M-CL-12(BT)-D 1 P.T.O.

M. Sc. BIOTECHNOLOGY

1. Desmosomes differ from tight junctions because desmosomes :

(A) Allow molecules to pass in the intercellular space

(B) Are non-communicating

(C) Are present in plants

(D) Lack proteins

2. Cell surface receptors may be any of the following except :

(A) G protein linked (B) Enzymatic receptors

(C) Transcription factors (D) Ligand gated ion channels

3. The iodine used in Gram staining serves as a :

(A) Chelator (B) Catalyst

(C) Mordant (D) Cofactor

4. Which of the following are good source of proteins :

(A) Spirullina and Chlorella (B) Chlorella and Scendesmus

(C) Scendesmus (D) All of these

5. Which of the following compounds is not found in tears ?

(A) Lysozyme (B) Lactoferin

(C) IgA (D) IgE

6. Any agent that stimulates the immune system and enhance the response without

any specific antigenic effect by itself :

(A) Antigens (B) Allergens

(C) Adjuvants (D) Carriers

M-CL-12(BT)-D 2

7. The technology used for the production of monoclonal antibodies is :

(A) Mass culture technology (B) Hybridoma technology

(C) Suspension culture (D) None of these

8. Which of the following are the regulatory proteins in muscle contraction ?

(A) Troponin and tropomyosin

(B) Troponin and actin

(C) Myosin and tropomyosin

(D) Actin and tropomyosin

9. Which of the following contributes nitrogen atoms to both purine and pyrimidine

rings ?

(A) Aspartate (B) Carbomyl phosphate

(C) Carbon dioxide (D) Glutamine

10. When compared to arteries, veins generally :

(A) Are thinner walled

(B) Have more muscle in the tunica media

(C) Carry faster moving blood

(D) Have thicker endothelium

11. Live vaccine is :

(A) Low dose of infectious bacteria administered as prophylactic

(B) A dose of bacterial strain in a modified form which retains immunogenicity

but is not pathogenic

(C) A low dose of toxin that is produced by the bacterium

(D) A sample of cells from a patient who recently recovered from the disease

M-CL-12(BT)-D 3 P.T.O.

12. Which of the following ecosystems has lowest primary productivity per square

meter ?

(A) A salt marsh (B) A grassland

(C) An open ocean (D) A tropical rainforest

13. The greatest amount of free energy is available at which of the following levels ?

(A) Tertiary consumers (B) Secondary consumers

(C) Decomposers (D) Producers

14. Which of the following is a sequence alignment tool ?

(A) BLAST (B) PRINT

(C) PROSITE (D) PIR

15. Human genome contains nearly :

(A) 2 million base pairs (B) 3 million base pairs

(C) 4 million base pairs (D) 5 million base pairs

16. The term used to refer something performed on “computer or computer simulation”

is :

(A) Dry lab (B) Wet lab

(C) In vitro (D) In silico

17. Proteomics is the study of :

(A) Set of proteins

(B) Set of proteins in a specific region of a cell

(C) Entire set of expressed proteins in a cell

(D) None of the above

M-CL-12(BT)-D 4

18. Who is regarded as father of biostatistics ?

(A) Fischer (B) Karl Pearson

(C) Francis Galton (D) Francis Bacon

19. Number of fruits in a tree is a :

(A) Quantitative variable (B) Discrete variable

(C) Absolute variable (D) Continuous variable

20. Which compound acts as oxidizing agent only ?

(A) SO2 (B) H2S

(C) H2SO4 (D) HNOu9

21. Which of the following hormones contains iodine ?

(A) Thyroxine (B) Insulin

(C) Testosterone (D) Adrenaline

22. What is mode in statistics ?

(A) Value of middle observation

(B) Arithmetic mean

(C) Most commonly occurring value

(D) Difference in the highest and the lowest value

23. Square root of deviation is called :

(A) Standard deviation

(B) Standard error

(C) Mean deviation

(D) Range

M-CL-12(BT)-D 5 P.T.O.

