rate during the 11th Plan, investment level has been estimated to be: (1) 20% of GDP (2) 25% of GDP (3) 30% of GDP (4) 35% of GDP 93. Bilateral trade between India and Europe is expected to touch a level of $ ____ billion by 2010. (1) 50 (2) 75 (3) 100 (4) 110 94. Which of the following is not a trade association? (1) CII (2) FICCI (3) ASSOCHAM (4) ICWAI 95. Transparency International India (TII) is a: (1) Government Autonomous Body (2) Non-Governmental Organization (3) Public-Private Partnership (4) Work Bank Unit 96. The Union Commerce Minister is: (1) P. Chidambaram (2) Kamal Nath (3) Arjun Singh (4) None of these 97. International Finance Corporation is the private sector lending arm of: (1) Asian Development Bank (2) World Bank (3) ICICI (4) IDBI 98. CMD of Biocon is: (1) Keshab Mahindra (2) Sarthak Behuria (3) Kiran Mazumdar-Shaw (4) None of these 99. VAIO Notebook is a product of: (1) Sony (2) Compaq (3) Intel (4) Dell 100. The total received from Indian software export during 2006-07 has been about: (1) $10 billion (2) $20 billion (3) $30 billion (4) $40 billion


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Directions for questions 101 – 103: Study the following bar and pie charts giving details of Foreign and Domestic Sales of M/s Technics Limited for the period 2001 to 2005 to answer these questions

M/s Technics Limited: Foreign and Domestic Sales (2001- 05) Sales in Millions of Rupees

0123456789

10

2001 2002 2003 2004 2005

Domestic Sales Foreign Sales

Foreign Sales in 2005

Europe 22%

Japan35%

USA25%

Others20%

101. What was the total Rupee value of foreign sales by M/s Technics Limited in 2001and 2002? (1) Rs. 10,00,000 (2) Rs. 20,00,000 (3) Rs. 30,00,000 (4) Rs. 50,00,000 102. In 2004, foreign sales accounted for what per cent of total sales by M/s Technics Limited? (1) 15% (2) 20% (3) 25% (4) 33.3% 103. If sales to the USA in 2003 accounted for the same per cent of foreign sales as Japan in 2005, what

was the Rupee value of sales by M/s Technics Limited to USA in 2003? (1) Rs .10,50,000 (2) Rs. 12,50,000 (3) Rs. 13,75,000 (4) Rs. 14,25,000


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Directions for questions 104 – 107: Study the following bar graph and line graph giving details of ‘Number of Workers Employed’ and ‘Number of Units Shipped’ respectively of M/s Mega Corp Limited to answer these questions.

M/s Mega Corp Limited: Number of Workers Employed and Units Shipped

Number of Workers Employed

0100200300400500600700800900

Jan Fab-1 1-Mar 1-Apr 1-May

Temporary Permanent

Number of Units shipped (Monthly Total)

0

10000

20000

30000

40000

50000

Jan Feb March April May

104. By what per cent did the number of temporary workers employed by M/s Mega Corp Limited increase

from April 1 to May 1? (1) 40% (2) 25% (3) 20% (4) 12% 105. What was the difference, if any, between the number of permanent workers employed by M/s Mega

Corp Limited on March 1 and the number of permanent workers employed on April 1? (1) 0 (2) 50 (3) 100 (4) 150 106. What was the total number of units shipped by M/s Mega Corp Limited for the months of January,

February and March (approximately)? (1) 40,000 (2) 55,000 (3) 60,000 (4) 70,000 107. If on May 1, 60% of the permanent workers and 40% of the temporary workers employed by M/s Mega

Corp Limited were women, how many of the workers employed by M/s Mega Corp Limited at that time were women?

(1) 200 (2) 120 (3) 410 (4) 260


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Directions for questions 108 – 111: Study the table below to answer these questions. Unit Sales of Television Sets (TVs) of Various Companies

Size Company Colour Black & White Total LG 10 12 22 Onida 20 15 35 Sony 6 20 26

14”

Videocon 8 5 13 LG 6 10 16 Onida 10 15 25 Sony 20 25 45

17”


21”


29”

Videocon 8 12 20 108. Which company’s TVs are sold the most? (1) LG (2) Onida (3) Sony (4) Videocon 109. What percentage of black & white TVs sold are from Videocon? (1) 24% (2) 29% (3) 14% (4) 19% 110. What percentage of 21” TV sets sold is of LG? (1) 26% (2) 23% (3) 30% (4) 20% 111. What is the sale price of a 21” colour TV set from Sony Company if each colour TV set is Rs. 2,000

cheaper than the next higher size and the total earning from the sale of Sony colour TV sets is Rs. 7.5 lakh?

(1) Rs. 10,000 (2) Rs. 12,000 (3) Rs. 14,000 (4) Rs. 16,000 Directions for questions 112 – 116: Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II. Decide whether the data provided in the statements is sufficient to answer the question. Mark answer as: (1) if the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone

is not sufficient to answer the question. (2) if the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone

is not sufficient to answer the question. (3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statemen II alone is sufficient to answer the question. (4) if the data in both statements I and II together is sufficient to answer the question. 112. How many items did the distributor purchase? I. The distributor purchased all the items for Rs 4,500. II. If the distributor had given Rs 5 more for each item he would have purchased 10 items less.


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113. How long will it take to fill a tank? I. One pipe can fill the tank completely in 3 hours . II. Second pipe can empty that tank in 2 hours. 114. What will be the area of a plot in sq metres? I. The length of that plot is that plot. II. The diagonal of that plot is 30 metres. 115. What will be the cost of painting of the inner wall of a room if the rate of painting is Rs. 20 per sq m? I. Perimeter of the floor is 44 feet. II. Height of the wall of the room is 12 feet. 116. What will be the compound interest after 3 years? I. First number is 60 per cent of the other number. II. 50 per cent of the sum of the first and second numbers is 24. Directions for questions 117 – 121: These questions consist of two quantities, one in Column A and one in Column B. Compare the two quantities. Mark your answer as: (1) if the quantity in Column A is greater (2) if the quantity in Column B is greater (3) if the two quantities are equal (4) if the relationship cannot be determined from the information given Column A Column B 117. 32 23

118.

452

436

−

+ (3)2

119. 31 of 8

3266 % of 4

120. 41 +

251

41 +

251

121. The average of 49.0 .43 and 0.8 75 %

Directions for questions 122 – 125: Study the table below and answer the following questions. The table shows the results of a survey conducted in a city regarding their preferences for watching Hockey and Football.

