Level 3 Certificate in Printing and Graphic Communications (5261)

Level 3 Certificate inPrinting and GraphicCommunications (5261)Scheme handbook

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Level 3 Certificate inPrinting and GraphicCommunications (5261)Scheme handbook

September 2003

ST81453/09.03/F-00037885

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Contents

page Introduction 5 General information and structure of award 8 Assessment and quality assurance 8 Modern apprenticeships and technical certificates 9 Course design 10 Centre and scheme approval 10 Summary of requirements 12 Registration and certification 13 Test specification(s) 14 Relationship to NVQ units 55 Key Skills signposting 66 Opportunities for Health and Safety, Spiritual, Environmental, European Developments

67

Units: Unit 301 Working in the printing and graphic communications industry 68 Unit 302 Productivity and quality assurance in desktop publishing (DTP) and pre-press

86

Unit 303 Productivity, quality assurance and maintenance in machine printing and print finishing

95

Unit 304 Digital pre-press processes 108 Unit 305 Desktop publishing (DTP) 120 Unit 306 Machine printing (Sheet fed lithography) 136 Unit 307 Machine printing (Web fed lithography) 154 Unit 308 Machine printing (Flexography) 172 Unit 309 Machine printing (Gravure) 190 Unit 310 Machine printing (Screen) 208 Unit 311 Mechanised print finishing and binding 224 Unit 312 Carton manufacturing processes 236 Unit 313 ICT for print administration 248 Unit 314 Estimating and costing 254 Unit 315 Production planning and control 263 Unit 316 Service customer accounts 273

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Level 3 Certificate in Printing and Graphic Communications (5261-03) Introduction This award is aimed at candidates who • wish for career progression within the sector • require evidence towards the underpinning knowledge of the N/SVQ • are looking for progression into City & Guilds Level 3 NVQ Printing (5157) • do not have access to an N/SVQ The award is suitable for school leavers or for adults looking for a change in career. This award is designed to contribute towards the knowledge and understanding for the N/SVQ(s) in Printing (City & Guilds scheme number 5157), while containing additional skills and knowledge which go beyond the scope of the National Occupational Standards. It provides a valuable alternative for those candidates who do not have access to the N/SVQ. Vocationally Related Qualifications are available in a range of vocational areas, please contact Customer Services Enquiry unit at City & Guilds for further information. This qualification provides progression for candidates who have the level 2 Certificate in Printing and Graphic Communications. The 5261 level 3 Certificate in Printing and Graphic Communications is recognised as a Technical Certificate for the Advanced Modern Apprenticeship in Print and Print Packaging. There is one common mandatory unit for each pathway: Common mandatory unit 301 Working in the printing and graphic communications industry The six distinct pathways within this award are as follows: Pre-press pathway 302 Productivity and quality assurance in desktop publishing (DTP) and pre-press 304 Digital pre-press processes Desktop Publishing pathway 302 Productivity and quality assurance in desktop publishing (DTP) and pre-press 305 Desktop Publishing (DTP) Machine Printing pathway 303 Productivity, quality assurance and maintenance in machine printing and print finishing plus one from 306 Machine printing (Sheet fed lithography) 307 Machine printing (Web fed lithography)

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308 Machine printing (Flexography) 309 Machine printing (Gravure) 310 Machine printing (Screen) Mechanised Print Finishing and Binding pathway 303 Productivity, quality assurance and maintenance in machine printing and print finishing 311 Mechanised print finishing and binding Carton Manufacture pathway 303 Productivity, quality assurance and maintenance in machine printing and print finishing 312 Carton manufacturing processes Print Administration pathway 313 ICT for print administration 314 Estimating and costing plus one from 315 Production planning and control 316 Service customer accounts

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Pre-press Desktop

Publishing Machine Printing

Mechanised Print Finishing and

Binding

Carton Manufacture

Print Administration

Common Mandatory Unit

301 Working in the printing and graphic communications industry

Pathway Units

313

ICT for print

administration 302

Productivity and quality assurance

in desktop publishing (DTP) and

pre-press

303 Productivity, quality assurance and maintenance in

machine printing and print finishing 314

Estimating and

costing Plus one from:

306

Machine printing (Sheet fed

lithography)

307

Machine printing

(Web fed

lithography)

Plus one from:

315 Production

planning and

control

308

Machine printing

(Flexography)

309

Machine printing

(Gravure)

304 Digital pre-press

processes

305

Desktop

publishing

(DTP)

310

Machine printing

(Screen)

311 Mechanised print

finishing and

binding

312 Carton

manufacturing

processes

316 Service customer

accounts

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General information These vocationally related awards have been designed by City & Guilds to support government initiatives towards the National Qualifications Framework. They can contribute towards the knowledge and understanding required for the related N/SVQ while not requiring or proving evidence of occupational competence. General structure The awards are made up of units expressed in a standard format. Each unit is preceded by details of • the structure of the unit • the aims and general coverage of the unit • the relationship of the unit to the appropriate N/SVQ/ National Occupational

Standards • the outcomes • the assessment methods • signposting of opportunities to generate evidence for Key Skills. Assessment and quality assurance National standards and rigorous quality assurance are maintained by the use of City & Guilds set and marked written short answer tests for the core unit, and City and Guild set and centre marked externally verified tests for the pathway units. A short answer test which assesses knowledge and understanding will be set by City & Guilds for each unit. The short answer test for the common mandatory unit will be externally marked by City & Guilds. The short answer tests for the pathway units will be marked locally by centres according to criteria set by City & Guilds. All tests will be grades as pass or fail. For candidates with particular requirements, centres should refer to City & Guilds policy document Access to assessment, candidates with particular requirements. External verifiers act on behalf of City & Guilds to ensure that national standards are maintained. Full details of their role can be found in Providing City & Guilds’ Qualifications – a guide to centre and scheme approval. Health and safety The requirements to follow safe working practices is an integral part of all City and Guilds qualifications and assessments, and it is the responsibility of centres to ensure that all relevant health and safety requirement s are in place.

