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LSAT * PrepTest 56 December 2008 Test ID: LL3056

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  • LSAT*

    PrepTest 56December 2008

    Test ID: LL3056

  • A complete version of PrepTest 56 has been reproduced withthe permission of Law School Admission Council, Inc.

    PrepTest 56 2008 Law School Admission Council, Inc.

    All actual LSAT questions printed within this work are usedwith the permission of Law School Admission Council, Inc.,Box 2000, Newton, PA 18940, the copyright owner. LSACdoes not review or endorse specific test preparation or services, and inclusion of licensed LSAT questions within thiswork does not imply the review or endorsement of LSAC.

    2009 Kaplan, Inc.

    All right reserved. No part of this book may be reproduced in any form, byphotostat, microfilm, xerography, or any other means, or incorporated into anyinformation retrieval system, electronic or mechanical, without the written

    permission of Kaplan, Inc.

  • n Analytical Reasoning . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . SECTION I

    n Logical Reasoning . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . SECTION II

    n Logical Reasoning. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . SECTION III

    n Reading Comprehension . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . SECTION IV

    n Writing Sample Materials

  • Questions 16

    Individual hour-long auditions will be scheduled for eachof six saxophonistsFujimura, Gabrieli, Herman, Jackson,King, and Lauder. The auditions will all take place on thesame day. Each audition will begin on the hour, with thefirst beginning at 1 P.M. and the last at 6 P.M. The scheduleof auditions must conform to the following conditions:

    Jackson auditions earlier than Herman does. Gabrieli auditions earlier than King does. Gabrieli auditions either immediately before orimmediately after Lauder does.

    Exactly one audition separates the auditions ofJackson and Lauder.

    1. Which one of the following is an acceptable schedulefor the auditions, listed in order from 1 P.M. through6 P.M?

    (A) Fujimura, Gabrieli, King, Jackson, Herman,Lauder

    (B) Fujimura, King, Lauder, Gabrieli, Jackson,Herman

    (C) Fujimura, Lauder, Gabrieli, King, Jackson,Herman

    (D) Herman, Jackson, Gabrieli, Lauder, King,Fujimura

    (E) Jackson, Gabrieli, Lauder, Herman, King,Fujimura

    2. Which one of the following must be true?

    (A) Lauder is scheduled to audition earlier thanHerman.

    (B) Lauder is scheduled to audition earlier thanKing.

    (C) Jacksons audition is scheduled to begin ateither 1 P.M or 5 P.M

    (D) Fujimura and Jackson are not scheduled toaudition in consecutive hours.

    (E) Gabrieli and King are not scheduled toaudition in consecutive hours.

    3. The earliest Kings audition could be scheduled tobegin is

    (A) 5 P.M.(B) 4 P.M.(C) 3 P.M.(D) 2 P.M.(E) 1 P.M.

    4. The order in which the saxophonists are scheduled toaudition is completely determined if which one ofthe following is true?

    (A) Hermans audition is scheduled to begin at 4 P.M.(B) Jacksons audition is scheduled to begin at 1 P.M.(C) Jacksons audition is scheduled to begin at 5 P.M.(D) Lauders audition is scheduled to begin at 1 P.M.(E) Lauders audition is scheduled to begin at 2 P.M.

    5. If Fujimuras audition is not scheduled to begin at 1P.M., which one of the following could be true?

    (A) Hermans audition is scheduled to begin at 6 P.M.(B) Gabrielis audition is scheduled to begin at 5 P.M.(C) Hermans audition is scheduled to begin at 3 P.M.(D) Jacksons audition is scheduled to begin at 2 P.M.(E) Jacksons audition is scheduled to begin at 5 P.M.

    6. Which one of the following must be true?

    (A) Gabrielis audition is scheduled to begin before5 P.M.

    (B) Hermans audition is scheduled to begin after2 P.M.

    (C) Hermans audition is scheduled to begin before6 P.M.

    (D) Kings audition is scheduled to begin before6 P.M.

    (E) Lauders audition is scheduled to begin before5 P.M.

    GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

    SECTION I

    Time35 minutes

    23 Questions

    Directions: Each group of questions in this section is based on a set of conditions. In answering some of the questions, it may beuseful to draw a rough diagram. Choose the response that most accurately and completely answers each question and blacken thecorresponding space on your answer sheet.

    1 -2- 11

  • Questions 711

    Four peopleGrace, Heather, Josh, and Mariawill helpeach other move exactly three pieces of furniturearecliner, a sofa, and a table. Each piece of furniture will bemoved by exactly two of the people, and each person willhelp move at least one of the pieces of furniture, subject tothe following constraints:

    Grace helps move the sofa if, but only if, Heatherhelps move the recliner.

    If Josh helps move the table, then Maria helps movethe recliner.

    No piece of furniture is moved by Grace and Joshtogether.

    7. Which one of the following could be an accuratematching of each piece of furniture to the two peoplewho help each other move it?

    (A) recliner: Grace and Maria; sofa: Heather andJosh; table: Grace and Heather

    (B) recliner: Grace and Maria; sofa: Heather andMaria; table: Grace and Josh

    (C) recliner: Heather and Josh; sofa: Grace andHeather; table: Josh and Maria

    (D) recliner: Heather and Josh; sofa: Heather andMaria; table: Grace and Maria

    (E) recliner: Josh and Maria; sofa: Grace andHeather; table: Grace and Maria

    8. If Josh and Maria help each other move the recliner,then which one of the following must be true?

    (A) Heather helps move the sofa. (B) Josh helps move the sofa. (C) Maria helps move the sofa. (D) Grace helps move the table. (E) Heather helps move the table.

    9. If Heather helps move each of the pieces of furniture,then which one of the following could be true?

    (A) Grace helps move the recliner.(B) Maria helps move the recliner.(C) Josh helps move the sofa.(D) Maria helps move the sofa.(E) Grace helps move the table.

    10. Which one of the following could be a pair of peoplewho help each other move both the recliner and thetable?

    (A) Grace and Josh (B) Grace and Maria (C) Heather and Josh (D) Heather and Maria (E) Josh and Maria

    11. If Josh and Maria help each other move the sofa, thenwhich one of the following could be true?

    (A) Heather and Josh help each other move therecliner.

    (B) Heather and Maria help each other move therecliner.

    (C) Grace and Josh help each other move the table. (D) Grace and Maria help each other move the

    table. (E) Heather and Maria help each other move the

    table.

    GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

    1 1-3-1

  • Questions 1216

    A town has exactly two public parksGraystone Park andLanding Parkwhich are to be planted with NorthAmerican trees. There are exactly four varieties of treesavailablemaples, oaks, sycamores, and tamaracks. Theplanting of the trees must be in accord with the following:

    Each of the parks is planted with exactly three of thevarieties.

    At least one of the parks is planted with both maplesand sycamores.

    Any park that is planted with oaks will also beplanted with tamaracks.

    Graystone Park is planted with maples.

    12. Which one of the following could be a complete andaccurate list of the varieties of trees planted in eachof the parks?

    (A) Graystone Park: maples, oaks, sycamoresLanding Park: maples, oaks, sycamores

    (B) Graystone Park: maples, oaks, tamaracksLanding Park: maples, oaks, tamaracks

    (C) Graystone Park: maples, sycamores, tamaracksLanding Park: maples, oaks, sycamores

    (D) Graystone Park: maples, sycamores, tamaracksLanding Park: maples, oaks, tamaracks

    (E) Graystone Park: oaks, sycamores, tamaracksLanding Park: maples, sycamores, tamaracks

    13. Which one of the following must be true?

    (A) Graystone Park is planted with sycamores. (B) Landing Park is planted with maples. (C) Landing Park is planted with tamaracks. (D) The number of the parks planted with maples

    is equal to the number of the parks plantedwith sycamores.

    (E) The number of the parks planted with maplesis greater than the number of the parksplanted with sycamores.

    14. If both parks are planted with sycamores, which oneof the following could be true?

    (A) The number of the parks planted with maplesis equal to the number of the parks plantedwith oaks.

    (B) The number of the parks planted with maplesis greater than the number of the parksplanted with sycamores.

    (C) The number of the parks planted with oaks isequal to the number of the parks planted withsycamores.

    (D) Graystone Park is planted with both maplesand oaks.

    (E) Landing Park is planted with both maples andoaks.

    15. Which one of the following must be false?

    (A) Both parks are planted with oaks. (B) Both parks are planted with sycamores. (C) Both parks are planted with tamaracks. (D) Exactly one of the parks is planted with

    maples. (E) Exactly one of the parks is planted with

    sycamores.

    16. Which one of the following could be true?

    (A) The number of the parks planted with oaks isequal to the number of the parks planted withtamaracks.

    (B) The number of the parks planted with oaks isgreater than the number of the parks plantedwith sycamores.

    (C) Exactly one of the parks is planted withtamaracks.

    (D) Neither park is planted with tamaracks. (E) Both parks contain exactly the same three

    varieties of trees as each other.

    GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

    1 -4- 11

  • Questions 1723

    Five executivesQuinn, Rodriguez, Sasada, Taylor, andVandercarare being scheduled to make site visits tothree of their companys manufacturing plantsFarmington, Homestead, and Morningside. Each site willbe visited by at least one of the executives and eachexecutive will visit just one site. Each of the three site visitswill take place on a different day. The schedule of site visitsmust conform to the following requirements:

    The Farmington visit must take place before theHomestead visit.

    The Farmington visit will include only one of theexecutives.

    The site visit that includes Quinn must take placebefore any site visit that includes either Rodriguezor Taylor.

    The site visit that includes Sasada cannot take placeafter any site visit that includes Vandercar.

    17. Which one of the following could be the executivesincluded in each of the site visits, with the sites listedin the order in which they are visited?

    (A) Farmington: Quinn Homestead: Rodriguez, Sasada Morningside: Taylor, Vandercar

    (B) Farmington: Quinn Homestead: Rodriguez, Vandercar Morningside: Sasada, Taylor

    (C) Farmington: Rodriguez Morningside: Quinn, Taylor Homestead: Sasada, Vandercar

    (D) Homestead: Sasada Farmington: Quinn Morningside: Rodriguez, Taylor, Vandercar

    (E) Morningside: Quinn Farmington: Rodriguez, Sasada Homestead: Taylor, Vandercar

    18. If the second of the three site visits includes bothRodriguez and Taylor, which one of the followingmust be true?

    (A) The Farmington visit includes Quinn. (B) The Homestead visit includes Vandercar. (C) The Morningside visit includes Sasada. (D) The second of the three site visits includes

    Sasada. (E) The second of the three site visits includes

    exactly three of the executives.

    19. If one of the site visits includes both Quinn andSasada, which one of the following could be true?

    (A) The Farmington visit is the first of the threesite visits.

    (B) The Homestead visit is the second of the threesite visits.

    (C) One of the site visits includes only Vandercar. (D) The second of the three site visits includes

    Sasada. (E) The second of the three site visits includes

    exactly two of the executives.

    20. The executives who visit Homestead CANNOT be

    (A) Quinn and Vandercar only (B) Rodriguez and Taylor only (C) Sasada and Taylor only (D) Quinn, Sasada, and Vandercar (E) Rodriguez, Sasada, and Taylor

    21. If the Morningside visit includes both Quinn andVandercar, which one of the following could be true?

    (A) One of the site visits includes both Rodriguezand Sasada.

    (B) The second of the three site visits includesexactly three of the executives.

    (C) The last of the three site visits includes exactlythree of the executives.

    (D) The Homestead visit takes place earlier thanthe Morningside visit.

    (E) The Morningside visit takes place earlier thanthe Farmington visit.

    22. Which one of the following must be true?

    (A) The Farmington visit takes place earlier thanthe Morningside visit.

    (B) The site visit that includes Vandercar takesplace earlier than the site visit that includesRodriguez.

    (C) One of the first two site visits includes Sasada. (D) The second of the three site visits includes at

    least two of the executives. (E) At least one of the first two site visits includes

    only one of the executives.

    23. If the Farmington visit includes Sasada, which one ofthe following must be true?

    (A) One of the site visits includes exactly three ofthe executives.

    (B) The last of the three site visits includesRodriguez.

    (C) The Homestead visit includes Quinn. (D) The Morningside visit includes Taylor. (E) The site visit that includes Vandercar also

    includes Quinn.

    1 1-5-1

    S T O PIF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.

    DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

  • 2 -6- 2

    1. This regions swimmers generally swim during theday because they are too afraid of sharks to swimafter dark but feel safe swimming during daylighthours. Yet all recent shark attacks on swimmers inthe area have occurred during the day, indicatingthat, contrary to popular opinion, it is not moredangerous to swim here at night than during the day.

    The reasoning in the argument is most vulnerable tocriticism on the grounds that it

    (A) overlooks the possibility that some sharks areprimarily nocturnal hunters

    (B) bases its conclusion on evidence from anunreliable source

    (C) overlooks the possibility that swimmers mightfeel anxiety caused by not being able to seeones surroundings in the dark

    (D) presumes, without providing justification, thatswimmers cannot be the most knowledgeableabout which times of day are safest forswimming

    (E) fails to take into account the possibility thatthe number of shark attacks at night wouldincrease dramatically if more people swam atnight

    2. Denise: Crime will be reduced only whenpunishment is certain and is sufficiently severeto give anyone considering committing a crimereason to decide against doing so.

    Reshmi: No, crime will be most effectively reduced ifeducational opportunities are made readilyavailable to everyone, so that those who onceviewed criminal activity as the only means ofsecuring a comfortable lifestyle will choose adifferent path.

    Their dialogue provides the most support for theclaim that Denise and Reshmi agree that

    (A) people are capable of choosing whether or notto commit crimes

    (B) crime is the most important issue facingmodern society

    (C) reducing crime requires fair and consistentresponses to criminal behavior

    (D) crimes are committed in response to economicneed

    (E) reducing crime requires focusing on assuredpunishments

    3. Acme Corporation offers unskilled workers excellentopportunities for advancement. As evidence, considerthe fact that the president of the company, Ms.Garon, worked as an assembly line worker, an entry-level position requiring no special skills, when shefirst started at Acme.

    Which one of the following statements, if true, mostweakens the reasoning above?

    (A) Acmes vice president of operations alsoworked as an assembly line worker when hefirst started at Acme.

    (B) Acme regularly hires top graduates of businessschools and employs them briefly in each of asuccession of entry-level positions beforepromoting them to management.

    (C) Acme promotes its own employees to seniormanagement positions much more frequentlythan it hires senior managers from othercompanies.

    (D) Ms. Garon worked at Acme for more than 20years before she was promoted to president.

    (E) Acme pays entry-level employees slightlyhigher wages than most other businesses inthe same industry.

    GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

    22SECTION II

    Time35 minutes

    25 Questions

    Directions: The questions in this section are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. For somequestions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer; thatis, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. You should not make assumptions that are bycommonsense standards implausible, superfluous, or incompatible with the passage. After you have chosen the best answer, blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.

  • 2-7-24. The song of the yellow warbler signals to other

    yellow warblers that a particular area has beenappropriated by the singer as its own feedingterritory. Although the singing deters other yellowwarblers from taking over the feeding territory of thesinger, other yellow warblers may range for foodwithin a portion of the singers territory. However, awarbler sings a special song when it molts (sheds itsfeathers). Other yellow warblers will not enter thesmaller core territory of a yellow warbler singing itsmolting song. Therefore yellow warblers, which canonly fly short distances during molting, have nocompetition for the food supply within the range oftheir restricted flying.

    The argument makes which one of the followingassumptions?

    (A) The core areas contain just enough food tosustain one yellow warbler while it molts.

    (B) Warblers are the only molting birds that layclaim to core areas of feeding territories bysinging.

    (C) There are no birds other than yellow warblersthat compete with yellow warblers for food.

    (D) Warblers often share their feeding areas withother kinds of birds, which often do not eatthe same insects or seeds as warblers do.

    (E) The core areas of each feeding territory are thesame size for each molting warbler.

    5. Chinh: Television producers should not pay attentionto the preferences of the viewing public whenmaking creative decisions. Great painters donot consider what the museum-going publicwants to see.

    Lana: But television is expressly for the viewingpublic. So a producer is more like a CEO thanlike an artist. Just as a company would befoolhardy not to consider consumers tasteswhen developing products, the TV producermust consider viewers preferences.

    According to Lana, Chinhs argument is flawed inthat it

    (A) is circular (B) relies on a sample of consumers that is

    unrepresentative of consumers in general (C) infers from the effect produced by an action

    that the action is intended to produce thateffect

    (D) fails to consider the possibility that paintersmay in fact try to please the museum-goingpublic

    (E) offers a faulty analogy

    6. Dietitian: High consumption of sodium increasessome peoples chances of developing heartdisease. To maintain cardiac health withoutlowering sodium consumption, therefore, thesepeople should eat fresh, rather than canned orfrozen, fruit and vegetables, since thepotassium in plant foods helps to preventsodiums malign effects.

    Which one of the following is an assumptionrequired by the dietitians argument?

    (A) Fresh fruits and vegetables contain morepotassium than sodium.

    (B) Food processing businesses often add sodiumto foods being canned or frozen.

    (C) Potassium is the only mineral that helps toprevent sodiums malign effects.

    (D) Potassium in fruits and vegetables has fewnegative side effects.

    (E) Fresh fruits and vegetables contain morepotassium than do canned or frozen ones.

    7. Dana intentionally watered the plant every other day.But since the plant was a succulent, and needed drysoil, the frequent watering killed the plant. ThereforeDana intentionally killed the plant.

    Which one of the following arguments exhibits aflawed pattern of reasoning most similar to theflawed pattern of reasoning exhibited in theargument above?

    (A) Jack stole $10 from Kelly and bet it on a race.The bet returned $100 to Jack. Therefore Jackreally stole $100 from Kelly.

    (B) Celeste knows that coffee is grown in themountains in Peru and that Peru is in SouthAmerica. Therefore Celeste should know thatcoffee is grown in South America.