Hockey Football Both Total Sample Surveyed

Age Group

Male Female Male Female Male Female Male Female (Years) 16 - 25 40 30 30 20 10 15 100 120 26 - 35 160 120 180 100 80 65 260 160 36 - 45 50 40 40 50 30 20 200 430


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122. How many of the people surveyed preferred only one of the sports? (1) 410 (2) 450 (3) 430 (4) 420 123. What percentage of people surveyed in the age group of 26-35 years do not prefer any of the sports? (1) 1.2% (2) 98.8% (3) 55% (4) 45% 124. What is the highest percentage of people surveyed of any age group preferring both the games? (1) 16.5% (2) 34.5% (3) 65.5% (4) 83.5% 125. What is the ratio of the people in the age groups 16 - 25, 26 - 35, and 36 - 45 years that prefer at least

one sport? (1) 19 : 26 : 83 (2) 19 : 83 : 26 (3) 26 : 19 : 83 (4) 83 : 26 : 19 Directions for questions 126 - 129: Study the table below to answer these questions. The table gives the Production Capacity and Percentage Capacity Utilisation in respect of Motor Cycles, Scooters, and Mopeds for the Years 2001-2006 for an Automobile Company. Production Capacity in ’000 Units

Product Motor Cycles Scooters Mopeds Year

Capacity Utilisation % Capacity Utilisation % Capacity Utilisation %2001 170 70 28 75 240 40 2002 200 63 35 60 260 40 2003 200 65 30 80 270 40 2004 210 60 40 50 260 45 2005 225 60 40 55 260 50

126. What is the overall capacity utilization for all products taken together for the year 2001? (1) 71% (2) 60% (3) 54% (4) 49% 127. What is the approximate overall growth rate of total capacity for the period shown? (1) 20% (2) 15% (3) 10% (4) 5% 128. In which of the following years was the production of Motor Cycles the maximum? (1) 2002 (2) 2003 (3) 2004 (4) 2005 129. What is the average production of Scooters over the period shown? (1) 21600 (2) 26800 (3) 23200 (4) 19400

Directions for questions 130 – 133: Study the table below to answer these questions. Status of Electricity Generated and Purchased by a State

(Power in MWh) Period Electricity Locally

Generated X Electricity

Purchased from Grid Y

Total Power Available

X+Y 2000-01 1792 1250 3042 2001-02 1862 1540 3402 2002-03 1238 2102 3340 2003-04 1427 2668 4095 2004-05 2975 2803 4095 2005-06 2692 3872 6564 2006-07 2688 4161 6849


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130. The ratio of total power available in 2006-07 and 2000-01 is about: (1) 4 : 9 (2) 9 : 4 (3) 7 : 2 (4) 8 : 5 131. During which year did the total power available show the greatest increase compared to the previous

year? (1) 2004-05 (2) 2003-04 (3) 2001-02 (4) 2005-06 132. Taking 2002-03 as the base year, the increase in total power available in percentage points between

2005-06 to 2006-07 is about: (1) 205.06 (2) 8.53 (3) 196.53 (4) 115.43 133. The difference between electricity locally generated and that purchased from grid as a percentage of

the total power available was the least in the year: (1) 2002-03 (2) 2005-06 (3) 2003-04 (4) 2006-07 Directions for questions 134 – 137: Study the following bar graph giving Economic Indices for the period 1961-62 to 2001-02 to answer these questions.

ECONOMIC INDICES

200100

233.3345

500

782

296

100161.1161.1 161.1

100148.2

296320

0100200300400500600700800900

1961-62 1971-72 1981-82 1991-92 2001-02

Literacy Index Price Index Per Capita Income Index

134. What are the respective indices of literacy, price and per capita income for 2001-02 taking 1971-72 as

the base period? (1) 124.1, 313.8, 200 (2) 313.8, 124, 201 (3) 313.8, 124.1, 190 (4) 124.1, 313.8, 194 135. What is the average annual percentage increase in literacy index from 1961-62 to 2001-02? (1) 2.5% (2) 15.8% (3) 18.3% (4) 4.9% 136. Of the three economic indices which index for which period shows the maximum percentage increase

as compared to the previous period? (1) Literacy, 1971-72 (2) Price, 2001-02 (3) Per capita income, 1981-82 (4) Price, 1971-72 137. In which period did the per capita income index increase at a faster rate than the price index as

compared to the preceding period? (1) 1971-72 (2) 2001-02 (3) 1981-82 (4) 1991-92


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Directions for questions 138 – 140: Study the following pie charts giving details of exports and imports of India with the other countries in the year 2005 to answer these questions.

Major Trade Partners of India India’s Exports in 2005

Iran13%

Russia9%

Japan14%

Germany11%

USA17%

China19%

South Africa11%

UK6%

India’s Exports in 2005

Total = Rs. 650 (Pie chart shows data in percentages)

India’s Imports in 2005

China, 110

USA, 50

Germany, 25

Japan, 25

Russia, 45

Iran, 50UK, 20

South Africa, 35

India’s Imports in 2005 Total = Rs. 865 crore

(Pie chart shows data in degrees)

* Trade Surplus = Excess of exports over imports. * Trade Deficit = Negative trade surplus in absolute terms. * Trade Gap = Absolute difference between exports and imports 138. The countries with which India had a trade surplus in 2005 is/are? (1) USA, Germany and Japan (2) Germany and Japan (3) Germany, Japan and S. Africa (4) Only Japan 139. India’s total trade ___ with Russia in 2005 was ___ crore rupees. (1) deficit, 49.56 (2) deficit, 76.25 (3) surplus, 49.56 (4) surplus, 35.00 140. The country with which India has the highest trade gap is: (1) USA (2) Japan (3) Russia (4) China


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141. The argument for liberalisation which answers the worries of the Left parties about the possible trade

deficits created by the opening up of the Indian economy goes thus: ‘In today’s economic scenario, where there are many trading countries, the trade between two specific countries need not be balanced. The differing demands of goods and services and the differing productive capabilities of the same among different countries will cause a country like India to have trade deficits with some countries and surpluses with other countries. On the whole, the trade deficits and surpluses will balance out in order to give a trade balance’.

Which of the following conclusions best summarises the argument presented in the passage above? (1) Left parties need not worry about trade deficits in India since its trade will always be in balance

even though it runs a deficit with a single country. (2) India’s trade deficits and surpluses with other countries always balance out. (3) The Left parties in India should not be concerned about India’s trade deficits with specific

countries because they will balance out in the long run. (4) None of these 142. Most citizens are very conscientious about observing a law when they can see the reason behind it. For

instance, there has been very little need to actively enforce the recently implemented law that increased the penalty for godmen duping people of their money by playing with their emotions. This is because citizens are very conscientious about duping someone in the name of religion, as it leaves their religious gurus with a bad name. Which of the following statements would the author of this passage be most likely to believe?

(1) The increased penalty alone is a significant motivation for most citizens to obey the law. (2) There are still too many inconsiderate citizens in the society. (3) Godmen should not be allowed to play with the emotions of the people. (4) Society should make an effort to teach citizens the reasons for its laws. 143. Inflation can only be fundamentally caused by two factors—supply side factors and demand side

factors. These factors are either reductions in the supply of goods and services or increases in demand due to either the increased availability of money or the reallocation of demand. Unless other compensating changes also occur, inflation is bound to result if either of this occurs. In economies prior to the introduction of banks (a pre-banking economy) the quantity of money available, and hence, the level of demand, was equivalent to the quantity of gold available.