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Modern apprenticeships and technical certificates Modern Apprenticeships are a mixture of work-based training and education. There are two types of Modern Apprenticeship, Foundation and Advanced. The different levels of attainment between the Foundation and Advanced Modern Apprenticeships are reflected by the competencies required and qualifications gained. The revised Modern Apprenticeships are a mixture of work-based training and education, which include the following basic elements: • a National Vocational Qualification (NVQ) • Key Skills, e.g. communication and application of number • a technical certificate • other mandatory or optional elements as specified by the particular occupation. Technical certificates are qualifications testing specific occupational knowledge. They are delivered through a taught programme of off-the-job training, unlike NVQs, which are delivered through on-the-job training. This 5261 Level 3 Certificate in Printing and Graphic Communications is recognised as a Technical Certificate for Advanced Modern Apprenticeship in Print and Print Packaging.

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Course Design Tutors should familiarise themselves with the structure and content of the award before designing an appropriate course; in particular they are advised to consider the knowledge and understanding requirements of the relevant N/SVQ. City & Guilds does not itself provide courses of instruction or specify entry requirements. As long as the requirements for the award are met, tutors may design courses of study in any way that they feel best meets the needs and capabilities of the candidates. It is recommended that centres cover the following in the delivery of the course, where appropriate: • Key Skills (such as Communication, Application of number, Information technology,

Working with others, Improving own learning and performance, Problem solving) • Health and safety considerations, in particular the need to impress to candidates that

they must preserve the health and safety of others as well as themselves • Spiritual, moral, social and cultural issues • Environmental education • European dimension. Guided learning hours are an estimate of the amount of time needed to complete this qualification. It includes direct teaching, assessment and directed or supported study. It is recommended that 300 guided learning hours should be allocated for the Level 3 qualification. No specific prior qualifications, learning or experience are required for candidates undertaking the qualification. However, due to the technical nature and level of these qualifications it is recommended that candidates should have an interest in the printing and graphic communications sector. The nature of both the learning and assessment required for the qualification is such that candidates will need basic literacy and numeracy skills: i.e. the ability to read and interpret written tasks and to write answers in a legible and understandable form. Candidates will also need to be able to organise written information clearly and coherently, although they will not be assessed for spelling or grammatical accuracy unless this is part of the assessment criteria. Centres will need to make an initial assessment of each candidate and decide on the most appropriate level of qualification. Centre and scheme approval Centres wishing to offer City & Guilds qualifications must gain approval. New centres must apply for centre and scheme approval. Existing City & Guilds centres will need to get specific scheme approval to run this award.

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Full details of the process for both centre and scheme approval are given in Providing City & Guilds Qualifications – a guide to centre and scheme approval, which is available from City & Guilds' regional offices. City & Guilds reserves the right to suspend an approved centre, or withdraw its approval from an approved centre, to conduct a particular City & Guilds scheme or particular City & Guilds schemes, for reasons of debt, malpractice or for any reason that may be detrimental to the maintenance of authentic, reliable and valid qualifications or that may prejudice the name of City & Guilds.

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Summary of requirements General structure 5621 Level 3 Certificate in Printing and Graphic Communications For the Level 3 Award in Printing and Graphic Communications the units are: Common mandatory unit 301 Working in the printing and graphic communications industry The five distinct pathways within this award are as follows: Pre-press pathway 302 Productivity and quality assurance in desktop publishing (DTP) and pre-press 304 Digital pre-press processes Desktop Publishing pathway 302 Productivity and quality assurance in desktop publishing (DTP) and pre-press 305 Desktop publishing (DTP) Machine Printing pathway 303 Productivity, quality assurance and maintenance in machine printing and print finishing plus one from 306 Machine printing (Sheet fed lithography) 307 Machine printing (Web fed lithography) 308 Machine printing (Flexography) 309 Machine printing (Gravure) 310 Machine printing (Screen) Mechanised Print Finishing and Binding pathway 303 Productivity, quality assurance and maintenance in machine printing and print finishing 311 Mechanised print finishing and binding Carton Manufacture pathway 303 Productivity, quality assurance and maintenance in machine printing and print finishing 312 Carton manufacturing processes Print Administration pathway 313 ICT for print administration 314 Estimating and costing plus one from 315 Production planning and control 316 Service customer accounts

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Registration and certification For the award of a certificate, candidates must successfully complete the written test for the common mandatory unit and the units of their chosen pathway. Units Assessment components

required Unit 301 Working in the printing and graphic

communications industry 5261-03-301 Written test

(short answer) Unit 302 Productivity and quality assurance in

desktop publishing (DTP) and pre-press 5261-03-302 Written test

(short answer) Unit 303 Productivity, quality assurance and

maintenance in machine printing and print finishing

5261-03-303 Written test (short answer)

Unit 304 Digital pre-press processes 5261-03-304 Written test (short answer)

Unit 305 Desktop publishing (DTP) 5261-03-305 Written test (short answer)

Unit 306 Machine printing (Sheet fed lithography) 5261-03-306 Written test (short answer)

Unit 307 Machine printing (Web fed lithography) 5261-03-307 Written test (short answer)

Unit 308 Machine printing (Flexography) 5261-03-308 Written test (short answer)

Unit 309 Machine printing (Gravure) 5261-03-309 Written test (short answer)

Unit 310 Machine printing (Screen) 5261-03-310 Written test (short answer)

Unit 311 Mechanised print finishing and binding 5261-03-311 Written test (short answer)

Unit 312 Carton manufacturing processes 5261-03-312 Written test (short answer)

Unit 313 ICT for print administration 5261-03-313 Written test (short answer)

Unit 314 Estimating and costing 5261-03-314 Written test (short answer)

Unit 315 Production planning and control 5261-03-315 Written test (short answer)

Unit 316 Service customer accounts 5261-03-316 Written test (short answer)

• Candidates must be registered at the beginning of their course. Centres should

submit registrations using Form S (Registration), under scheme/complex no 5261-03.