    (C) The restaurant owner decided to take an itemoff her restaurants menu. This decisiondisappointed Jerry because that item was hisfavorite dish. Therefore the restaurant ownerdecided to disappoint Jerry.

    (D) The heavy rain caused the dam to break, andthe breaking of the dam caused the fieldsdownstream to be flooded. Therefore theheavy rain caused the flooding of the fields.

    (E) The power plant raised the water temperature,and whatever raised the water temperature isresponsible for the decrease in fish. Thereforethe power plant is responsible for the decreasein fish.

    GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

    22

  • 2 -8- 28. This boulder is volcanic in origin and yet the rest of

    the rock in this area is sedimentary. Since this areawas covered by southward-moving glaciers duringthe last ice age, this boulder was probably depositedhere, hundreds of miles from its geologicalbirthplace, by a glacier.

    Which one of the following, if true, most seriouslyundermines the conclusion drawn in the argumentabove?

    (A) Most boulders that have been moved byglaciers have not been moved more than 100miles.

    (B) The closest geological source of volcanic rockis 50 miles south of this boulder.

    (C) The closest geological source of volcanic rockis 50 miles north of this boulder.

    (D) There are no geological sources of volcanicrock north of this boulder.

    (E) No other boulders of volcanic origin existwithin 50 miles of this boulder.

    9. Rifka: We do not need to stop and ask for directions.We would not need to do that unless, ofcourse, we were lost.

    Craig: The fact that we are lost is precisely why weneed to stop.

    In the exchange above, the function of Craigscomment is to

    (A) contradict the conclusion of Rifkas argumentwithout offering any reason to reject any ofRifkas implicit premises

    (B) deny one of Rifkas implicit premises andthereby arrive at a different conclusion

    (C) imply that Rifkas argument is invalid byaccepting the truth of its premises whilerejecting its conclusion

    (D) provide a counterexample to Rifkasgeneralization

    (E) affirm the truth of the stated premise of Rifkasargument while remaining noncommittalabout its conclusion

    10. Critic: The idealized world portrayed in romanceliterature is diametrically opposed to thedebased world portrayed in satirical literature.Nevertheless, the major characters in bothtypes of works have moral qualities that reflectthe worlds in which they are presented.Comedy and tragedy, meanwhile, require thatthe moral qualities of major characters changeduring the course of the action. Therefore,neither tragedy nor comedy can be classified assatirical literature or romance literature.

    The critics conclusion follows logically if which oneof the following is assumed?

    (A) Some characters in comedies and tragedies areneither debased nor idealized.

    (B) The visions of the world portrayed in works oftragedy and works of comedy change duringthe course of the action.

    (C) If a character in a tragedy is idealized at thebeginning of the action depicted in thetragedy, he or she must be debased at the end.

    (D) In romance literature and satirical literature,characters moral qualities do not changeduring the course of the action.

    (E) Both comedy and tragedy require that themoral qualities of minor characters changeduring the course of the action.

    11. Lance: If experience teaches us nothing else, itteaches us that every general rule has at leastone exception.

    Frank: What you conclude is itself a general rule. Ifwe assume that it is true, then there is at leastone general rule that has no exceptions.Therefore, you must withdraw yourconclusion.

    Franks argument is an attempt to counter Lancesconclusion by

    (A) demonstrating that Lance assumes the verything he sets out to prove

    (B) showing that Lances conclusion involves himin a contradiction

    (C) showing that no general rule can haveexceptions

    (D) establishing that experience teaches us theopposite of what Lance concludes

    (E) showing that it has no implications for anyreal cases

    GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

    22

  • 2-9-212. Throughout a certain nation, electricity has actually

    become increasingly available to people in urbanareas while energy production has been subsidized tohelp residents of rural areas gain access to electricity.However, even with the subsidy, many of the mostisolated rural populations still have no access toelectricity. Thus, the energy subsidy has failed toachieve its intended purpose.

    The reasoning in the argument is most vulnerable tocriticism on the grounds that the argument

    (A) takes for granted that the subsidys intendedpurpose could have been achieved if thesubsidy had not existed

    (B) takes for granted that if a subsidy has anybenefit for those whom it was not intended tobenefit, then that subsidy has failed to achieveits intended purpose

    (C) presumes, without providing justification, thatthe intended purpose of the subsidy was tobenefit not only rural populations in thenation who have no electricity, but otherpeople in the nation as well

    (D) overlooks the possibility that even many of thepeople in the nation who live in urban areaswould have difficulty gaining access toelectricity without the subsidy

    (E) fails to take into account that the subsidycould have helped many of the rural residentsin the nation gain access to electricity even ifmany other rural residents in the nation werenot helped in this way

    13. Heart attacks are most likely to occur on Mondays.The accepted explanation is that because Monday isthe first day of the workweek, people feel more stresson Mondays than on other days. However, researchshows that even unemployed retired people are morelikely to have heart attacks on Mondays than onother days.

    Which one of the following, if true, most helps toexplain the increased likelihood that an unemployedretiree will have a heart attack on a Monday?

    (A) Because they associate Monday with work,retired people are more likely to begin largeprojects on Mondays.

    (B) Many retired people take up part-time jobsafter they retire from their careers.

    (C) People seldom change their dietary and otherhealth habits after retirement.

    (D) Stress is the major factor influencing the riskof heart attack.

    (E) Unemployed retired people are even morelikely to have heart attacks than are peoplewho have jobs.

    14. Psychologist: We asked 100 entrepreneurs and100 business managers to answer variousquestions and rate how confident they werethat their responses were correct. Whilemembers of each group were overconfident, ingeneral the entrepreneurs were much more sothan the business managers. This indicates thatpeople who are especially overconfident aremore likely to attempt to start a business inspite of the enormous odds against successthan people who are less confident.

    Which one of the following, if true, lends the mostsupport to the psychologists conclusion?

    (A) The questions asked of the entrepreneurs andbusiness managers included personal,political, and business questions.

    (B) At least some of the entrepreneurs surveyedhad accurately determined before attemptingto start their businesses what the odds wereagainst their attempts being successful.

    (C) Another survey showed that degree ofconfidence was highly correlated with successin business.

    (D) The business managers who were mostoverconfident were found to have attemptedto start businesses in the past.

    (E) How confident each person surveyed was thathis or her answers to the questions asked werecorrect corresponded closely to that personsconfidence in his or her business acumen.

    GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

    22

  • 2 -10- 215. If Agness research proposal is approved, the fourth-

    floor lab must be cleaned out for her use. Immanuelsproposal, on the other hand, requires less space. So ifhis proposal is approved, he will continue to work inthe second-floor lab. Only those proposals thedirector supports will be approved. So since thedirector will support both proposals, the fourth-floorlab must be cleaned out.

    The arguments reasoning is flawed because theargument

    (A) presumes, without providing justification, thatthe fourth-floor lab is bigger than the second-floor lab

    (B) fails to consider the possibility that a proposalwill be rejected even with the directorssupport

    (C) presumes, without providing justification, thatthe director will support both proposals withequal enthusiasm

    (D) fails to consider the possibility that Immanuelwill want to move to a bigger lab once hisproposal is approved

    (E) presumes, without providing justification, thatno lab other than the fourth-floor lab wouldbe adequate for Agness research

    16. In order to expand its mailing lists for e-mailadvertising, the Outdoor Sports Company has beenoffering its customers financial incentives if theyprovide the e-mail addresses of their friends.However, offering such incentives is an unethicalbusiness practice, because it encourages people toexploit their personal relationships for profit, whichrisks damaging the integrity of those relationships.

    Which one of the following principles, if valid, mosthelps to justify the reasoning in the argument?

    (A) It is unethical for people to exploit theirpersonal relationships for profit if in doing sothey risk damaging the integrity of thoserelationships.

    (B) If it would be unethical to use informationthat was gathered in a particular way, then itis unethical to gather that information in thefirst place.

    (C) It is an unethical business practice for acompany to deliberately damage the integrityof its customers personal relationships in anyway.

    (D) It is unethical to encourage people to engage inbehavior that could damage the integrity oftheir personal relationships.

    (E) Providing a friends personal information to acompany in exchange for a financial rewardwill almost certainly damage the integrity ofones personal relationship with that friend.

    17. Glen: An emphasis on laws purely procedural sideproduces a concern with personal rights thatleads to the individuals indifference tosocietys welfare. Laws primary role should beto create virtuous citizens.

    Sara: But such a role would encourage government todecide which modes of life are truly virtuous;that would be more dangerous thangovernments being overprotective ofindividuals rights.

    The dialogue provides the most support for the claimthat Glen and Sara disagree about whether

    (A) citizens can be assumed to be capable ofmaking good choices without governmentalinterference

    (B) virtuousness on the part of citizens is moreimportant than the protection of citizensrights

    (C) there is an inherent danger in allowinggovernment to decide what constitutesvirtuous behavior among citizens

    (D) an emphasis on laws purely procedural sideresults in governments being overprotectiveof citizens rights

    (E) the cultivation of virtue among citizens shouldbe the primary role of law

    GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

    22

  • 2-11-218. Some credit card companies allow cardholders to

    skip payments for up to six months under certaincircumstances, but it is almost never in a cardholdersinterest to do so. Finance charges accumulate duringthe skipped-payment period, and the cost to thecardholder is much greater in the long run.