If the statements above are true, then it is also true that in a pre-banking economy: (1) any inflation would be the result of reductions in the supply of goods and services. (2) if other factors in the economy are unchanged, increasing the quantity of gold available would

lead to inflation. (3) if there is a reduction in the quantity of gold available, then, other things being equal, inflation

would result. (4) whatever changes in demand occur, there would be compensating changes in the supply of

goods and services. 144. Most large retail stores of all goods and brands hold discount sales in the month of November. The

original idea of price reduction campaigns in November became popular when it was realized that the sales of products would generally slow down following the Diwali rush, were it not for some incentive. The lack of demand could be solved by the simple solution of reducing prices. There is now an increasing tendency among major chains of stores across the country to have their “November sales” begins before Diwali. The idea behind this trend is to endeavour to sell the maximum amount of stock at a profit, even if that may not be at the maximum profit.


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Which of the following conclusions cannot be drawn from the above? (1) The incidence of “early” November sales results in lower holdings of stocks with the corollary of

lower stock holding costs. (2) Demand is a function of price; as you lower price, demand increases. (3) Major stores seem to think it makes sense to have the November sales campaigns pre-Diwali. (4) The major department stores do not worry as much about profit maximization as they do about

sales maximization. Directions for questions 145 – 148: Each of these questions has a sentence with an underlined part. Choose the best option to replace the underlined part. 145. Reared in a village where computers and the internet were objects of curiosity, Murty today hardly gives

a thought to the immense possibilities that the internet revolution has thrown open to him. (1) Reared in a village where computers and the internet were objects of curiosity. (2) Curious to know that computers and the internet were objects of curiosity in the village he was

reared up. (3) Being reared in the village where the computers and the internet are objects of curiosity. (4) Reared in a village where computers and the internet were an object of curiousness. 146. Armed with the talents of a high intellect, an actor with extraordinary gifts and an ingenious criminal,

Charles Sobhraj played an overbearing role in the sensationalisation of crime during the later part of the 20th century in the Indian sub-continent.

(1) an actor with extraordinary gifts and an ingenious criminal. (2) an ingenious actor and an extraordinarily gifted criminal. (3) a gifted actor and an ingeniously criminal. (4) an extraordinarily gifted actor and an ingenious criminal. 147. In the fall of 1996, the Indian government dispatched samples of the cells of the militants to those four

US scientists, who were only the Americans authorized to test them. (1) dispatched samples of the cells of the militants to those four US scientists, who were only the

Americans authorized to test them. (2) dispatched samples of the militant’s cells to those four US scientists, the only Americans

authorized to test them. (3) dispatched samples of the cells of militants to those four US scientists who were authorized to

test them. (4) dispatch the samples of the cells of the militants to those four US scientists, who were the only

Americans authorized to test them. 148. To prepare himself, he subjected himself to two weeks of total abstinence and intensive training in the

open fields of Panipat, climbing the hills nearby 30 times, spend nights in the open and to test to see how long he could hold out without food.

(1) climbing the hills nearby 30 times, spend nights in the open and to test to see (2) climbed the hills nearby 30 times, spending nights in the open and tested to see (3) spending nights in the open by climbing the hills nearby (4) climbing the hills nearby 30 times, spending nights in the open and testing to see


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Directions for questions 149 – 152: Choose the order of the sentences marked A, B, C, D and E to form a logical paragraph. 149. A. The Naga groups, assuming they are serious about negotiations, should make a realistic

reassessment of how far the Indian State can go to meet their demands. B. The government on its part should show both sincerity and flexibility in crafting a solution that will assure the Naga people a life of peace, dignity, and self-respect recognizing the uniqueness of Naga history. C. The government should also do everything possible to remove the suspicion that it has been encouraging certain Naga groups. D. No solution can be found through bloodshed. E. Growing internecine violence among them is a worry. (1) ACBDE (2) ABDEC (3) DCBEA (4) ABCED 150. A. The latest decline draws attention to a fairly well known fact that stock exchanges in India take

their cues as much from developments overseas as from domestic ones. B. While such reaction is an inevitable consequence of globalisation, it is the magnitude of the reaction that has come as a surprise. C. The stock indices the world over tumbled on the back of some pessimistic news from the United States credit market, especially its home loan segment. D. Fears over the failure of risky sub-prime mortgages seem to have spilled over to other closely watched sectors of the economy such as sales of new homes and consumer durables. E. Last week the Dow recorded its highest fall since February, dragging the European bourses down. (1) ADEBC (2) ABCDE (3) BEDCA (4) AEDCB 151. A. Moreover, it was felt that leaders elected by villagers themselves would find it easier to implement Central government policies regarding taxes and family planning.

B. Since 1998, elections to village councils, which comprise between three and seven members, have been institutionalized and are now carried out every three years.

C. The council’s main responsibilities lie in deciding the allocation and use of communal land, the running of village enterprises, and the implementation of family planning directives.

D. Councils can also decide local matters like village subscription to newspapers, the renovation of a school building, or the installation of cable television.

E. Following the collapse of the village commune system after the economic liberalization initiated in 1978, certain leaders within the Communist Party began pushing for village self-governance as a means to counter political apathy and violent rebellion by creating mechanisms of participation and conflict resolution. (1) DCBEA (2) CABDE (3) EABCD (4) BACDE 152. A. The U.S. market will continue to be the dominant one in the foreseeable future. The rupee could

become even stronger. B. A greater recourse to hedging as well as striving for multi-currency revenue streams automatically suggests itself. C. Already one company, TCS, by resorting to these methods extensively has turned in an above average performance during the first quarter. D. Most IT companies have been grappling with more mundane problems such as a high level of attrition amidst rising wage costs and inability to secure the right type and number of American visas.


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E. The BPO industry and many medium-sized software exporters are reportedly operating on thin margins.

(1) BCADE (2) ABCDE (3) DCBAE (4) EDABC Directions for questions 153 – 156: Choose the pair of words which exhibits the same relationship between each other as the given capitalized pair of words: 153. WRITING : PLAGIARISM : : (1) confidence : deception (2) money : misappropriation (3) gold : theft (4) germ : disease 154. CONDENSATION : REFRIGERATE : : (1) evaporation : heat (2) consumption : cook (3) oration : listen (4) exhaustion : buy 155. BEWILDERMENT : CONFUSION : : (1) bursa : sack (2) bewitched : alliteration (3) fantod : nervousness (4) coracle : lodestar 156. PREAMBLE : STATUTE : : (1) prologue : novel (2) movement : sympathy (3) sketch : drawing (4) index : book Directions for questions 157 – 160: Fill in the blanks. 157. I am not attracted by the ___ life of the ___ , always wandering through the countryside, begging for