24. Fungal cell wall is composed of :

(A) Chitin (B) Chitin or cellulose

(C) Hemicellulose (D) Cellulose

25. Bats are able to fly at night in the dark because :

(A) Strong vision

(B) Strong olfaction

(C) Capability of producing high frequency sound

(D) Capability of echolocation of obstacles

26. Chiasmata was first discovered by :

(A) Morgan in Drosophila

(B) Beadle in Neurospora

(C) Johnson in Amphibians

(D) Hammerling in Acetabularia

27. Holoenzyme is :

(A) Non-protein and apoenzyme

(B) Protein and apoenzyme

(C) Enzyme protein and coenzyme

(D) Enzyme nonprotein and coenzyme

28. The Golgi complex plays a major role :

(A) In trapping light and converting it into chemical energy

(B) In digesting proteins and carbohydrates

(C) As energy transferring organelles

(D) In post-translational modifications of proteins and glycosylation of lipids

M-CL-12(BT)-D 6

29. The junction between the axon of one neuron and the dendrites of the next is

called :

(A) Constant bridge (B) Junction point

(C) Joint (D) Synapse

30. Ligament is a/an :

(A) Inelastic white fibrous tissue

(B) Modified white fibrous tissue

(C) Modified yellow elastic fibrous tissue

(D) None of the above

31. Which of the following characters is absent in all chordates ?

(A) Diaphragm (B) Coelom

(C) Pharyngeal gill clefts (D) Dorsal nerve chord

32. In which animal nerve cells are present but brain is absent ?

(A) Sponge (B) Earthworm

(C) Cockroach (D) Hydra

33. Frogs differ from humans in possessing :

(A) Nucleated red blood cells

(B) Thyroid as well as parathyroid

(C) Paired cerebral hemispheres

(D) Hepatic portal system

M-CL-12(BT)-D 7 P.T.O.

34. Maltose gives rise to two molecules of :

(A) Fructose (B) Lactose

(C) Glucose (D) Sucrose

35. Carbon dioxide is transported via blood to lungs mostly :

(A) In combination with hemoglobin only

(B) Dissolved in blood plasma

(C) In the form of carbonic acid only

(D) As carbamino hemoglobin and as carbonic acid

36. There is no DNA in :

(A) Hair root (B) An enucleated ovum

(C) Mature RBCs (D) Mature spermatozoan

37. The basic functional unit of human kidney is :

(A) Nephridia (B) Henle’s loop

(C) Nephron (D) None of these

38. Secondary meristem arise from :

(A) Primary meristem (B) Embryonic meristem

(C) Permanent tissues (D) Lateral meristems

39. Which of the following structures is common in Riccia and Anthoceros ?

(A) Nurse cell (B) Foot in sporophyte

(C) Pyrenoid in cells (D) Unicellular rhizoids

M-CL-12(BT)-D 8

40. In which category of plants, pollination takes place however, plants have no

stigma ?

(A) Phanerogams (B) Angiosperms

(C) Ranales (D) Gymnosperms

41. Main function of lenticel is :

(A) Transpiration (B) Guttation

(C) Gaseous exchange (D) Bleeding

42. Lichens are well known combination of an alga and a fungus where fungus has :

(A) Saprophytic relationship with the alga

(B) Epiphytic relationship with the alga

(C) Parasitic relationship with the alga

(D) Symbiotic relationship with the alga

43. First stable product of nitrogen fixation is :

(A) Nitrates (B) Nitrites

(C) Ammonia (D) Glutamic acid

44. Shelf life of vegetables and cut flowers can be increased by commercial application

of :

(A) Cytokinin (B) AMO 1618

(C) Cyclocel (D) Phosphon-D

45. A plant requires magnesium for :

(A) Protein synthesis (B) Chlorophyll synthesis

(C) Cell wall development (D) Holding cells together

M-CL-12(BT)-D 9 P.T.O.

46. Which of the following is the key intermediate compound linking glycolysis to the

Krebs cycle ?