• When locally marked short answer tests have been successfully completed,

candidate results should be submitted on Form S (Results submission). Centres should note that results will NOT be processed by City & Guilds until verification records are complete.

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• The written core test is available three times each year during February, May and

November. Candidates must be entered for written (timetabled) assessment components using Form S (and examination month entered in the 'dated entry' box).

• Candidates achieving one or more assessment components will receive a Certificate

of Unit Credit listing the assessment components achieved together with the appropriate grade. Candidates achieving the number and combination of assessment components required for the Certificate will, in addition, be issued a Certificate.

• Full details on all the above procedures, together with dates and times of written

tests will be found in the Directory of Vocational Awards published annually by City & Guilds. This information also appears on City & Guilds Web site http://www.city-and-guilds.co.uk

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Printing and Graphic Communications – Level 3

Title: Unit 301 Working in the Printing and Graphic Communications Industry.

Assignment type - Written (short answer)Test duration 2 hours Total number of questions: 25

Outcome No of Questions

No of Marks

%

1

Describe the responsibility of an employee for health and safety under the Health and Safety at Work Act 1974.

4 8 13

2

Describe the health and safety risks associated with equipment and processes in the workplace.

3 7 12

3

Describe the use of safety clothing, footwear and equipment in the workplace.

3 6 10

4

Describe how to create and maintain effective working relationships.

2 6 10

5

Identify the principles of personal development, planning and training.

1 2 4

6

Describe the principles and techniques of communicating with others.

2 4 7

7 Identify the printing processes and their common applications.

2 5 8

8 Describe the stages in the printing process from pre-press to finished printed product.

3 9 15

9 Identify types of representative organisations and other associations.

1 3 5

10 Describe the key job functions within the printing and graphic communications industry and their main purposes.

2 5 8

11 Identify legal issues concerning employment and working in the printing and graphic communications industry.

2 5 8

25 60 100

16


Title: Unit 302 Productivity and Quality Assurance in Desktop Publishing (DTP) and Pre-Press

Assignment type - Written (short answer)Test duration 1 hour 45 minutes Total number of questions: 20


No of Marks

%

1

Identify the issues which affect profitable production and productivity, and the reasons why these are important in the graphic communications industry.

3 7 17.5

2

Identify the main features of quality assurance and quality control systems.

3 6 15

3

Identify the activities and processes within DTP and pre-press areas and plan the workflow.

4 8 20

4

Identify the administrative control procedures in DTP and pre-press areas.

4 7 17.5

5

Describe the different methods of producing proofs and the strengths and weaknesses of each.

4 8 20

6

Describe the methods used to archive DTP and pre-press work.

2 4 10

20 40 100

17


Title: Unit 303 Productivity, Quality Assurance and Maintenance in Machine Printing and Print Finishing.

Assignment type - Written (short answer)Test duration 1 hour 45mins Total number of questions: 20


No of Marks

%

1

Identify the issues which affect profitable production and productivity, and the reasons why these are important in the printing and graphic communications industry.

4 7 18

2

Identify the main features of quality assurance and quality control systems.

3 6 15

3

Identify the systems and documentation usually used in the printing and graphic communications industry to organise and control production.

3 6 15

4

Explain the roles and responsibilities for cleaning, lubricating and preventative maintenance and for reporting and recording machine faults.

2 5 12

5

Explain the principle activities involved with machine cleaning, lubricating and component replacement as part of a preventative maintenance programme.

2 5 12

6

Identify machine faults and how they can be rectified.

4 7 18

7 Identify procedures for the safe use of chemicals and the disposal of waste.

2 4 10

20 40 100

18


Title: Unit 304 Digital Pre-Press Processes Assignment type - Written (short answer)

Test duration 1 hour 45 minutes Total number of questions: 20


No of Marks

%

1

Describe the operation of hardware and software systems typically used in pre-press.

3 6 15

2

Explain the systems and processes for converting originals into digital files.

6 10 25

3

Explain the principles of layout and imposition including the use and placement of marks and control guides.

3 6 15

4

Describe the principles for the production of the image carriers.

2 4 10

5

Describe the principles for the production of digital proofs.

2 4 10

6

Identify the procedures for pre-flighting and ripping files in digital pre-press.

4 10 25

20 40 100

19


Title: Unit 305 Desktop Publishing (DTP)

Assignment type - Written (short answer)Test Duration: 1 hour 45 minutes Total number of questions: 20

No of Questions

No of Marks

%

1

Explain the principles involved in planning and designing DTP documents to meet customer requirements.

3 6 15

2

Describe the operating of hardware and software systems typically used in DTP.

2 4 10

3

Describe the digital fonts, their attributes and application in DTP.

3 6 15

4

Describe the systems and processes for the creation, editing and use of digital images in DTP documents.

4 8 20

5

Explain the principle issues involved in defining, viewing and outputting colour in DTP documents.

2 4 10

6

Identify the principles of setting up and laying out documents in DTP.

3 6 15

7 Describe the use of proofs during the design and production of DTP documents, and the pre-flighting and handover of approved documents for print or publishing.

3 6 15

20 40 100

20


Title: Unit 306 Machine Printing (Sheet Fed Lithography)

Assignment type - Written (short answer)Test duration 1 hour 45mins Total number of questions: 20


No of Marks

%

1

Identify the printed products associated with the various printing processes and reasons for selecting one over another.

3 6 15

2

Describe the types and characteristics of paper and board.

2 4 10

3

Identify the procedures for controlling the inking, coatings drying systems commonly used in machine printing.

2 4 10

4

Describe the properties, structures and manufacture of the materials commonly used in machine printing.