charity. (1) proud, almsgiver (2) noble, philanthropist (3) affluent, mendicant (4) peripatetic, vagabond 158. Her true feelings ___ themselves in her sarcastic asides; only then was her ___ revealed. (1) concealed, sweetness (2) manifested, bitterness (3) hid, sarcasm (4) grieved, charm 159. The sugar dissolved in water ___; finally all that remained was an almost ___ residue on the bottom of

the glass. (1) quickly, lumpy (2) immediately, fragrant (3) gradually, imperceptible (4) subsequently, glassy 160. It is foolish to vent your spleen on ___ object; still, you make ___ enemies that way? (1) an inanimate, fewer (2) an immobile, bitter (3) an interesting, curious (4) an insipid, dull Directions for questions 161 – 180: Read the following passages and answer the questions that follow each passage. Passage–I The nature of financial integration of developing countries with developed countries has been radically transformed over the last four years. Evidence collated by the World Bank’s annual report for 2007 on global development finance reveal a number of features of the new scenario that have far-reaching implications. The first of these is an acceleration of financial flows to developing countries precisely during the years when as a group, they have seen rising surpluses on their current account. Total flows touched a record $ 571 billion in 2006, having risen by 19 per cent on top of an average growth of 40 per cent during the three previous years. Relative to the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of these countries, total flows, at 5.1 per cent, are at levels that


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they touched at the time of the East Asian financial crisis in 1997. A second feature is the acceleration of the long-term tendency for private flows to dominate over official (bilateral and multilateral) flows. Private debt equity inflows, which had risen by 50 per cent a year over the three years ending 2005 increased by another 17 per cent in 2006 to touch a record $647 billion. On the other hand net official lending has in fact, declined over the past two years. One factor accounting for this is the failure of the Group of Seven (G-7) countries to match promises of a substantial hike in aid disbursements beyond what the retirement of the debt of few heavily indebted poor countries ensures. The other is that the more developed among developing countries have chosen to make advance repayments of debt owed to official creditors, especially the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and the World Bank. Overall, principal repayments to official creditors exceeded disbursements by $70 billion in 2005 and $ 75 billion in 2006. In the event, there has been a reverse flow of capital to the World Bank and the IMF which is threatening the viability and influence of these institutions, especially the latter. However, the increase in private flows has more than matched the reverse flows to official creditors. The third feature is that the dominance of private flows has meant that both equity and debt flows to developing countries has risen rapidly with the surge being greater in the case of the former. Net private debt and equity flows to developing countries have risen from a little ess than $170 billion in 2002 to close to $647 billion in 2006, an almost fourfold increase over a four year period While net private equity flows which rose from $163 billion to $419 billion, dominated the surge, net private debt flows too increased rapidly. Bond issues rose from $10.4 billion to $49.3 billion and borrowing from international banks increased from $2.3 billion to a huge $112.2 billion. What is more, net shortterm debt, outflows of which tend to trigger financial crises, has risen from around half a billion in 2002 to $72 billion in 2006. The fourth feature, which is a corollary of these developments, is that there is a high degree of concentration of flows to developing countries, implying excess exposure in a few countries. Ten countries (out of 135) accounted for 60 per cent of all borrowing during 2002-04 and that proportion has risen subsequently to touch three-fourths in 2006. In the portfolio equity market, flows to developing countries were directed at acquiring a share in equity either through the secondary market or by buying into Initial Public Offers (IPOs). IPOs dominated in 2006 accounting for $53 billion of the $96 billion in flow. But, here too, there were signs of concentration. Four of the 10 largest IPOs were by Chinese companies, accounting for twothirds of the total IPO value. Another three of those 10 were by Russian companies, accounting for an additional 22 per cent of the IPO value. A fifth feature is that despite this rapid rise in developing country exposure, with that exposure being excessively concentrated in a few countries, the market is still overtly optimistic. Ratings upgrades dominate downgrades in the bond market. And bond market spreads are at unusual lows. This optimism indicates that risk assessments are pro-cyclical, underestimating risk when investments are booming, and overestimating risks when markets turn downwards. But, there are two consequences : the herding of investors in developing country markets and their willingness to invest in a larger volume of money in risky unrated instruments. Finally, the rapid rise in capital flows to developing countries at a time when many of them are recording large current account surpluses has substantially increased their foreign exchange reserves and triggered an outflow of capital. This outflow takes three forms : (i) investment of reserves in safe and low return instruments such as United States Treasury Bills, (ii) financing of asset acquisition to support the growing presence of leading developing country firms in global commodity markets; and (iii) financial investments in and lending to other developing countries, resulting in the South-South flow of capital. These trends together suggest that developing countries are still largely restricted to the low return or high-risk segments of global capital flow. This is the cost they bear to meet the requirements of ensuring balance in the global balance of payments. These features of the current global financial scenario can be interpreted in two ways. One is in the direction taken by the world Bank. It admits, on the one hand, that “the probability of a turn in the credit cycle” has risen and that a “Key challenge facing developing countries is to manage the transition by taking pre-emptive measures aimed at lessening the risk of a sharp, unexpected reversal in capital flows”. On the other, it downplays the dangers involved by arguing that the surge in capital flows “speaks well for the resilience of


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developing economies and for the ability of international financial market to manage risks”. An alternative view would be that many emerging market economies that attract a disproportionate share of these capital flows are fast approaching a situation where they are vulnerable to financial crises with the current scenario incorporating features that could make these crises more intense. What is more, it appears that prudential norms, risk management techniques and disclosure requirements that have been put in place as part of the so-called “new international financial architecture” seem inadequate to foreclose a build-up of this kind. This is not surprising since garnering large and quick profits rather than minimising risks seems to be the dominant requirement of financial institutions from the developed countries. The current situation is the inevitable result of expanding the space for financial capital through dilution or elimination of regulation. Financial liberalization has ensured that since the late 1970s, the newly discovered “emerging markets” among developing countries have been the new frontier for profiteering by global financial institutions. Awash with the liquidity derived from the surpluses earned by oil exporters and the saving accumulated by the generation of baby-boomers in the West, banks, investment funds and pension funds were looking to new avenues for lucrative investments. The role of financial intermediaries was one of dressing up developing countries that were hitherto “untouchables” as lucrative destinations for financial capital. And financial innovation consisted in not just identifying instruments that could carry such investments but derivatives that could help hedge against the risk associated with rushing into uncharted territory. The process began when developing countries ere still reeling under the effects of declining non-fuel commodity prices and rising oil prices which had left gaping holes in the current account of their balance of payments. The new found interest of global finance offered developing country governments an opportunity to finance that gap, even if it meant offering high returns to foreign financial investors. It was this conflation of interests of developing country governments and financial institutions from the developed countries that led up to the debt crisis of the 1980s and the financial crisis of the 1990s, including those that began with the East Asian crisis in 1997. One consequence of the 1997 crisis was a sharp decline in lending to developing countries. But this did not mean a decline in capital flows. Rather, encouraged by the post-crisis deflation in asset prices in emerging markets and the sharp devaluation of their currencies, foreign direct investment kept flowing into developing countries to acquire assets at rock bottom prices when measured in hard currencies. While net debt flows to developing countries declined from $53.1 billion in 1998 to just $1.2 billion in 2000, net FDI flows remained more or less stable at around $170 billion a year. Since 2002 when growth accelerated or remained high in China and India and commodity prices rose sharply in the case of oil and metals and moderately in the case of agriculture, this lull in capital flows has given way to a surge. Besides the features noted above, three kinds of developments have accompanied this surge. First, the growing importance of unregulated hedge funds looking for abnormal returns in portfolio equity markets which renders activity in those markets highly speculative and opaque. Second, the rapid increase in investments by “private equity” firms investing largely in unlisted equity—in corporations in developing countries. The size of each of these investments is such that they identified as foreign “direct” investments, even though their objective is speculative. The evidence on the controversial role played by these firms in the developed countries indicates that their activity too is extremely opaque. Third, the revival once again of the global market for developing country debt, driven this time by private corporate borrowing in the syndicated loan market. Since this new surge in credit rides on a wave of securitization that transfers the risk associated with such lending to pension and mutual funds among others, accumulating risk does not serve as a deterrent on banks creating such credit. There are a number of implications of these tendencies. To start with, the risk associated with the current surge in capital flows can be and is much greater than it was true during previous episodes involving a similar surge. Moreover, the surge is accompanied by the growing acquisition of assets in developing countries outside the stock market with objectives that are largely speculative so that a sell-off, if it occurs would be far more widespread. And the persistence of the herd instinct has meant that the surge in fixed and portfolio investment flows has resulted in a revival of credit flows that is unbridled since it is accompanied by risk-mitigation techniques that transfer risk to those who are least