    Which one of the following arguments illustrates aprinciple most similar to the principle underlying theargument above?

    (A) Although insecticides are effective in riddingthe environment of insect pests, they oftenkill beneficial insects at the same time. Sincethese beneficial insects are so important, wemust find other ways to combat insect pests.

    (B) Increasing the base salary of new employees isgood for a company. Although the companyspayroll will increase, it will be easier for thecompany to recruit new employees.

    (C) It is unwise to use highway maintenance fundsfor construction of new roads. There is someimmediate benefit from new roads, but ifthese funds are not used for maintenance, thetotal maintenance cost will be greater in thelong run.

    (D) It is better to invest in a used piece ofequipment than to purchase a new one.Although used equipment requires morerepairs and is sometimes more costly in thelong run, buying a new machine requires a fargreater initial outlay of capital.

    (E) Sports cars are impractical for most drivers.While there is undoubtedly a certain thrillassociated with driving these cars, their smallsize makes them incapable of transportingany but the smallest amounts of cargo.

    19. None of the students taking literature are takingphysics, but several of the students taking physics aretaking art. In addition, none of the students takingrhetoric are taking physics.

    Which one of the following statements followslogically from the statements above?

    (A) There are students who are taking art but notliterature.

    (B) None of the students taking literature aretaking art.

    (C) There are students who are taking rhetoric butnot literature.

    (D) None of the students taking rhetoric are takingliterature.

    (E) There are students who are taking both art andliterature.

    20. Psychologist: Psychotherapists who attempt toprovide psychotherapy on radio or televisiontalk shows are expected to do so in ways thatentertain a broad audience. However,satisfying this demand is nearly alwaysincompatible with providing high-qualitypsychological help. For this reason,psychotherapists should never providepsychotherapy on talk shows.

    Which one of the following principles must beassumed in order for the psychologists conclusion tobe properly drawn?

    (A) It is never appropriate for psychotherapists toattempt to entertain a broad audience.

    (B) The context in which psychological help ispresented has a greater impact on its qualitythan the nature of the advice that is given.

    (C) Psychotherapy should never be provided in acontext in which there is any chance that thetherapy might be of less than high quality.

    (D) Most members of radio and television talkshow audiences are seeking entertainmentrather than high-quality psychological help.

    (E) Psychotherapists should never attempt toprovide psychological help in a manner thatmakes it unlikely to be of high quality.

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    22

  • 2 -12- 221. Tania: A good art critic is not fair in the ordinary

    sense; it is only about things that do notinterest one that one can give a truly unbiasedopinion. Since art is a passion, good criticismof art cannot be separated from emotion.

    Monique: Art is not simply a passion. The best artcritics passionately engage with the artwork,but render their criticism only after sheddingall of their biases and consulting generalprinciples of aesthetics.

    The dialogue most strongly supports the claim thatTania and Monique disagree about whether

    (A) art is not simply a passion (B) good art criticism is sometimes unbiased (C) art critics should not feel emotion toward

    artworks (D) fairness generally requires minimizing the

    influence of bias (E) the passionate engagement of the art critic

    with the artwork is the most important aspectof art criticism

    22. The writing styles in works of high literary qualityare not well suited to the avoidance ofmisinterpretation. For this reason, the writing injudicial decisions, which are primarily intended asdeterminations of law, is rarely of high literaryquality. However, it is not uncommon to find writingof high literary quality in dissenting opinions, whichare sometimes included in written decisions in casesheard by a panel of judges.

    Which one of the following, if true, most helps toresolve the apparent discrepancy in the statementsabove?

    (A) It is not uncommon for more than one judgeto have an influence on the way a dissentingopinion is written.

    (B) Unlike literary works, legal opinions relyheavily on the use of technical terminology.

    (C) The law is not to any great extent determinedby dissenting opinions.

    (D) Judges spend much more time reading judicialdecisions than reading works of high literaryquality.

    (E) Judicial decisions issued by panels of judgesare likely to be more widely read than arejudicial decisions issued by a single judge whohears a case alone.

    23. Ecologist: Without the intervention ofconservationists, squirrel monkeys will becomeextinct. But they will survive if large tracts ofsecond-growth forest habitat are preserved forthem. Squirrel monkeys flourish in second-growth forest because of the plentiful supplyof their favorite insects and fruit.

    Which one of the following can be properly inferredfrom the ecologists statements?

    (A) No habitat other than second-growth forestcontains plentiful supplies of squirrelmonkeys favorite insects and fruit.

    (B) At least some of the conservationists whointervene to help the squirrel monkeyssurvive will do so by preserving second-growth forest habitat for the monkeys.

    (C) Without plentiful supplies of their favoriteinsects and fruit, squirrel monkeys willbecome extinct.

    (D) If conservationists intervene to help squirrelmonkeys survive, then the squirrel monkeyswill not become extinct.

    (E) Without the intervention of conservationists,large tracts of second-growth forest habitatwill not be preserved for squirrel monkeys.

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    22

  • 2-13-224. Over 40,000 lead seals from the early Byzantine

    Empire remain today. Apart from the rare caseswhere the seal authenticated a document of specialimportance, most seals had served their purposewhen the document was opened. Lead was notexpensive, but it was not free: most lead seals wouldhave been recast once they had served their purpose.Thus the number of early Byzantine documentssealed in such a fashion must have been many timesthe number of remaining lead seals.

    Which one of the following statements, if true, moststrengthens the argument?

    (A) Most of the lead seals produced during theearly Byzantine Empire were affixed todocuments that were then opened during thatperiod.

    (B) Most of the lead seals produced during theearly Byzantine Empire were affixed todocuments that have since been destroyed.

    (C) The amount of lead available for seals in theearly Byzantine Empire was much greaterthan the amount of lead that remains in theseals today.

    (D) During the time of the early Byzantine Empirethere were at most 40,000 documents ofenough importance to prevent the removingand recycling of the seal.

    (E) During the time of the early Byzantine Empirethere were fewer than 40,000 seals affixed todocuments at any given time.

    25. Farmer: In the long run, it is counterproductive forfarmers to use insecticides. Because insectsresistance to insecticides increases withinsecticide use, farmers have to use greater andgreater amounts of costly insecticides tocontrol insect pests.

    Which one of the following most accurately describesthe role played in the farmers argument by theproposition that farmers have to use greater andgreater amounts of costly insecticides to controlinsect pests?

    (A) It is the arguments main conclusion, but notits only conclusion.

    (B) It is a claim for which a causal explanation isprovided and which itself is used as directsupport for the arguments only conclusion.

    (C) It is the arguments only conclusion. (D) It is a claim that is used as direct support for

    an intermediary conclusion, which in turn isused as direct support for the argumentsmain conclusion.

    (E) It identifies a phenomenon for which thearguments main conclusion offers a causalexplanation.

    22

    S T O PIF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.

    DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

  • 33 -14-

    1. Anna: Did you know that rainbows always occuropposite the sun, appearing high in the skywhen the sun is low, and low in the sky whenthe sun is high? The Roman scholar Pliny theElder claimed that this was so, in the firstcentury A.D.

    William: His claim cannot be correct. After all, Plinythe Elder wrote that there are tribes of dog-headed people and beings with no heads ornecks but with eyes on their shoulders, andsaid that smearing snails on your foreheadcures headaches!

    Williams argument against Annas claims aboutrainbows is most vulnerable to criticism because it

    (A) inappropriately distorts Annas conclusion,making it appear more extreme than it reallyis

    (B) takes for granted that Pliny the Elder was inbad faith when he reported about unheard-ofcreatures

    (C) illicitly infers that, because Pliny the Eldermade some incorrect assertions, Pliny theElders assertions about rainbows are alsoincorrect

    (D) accepts the assertions of an ancient scholarwithout presenting contemporary verificationof that scholars views

    (E) implies that Pliny the Elders writings are toooutdated to be of any value

    2. Shareholder: The companys current operations aretime-proven successes. The move into foodservices may siphon off funds needed by theseother operations. Also, the food serviceindustry is volatile, with a higher inherent riskthan with, for instance, pharmaceuticals,another area into which the company hasconsidered expanding.

    If the shareholders statements are true, which one ofthe following is most strongly supported by them?

    (A) The companys present operations requireincreased funding.

    (B) Investment into pharmaceuticals would notsiphon off money from other operations.

    (C) The company will lose money as it expandsinto the food service industry.

    (D) Only if the company expands its operationsinto pharmaceuticals are increased profitspossible.

    (E) The company has a greater chance of losingmoney in food services than inpharmaceuticals.

    3. Mariah: Joanna has argued that Adam should notjudge the essay contest because several of hisclassmates have entered the contest. However,the essays are not identified by author to thejudge and, moreover, none of Adams friendsare classmates of his. Still, Adam has noexperience in critiquing essays. Therefore, Iagree with Joanna that Adam should not judgethe contest.