3 6 15

5

Identify the principal types of proof used and their role in the printing process.

2 4 10

6

Identify and explain the use of microprocessors and computers commonly found in machine printing.

1 2 5

7 Describe the make-ready and operating procedures for sheet fed lithography.

5 8 20

8 Identify the procedures for controlling quality in machine printing including sampling and inspection regimes.

2 6 15

20 40 100

21


Title: Unit 307 Machine Printing (Web Fed Lithography)



No of Marks

%

1


3 6 15

2


2 4 10

3

Identify the procedures for controlling the inking, coatings and drying systems commonly used in machine printing.

2 4 10

4

Describe the properties, structures and manufacture of the materials commonly used in machine printing

3 6 15

5


2 4 10

6


1 2 5

7 Describe the make-ready and operating procedures for web fed lithography.

5 8 20


2 6 15

20 40 100

22


Title: Unit 308 Machine Printing (Flexography)



No of Marks

%

1

Identify the printing products associated with the various printing processes and reasons for selecting one over another.

3 6 15

2

Describe the types and characteristics of paper, board filmic and other plastic materials.

2 4 10

3


2 4 10

4


3 6 15

5

Identify the principle types of proof used and their role in the printing process.

2 4 10

6


1 2 5

7 Describe the make-ready and operating procedures for flexography.

4 8 20


3 6 15

20 40 100

23


Title: Unit 309 Machine Printing (Gravure) Assignment type - Written (short answer)

Test duration 1 hour 45 minutes Total number of questions: 20


No of Marks

%

1


3 6 15

2


2 4 10

3


2 4 10

4


3 6 15

5

Identify the principle types of proof used and their role in the printing process.

2 4 10

6


1 2 5

7 Describe the make-ready and operating procedures for gravure.

5 8 20


2 6 15

20 40 100

24


Title: Unit 310 Machine Printing (Screen).

Assignment type - Written (short answer)Test duration 1 hour 45 minutes. Total number of questions: 20


No of Marks

%

1


3 6 15

2

Describe and evaluate the types and characteristics of substrates used in screen printing.

2 4 10

3

Identify the key parameters of the screen printing process including inks, coatings and drying systems.

2 4 10

4

Explain physical, chemical and behavioural properties of materials and the theory of colour.

3 6 15

5


2 4 10

6


1 2 5

7 Describe and evaluate the make-ready and operating procedures for screen printing.

5 10 25

8 Identify the procedures for controlling quality in machine printing, including sampling and inspection regimes.

2 4 10

20 40 100

25


Title: Unit 311 Mechanised Print Finishing and Binding.



No of Marks

%

1

Describe and identify the terminology for imposition and folding schemes used in print finishing, converting and bookbinding.

2 3 7

2

Describe and evaluate the types and characteristics of paper and board.

4 7 18

3

Identify the properties and characteristics of materials used in finishing and binding operations.

2 4 10

4

Describe and evaluate the make-ready and operating procedures for a range of print finishing equipment.

4 10 25

5

Explain the purpose and procedures for quality control in mechanised print finishing and binding.

4 8 20

6

Describe the procedures to control damage to materials during finishing and binding operations.

4 8 20

20 40 100

26


Title: Unit 312 Carton Manufacturing Processes.



No of Marks

%

1

Identify the materials and equipment used in carton manufacturing processes.

4 8 20

2

Identify the principles, methods and techniques of carton design and manufacturing processes.

4 8 20

3

Describe the technological changes in design and manufacture of cartons as a form of packaging.

2 2 5

4

Describe the make-ready and operational procedures for cutting and creasing machinery, multi-folding and gluing machinery, and enhancing machinery.

4 8 20

5

Describe the manufacturing procedures of die making and cutting, and creasing forms.

3 8 20

6

Describe the purpose and principles of machine stripping.

1 2 5

7 Describe the purpose of and procedures for quality control in carton manufacturing processes.

2 4 10

20 40 100

27


Title: Unit 313 ICT for Print Administration.



No of Marks

%

1

Describe the principles of ICT. 5 10 33

2

Describe the use of spreadsheets in print administration.

2 5 17

3

Describe the use of databases in print administration.

1 3 10

4

Describe the use of reports and presenting information.

3 6 20

5

Describe the use of electronic communications in print administration.

4 6 20

15 30 100

28


Title: Unit 314 Estimating and Costing.



No of Marks

%

1

Explain how estimates are made u, how direct and indirect costs are provided for within the estimate, and how a selling price is determined.

5 10 33

2

Explain why different methods of producing a job will affect the cost of production and how estimating software contributes to the process of accurate estimating and process optimisation.

3 5 17

3

Describe estimated and actual costs of production.

5 10 33

4

State the procedures for producing invoices and dealing with queries.

2 5 17

15 30 100

29


Title: Unit 315 Production Planning and Control Assignment type - Written (short answer)

Test duration 1 hour 15 minutes. Total number of questions: 15


No of Marks

%

1

Identify the requirements for production.

4 10 33

2

Identify the procedures for preparing production schedules.

5 10 33

3

Identify the procedures for organising and monitoring production.

6 10 34

15 30 100

30


Title: Unit 316 Service Customer Accounts.



No of Marks

%

1

Identify the methods of promoting company products and services.

3 5 17

2

Identify the methods of contacting customers and handling their different needs.

6 15 50

3

Describe the procedures for handling customer complaints and ways of improving customer service.

6 10 33

15 30 100

31

Relationship to NVQ units – Level 3 Printing and Graphic Communications Industry Unit Outcome This award

contributes towards the knowledge and understanding of the following elements of the NVQ in Printing (5157)

301 Working in the Printing and Graphic Communications Industry

1. describe the responsibility of an employee

for health and safety under the Health and Safety at Work Act 1974

2. describe the health and safety risks

associated with equipment and processes in the workplace

3. describe the use of safety clothing,

footwear and equipment in the workplace 4. describe how to create and maintain

effective working relationships 5. identify the principles of personal

development planning and training 6. describe the principles and techniques of

communicating with others 7. identify the printing processes and their

common applications 8. describe the stages in the printing process

from pre-press to finished printed product 9. identify types of representative

organisations and other associations 10. describe the key job functions within the

printing and graphic communications industry and their main purposes

11. identify legal issues concerning

employment and working in the printing and graphic communications industry.