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equipped to assess them. Unfortunately, all of this occurs in an environment in which the target of both investment and debt flows is the private sector which makes it difficult for governments that have liberalised financial regulation to control such flows. In sum, the risks associated with the current surge in capital flows are far greater than what emerges from the World Bank’s rather sanguine assessment of the possible fall-out of the ongoing transformation of global financial flows. A turn in the investment cycle, with far-reaching implications, is real and imminent. 161. According to the passage, which one of the following statement(s) is/are true? (1) The current situation is the inevitable result of expanding the space for financial capital through dilution or elimination of regulation. (2) The role of financial intermediaries was one of dressing up developing countries that were hitherto untouchables as lucrative destinations for financial capital. (3) The new found interest of global finance offered developing country governments an opportunity to finance that gap, even if it meant offering high returns to foreign financial investors. (4) All of these 162. Total financial flows to developing countries reached a record $571 billion in ___, having risen by

nineteen per cent on top of an average growth of ___ during the previous three years. (1) 2005, 50% (2) 2006, 40% (3) 2004, 22% (4) 2002, 60% 163. The rapid rise in capital flows to developing countries has substantially increased their foreign

exchange reserves and triggered an outflow of capital in the form of: (1) financial investments in and lending to other developing countries. (2) financing of asset acquisition to support the growing presence of leading developing country

firms in global commodity markets. (3) investment of reserves in safe and low return instruments such as United States Treasury Bills. (4) All of these 164. Ten developing countries out of one hundred and thirty five accounted for sixty per cent of all borrowing

during 2002-2004 and that proportion has risen subsequently to touch ___ in 2006: (1) sixty per cent (2) fifty per cent (3) seventy five per cent (4) forty per cent Passage-II The lithosphere, or outer shell, of the earth is made up of about a dozen rigid plates that move with respect to one another. New lithosphere is created at mid-ocean ridges by the upwelling and cooling of magma from the earth’s interior. Since new lithosphere is continuously being created and the earth is not expanding to any appreciable extent, the question arises : What happens to the “old” lithosphere? The answer came in the late 1960s as the last major link in the theory of sea-floor spreading and plate tectonics that has revolutionized our understanding of tectonic processes, or structural deformations, in the earth and has provided a unifying theme for many diverse observations of the earth sciences. The old lithosphere is subducted, or pushed down, into the earth’s mantle (the thick shell of red-hot rock beneath the earth’s thin, cooler crust and above its metallic, partly melted core). As the formerly rigid plate descends, it slowly heats up, and over a period of millions of years it is absorbed into the general circulation of the earth’s mantle. The subduction of the lithosphere is perhaps the most significant phenomenon in global tectonics. Subduction not only explains what happens to old lithosphere but also accounts for many of the geologic processes that shape the earth’s surface. Most of the world’s volcanoes and earthquakes are associated with descending lithospheric plates. The prominent island arcs—chains of islands such as the Aleutians, the Kuriles, the Marianas, and the islands of Japan—are surface expressions of the subduction process. The deepest trenches of the world’s oceans, including the Java and Tonga trenches and all others


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associated with island arcs, mark the seaward boundary of subduction zones. Major mountain belts, such as the Andes and the Himalayas, have resulted from the convergence and subduction of lithospheric plates. To understand the subduction process it is necessary to look at the thermal regime of the earth. The temperatures within the earth at first increase rapidly with depth, reaching about 1,200 degrees Celsius at a depth of 100 kilometres. Then they increase more gradually, approaching 2,000 degrees C at about 500 kilometres. The minerals in peridotite, the major constituent of the upper mantle, start to melt at about 1,200 degrees C, or typically at a depth of 100 kilometres. Under the oceans the upper mantle is fairly soft and may contain some molten material at depths as shallow as 80 kilometres. The soft region of the mantle, over which the rigid lithospheric plate normally moves, is the asthenosphere. It appears that in certain areas convection currents in the asthenosphere may drive the plates, and that in other regions the plate motions may drive the convection currents. Several factors contribute to the heating of the lithosphere as it descends into the mantle. First, heat simply flows into the cooler lithosphere from the surrounding warmer mantle. Since the conductivity of the rock increases with temperature, the conductive heating becomes more efficient with increasing depth. Second as the lithospheric slab descends it is subjected to increasing pressure, which introduces heat of compression. Third, the slab is heated by the radioactive decay of uranium, thorium and potassium, which are present in the earth’s crust and add heat at a constant rate to the descending material. Fourth, heat is provided by the energy released when the minerals in the lithosphere change to denser phases, or more compact crystal structures, as they are subjected to higher pressures during descent. Finally, heat is generated by friction, shear stresses and the dissipation of viscous motions at the boundaries between the moving lithospheric plate and the surrounding mantle. Among all these sources the first and fourth contribute the most toward the heating of the descending lithosphere. 165. Each of the following geological phenomena is mentioned in the passage as being relevant to the

subduction of the lithosphere except: (1) principal archipelagoes (2) significant rifts in the sea bottom (3) Expository (4) prominent mountain ranges 166. The style of the passage can best be described as: (1) Oratorical (2) Argumentative (3) expository (4) Meditative 167. The author is most probably addressing which of the following audiences? (1) Geothermal researchers investigating the asthenosphere as a potential energy source. (2) Historians of science studying the origins of plate tectonic theory. (3) College undergraduates enrolled in an introductory course on geology. (4) Graduate students engaged in analyzing the rate of sea-floor spreading. 168. Which of the following is not true of the heating of the lithosphere as it is described in the passage?