(A) Malic acid (B) Acetyl CoA

(C) NADH (D) ATP

47. The function of Leghaemoglobin in the root nodules of legumes is :

(A) Expression of nif genes

(B) Inhibition of nitrogenase activity

(C) Oxygen removal

(D) Nodule differentiation

48. Which of the fern is excellent biofertilizer ?

(A) Marsilea (B) Pteridium

(C) Azolla (D) Salvinia

49. A common biocontrol agent for the control of plant diseases is :

(A) Trichoderma (B) Bacillus thruingenesis

(C) Baculovirus (D) Glomus

50. The high density of water compared to ice is due to :

(A) Dipole induced dipole interactions

(B) Induced dipole induced dipole interactions

(C) Hydrogen bonding interactions

(D) Dipole-dipole interactions

M-CL-12(BT)-D 10

51. The structure of H2O2 is :

(A) Spherical (B) Non-planar

(C) Planar (D) Linear

52. Time period of a single pendulum is 2s. If its length is increased to 4 times, then

its period becomes :

(A) 8s (B) 12s

(C) 16s (D) 4s

53. The circular motion of a particle with constant speed is :

(A) Periodic but not simple harmonic

(B) Simple harmonic but not periodic

(C) Periodic and simple harmonic

(D) Neither periodic nor simple harmonic

54. Aspirin is an acetylation product of :

(A) m-Hydroxybenzoic acid (B) o-Dihydroxybenene

(C) o-Hydroxybenzoic acid (D) p-Dihydroxybenezene

55. Which of the following is the sweetest sugar ?

(A) Fructose (B) Glucose

(C) Sucrose (D) Maltose

56. Which of the following is the strongest oxidizing agent ?

(A) Cl2 (B) F2

(C) Br2 (D) I2

M-CL-12(BT)-D 11 P.T.O.

57. The polyembryony commonly occurs in :

(A) Tomato (B) Potato

(C) Citrus (D) Turmeric

58. Epistasis and dominance are respectively :

(A) Intragenic, Intergenic

(B) Non-allelic, Extra-allelic

(C) Non-allelic, Interallelic

(D) Intergenic, Non-allelic

59. Golgi bodies besides giving out secretory vesicles, is also concerned with the

formation of :

(A) Lysosomes

(B) Plastids

(C) Grana of chloroplasts

(D) Cell plates after cell division in plates

60. If a diploid cell is treated with colchicine, then it becomes :

(A) Triploid (B) Tetraploid

(C) Diploid (D) Monoploid

61. Cyclic Dependent Kinases(CDKs) :

(A) Act as mitotic poisons

(B) Causes microtubules to disassemble

(C) Control various phases of cell cycle

(D) Arrest cell division due to non-formation of spindle

M-CL-12(BT)-D 12

62. Find the correct set of structures/organelles not surrounded by membrane :

(A) Ribosomes, centrosomes, lysosomes

(B) Peroxisomes, Nucleolus, Ribosomes

(C) Ribosomes, Nucleolus, Centriole

(D) Nucleolus, Spherosomes, Ribosome

63. Cytoskeleton is made up of :

(A) Proteinaceous filaments (B) Calcium carbonate granules

(C) Callose deposists (D) Cellulosic microfibrils

64. Carbohydrates present on the plasma membrane :

(A) Have structural role

(B) Form channel

(C) Act as barrier

(D) Help in molecular recognition

65. P53 protein is associated with all of the following except :

(A) Tumor suppression

(B) Programmed cell death

(C) Transcription

(D) Post-transcription modifications

66. Genes whose products are constantly needed for cellular activity are called :

(A) Regulator genes (B) Structural genes

(C) Housekeeping genes (D) Smart genes

M-CL-12(BT)-D 13 P.T.O.