Level 3 001.1 / 001.2 001.1 / 001.2 001.1 / 001.2 002.1 002.2 / 002.3 002.1 002.2 002.2 002.2 No specific reference 001.1

32

302 Productivity and Quality Assurance in Desktop Publishing (DTP) and Pre-Press

1. identify the issues which affect profitable

production and productivity, and the reasons why these are important in the printing and graphic communications industry

2. identify the main features of quality

assurance and quality control systems 3. identify the activities and processes within

DTP and pre-press areas and plan the workflow

4. identify the administrative control procedures

in DTP and pre-press areas 5. describe the different methods of producing

proofs and the strengths and weaknesses of each

6. to describe the methods used archive DTP

and pre-press work.

B1.1 / B1.2 / 002.1 / 002.2 305 IT1 / 305 IT3 / 340.1 / 340.3 / 707.1 / 707.2 / 707.3 / 707.4 705.1 / 705.2 / 706.1 / 706.2 / 707.1 / 707.2 / 707.3 / 707.4 002.2 / 705.1 / 705.2 / 34D.1 312 IT.2 / 312 IT.3 / 330.3 / 706.1 / 706.2 / 707.3 212 IT.1 / 212 IT.3 / 305 IT.4 / 312 IT.3 / 705.1 / 707.3

303 Productivity and Quality Assurance in Desktop Publishing (DTP) and Pre-Press

1. identify the issues which affect profitable

production and productivity, and the reasons why these are important in the printing and graphic communications industry

2. identify the main features of quality

assurance and quality control systems 3. identify the systems and documentation

usually used in the printing and graphic communications industry to organise and control production

4. explain the roles and responsibilities for

cleaning, lubrication and preventative maintenance and for reporting and recording machine faults

5. explain the principal activities involved with

machine cleaning, lubricating and component replacement as part of a preventative maintenance programme

6. identify machine faults and how they can be

rectified 7. identify procedures for the safe use of chemicals and the disposal of waste

B1.1 / B1.2 / 002.2 / 006.2 B1.2 / 230.2 / 231.2 / 233.2 / 316 / 317 / 318 / 319 / 320 / 321 / 322 / 323 / 324 / 325 / 326 / 327 / 328.2 / 329.2 B1.1 / B1.2 / 002.2 / 006.1 / 006.2 004.1 / 004.2 004.1 004.2 001.1

33

304 Digital Pre-Press Processes

1. describe the operation of hardware and software systems typically used in pre-press

2. explain the systems and processes for

converting originals into digital files 3. explain the principles of layout and

imposition including the use and placement of marks and control guides

4. describe the principles for the production of

the image carriers 5. describe the principles for the production of

digital proofs 6. identify the procedures for pre-flighting and

ripping files in digital pre-press.

116.1 / 116.2 / 116.3 / 116.4 / 117.1 / 117.2 / 117.3 / 118.1 / 118.2 / 119.1 / 119.2 / 119.3 116.1 / 116.2 / 116.3 / 116.4 / 118.1 / 118.2 / 119.1 / 119.2 / 119.3 113.1 / 113.2 117.1 / 117.2 / 119.1 / 119.2 / 119.3 / 219.1 / 229.1 112.2 / 115.1 / 115.2 / 117.1 / 117.2 / 117.3 116.3 / 116.4 / 119.2

305 Desktop Publishing (DTP)

1. explain the principles involved in planning

and designing DTP documents to meet customer requirements

2. describe the operation of hardware and

software systems typically used in DTP 3. describe digital fonts, their attributes and

application in DTP 4. explain the systems and processes for the

creation, editing and use of digital images in DTP documents

5. explain the principle issues involved in

defining, viewing and outputting colour in DTP documents

6. identify the principles of setting up and laying

out documents in DTP 7. describe the use of proofs during the design

and production of DTP documents, and the pre-flighting and handover of approved documents for print or publishing.

305 IT.1 / 305 IT.2 / 705.1 / 705.2 / 706.1 / 706.2 707.2 / 707.3 / 707.4 305 IT.2 / 706.1 / 706.2 002.2 / 312 IT.1 / 312 IT.2 / 312 IT.3 / 707.1 / 707.2 / 707.3 / 707.4 / 706.1 / 706.2 305 IT.3 / 305 IT.4 / 707.3 / 707.4 305 IT.1 / 312 IT.1 / 706.1 33D.2 / 312 IT.2 / 312 IT.3 / 340.1 / 707.3

34

306 Machine Printing (Sheet Fed Lithography)

1. identify the printed products associated with

the various printing processes and reasons for selecting one over another

2. describe the types and characteristics of

paper and board 3. identify the procedures for controlling the

inking, coatings drying systems commonly used in machine printing

4. describe the properties, structures and

manufacture of the materials commonly used in machine printing

5. identify the principal types of proof used and

their role in the printing process 6. identify and explain the use of

microprocessors and computers commonly found in machine

printing 7. describe the make-ready and operating

procedures for sheet fed lithography 8. identify the procedures for controlling quality

in machine printing including sampling and inspection regimes.