(1) The temperature gradient between the lithosphere and the surrounding mantle enables heat to be transferred from the latter to the former.

(2) Minerals in the lithospheric slab release heat in the course of phase changes that occur during their descent into the mantle.

(3) The more the temperature of the lithospheric slab increases, the more conductive the rock itself becomes.

(4) The further the lithospheric slab descends into the mantle, the faster the radioactive decay of elements within it adds to its heat.

Passage-III All men by nature, desire to know. An indication of this is the delight we take in our senses : for even apart from their usefulness they are loved for themselves; and above all others, the sense of sight. For not only with a view to action, but even when we are not going to do anything, we prefer seeing (one might say) to


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everything else. The reason is that this, most of all the senses, makes us know and brings to light many differences between things. By nature, animals are born with the faculty of sensation, and from sensation, memory is produced in some of them, though not in others. And therefore, the former are more intelligent and apt at learning than those which cannot remember; those which are incapable of hearing sounds are intelligent though they cannot be taught, e.g., the bee, and any other race of animals that may be like it; and those which besides memory, have this sense of hearing can be taught. The animals other than man live by appearances and memories, and have but little of connected experience; but the human race lives also by art and reasoning. Now from memory, experience is produced in men; for the several memories of the same thing produce finally the capacity for a single experience. And experience seems pretty much like science and art, but really, science and art come to men through experience; for ‘experience made art’, as Polus says, ‘but inexperience luck’. Now art arises, when from many notions gained by experience, one universal judgement about a class of objects is produced. For to have a judgement that when Callias was ill of this disease that did him good, and similarly, in the case of Socrates and in many individual cases, is a matter of experience; but to judge that it has done good to all persons of a certain constitution, marked off in one class, when they were ill of this disease, e.g., to phlegmatic or bilious people when burning with fevers—this is a matter of art. With a view to action, experience seems in no respect inferior to art, and men of experience succeed even better than those who have theory without experience. (The reason is that experience is knowledge of individuals, art of universals, and actions and productions are all concerned with the individual; for the physician does not cure man, except in an incidental way, but Callias or Socrates or some other called by some such individual name, who happens to be a man. If, then, a man has the theory without the experience, and recognizes the universal but does not know the individual included in this, he will often fail to cure; for it is the individual that is to be cured.) But yet we think that knowledge and understanding belong to art rather than to experience, and we suppose artists to be wiser than men of experience (which implies that wisdom depends in all cases rather on knowledge) : and this because the former know the cause, but the latter do not. For men of experience know that the thing is so, but do not know why, while the others know the ‘why’ and the cause. Hence we think also that the master workers in each craft are more honourable and know in a truer sense and are wiser than the manual workers, because they know the causes of the things that are done (we think the manual workers are like certain lifeless things which act indeed, but act without knowing what they do, as fire burns, but while the lifeless things perform each of their function by a natural tendency, the labourers perform them through habit); thus we view them as being wiser not in virtue of being able to act, but of having the theory for themselves and knowing the causes. And in general, it is a sign of the man who knows and of the man who does not know, that the former can teach, and therefore, we think art more truly knowledge than experience is; for artists can teach, and men of mere experience cannot. Again, we do not regard any of the senses as Wisdom; yet surely these give the most authoritative knowledge of particulars. But they do not tell us the ‘why’ of anything—e.g., why fire is hot; they only say that it is hot. At first, he who invented any art whatever, that went beyond the common perceptions of man was naturally admired by men, not only because there was something useful in the inventions, but because he was thought wiser and superior to the rest. But as more arts were invented, and some were directed to the necessities of life, others to recreation, the inventors of the latter were naturally always regarded as wiser than the inventors of the former, because their branches of knowledge did not aim at utility. Hence, when all such inventions were already established, the sciences which do not aim at giving pleasure or at the necessities of life were discovered, and first in the places where men first began to have leisure. This is why the mathematical arts were founded in Egypt; for there the priestly caste was allowed to be at leisure. We have said in the Ethics what the difference is between art and science and the other kindred faculties; but the point of our present discussion is this, that all men suppose what is called Wisdom to deal with the first causes and the principles of things; so that, as has been said before, the man of experience is thought to be wiser than the possessors of any sense-perception whatever, the artist wiser than the men of experience. The master worker than the mechanic, and the theoretical kinds of


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knowledge to be more of the nature of Wisdom than the productive. Clearly then, wisdom is knowledge about certain principles and causes. 169. What is the relationship between sensation and memory? (1) All animals have sensation but some animals do not have memory. (2) Human beings have sensation and memory both. (3) Human beings are intelligent as they can reason, whereas animals do not have the capacity of

reasoning. (4) When sensation is remembered, it becomes a memory experience and this leads to connected

experience, which in turn gives rise to reasoning. 170. What is the difference between art and experience?

(1) Art explains the cause of things together with its effects, whereas experience gives us just the effect of things, not the cause.

(2) Experience and art give rise to one another and they are complementary and supplementary to each other.

(3) Art does not give the cause and effect of things, whereas experience gives the cause and effect of things.

(4) Both experience and art are views of a contradictory time and space and this is where the difference between the two lies.

171. Why according to the author, were the mathematical arts founded in Egypt? (1) Because they were men of experience and had wisdom and knowledge about certain principles

and causes. (2) Because the inventors of luxuries were considered more important than the inventors of

necessities and in Egypt, the kingly and priestly class had developed great standards in luxurious tastes and attitudes.

(3) Because the sciences which do not cater to necessities or pleasures develop only after the previous two have been invented and only then, men have time for themselves. So was the case in Egypt where the priestly caste had ample leisure time.

(4) Because Egyptians were considered to be connoisseurs of art and crafts and had superior civilization as opposed to the other ancient civilizations.