    Which one of the following principles, if valid, mosthelps to justify Mariahs argument?

    (A) A suspicion of bias is insufficient grounds onwhich to disqualify someone from judging acontest.

    (B) Expertise should be the primary prerequisitefor serving as a contest judge.

    (C) The ability of a judge to make objectivedecisions is more important than that judgescontent expertise.

    (D) In selecting a contest judge, fairness concernsshould override concern for the appropriateexpertise.

    (E) A contest judge, no matter how well qualified,cannot judge properly if the possibility of biasexists.

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    33 3SECTION III

    Time35 minutes

    25 Questions

    Directions: The questions in this section are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. For somequestions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer; thatis, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. You should not make assumptions that are bycommonsense standards implausible, superfluous, or incompatible with the passage. After you have chosen the best answer, blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.

  • 3-15-34. The manufacturers of NoSmoke claim that their

    product reduces smokers cravings for cigarettes.However, in a recent study, smokers given the mainingredient in NoSmoke reported no decrease incravings for cigarettes. Thus, since NoSmoke has onlytwo ingredients, if similar results are found for thesecond ingredient, we can conclude that NoSmokedoes not reduce smokers cravings.

    The argument above is flawed in that it

    (A) illicitly presumes that a whole must lack acertain quality if all of its parts lack thatquality

    (B) confuses a mere correlation with a cause (C) relies on a sample that is likely to be

    unrepresentative (D) overlooks the possibility that NoSmoke helps

    people to quit smoking in ways other than byreducing smokers cravings for cigarettes

    (E) illicitly presumes that a claim must be falsebecause the people making the claim arebiased

    5. Gardener: Researchers encourage us to allow certainkinds of weeds to grow among gardenvegetables because they can repel caterpillarsfrom the garden. While it is wise to avoidunnecessary use of insecticides, theresearchers advice is premature. For all weknow, those kinds of weeds can deplete the soilof nutrients and moisture that garden cropsdepend on, and might even attract other kindsof damaging pests.

    Which one of the following most accurately expressesthe main conclusion of the gardeners argument?

    (A) To the extent that it is possible to do so, weshould eliminate the use of insecticides ingardening.

    (B) Allowing certain kinds of weeds to grow invegetable gardens may contribute to a netincrease in unwanted garden pests.

    (C) Allowing the right kinds of weeds to grow invegetable gardens can help toward controllingcaterpillars without the use of insecticides.

    (D) We should be cautious about the practice ofallowing certain kinds of weeds to growamong garden vegetables.

    (E) We should be skeptical about the extent towhich certain kinds of weeds can reduce thepresence of caterpillars in gardens.

    6. Executive: We recently ran a set of advertisements inthe print version of a travel magazine and onthat magazines website. We were unable to getany direct information about consumerresponse to the print ads. However, we foundthat consumer response to the ads on thewebsite was much more limited than is typicalfor website ads. We concluded that consumerresponse to the print ads was probably belowpar as well.

    The executives reasoning does which one of thefollowing?

    (A) bases a prediction of the intensity of aphenomenon on information about theintensity of that phenomenons cause

    (B) uses information about the typical frequencyof events of a general kind to draw aconclusion about the probability of aparticular event of that kind

    (C) infers a statistical generalization from claimsabout a large number of specific instances

    (D) uses a case in which direct evidence is availableto draw a conclusion about an analogous casein which direct evidence is unavailable

    (E) bases a prediction about future events on factsabout recent comparable events

    7. Conservation officers justified their decision toremove a pack of ten coyotes from a small island byclaiming that the coyotes, which preyed on wild catsand plover, were decimating the plover populationand would soon wipe it out. After the coyotes wereremoved, however, the plover population plummeteddramatically, and within two years plover could nolonger be found on the island.

    Which one of the following would, if true, most helpexplain the phenomenon described above?

    (A) Plover are ground-nesting birds, which makesthem easy prey for coyotes.

    (B) Wild cat and plover populations tend tofluctuate together.

    (C) Coyotes are not susceptible to any of thediseases that commonly infect plover or wildcats.

    (D) The wild cat population on the island was oncesignificantly larger than it is currently.

    (E) The coyotes preyed mainly on wild cats, andwild cats prey on plover.

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    33 3

  • 33 -16-8. Economist: During a recession, a company can cut

    personnel costs either by laying off someemployees without reducing the wages ofremaining employees or by reducing the wagesof all employees without laying off anyone.Both damage morale, but layoffs damage itless, since the aggrieved have, after all, left.Thus, when companies must reduce personnelcosts during recessions, they are likely to layoff employees.

    Which one of the following, if true, most strengthensthe economists reasoning?

    (A) Employee morale is usually the primaryconcern driving companies decisions aboutwhether to lay off employees or to reducetheir wages.

    (B) In general, companies increase wages onlywhen they are unable to find enough qualifiedemployees.

    (C) Some companies will be unable to make aprofit during recessions no matter how muchthey reduce personnel costs.

    (D) When companies cut personnel costs duringrecessions by reducing wages, someemployees usually resign.

    (E) Some companies that have laid off employeesduring recessions have had difficulty findingenough qualified employees once economicgrowth resumed.

    9. There are far fewer independent bookstores thanthere were 20 years ago, largely because chainbookstores prospered and multiplied during thattime. Thus, chain bookstores success has been to thedetriment of book consumers, for the shortage ofindependent bookstores has prevented the variety ofreadily available books from growing as much as itotherwise would have.

    Which one of the following is an assumption onwhich the argument relies?

    (A) Book consumers would be better off if therewere a greater variety of readily availablebooks than there currently is.

    (B) Independent bookstores typically do not sellthe kinds of books that are available in chainbookstores.

    (C) The average bookstore today is larger than theaverage bookstore of 20 years ago.

    (D) The average bookstore today is smaller thanthe average bookstore of 20 years ago.

    (E) Some book consumers value low prices morehighly than wide selection.

    10. Concert promoter: Some critics claim that ourconcert series lacks popular appeal. But ourincome from the sales of t-shirts and othermemorabilia at the concerts is equal to orgreater than that for similar sales atcomparable series. So those critics aremistaken.

    The concert promoters argument is flawed in that it

    (A) attacks the critics on the basis of emotionalconsiderations rather than factual ones

    (B) takes for granted that income from sales ofmemorabilia is the sole indicator of popularappeal

    (C) takes for granted that the comparable seriespossess popular appeal

    (D) draws a conclusion about the popularity of aseries based on a comparison with other,dissimilar events

    (E) fails to adequately distinguish the series as awhole from individual concerts in it

    11. The sun emits two types of ultraviolet radiation thatdamage skin: UV-A, which causes prematurewrinkles, and UV-B, which causes sunburn. Untilabout ten years ago, sunscreens protected againstUV-B radiation but not against UV-A radiation.

    Which one of the following is best supported by theinformation above?

    (A) Since about ten years ago, the percentage ofpeople who wear sunscreen every time theyspend time in the sun has increased.

    (B) Most people whose skin is prematurelywrinkled have spent a large amount of time inthe sun without wearing sunscreen.

    (C) The specific cause of premature skin wrinklingwas not known until about ten years ago.

    (D) People who wear sunscreen now are less likelyto become sunburned than were people whospent the same amount of time in the sunwearing sunscreen ten years ago.

    (E) Until about ten years ago, people who woresunscreen were no less likely to havepremature wrinkles than were people whospent the same amount of time in the sunwithout wearing sunscreen.

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    33 3

  • 3-17-312. Advice columnist: Several scientific studies have

    shown that, when participating in competitivesports, those people who have recently beenexperiencing major stress in their lives areseveral times more likely to suffer seriousinjuries than are other participants incompetitive sports. Since risking serious injuryis unwise, no sports activity should be used asa method for coping with stress.

    Which one of the following principles, if valid, mosthelps to justify the reasoning in the advicecolumnists argument?

    (A) If people recently under stress should avoid asubset of activities of a certain type, theyshould avoid all activities of that type.

    (B) A method for coping with stress should beused only if it has been subjected to scientificstudy.

    (C) People who have not been experiencing majorstress in their lives should participate incompetitive sports.

    (D) When people have been under considerablestress, they should engage in competitiveactivities in order to relieve the stress.

    (E) People with a history of sports injuries shouldnot engage in sports activities if they haverecently been under stress.

    13. Tent caterpillars routes between their nests andpotential food sources are marked with chemicaltraces called pheromones that the caterpillars leavebehind. Moreover, routes from food sources back tothe nest are marked more heavily than are merelyexploratory routes that have failed to turn up a foodsource. Thus, tent caterpillars are apparently amongthe insect species that engage in communal foraging,which consists in the conveying of informationconcerning the location of food to other members ofthe colony, nest, or hive.

    Which one of the following, if true, adds the mostsupport to the argument?

    (A) A hungry tent caterpillar is more likely tofollow heavily marked routes than lightlymarked routes.

    (B) Tent caterpillars can detect the presence butnot the concentration of pheromones.

    (C) Sometimes individual tent caterpillars will notreturn to the nest until a food source islocated.

    (D) The pheromones left by tent caterpillars aredifferent from the pheromones left by otheranimals.