228.1 / 228.2 / 228.3 / 234.1 / 234.2 228.1 228.1 / 228.2 / 228.3 / 231.1 / 231.2 / 231.3 228.1 / 228.2 / 228.3 no specific reference 228.1 / 228.2 / 228.3 / 234.1 / 234.2 / 234.3 228.1 228.1 / 228.2 / 228.3 / 234

35

307 Machine Printing (Web Fed Lithography)

1. identify the printed products associated

with the various printing processes and reasons for selecting one over another






5. identify the principal types of proof used

and their role in the printing process 6. identify and explain the use of

microprocessors and computers commonly found in machine printing

7. describe the make-ready and operating

procedures for web fed lithography 8. identify the procedures for controlling

quality in machine printing including sampling and inspection regimes.

002.2 No specific reference 231.1 / 231.2 / 234.1 / 234.2 / 234.3 / 234.4 002.2 no specific reference 230.1 / 230.2 / 232.1 / 232.2 / 234.1 / 234.2 / 234.3 / 235.1 / 235.2 230.1 / 231.1 / 232.1 / 234.1/ 235.1 / 236.1 230.2 / 231.2 / 232.2 / 233.2 / 234.2 / 234.3 / 235.2 / 236.2

36

308 Machine Printing (Flexography)












procedures for flexography 8. identify the procedures for controlling


002.2 002.2 / 230.3 / 231.3 / 237.2 231.1 / 231.2 / 231.3 237.3 237.2 004.1 / 237.1 / 237.2 / 237.3 230.2 / 231.1 / 231.2 / 233.2 / 235.2 / 237.3 / 238.1 / 238.2

37

309 Machine Printing (Gravure)



2. describe the types and characteristics of paper and board

3. identify the procedures for controlling the








procedures for gravure 8. identify the procedures for controlling


240.1 / 240.2 / 240.3 240.1 231.1 / 231.2 / 233.1 / 240.2 / 240.3 240.3 no specific reference 230.1 / 230.2 / 230.3 / 236.1 / 236.2 240.1 / 240.2 / 240.3 230.2 / 230.3 / 240.3

38

310 Machine Printing (Screen)



2. understand and evaluate the types and

characteristics of substrates used screen printing

3. identify the key parameters of the screen

printing process including inks, coatings and drying systems

4. understand physical, chemical and

behavioural properties of materials; and the theory of colour.

5. identify the principle types of proofs used

and their role in the printing process 6. identify and understand the use of


7. understand and evaluate the make-ready

and operating procedures for screen printing

8. identify the procedures for controlling

quality in machine printing including sampling and inspection regimes

002.2 002.2 / 239.3 206.1 / 206.2 / 206.3 / 231.1/ 231.2 / 231.3 002.2 / 206.1 / 206.2 / 231.2 / 239.2 239.2 / 239.3 239.2 / 239.3 239.1 / 239.2 / 239.3 230.3 / 231.3 / 239.1 / 239.2 / 239.3

39

311 Mechanised Print Finishing and Binding

1. describe and understand identify the

terminology, imposition and folding schemes used in print finishing, converting and bookbinding

2. understand and evaluate the types and

characteristics of paper and board 3. identify the properties and characteristics

of materials used in finishing and binding operations

4. understand and evaluate the make-ready

and operating procedures for a range of print finishing equipment

5. define the purpose and procedures for

quality control in mechanised print finishing and binding

6. understand the procedures to control

damage to materials during finishing and binding operations

321.1 / 321.2 316.1 / 316.2 / 320.1 / 320.2 / 321.1 / 321.2 / 322.1 / 322.2 / 325.1 / 325.2 / 326.1 / 326.2 / 329.1 / 329.2 / 330.1 / 330.2 / 331.1 / 331.2 316.1 / 316.2 / 317.1 / 317.2 / 318.1 / 318.2 / 323.1 / 323.2 / 325.1 / 325.2 / 326.1 / 326.2 / 329.1 / 329.2 / 330.1 / 330.2 / 331.1 / 331.2 316.1 / 316.2 / 317.1 / 317.2 / 318.1 / 318.2 / 319.1 / 319.2 / 320.1 / 320.2 / 321.1 / 321.2 / 322.1 / 322.2 / 323.1 / 323.2 / 324.1 / 324.2 / 325.1 / 325.2 / 326.1 / 326.2 / 327.1 / 327.2 / 328.1 / 328.2 / 329.1 / 329.2 / 330.1 / 330.2 316.2 / 317.2 / 318.2 / 319.2 / 320.2 / 321.2 / 322.2 / 323.2 / 324.2 / 325.2 / 326.2 / 327.2 / 328.2 / 329.2 no specific reference

40

312 Carton Manufacturing Processes

1. identify the materials and equipment used

in carton manufacturing processes 2. identify the principles, methods and

techniques of carton design and manufacturing processes

3. describe the technological changes in

design and manufacture of cartons as a form of packaging

4. describe the ‘make ready’ and operational

procedures for cutting and creasing machinery, multi-folding and gluing machinery, and enhancing machinery

5. describe the manufacturing procedures of

die making and cutting and creasing formes

6. describe the purpose and principles of

machine stripping 7. describe the purpose and procedures for

quality control in carton manufacturing processes.

401.1 / 401.2 / 402.1 / 402.2 / 403.1 / 403.2 / 404.1 / 404.2 401.1 / 401.2 / 402.1 / 402.2 / 403.1 / 403.2 / 404.1 / 404.2 no specific reference 401.1 / 401.2 no specific reference no specific reference 401.1 / 401.2 / 402.1 / 402.2 / 403.1 / 403.2 / 404.1 / 404.2

313 ICT for Print Administration

1. describe the principles of ICT 2. use spreadsheets in print administration 3. use databases in print administration 4. produce reports and present information 5. use electronic communications in print

administration.