172. Which of the following can be considered to be the central idea of the passage? (1) “Experience made art, but inexperience luck”. (2) What actually is “Wisdom”? (3) Art is superior to experience. (4) Knowledge is wisdom. Passage-IV My last growth point offers a chance to bring together the perspectives of Darwin, Marx and Freud. It leads us to the question at the foundations of the human sciences: what is basic, how amenable to change is human nature and how can we bring about more humane human relations? As I see it, all these matters come together in the problematic Marxist notion of ‘second nature’. First, nature is the biologically given domain whose boundaries have themselves never been clearly drawn and are now quite open as a result of the phenomena of pharmacology, biofeedback (in traditional and modern forms) and genetic engineering (an area in which the future is open in both positive and alarming senses). But without pushing those bundaries between the voluntary and involuntary nervous system and between mere inheritance and manipulated inheritance, we have a large scope for deep reflection and serious practice. Historians of the human sciences will know that belief in the extreme plasticity of human behaviour has been held by behaviourists, operant


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conditioning theorists and those thinking in the related tradition of Pavlovian conditioning. At the other extreme, behavioural geneticists and sociobiologists have held relatively pessimistic views on the potential for change in human behaviour. Moreover, the sociobiologists have made various takeover bids into ethics and the social sciences, although these seem under control for the present. There is a similar continuum on the optimism/pessimism axis among psychoanalysts. Does psychoanalysis or psychoanalytical psychotherapy change the self or merely adapt it to the inner and outer worlds? Second, nature is history experienced as if it were unmodifiable—as though it were not amenable to change through practice and enlightenment. Belief in the ability to learn through practical experience is the sine qua non of an enlightened human science, however onerous and slow the process of change. Those of us in the East and West who reached for rapid change in the nineteen-sixties, have learned a lot about the pace that one can hope for. Neurosis is a perfect example of second nature. On a larger scale, so is racism. On a still larger scale, so are capitalism and East European socialism. Beyond these in a degree of generality, lie hierarchy and patriarchy. An important desideratum for a human science is the study of the relative refractoriness to change of various aspects and levels of human nature. The writings I have found most helpful in understanding second nature are both Freudo-Marxist. They are the works of Herbert Marcuse and Russell Jacoby, although other members of the Frankfurt school, as well as the Lukacs of History and Class Consciousness, and various Hungarian philosophers, have also thought about it. Both Marcuse and Jacoby have written widely against various reductionisms—Darwinian, vulgar Marxist and biologistic Freudian. They have also essayed against extremes of voluntarism and Dionysiac Freudianism. Both have been concerned to pay due respect to biology, economics, culture culture and therapy, while striving for a better psychic and social order. Both have de-emphasized traditional notions of class struggle as the key to social change and have focused more clearly on cultural and other political processes. Their perspectives are complemented by the writings of Gramsci on the subtle ways in which consent is organized. In addition to his concept of hegemony, I have benefited from Raymond Williams’ writings on cultural materialism. His critique of base-superstructure model of vulgar Marxism stresses the complexity of mediation between culture on the one hand, and the production and reproduction of real life on the other. Indeed, he adds the crucial insight that culture is in the base—a material, that is, spiritual need. Raymond Williams died between the delivery and the publication of this talk. His voice—its substance and its tone—are central to my conception of humanity, and I wish to dedicate my remarks to his memory. This brings us back to basics. Look now, Darwin, Marx and Freud are mutually constitutive, Darwin brings historicity to the heart of the sciences, linking life to the earth and our humanity to both. Teleological and anthropomorphic concept lie at the basis of his concept of natural selection. Marx teaches us the historicity of all including scientific concepts, and points out that there is only one science, the science of history. Freud teaches us that all of history and culture continue to be mediated by basic human drives and that no matter how high we reach into abstractions, our thought remains rooted in primitive psychic mechanisms. It would seem, then, that our conception of human science must always draw on these three dimensions of what Marx calls our species being. The historical, conceptual and practical tasks that follow from this will surely occupy all of us at least to the retiring age. We have in these three thinkers—at first glance—biology, economics and the psyche, but looked at more closely, each takes us to history and historicity, to culture and its roots and to the question of the nature and extent of what is distinctly human—the limits, the realities, the visions, aspirations and achievements now and in the future. As I read them, each offers us a conception of the disciplined study of humanity which always retains a notion of human values in action as the central guiding conception. None will do alone while the task of integrating them in historical studies and in theory has hardly begun. Their writings span the century between about 1840 and 1940. Darwin (1809-82) and Marx (1818-83) were—how easily we forget this—near contemporaries and published their main works almost simultaneously. They died within a year of each other, just over a hundred years ago. Freud was a toddler of three years when The Origin of Species and An Introduction to Political Economy appeared in 1859. The problematic of his life’s work makes little sense without seeing both Darwin and Marx as providing the framework of ideas and aspirations about


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nature and human nature, which he addresses. All three are very much alive today— vivid—providing us with the terms of reference for both a realistic and a cautiously helpful view of our humanity. 173. Which of the following is most helpful in understanding second nature? (1) Freud and Marx (2) Herbert Marcuse and Russel Jacoby (3) Members of Frankfurt School (4) Both (2) and (3) 174. Which of the following is true according to the passage?

(1) Marcuse and Jacoby rejected the role of class struggle as the key to social-change and have laid emphasis on cultural and political processes.

(2) Marcuse and Jacoby recognized the role of class struggle as the key to social-change. (3) Marcuse and Jacoby saw the cultural and political processes as the only key to social-change. (4) Marcuse and Jacoby recognized a lesser role of classstruggle as the key to social-change than

that of the cultural and political processes. 175. According to the passage, all of the following are not true except: (1) Freud does not see any meeting point between history and culture. (2) Darwin rejects the centrality of life. (3) Freud, Marx and Darwin are not in contradiction among themselves, but they do project different

perspectives. (4) Darwin and Marx are unanimous on the role and place of history in linking life to the earth and our humanity to both. 176. Darwin, Marx and Freud all provide us the most important conception of ? (1) historicity (2) humanity (3) history (4)human sciences Passage-V It goes without saying that Asia matters to the European Union. Europe has a major stake in a stable and prosperous Asia. Our political, security, and economic interests are more intertwined than ever. But our relationship goes far beyond the economic and trade realm : the European Union and Asian partners contribute actively together to resolving different regional and global problems. We also share an important vision in which a system of global governance, with regional structures as its cornerstones, effectively addresses transnational problems. It is with this vision that I am once again returning to Asia in early August for the ministerial meeting of the ASEAN Regional Forum (ARF) and bilateral consultations with our ASEAN partners. The progress we have made together over the past year is impressive, perhaps even the most important in our 30 years of formal ties. And, the EU’s early accession to the ASEAN Treaty of Amity and Cooperation can only bring us closer still, with positive implications for the political and security interests of both groups of countries. We have also agreed to strengthen our political exchanges further and to promote practical cooperation in many areas of mutual interest. One such area, where we work very well together and are set to become closer still, is crisis management. We are, for example, open to sharing more information, boosting technical cooperation and strengthening capacity-building in this field. It was crucial for the EU-led Aceh Monitoring Mission (AMM), which supervised the peace agreement between Indonesia and Aceh rebels from the summer of 2005 to the end of 2006, that ASEAN partners participated in it. This not only helped ensure the success of the mission but also led to the creation of real ties between the two regional organizations. As a result of our joint efforts and, of course, the achievements of the Indonesian government, Aceh was stabilized and is now developing steadily after 30 years of conflict and the devastation wrought by the 2004 tsunami. Its development, which included the elections held last year, was so positive that the Aceh Monitoring Mission was able to complete its work and leave the province. But the European Union has not left Aceh. On the contrary, we are continuing to give active support to the reconstruction fforts of the Indonesian authorities and the local administration in Aceh with a very substantial and visible development programme. Just six weeks ago the EU deployed another mission on Asian soil, a police training mission in Afghanistan,