    (E) The pheromones that tent caterpillars leavebehind are detectable by certain other speciesof caterpillars.

    14. Many movies starring top actors will do well at thebox office because the actors are already well knownand have a loyal following. Movies starring unknownactors are therefore unlikely to do well.

    The flawed reasoning in the argument above is mostsimilar to that in which one of the following?

    (A) Many animals must devote most of theirenergy to locating food, or they will not getenough food to maintain optimal energylevels. Thus, if immediate survival requiressuch an animal to devote most of its energy tosome other purpose, optimal energy levelsgenerally will not be maintained.

    (B) Often the presence of the flower bee balm in agarden will attract bumblebees that pollinatethe plants and enable the garden to producean abundant crop. So, gardens that lack beebalm usually do not produce abundant crops.

    (C) A persons ability to keep confidences is a largepart of being a friend, since frequently suchan ability enables a high degree of opennessin communication. Thus, a high degree ofopenness in communication is an essentialfeature of friendship.

    (D) Visual aids can be very useful in effectivelyteaching math skills, because they generallyallow vivid conceptualization of mathprinciples. If such visual aids were neveremployed, therefore, teaching math skillsmight sometimes be more difficult.

    (E) An understanding of the rules of perspective isnecessary for achieving success as a painter,since it is the understanding of these mostbasic rules that allows the painter to paintrealistically. Thus, painters with anunderstanding of the rules of perspective willachieve success.

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    33 3

  • 33 -18-15. As part of a new trend in the writing of history, an

    emphasis on the details of historical events andmotivations has replaced the previous emphasis onoverarching historical trends and movements, withthe result that the latter are often overlooked. Inconsequence, the ominous parallels that may existbetween historical trends and current trends are alsooverlooked, which lessens our ability to learn fromhistory.

    The statements above, if true, most strongly supportwhich one of the following?

    (A) Studying the details of historical events andmotivations lessens our ability to learn fromhistory.

    (B) Overarching historical trends and movementscan be discerned only when details ofhistorical events and motivations are notemphasized.

    (C) Those who attend to overall trends andmovements in history and not to details arethe best able to learn from history.

    (D) A change in emphasis in the interpretation ofhistory has lessened our ability to learn fromhistory.

    (E) History should be interpreted in a way thatgives equal emphasis to overarching historicaltrends and movements and to the details ofhistorical events and motivations.

    16. Therapist: The ability to trust other people isessential to happiness, for without trust therecan be no meaningful emotional connection toanother human being, and without meaningfulemotional connections to others we feelisolated.

    Which one of the following, if assumed, allows theconclusion of the therapists argument to be properlyinferred?

    (A) No one who is feeling isolated can feel happy. (B) Anyone who has a meaningful emotional

    connection to another human being can behappy.

    (C) To avoid feeling isolated, it is essential to trustother people.

    (D) At least some people who do not feel isolatedare happy.

    (E) Anyone who is able to trust other people has ameaningful emotional connection to at leastone other human being.

    17. Of all the Arabic epic poems that have been popularat various times, only Sirat Bani Hilal is still publiclyperformed. Furthermore, while most other epics wereonly recited, Sirat Bani Hilal has usually been sung.The musical character of the performance, therefore,is the main reason for its longevity.

    The argument is most vulnerable to criticism on thegrounds that it

    (A) relies on evidence that is in principleimpossible to corroborate

    (B) relies on a source of evidence that may bebiased

    (C) takes for granted that a particular correlationis causal

    (D) takes what may be mere popular opinion to bean established fact

    (E) takes a sufficient condition to be a necessarycondition

    18. Fund-raiser: A charitable organization rarely gives itsdonors the right to vote on its policies. Theinability to directly influence how charitiesspend contributions makes potential donorsfeel less of an emotional connection to thecharity. Thus, most charities could probablyincrease the amount of money they raisethrough donations by giving donors the rightto vote.

    Which one of the following is an assumption that thefund-raisers argument depends on?

    (A) The most effective way for a charity to givepotential donors the ability to directlyinfluence what that charity does is by givingdonors the right to vote on the charityspolicies.

    (B) Most charities that have increased the amountof money they raise through donations havedone so by making potential donors feel agreater emotional connection to the charity.

    (C) Every charity that has given donors the rightto vote on its policies has seen a markedincrease in the emotional connection donorshave to that charity.

    (D) Most potential donors to a charity areunwilling to give that charity any money ifthere is no possible way for them to have anyinfluence on that charitys policies.

    (E) The emotional connection potential donorsfeel to a charity can affect the amount ofmoney that charity raises through donations.

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    33 3

  • 3-19-319. Leslie: Ill show you that your quest for the treasure

    is irrational. Suppose you found a tabletinscribed, Whoever touches this tablet willlose a hand, yet will possess the world. Wouldyou touch it?

    Erich: Certainly not.

    Leslie: Just as I expected! It is clear from your answerthat your hands are more important to youthan possessing the world. But your entirebody is necessarily more important to youthan your hands. Yet you are ruining yourhealth and harming your body in your questfor a treasure that is much less valuable thanthe whole world. I rest my case.

    Which one of the following most accurately expressesthe main conclusion drawn in Leslies argument?

    (A) Erich would not sacrifice one of his hands inorder to possess the world.

    (B) Erich should not risk his physical well-beingregardless of the possible gains that such risksmight bring.

    (C) Erich is irrationally risking something that isprecious to him for something that is of novalue.

    (D) Erich can be convinced that his quest for thetreasure is irrational.

    (E) Erich is engaging in irrational behavior bypursuing his quest for the treasure.

    20. Newspaper article: People who take vitamin Csupplements tend to be healthier than average.This was shown by a study investigating therelationship between high doses of vitamin Cand heart disease, which showed that peoplewho regularly consume high doses of vitaminC supplements have a significantly lower thanaverage risk of heart disease.

    Which one of the following, if true, would mostweaken the argument in the newspaper article?

    (A) Vitamin C taken in the form of supplementshas a different effect on the body than doesvitamin C taken in food.

    (B) The reduction in risk of heart disease due tothe consumption of vitamin C is no greaterthan the reduction due to certain otherdietary changes.

    (C) Taking both vitamin C supplements andvitamin E supplements lowers ones risk ofheart disease far more than does taking eitherone alone.

    (D) High doses of vitamin C supplements tend toreduce slightly ones resistance to certaincommon infectious diseases.

    (E) Taking vitamin C supplements has been foundto lower ones risk of developing cancer.

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    33 3

  • 33 -20-21. George: Throughout the 1980s and early 1990s,

    hardly anyone learned ballroom dancing. Whyis it that a large number of people now takeballroom dancing lessons?

    Boris: Its because, beginning in 1995, many peoplelearned the merengue and several relatedballroom dances. Because these dances are sopopular, other ballroom dances are nowcatching on.

    Boriss response to George is most vulnerable tocriticism because it fails to

    (A) show that the people who learned themerengue are the same people who are nowinterested in other ballroom dances

    (B) explain why ballroom dancing was sounpopular before 1995

    (C) relate the merengue to the forms of dancingthat were more prevalent before 1995

    (D) account for the beginning of the revival ofinterest in ballroom dancing

    (E) demonstrate that all types of ballroom dancingare currently popular

    22. On the basis of relatively minor morphologicaldifferences, some scientists suggest that Neanderthalsshould be considered a species distinct from Cro-Magnons, the forerunners of modern humans. Yetthe fact that the tools used by these two groups ofhominids living in different environments were ofexactly the same type indicates uncanny behavioralsimilarities, for only if they faced the same dailychallenges and met them in the same way would theyhave used such similar tools. This suggests that theywere members of the same species, and that themorphological differences are due merely to theirhaving lived in different environments.

    If the statements above are true, then each of thefollowing could be true EXCEPT:

    (A) Morphological differences between themembers of two populations do notguarantee that the two populations do notbelong to the same species.

    (B) The daily challenges with which anenvironment confronts its inhabitants areunique to that environment.

    (C) There are greater morphological differencesbetween Cro-Magnons and modern humansthan there are between Cro-Magnons andNeanderthals.

    (D) Use of similar tools is required if members oftwo distinct groups of tool-making hominidsare to be considered members of the samespecies.

    (E) Through much of their coexistence, Cro-Magnons and Neanderthals weregeographically isolated from one another.

    23. A summer day is pleasant if there are intermittentperiods of wind and the temperature stays below84F (29C) all afternoon. A summer day with highhumidity levels is oppressive either if thetemperature stays above 84F (29C) all afternoon orif there is no wind.

    Which one of the following summer weather reportsmost closely conforms to the principles stated above?

    (A) The temperature on Friday stayed below 82F(28C) all day, and there was no wind at all. Itwas a day of low humidity, and it was apleasant day.

    (B) On Monday, the temperature ranged from85F to 90F (30C to 32C) from earlymorning until night. It was an oppressive dayeven though the humidity levels were low.

    (C) On Tuesday, the temperature neither roseabove nor fell below 84F (29C) throughoutlate morning and all afternoon. It was apleasant day because there were occasionalperiods of wind.