515.2 / 517.1 / 517.2 / 517.3 / 518.1 / 518.2 / 518.3 / 518.4 / 523.1 / 523.2 / 523.3 / 423.4 518.1 / 518.2 / 518.3 / 518. 517.1 / 523.1 / 523.4 514.2 / 515.2 / 516.2 / 517.2 / 518.1 / 518.2 / 518.3 / 522.1 513.1 / 514.2 / 515.1 / 515.2 / 516.1 / 520.1 / 523.1 / 523.2 / 523.3 / 523.4

41

314 Estimating and Costing

1. explain how estimates are made up, how

direct and indirect costs are provided for within the estimate, and how a selling price is determined

2. explain why different methods of producing

a job will affect the cost of production and how estimating software contributes to the process of accurate estimating and process optimisation

3. describe estimated and actual costs of

production 4. state the procedures for producing invoices

and dealing with queries.

513.1 / 513.2 / 514.2 / 514.2 B1.1 / B1.2 / 515.1 / 515.2 514.1 / 514.2 516.1 / 516.2

315 Production Planning and Control

1. identify the requirements for production 2. identify the procedures for preparing

production schedules 3. identify the procedures for organising and

monitoring production

513.1 / 513.2 / 519.1 519.1 / 519.2 B1.1 / 519.1 / 519.2 / 520.1 / 520.2 / 521.1 / 522.1 / 522.2

316 Service Customer Accounts

1. identify the methods of promoting company

products and services 2. identify the methods of contacting

customers and handling their different needs

3. describe the procedures for handling

customer complaints and ways of improving customer service.

513.2 / 525.1 / 525.2 513.1 / 513.2 / 524.1 / 524.2 / 525.1 / 525.2 / 525.3 / 526.1 526.1 / 526.2 / 527.1 / 528.2

42

Key Skills Signposting – Level 3 Unit No and Title

Communication Application Of Number

Information Technology

Working With others

Improving own learning and performance

Problem solving

301

1.2,1.3, 2.2, 2.3

1.1, 1.2, 1.3, 2.3

1.1, 1.2, 2.3

-------------

--------------

1.2, 1.3

302

1.2, 1.3, 2.3

1.1, 1.2, 1.3, 2.3

1.1, 1.2, 2.2

-------------

1.1, 1.2

1.1, 1.2, 1.3, 2.2

303

1.2,1.3, 2.2, 2.3

1.1, 1.2, 1.3

1.2, 2.1, 2.2

01.1, 01.2, 01.3

---------------

1.2, 2.2

304

--------------------

1.1, 1.2, 2.1

1.1, 1.2

---------------

1.1, 1.2, 1.3, 2.1

2.2

305

1.2, 1.3

---------------------

1.1, 1.2

----------------

-----------------

1.2, 2.2

306

---------------------

----------------------

------------------

----------------

-----------------

1.2, 2.2

307

---------------------

----------------------

------------------

----------------

-----------------

1.2, 2.2

308

---------------------

----------------------

------------------

----------------

-----------------

1.2, 2.2

309

---------------------

----------------------

------------------

----------------

-----------------

1.2, 2.2

310

---------------------

----------------------

------------------

----------------

-----------------

1.2, 2.2

311

---------------------

----------------------

------------------

----------------

-----------------

2.2

312

---------------------

----------------------

------------------

----------------

-----------------

1.2, 2.2

313

1.2, 2.2

1.1, 1.2, 1.3, 2.1, 2.2

1.1, 1.2, 1.3, 2.1, 2.2, 2.3

01.1, 01.2, 02.1

1.1

1.1, 1.2, 2.1

314

1.2, 2.2

2.1, 2.2

1.1, 1.2, 2.1

01.1, 01.2

1.1

1.1, 2.1

315

1.2, 1.3, 2.1b

1.1, 1.2, 1.3, 2.1

1.1, 2.2

----------------

-----------------

1.1

316 ---------------------

1.1, 1.2, 2.1

------------------

01.1, 02.2

-----------------

1.1, 2.1

43

Health and safety, spiritual etc, environmental and European issues – Level 3 The level 3 units provide opportunities to address the following issues as indicated: Units Spiritual, Moral

Ethical, Social and Cultural

Environmental Health and Safety

European Development

301 YES YES YES YES 302 YES YES 303 YES YES YES 304 YES 305 YES 306 YES YES YES 307 YES YES YES 308 YES YES YES 309 YES YES YES 310 YES YES YES 311 YES YES YES 312 YES YES YES 313 YES 314 YES 315 316

44

Unit 301 Working in the printing and graphic communications

industry

Rationale This unit is concerned with developing an understanding of working in the printing and graphic communications industry, including health and safety, personal development, working relationships, an industry overview and the rights and responsibilities of employers and employees. Outcomes There are eleven outcomes to this unit. The candidate will be able to 1. describe the responsibility of an employee for health and safety under the Health and

Safety at Work Act 1974 2. describe the health and safety risks associated with equipment and processes in the

workplace 3. describe the use of safety clothing, footwear and equipment in the workplace 4. describe how to create and maintain effective working relationships 5. identify the principles of personal development planning and training 6. describe the principles and techniques of communicating with others 7. identify the printing processes and their common applications 8. describe the stages in the printing process from pre-press to finished printed product 9. identify types of representative organisations and other associations 10. describe the key job functions within the printing and graphic communications industry

and their main purposes 11. identify legal issues concerning employment and working in the printing and graphic

communications industry. Connection with other awards This unit contributes towards the knowledge and understanding required for units 001 and 002 of the Level 3 NVQ in Printing. Assessment This unit will be assessed by means of a short written answer test covering the eleven outcomes.