67. Genetic code refers to :

(A) Number of chromosomes in the diploid cells of a species

(B) Nucleotide sequences that correspond to common amino acids

(C) Amino acid sequence of cellular proteins

(D) Ratio of Mendelian inheritance

68. Which one of the following is a genetic trait ?

(A) Thalassemia (B) Grave’s disease

(C) Cushing’s disease (D) Parkinson’s disease

69. The genetic material of bacteriophage enters the :

(A) Virus (B) Bacterial cell

(C) Prion (D) None of these

70. The RNA which takes active part in protein synthesis is :

(A) rRNA (B) mRNA

(C) tRNA (D) All of these

71. X-chromosome is :

(A) Telocentric (B) Metacentric

(C) Acrocentric (D) Acentric

72. Regulation of lac operon by repressor is referred to as :

(A) Positive regulation (B) Negative regulation

(C) Feedback regulation (D) None of these

M-CL-12(BT)-D 14

73. What is the consequence of genetic drift ?

(A) Improvement of the population

(B) Increase in the strength of a population

(C) Decrease in IQ of a population

(D) Unpredictable effects on characters of a population

74. Members of a biological species are potentially able to :

(A) Compete (B) Express all the same genes

(C) Introgress (D) Interbreed

75. Apes differ from humans in having :

(A) Legs shorter than the arms

(B) Arms shorter than the legs

(C) A tail

(D) Same length of arms and legs

76. Wings of insects and birds are :

(A) Analogous (B) Homologous

(C) Vestigial (D) Atavism

77. Bacterial resistance to antibiotics is a genetic trait carried in the bacterial :

(A) Intron (B) Chromosomes

(C) Plasmid (D) Centromere

78. Which of the following techniques is used for forensic purpose ?

(A) Gene cloning (B) DNA fingerprinting

(C) Tissue culture (D) Organ culture

M-CL-12(BT)-D 15 P.T.O.

79. Single cell protein (SCP) is :

(A) Proteins from single species

(B) Proteins having single amino acids

(C) Microbial biomass meant for animal or human consumption

(D) None of the above

80. Agar is obtained from :

(A) Bacteria (B) Blue-green algae

(C) Red algae (D) Brown algae

81. The polyembryony commonly occurs in :

(A) Tomato (B) Potato

(C) Citrus (D) Turmeric

82. Male gametes in angiosperms are formed by the divisions of :

(A) Generative cell (B) Vegetative cell

(C) Microspore mother cell (D) Microspore

83. Which of the following pairs is mismatched ?

(A) Tundra – Permafrost

(B) Savanna – Acacia tree

(C) Prairie – Epiphytes

(D) Coniferous forest – Evergreen trees

84. Which type of association is found in between entomophilous flower and pollinating

agent ?

(A) Amensalism (B) Commensalism

(C) Cooperation (D) Co-evolution

M-CL-12(BT)-D 16

85. Which of the following is not observed in biodiversity hotspots ?

(A) Species richness

(B) Endemism

(C) Accelerated species loss

(D) Lesser inter-specific competition

86. Which of the following is main reason for desertification ?

(A) Over-grazing (B) Tourism

(C) Irrigated agriculture (D) All of these

87. Which one of the following is not included under in-situ conservation ?

(A) National park (B) Sanctuary

(C) Botanical garden (D) Biosphere reserve

88. Which of the following statements is not correct about energy flow in an

ecosystem ?

(A) Pyramid of energy is always straight

(B) Energy flow is unidirectional

(C) Energy flow is cyclic

(D) Ecological efficiency is generally 10%

89. What is antisense technology ?

(A) RNA polymerase producing DNA

(B) A cell displaying a foreign antigen used for synthesis of antibodies

(C) Production of somaclonal variants

(D) When a piece of RNA that is complementary in sequence is used to stop

expression of a specific gene

M-CL-12(BT)-D 17 P.T.O.