    (D) On Wednesday, a refreshing breeze in the earlymorning became intermittent by latemorning, and the days humidity levels wereconstantly high. It was an oppressive day,even though the temperature did not riseabove 84F (29C) all day.

    (E) On Thursday morning, the air was very still,and it remained windless for the whole day.Humidity levels for the day were high, andeven though the temperature fell below 84F(29C) between early and late afternoon, itwas an oppressive day.

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    33 3

  • 3-21-324. The local radio station will not win the regional

    ratings race this year. In the past ten years the stationhas never finished better than fifth place in theratings. The stations manager has not responded toits dismal ratings by changing its musical format orany key personnel, while the competition has oftensought to respond to changing tastes in music andhas aggressively recruited the regions top radiopersonalities.

    The reasoning in which one of the following is mostsimilar to that in the argument above?

    (A) Every swan I have seen was white. Therefore allswans are probably white.

    (B) A fair coin was fairly flipped six times and washeads every time. The next flip will probablybe heads too.

    (C) All lions are mammals. Therefore Leo, the localzoos oldest lion, is a mammal too.

    (D) Recently stock prices have always been loweron Mondays. Therefore they will be lower thiscoming Monday too.

    (E) Only trained swimmers are lifeguards, so itfollows that the next lifeguard at the localpool will be a trained swimmer.

    25. Chef: This mussel recipes first step is to sprinkle thelive mussels with cornmeal. The cornmeal isused to clean them out: they take the cornmealin and eject the sand that they contain. But Ican skip this step, because the musselsavailable at seafood markets are farm raisedand therefore do not contain sand.

    Which one of the following is an assumptionrequired by the chef s argument?

    (A) Cornmeal is not used to clean out farm-raisedmussels before they reach seafood markets.

    (B) Mussels contain no contaminants other thansand.

    (C) Sprinkling the mussels with cornmeal does notaffect their taste.

    (D) The chef s mussel recipe was written beforefarm-raised mussels became available.

    (E) The mussels the chef is using for the musselrecipe came from a seafood market.

    33 3

    S T O PIF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.

    DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

  • 44 -22-

    With his first published works in the 1950s, AmosTutuola became the first Nigerian writer to receivewide international recognition. Written in a mix ofstandard English, idiomatic Nigerian English, andliteral translation of his native language, Yoruba,Tutuolas works were quick to be praised by manyliterary critics as fresh, inventive approaches to theform of the novel. Others, however, dismissed hisworks as simple retellings of local tales, full ofunwelcome liberties taken with the details of the well-known story lines. However, to estimate properlyTutuolas rightful position in world literature, it isessential to be clear about the genre in which hewrote; literary critics have assumed too facilely thathe wrote novels.

    No matter how flexible a definition of the novelone uses, establishing a set of criteria that enableTutuolas works to be described as such applies to hisworks a body of assumptions the works are notdesigned to satisfy. Tutuola is not a novelist but ateller of folktales. Many of his critics are right tosuggest that Tutuolas subjects are not strikinglyoriginal, but it is important to bear in mind thatwhereas realism and originality are expected of thenovel, the teller of folktales is expected to derivesubjects and frameworks from the corpus oftraditional lore. The most useful approach toTutuolas works, then, is one that regards him asworking within the African oral tradition.

    Within this tradition, a folktale is commonproperty, an expression of a peoples culture andsocial circumstances. The teller of folktales knowsthat the basic story is already known to most listenersand, equally, that the tellers reputation depends onthe inventiveness with which the tale is modified andembellished, for what the audience anticipates is notan accurate retelling of the story but effectiveimprovisation and delivery. Thus, within theframework of the basic story, the teller is allowedconsiderable room to maneuverin fact, the mostbrilliant tellers of folktales transform them intounique works.

    Tutuolas adherence to this tradition is clear:specific episodes, for example, are often repeated foremphasis, and he embellishes familiar tales withpersonal interpretations or by transferring them tomodern settings. The blend of English with localidiom and Yoruba grammatical constructs, in whichadjectives and verbs are often interchangeable, re-creates the folktales in singular ways. And, perhaps

    most revealingly, in the majority of Tutuolas works,the traditional accents and techniques of the teller offolktales are clearly discernible, for example in theadoption of an omniscient, summarizing voice at theend of his narratives, a device that is generallyrecognized as being employed to conclude mostfolktales.

    1. Which one of the following most accurately expressesthe main point of the passage?

    (A) Amos Tutuola is an internationally acclaimedwriter of folktales whose unique writing styleblends together aspects of Yoruba, NigerianEnglish, and standard English.

    (B) Amos Tutuolas literary works should beevaluated not as novels but as unique andinventively crafted retellings of folktales.

    (C) Amos Tutuola is an important author becausehe is able to incorporate the traditions of anoral art form into his novels.

    (D) Critics are divided as to whether AmosTutuolas literary works should be regarded asnovels or folktales.

    (E) The folktale is a valuable African literary genrethat finds singular expression in the works ofAmos Tutuola.

    2. Tutuolas approach to writing folktales would bemost clearly exemplified by a modern-day Irishauthor who

    (A) applied conventions of the modern novel tothe retelling of Irish folktales

    (B) re-created important elements of the Irishliterary style within a purely oral art form

    (C) combined characters from English and Irishfolktales to tell a story of modern life

    (D) transplanted traditional Irish folktales fromtheir original setting to contemporary Irishlife

    (E) utilized an omniscient narrator in tellingoriginal stories about contemporary Irish life

    GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

    44 44SECTION IV

    Time35 minutes

    27 Questions

    Directions: Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage or a pair of passages. The questions are to be answeredon the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage or pair of passages. For some of the questions, more than one of the choicescould conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer; that is, the response that most accurately andcompletely answers the question, and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.

    (5)

    (10)

    (15)

    (20)

    (25)

    (30)

    (35)

    (40)

    (45)

    (50)

    (55)

  • 4-23-43. Which one of the following most accurately

    characterizes the authors attitude toward Tutuolasposition in world literature?

    (A) convinced that Tutuolas works should beviewed within the context of the African oraltradition

    (B) certain that Tutuolas works will generate arenewed interest in the study of oraltraditions

    (C) pleased at the reception that Tutuolas workshave received from literary critics

    (D) confident that the original integrity ofTutuolas works will be preserved despitenumerous translations

    (E) optimistic that Tutuolas works reflect whatwill become a growing new trend in literature

    4 According to the passage, some critics have criticizedTutuolas work on the ground that

    (A) his literary works do not exhibit enoughsimilarities to the African oral tradition fromwhich they are drawn

    (B) his mixture of languages is not entirelyeffective as a vehicle for either traditionalfolktales or contemporary novels

    (C) his attempt to fuse elements of traditionalstorytelling style with the format of the novelis detrimental to his artistic purposes

    (D) his writing borrows substantially from well-known story lines and at the same time alterstheir details

    (E) his unique works are not actually novels, eventhough he characterizes them as such

    5. The author attributes each of the following toTutuola EXCEPT:

    (A) repetition of elements in his stories foremphasis

    (B) relocation of traditional stories to modernsettings

    (C) attainment of international recognition (D) use of an omniscient narrator in his works (E) transformation of Yoruba folktales into

    modern novels

    6. The author refers to the corpus of traditional lore(lines 2627) as part of an attempt to

    (A) distinguish expectations that apply to oneliterary genre from those that apply toanother literary genre

    (B) argue that two sharply differing literary genresare both equally valuable

    (C) challenge critics who ascribe little merit toinnovative ways of blending two distinctliterary genres

    (D) elucidate those characteristics of one literarygenre that have direct counterparts inanother, largely dissimilar genre

    (E) argue for a new, more precise analysis of twoliterary genres whose distinguishingcharacteristics are poorly understood

    7. The primary purpose of the passage is to

    (A) illustrate the wide range of Tutuolas body ofwork

    (B) explain the significance of the literary genre ofthe folktale and to defend it as a valid artform

    (C) provide an account of Tutuolas body of workin order to help establish appropriate criteriafor its evaluation

    (D) distinguish accurately between the genre of thenovel and that of the folktale

    (E) summarize the disagreement among criticsregarding Tutuolas place in world literature

    GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

    44 44

  • 44 -24-Mechanisms for recognizing kin are found

    throughout the plant and animal kingdoms, regardlessof an organisms social or mental complexity.Improvements in the general understanding of thesemechanisms have turned some biologists attention tothe question of why kin recognition occurs at all. Oneresponse to this question is offered by the inclusivefitness theory, which was developed in the 1960s. Thetheory is based on the realization that an organismtransmits its genetic attributes to succeedinggenerations not solely through its offspring, but moregenerally through all of its close relatives. Whereasthe traditional view of evolution held that naturalselection favors the continued genetic representationof individuals within a species that produce thegreatest number of offspring, the inclusive fitnesstheory posits that natural selection similarly favorsorganisms that help their relatives, because doing soalso increases their own total genetic representation.The theory has helped to explain previouslymysterious phenomena, including the evolution ofsocial insect species like the honeybee, most ofwhose members do not produce offspring and existonly to nurture relatives.