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which is also open to Asian partner countries. This mission seeks to help establish sustainable and effective civilian policing arrangements under Afghan ownership and in accordance with international standards. The fact that the mission is to run for at least three years underlines the EU’s increased and long-term commitment to security and stability in Asia. We could also envisage cooperating more closely with our Asian partners in future crisis management operations on other continents. We are following with great interest the historic decisions by ASEAN to further develop the South East Asian community and its work on the ASEAN Charter, which includes the development of an appropriate institutional framework. For obvious reasons, the EU appreciates the ambitious integration project of another region. It has also lent practical support. I myself have met both the Eminent Persons Group and the High-Level Taskforce of Charter drafters and I was very impressed by their vision and commitment and the pertinent questions they asked about the EU’s integration process. I wish the region every success in finalizing the new Charter and I give it every encouragement to pursue an ambitious result. In our European experience, far-reaching political and economic integration has not only overcome divisions between former enemies and ensured stability and prosperity in Europe but it has also proved to be the best solution in tackling regional and global problems that do not stop at national borders. The ARF, which we value greatly as the only political and security dialogue forum in the Asia-Pacific region, is increasingly recognizing the need to find collective solutions to trans-boundary security issues, in particular when it comes to new challenges. Once a year, the ARF meets in a unique forum that brings together the Foreign Ministers of Asian and Pacific countries and their key partners for dialogue on a wide range of issues with a bearing on Asian Security. In addition to this fruitful exchange, the forum is also achieving concrete outcomes at the various seminars and workshops which have made it more result-oriented than in the past. The European Union, which attends and contributes to the ARF as a long-standing dialogue partner of the region, is looking forward to the creation of a mechanism that enables the ARF to be active between meetings. This will be a very important and welcome step towards the construction of a regional architecture for Asia. Asia matters to Europe, and it also goes without saying that the European Union matters to Asia. Together, the EU and ASEAN represent two regions, 37 countries, and more than one billion people. In Europe, Asia has a partner in its search for solutions to global problems such as climate change, energy security or organized crime. It has a partner in the economic and trade realm and it has a partner in development issues. Only together can we meet the challenges of the future 177. According to the author, one of the vital mutual interest areas where ASEAN and EU can work together

is: (1) peace agreement between Indonesia and Aceh rebels. (2) crisis management. (3) civilian policing arrangements. (4) trans-national problems. 178. Deployment of a police training mission in Afghanistan by EU aims at: (1) long-term commitment to security and stability in Asia. (2) minimizing terrorism in Asia. (3) drafting of ASEAN Charter. (4) maintaining law and order in Afghanistan. 179. ___ is the only political and security dialogue forum in the Asia-Pacific region. (1) Eminent Persons Group (2) ASEAN (3) ARF (4) None of these 180. The annual ARF meet is attended by foreign ministers of: (1) Asian countries (2) EU countries (3) Pacific countries (4) Asian and Pacific countries


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Directions for questions 181 – 184: Each of these has a statement followed by two conclusions. Mark answer as: (1) if only conclusion I follows (2) if only conclusion II follows (3) if either I or II follows (4) if neither I nor II follows 181. Statement: Good voice is a natural gift but one has to keep practising to improve and excel well in the field of music. Conclusions: I. Natural gifts need nurturing and care. II. Even though your voice is not good, one can keep practising. 182. Statement: Domestic demand has been increasing faster than the production of indigenous crude oil.

Conclusions: I. Crude oil must be imported. II. Domestic demand should be reduced. 183. Statement: Until our country achieves economic equality, political freedom and democracy would be meaningless.

Conclusions: I. Political freedom and democracy go hand in hand. II. Economic equality leads to real political freedom and democracy. 184. Statement: Parents are prepared to pay any price for an elite education to their children. Conclusions: I. All parents these days are very well off.

II. Parents have an obsessive passion for a perfect development of their children through good schooling.

Directions for questions 185 – 188: Each of these has a statement followed by two assumptions. Mark answer as: (1) if only assumption I is implicit (2) if only assumption II is implicit (3) if either I or II is implicit (4) if neither I nor II is implicit 185. Statement: Unemployment allowance should be given to all nemployed Indian youth above 18 years of age. Assumptions: I. There are unemployed youth in India who need onetary support. II. The government has sufficient funds to provide llowance to all unemployed youth. 186. Statement: All the employees are notified that the organization ill provide transport facilities at half cost

from the nearby ailway station to the office except those who have been rovided with ravelling allowance.

Assumptions: I. Most of the employees will travel by the office ransport. II. Those who are provided with travelling allowance will ot read such notice. 187. Statement: Retired persons should not be appointed for executive osts in other organizations

Assumptions: I. Retired persons may lack the zeal and commitment to arry out executive’s work. II. Retired persons do not take interest in the work and elfare of the new organizations.


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188. Statement: Government aided schools should have uniformity n charging various fees. Assumptions: I. The government’s subsidy comes from the money collected by way of taxes from people. II. The government while giving subsidy may have stipulated certain uniform conditions regarding

fees. 189. Robin says, “If Jai gives me Rs. 40, he will have half as much as Atul, but if Atul gives me Rs. 40, then

the three of us will all have the same amount.” What is the total amount of money that Robin, Jai and Atul have between them?

(1) Rs. 240 (2) Rs. 320 (3) Rs. 360 (4) Rs. 420 190. N ranks fifth in a class. S is eighth from the last. If T is sixth after N and just in the middle of N and S,

how many students are there in the class? (1) 23 (2) 24 (3) 25 (4) 26 191. Between two ends in your study, are displayed your five favourite puzzle books. If you decide to

arrange five books in every possible combination and moved just one book every minute. How long would it take you?

(1) 1 hour (2) 2 hours (3) 3 hours (4) 4 hours Directions for questions 192 – 196: Choose the word which is nearly the same in meaning to the word in capital letters. 192. EMBELLISH (1) emboss (2) design (3) garnish (4) aristocratic 193. OPPORTUNE (1) expected (2) convenient (3) welcome (4) chance 194. INDELIBLE (1) uneatable (2) permanent (3) delicate (4) strong 195. CHORE (1) thief (2) relief (3) colour (4) task 196. COPIOUS (1) vast (2) identical (3) merry (4) plentiful Directions for questions 197 – 200: Study the following information to answer these questions. A blacksmith has five iron articles A, B, C, D and E, each having a different weight. I. A weighs twice as much as B. II. B weighs four and A half times as much as C. III. C weighs half as much as D. IV. D weighs half as much as E. V. E weighs less than a but more than C. 197. Which of the following is the lightest in weight? (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D 198. E is heavier than which of the following two articles? (1) D, B (2) D, C (3) A, C (4) A, B 199. Which of the following articles is the heaviest in weight? (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D 200. Which of the following represents the descending order of weight of the articles? (1) A, B, E, D, C (2) B, D, E, A, C (3) E, C, D, A, B (4) C, A, D, B


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A N S W E R S

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MAT - I (2007)