90. ELISA is used to detect viruses where :

(A) DNA probes are required

(B) Southern blotting is done

(C) Alkaline phosphatase is the key reagent

(D) Catalase is the key reagent

91. HIV that causes AIDS first starts destroying :

(A) Helper T-lymphocytes (B) B–lymphocytes

(C) Leucocytes (D) Thrombocytes

92. Virus envelope is known as :

(A) Core (B) Capsid

(C) Virion (D) Nucleoprotein

93. In plant biotechnology, PEG is used in :

(A) Protoplast isolation (B) Cell culture preparation

(C) Protoplast fusion (D) Hardening

94. Blood cells involved in inflammatory reactions are :

(A) Basophils (B) Neutrophils

(C) Eosinophils (D) Monocytes

95. Anatomical adaptations of xerophytes are :

(A) Stomata sunken and covered by hair

(B) Stomata absent or functionless

(C) Conducting and mechanical tissues well developed

(D) Arenchyma well developed

M-CL-12(BT)-D 18

96. Mangrove of marshy sundarbans is characterized by :

(A) Pneumatophores (B) Prop roots

(C) Vivipary (D) All of these

97. Point mutation occurs due to :

(A) Change in the base pairs of DNA

(B) Change in a single base pair of DNA

(C) Alteration in the base pairs of DNA

(D) Aberrations in the base pairs of DNA

98. A gene is said to be dominant if it is :

(A) Expresses its effect only in homozygous state

(B) Expresses only in heterozygous condition

(C) Expresses in both homozygous and heterozygous conditions

(D) Never expressed in any condition

99. Sperm acrosome is derived from :

(A) Golgi bodies (B) Endoplasmic reticulum

(C) Lysosomes (D) Mesosomes

100. Menstrual cycle is controlled by :

(A) Estrogen and progesterone of ovary

(B) FSH and pituitary

(C) FSH and LH of pituitary

(D) Oxytocin hormone

M-CL-12(BT)-D 19 P.T.O.

GENERAL APTITUDE

101. Directions : In each question below a statement followed by assumptions

numbered I and II. Consider the statement and decide which of the given

assumptions is implicit ? Give answer :

A : if only assumption I is implicit.

B : if only assumption II is implicit.

C : if either assumption I or II is implicit.

D : if neither assumption I nor II is implicit.

E : if both the assumptions are implicit.

Statement : Unemployed allowance should be given to all unemployed

youths above 18 years of age.

Assumptions : I. There are unemployed youths in India who needs monetary

support.

II. The government has sufficient funds to provide allowance

to all unemployed youth.

(A) A (B) C

(C) D (D) E

102. How many such digits are there in the number 836257419, each of which is as

far away from the beginning of the number as when the digits are arranged in

ascending order within the number ?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

M-CL-12(BT)-D 20

103. smear : libel :: heed :..................

(A) represent (B) doubt

(C) consider (D) need

104. Complete the series : 1357, 3085, 5282, 8026, ?

(A) 11401 (B) 11321

(C) 10441 (D) 9961

105. Directions : Read the instructions given below and answer the question :

It is given that

North direction- $

South direction- #

East direction- @

West direction- *

Deepak was going out from his house in the morning to go to his office and then

to finally reach the gym. So he came out of his house and started to walk in the

‘@’ direction. After walking for 10 km straight, he stopped at the tea stall. After

that, he started walking towards the salon, which is at a distance of 12 km in the

‘$’ direction from the tea stall. After that, he walked out from the salon towards

the temple, which is at a distance of 20 km in the ‘*’ direction from the salon.

Then he started walking for 30 km in the ‘#’ direction from the temple towards

a stationary shop. Then he started moving in ‘@’ direction to the bus stand, which

is 25 km away from the stationary shop. Then he boarded a bus and travelled for

12 km from the bus stand to reach his office in ‘$‘ direction. After that, he finally

started walking from his office towards gym which is at a distance of 10 km and

in ‘@’ direction from his office.

If Deepak goes from Gym to the Hospital which is 12 km to the south of the

Gym, then the bus stand is in which direction and at how much distance from the

Hospital ?

(A) 10 km south (B) 10 km west

(C) 15 km North (D) 12 km North

M-CL-12(BT)-D 21 P.T.O.

106. Directions : Read the following information and answer the question :

G is the mother of F, who is the spouse of D. M is the daughter of D, who is

the only brother of C. E is the son of G, who is married to H. A is the niece of

C, who has no sister. T is the father of D and has no daughter. V is the sister-

in-law of F. G has only two children. M is the granddaughter of O.

Who among the following is the sibling of F ?