    Inclusive fitness theory has also been appliedusefully to new findings concerning cannibalismwithin animal species. Based on the theory, cannibalsshould have evolved to avoid eating their own kinbecause of the obvious genetic costs of such apractice. Spadefoot toad tadpoles provide anillustration. Biologists have found that all tadpoles ofthat species begin life as omnivores, feeding mainlyon organic debris in their soon-to-be-dry pool in thedesert, but that occasionally one tadpole eats anotheror eats a freshwater shrimp. This event can triggerchanges in the tadpoles physiology and dietarypreference, causing the tadpole to become larger andexclusively carnivorous, feasting on other animalsincluding members of its own species. Yet thecannibals have a procedure of discrimination wherebythey nip at other tadpoles, eating nonsiblings butreleasing siblings unharmed. This suggests that theinclusive fitness theory offers at least a partial answerto why kin recognition develops. Interestingly, acannibal tadpole is less likely to avoid eating kinwhen it becomes very hungry, apparently putting itsown unique genetic makeup ahead of its siblings.

    But there may be other reasons why organismsrecognize kin. For example, it has recently beenfound that tiger salamander larvae, also eitheromnivorous or cannibalistic, are plagued in nature bya deadly bacterium. Furthermore, it was determinedthat cannibal larvae are especially likely to beinfected by eating diseased species members. The factthat this bacterium is more deadly when it comesfrom a close relative with a similar immune systemsuggests that natural selection may favor cannibalsthat avoid such pathogens by not eating kin. For tigersalamanders then, kin recognition can be explainedsimply as a means by which an organism preservesits own life, not as a means to aid in relatives survival.

    8. Which one of the following most accurately expressesthe main point of the passage?

    (A) Some findings support the hypothesis that kinrecognition emerged through natural selectionbecause it increased organisms total geneticrepresentation, but this hypothesis may notexplain all instances of kin recognition.

    (B) Current research supports the view that themechanisms enabling the members of aspecies to recognize close relatives are asvarious as the purposes served by that ability.

    (C) Recent research involving tiger salamandersundermines the hypothesis concerning thepurpose of kin recognition that is espoused bytraditional evolutionary theorists.

    (D) New research involving tiger salamandersindicates that the traditional theory of naturalselection is more strongly supported by theevidence than is thought by those whoconsider only the case of the spadefoot toadtadpole.

    (E) While traditional evolutionary theory wasunable to account for the phenomenon of kinrecognition, this phenomenon is fullyexplained by the inclusive fitness theory.

    9. The passage states which one of the following aboutsome spadefoot toad tadpoles?

    (A) They develop the ability to recognize fellowcarnivores.

    (B) They feed only upon omnivorous tadpoles. (C) They change in body size when they become

    carnivores. (D) Their carnivorousness constitutes an important

    piece of evidence that calls into question theinclusive fitness theory.

    (E) Their carnivorousness would not occur unlessit contributed in some way to the evolutionarysuccess of the spadefoot toad species.

    10. Based on the passage, the author would be most likelyto agree with which one of the following statementsabout evolutionary explanations of kin recognition?

    (A) It is impossible to understand the mechanismsunderlying kin recognition until anevolutionary explanation of such recognitionhas been attained.

    (B) Such explanations require no modifications totraditional evolutionary theory.

    (C) For any such explanation to be fully adequate itshould ignore the differences of social ormental complexity of the organisms whoseabilities it is intended to explain.

    (D) Kin recognition may have differentevolutionary explanations in different species.

    (E) No other evolutionary explanation can accountfor the wide diversity of unusual phenomenawith the same success as the inclusive fitnesstheory.

    44 44

    (5)

    (10)

    (15)

    (20)

    (25)

    (30)

    (35)

    (40)

    (45)

    (50)

    (55)

    (60)

  • 4-25-411. Which one of the following most accurately describes

    the function of the last sentence of the secondparagraph?

    (A) to draw attention to behavior that furthercomplicates the set of facts to be explained byany theory of natural selection that accountsfor kin recognition

    (B) to explain why cannibals in most species eattheir kin less often than do cannibalspadefoot toad tadpoles

    (C) to describe behavior that lends support to theaccount of kin recognition presented in thesecond paragraph

    (D) to offer evidence that the behavior of cannibalspadefoot toad tadpoles is unexplainable

    (E) to imply that the described behavior is morerelevant to the issue at hand than is theimmediately preceding material

    12. The passage most strongly supports which one of thefollowing statements about the mechanism by whichcannibal spadefoot toad tadpoles recognize their kin?

    (A) It is not dependent solely on the use of visualcues.

    (B) It is neither utilized nor possessed by thosetadpoles that do not become cannibalistic.

    (C) It does not always allow a tadpole todistinguish its siblings from tadpoles that arenot siblings.

    (D) It is rendered unnecessary by physiologicalchanges accompanying the dietary shift fromomnivorousness to carnivorousness.

    (E) It could not have developed in a species inwhich all members are omnivorous.

    13. The passage states which one of the following aboutthe mechanisms that enable organisms to recognizetheir close genetic relatives?

    (A) The mechanisms are most easily explained ifwe assume that they have a similar purpose inall species regardless of the species social ormental complexities.

    (B) The mechanisms have become more clearlyunderstood, prompting interest in thepurpose they serve.

    (C) The mechanisms have become the focus oftheoretical attention only since the 1960s.

    (D) The detailed workings of these mechanismsmust be better understood before theirpurpose can be fully explained.

    (E) The mechanisms operate differently indifferent species even when they serve exactlythe same function.

    14. The information in the passage most stronglysuggests that the fact that most honeybees exist onlyto nurture relatives

    (A) was not known to be true before the 1960s (B) can be explained only if we assume that these

    members are in turn nurtured by the relativesthey nurture

    (C) is what led most biologists to reject thetraditional view of evolution

    (D) calls into question the view that evolutionproceeds by natural selection

    (E) is difficult to explain without at leastsupplementing the traditional view ofevolution with further explanatoryhypotheses

    15. Which one of the following would, if true, most helpto undermine the authors evaluation in the lastsentence of the passage?

    (A) Many tiger salamander larvae infected by thedeadly bacterium are not cannibalistic.

    (B) The factor that determines which tigersalamander larvae are carnivorous and whichare omnivorous is not contained in thegenetic makeup of the larvae.

    (C) Kin recognition helps tiger salamanders avoidinbreeding that may be life-threatening totheir offspring.

    (D) Noncannibalistic tiger salamanders tend toproduce fewer offspring than cannibalistictiger salamanders.

    (E) Cannibalistic tiger salamanders are immune tocertain diseases to which noncannibalisticsalamanders are not.

    GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

    44 44

  • 44 -26-Passage A

    There is no universally accepted definition withininternational law for the term national minority. It ismost commonly applied to (1) groups of personsnotnecessarily citizensunder the jurisdiction of onecountry who have ethnic ties to another homelandcountry, or (2) groups of citizens of a country whohave lasting ties to that country and have no such tiesto any other country, but are distinguished from themajority of the population by ethnicity, religion, orlanguage. The terms people and nation are alsovaguely defined in international agreements. Documentsthat refer to a nation generally link the term to theconcept of nationalism, which is often associatedwith ties to land. It also connotes sovereignty, forwhich reason, perhaps, people is often used insteadof nation for groups subject to a colonial power.

    While the lack of definition of the terms minority,people, and nation presents difficulties to numerousminority groups, this lack is particularly problematicfor the Roma (Gypsies). The Roma are not a colonizedpeople, they do not have a homeland, and many do notbear ties to any currently existing country. Some Romaare not even citizens of any country, in part because oftheir nomadic way of life, which developed in responseto centuries of fleeing persecution. Instead, they haveethnic and linguistic ties to other groups of Roma thatreside in other countries.

    Passage B

    Capotortis definition of a minority includes fourempirical criteriaa groups being numerically smallerthan the rest of the population of the state; their beingnondominant; their having distinctive ethnic, linguistic,or religious characteristics; and their desiring topreserve their own cultureand one legal criterion,that they be citizens of the state in question. This lastelement can be problematic, given the previous nomadiccharacter of the Roma, that they still cross bordersbetween European states to avoid persecution, and thatsome states have denied them citizenship, and thusminority status. Because this element essentiallygrants the state the arbitrary right to decide if theRoma constitute a minority without reference toempirical characteristics, it seems patently unfair thatit should be included in the definition.

    However, the Roma easily fulfill the fourobjective elements of Capotortis definition andshould, therefore, be considered a minority in all majorEuropean states. Numerically, they are nowhere near amajority, though they number in the hundreds ofthousands, even millions, in some states. Theirnondominant position is evidentthey are not evenacknowledged as a minority in some states. The Romahave a number of distinctive linguistic, ethnic, andreligious characteristics. For example, most speakRomani, an Indo-European language descended from

    Sanskrit. Roma groups also have their own distinctivelegal and court systems, which are group orientedrather than individual-rights oriented. That they havepreserved their language, customs, and identitythrough centuries of persecution is evidence enoughof their desire to preserve their culture.

    16. Which one of the following most accurately expressesthe main point of passage A