(A) G (B) H

(C) V (D) E

107. Directions : Read the instructions and answer the following question :

Eight persons are sitting around a square table in such a way that four of them

are sitting at corners while four of them are sitting at the middle of each edge of

the table. All of them are facing towards the centre of the table. Each of them

weight is different in kg such that no two persons have the same weight. Weight

of the persons sitting at corners of the table is in a multiple of 3 kg and weight

of the persons sitting at the edge of the table is in a multiple of 4 kg.

R is sitting second to the left of P, whose weight is 36 kg. Only one person is

sitting between R and the one, whose weight is 72 kg. Third lightest person and

third heaviest person are not sitting adjacent to each other. V is sitting to the

immediate right of Q, who is not sitting at corner of the table. The one, whose

weight is 60 kg, is sitting to the immediate right of the one, whose weight is

42 kg. The one, who is sitting third to the left of the one, whose weight is 42 kg,

is 24 kg lighter than Q. W is sitting to the immediate left of S, whose weight is

81 kg. Two persons are sitting between W and the one, whose weight is 84 kg.

Difference between the weights of R and one of the immediate neighbors of R is

3 kg. Weight of T is twice as the weight of U, who is sitting second to the right

of T.

Sum of the weights of T and the one, who is sitting to the immediate left of U,

is equal to the sum of the weights of..................and..................respectively ?

(A) Q and R (B) P and V

(C) S and W (D) T and U

M-CL-12(BT)-D 22

108. Directions : Read the information carefully and answer the question :

In a certain code language,

'speak nicely to all' is coded as "ka cu ma he"

'all are like us' is coded as " si fo he to"

'teach us lesson nicely' is coded as " po ma fo re"

'lesson like all humans' is coded as "he re gu si"

What would be the code for "humans teach" ?

(A) gu fo (B) gu po

(C) he fo (D) ma re

109. Find the number of squares and triangles in the below figure :

(A) 2, 10 (B) 2, 9

(C) 2, 8 (D) 2, 7

110. Select a suitable figure from the Answer Figures that would replace the question

mark (?) :

Problem Figures : Answer Figures :

1 2 3 4

(A) 1 (B) 2

(C) 3 (D) 4

M-CL-12(BT)-D 23 P.T.O.

GENERAL ENGLISH

111. In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out

which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option:

Those present (A)/were all astonished (B)/to the results(C)/of the election (D).

(A) A (B) B

(C) C (D) D

112. Maya is crazy....................this movie.

(A) with (B) at

(C) about (D) on

113. Directions : Given below the sentence which has been divided into four parts.

Choose the option which gives the correct sequence of the parts :

as it purchased 17.7 tonnes of (A)/ India’s RBI was in the list of central banks

(B)/ that added to reserves (C)/ gold between January and June this year (D)/.

(A) ABDC (B) BCAD

(C) DCAB (D) CABD

114. Find the synonym of Fervid :

(A) delightful (B) difficult

(C) obstinate (D) ardent

115. Find the antonym of Pristine :

(A) free (B) sullied

(C) wide (D) thorough

M-CL-12(BT)-D 24

116. Read each part of the sentence to find out whether is there any grammatical error

in it. The error if in any part of the sentence, the option given in that part will

be the answer :

(A) The need for alternate

(B) sources of energy are

(C) essential to conserve

(D) the environment.

117. In the question given below a/an idiom/phrase is given in bold which is then

followed by four options which then try to decipher its meaning as used in the

sentence. Choose the option which gives the correct meaning :

You can't sit on the fence any longer - you have to decide whose side you're on.

(A) Ambivalent (B) Resolute

(C) Vehement (D) Tenacious

118. One word substitution : Set in wrong time or period :

(A) Antiphonic (B) Thearchy

(C) Ochlocracy (D) Anachronistic

119. Which one of the following words is correctly spelt ?

(A) asiduous (B) nefarious

(C) macaber (D) luoqacious

120. From the given options choose the correct word suitable to fill in the blank

spaces :

The practice of Indian......................., despite its pitfalls, has.......................the country

from many of its neighbours.

(A) cooperation, built-in (B) stakes, factor

(C) signed, memorandum (D) secularism, distinguished