45

Outcome 1: Describe the responsibility of an employee for health and safety under the Health and Safety at Work Act 1974 Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. state that the Health and Safety at Work Act 1974 was introduced to prevent injuries and

accidents in the workplace 2. state that employees have legal duties that include:

a) taking reasonable care for their own health and safety and that of others who may be affected by what they do or do not do

b) co-operating with their employer on health and safety c) correctly using work items provided by their employer, including Personal Protective

Equipment (PPE), in accordance with training or instructions d) not interfering with or misusing anything provided for health and safety

3. state that, in general, employer’s duties include:

a) making the workplace safe and without risks to health b) ensuring that plant and machinery are safe and that safe systems of work are set

and followed c) ensuring articles and substances are moved, stored and used safely d) providing adequate welfare facilities e) giving employees the information, instruction, training and supervision necessary for

their health and safety 4. describe the following regulations, and how they might apply to employees, appropriate

to the printing and graphic communications industry: a) Control of Substances Hazardous to Health Regulations (COSHH) 1999 b) Health and Safety (Display Screen Equipment) Regulations 1992 c) Electricity at Work Regulations 1989 d) Fire Precautions (Workplace) 1999 e) Health and Safety (First-Aid) Regulations 1981 f) Workplace (Health, Safety and Welfare) Regulations 1992 g) Management of Health and Safety at Work Regulations 1999 h) Manual Handling Operations Regulations 1992 i) Noise at Work Regulation 1989 j) Personal Protective Equipment Regulations 1994 k) Provision and Use of Work Equipment Regulations 1998 l) Reporting of Injuries, Diseases and Dangerous Occurrences Regulations

(RIDDOR) 1995 m) Health and Safety (Safety Signs and Signals) Regulations 1996 n) Special Waste Regulations 1996

5. state that the under the Management of Health and Safety at Work Regulations 1999 a

competent person in every company should have responsibility for health and safety (a competent person is regarded as a person who has sufficient training, experience or knowledge and other qualities to enable them to properly assist in undertaking these measures)

46

6. identify that the role of the Health and Safety Executive or local Environmental Health Authority is to implement the Health and Safety at Work Act 1974 and the regulations relevant to the organisation through a system of: a) inspections b) improvement notices c) prohibition notices d) prosecutions e) investigation of accidents or complaints

7. identify that if a company employs more than five people they each must have a health

and safety policy specific to that particular company 8. identify that a health and safety policy needs to:

a) state the general aims of the company in relation to the employee’s health and safety

b) describe the organisation of health and safety c) describe the systems and procedures in place for ensuring the health and safety of

employees d) be brought to the attention of all employees e) be revised if the organisation changes or new hazards arise f) be supported by sufficient resources

9. state that the duty of care for any visitors to the work area includes:

a) identifying actual or potential hazards b) providing any required PPE, e.g. ear defenders c) understanding the law with regard to managing contractors when they are on site

10. state that the procedures for dealing with an accident to a fellow worker include:

a) ensuring the safety of the immediate work area b) seeking help from the competent person/first aider c) providing help (as directed by the competent person/first aider) to assist with the

injured person d) ensuring the accident is reported and recorded

11. state that every company must appoint a first aider, whose duties include:

a) looking after first aid equipment and facilities b) preventing any deterioration in an existing condition c) promoting the recovery of the patient d) calling the emergency services when required

12. state and understand the procedures for reporting and recording accidents under the

RIDDOR regulations, including the: a) keeping of details for the accident b) notifying of your enforcing authority immediately, under various circumstances as

listed under Item 13 c) reporting of certain diseases suffered by workers, who do specified types of work, as

soon as possible on receiving a written diagnosis from a medical practitioner d) investigating of the cause and the reviewing of procedures as appropriate e) notifying dangerous occurrences to the enforcing authority

47

13. identify the requirements for reporting accidents to the Health and Safety Executive/Environmental Health Authority as including an accident/incident resulting in: a) a fatality b) an employee receiving a major injury requiring hospitalisation c) a visitor injured on the premises and requiring hospital treatment d) an employee injured on the premises and unable to perform their normal job for

three days e) an accident/incident arising from an electric shock or poisoning f) an accident/incident arising from an explosion or fire which stops work for 24 hours

14. list the information about an accident that should be entered in the Accident Book as

including: a) name, home address and occupation of the person who has been injured b) signature, date, home address and occupation of the person completing the record c) time, date and place of the accident d) details about the accident - how it happened and the cause (if known)

15. describe the general fire precautions appropriate to a company, including:

a) knowing what to do in case of a fire b) knowing how to raise the alarm and use fire extinguishers where appropriate c) knowing what to do if you need to call the fire brigade d) all fire exits are clearly marked and unobstructed e) fire escape doors are easily opened whenever anyone is on the premises, they must

never be wedged open 16. state that the procedure to be followed by all employees on hearing the fire alarm

includes: a) leaving the building as quickly as possible by the nearest fire exit b) going to the appointed fire assembly point c) ensuring presence is recorded by the Fire Marshal/Warden d) not re-entering the building until told to do so by the Fire Brigade or Fire

Marshal/Warden 17. state that the role of a fire marshal/warden includes:

a) identifying potential hazards b) maintaining emergency exits and fire fighting equipment c) raising the alarm in the event of a fire d) liaising with the Fire Brigade e) identifying and recording the presence of employees and visitors at the Fire

Assembly Point f) giving instructions for the re-occupation of the building when safe to do so

18. state that the employer's responsibility to control hazardous substances under the

COSHH regulations includes: a) assessing the risks to health arising from the use of hazardous substances at work b) reviewing assessment if changes occur c) preventing or controlling the risk d) ensuring that control measures are used and maintained e) monitoring exposure and carrying out health surveillance when necessary f) informing, instructing and training employees about the risks and the precautions

needed g) keeping records where required

48

19. state that under the Special Waste Regulations 1996: a) some chemicals used in the printing and graphic communications industry are

required to be consigned for disposal to a licenced carrier b) the chemicals covered by these regulations include:

i) aerosol cans ii) blanket wash iii) plate cleaners iv) etch solution v) gravure etching solutions vi) Isopropyl Alcohol (IPA) vii) plate developer viii) solvent based inks ix) wash-up solvents.

49

Outcome 2: Describe the health and safety risks associated with equipment and processes in the workplace Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. identify the principal hazards of working in the printing and graphic communications

industry as including: a) noisy machinery b) the use of chemicals c) manual handling d) moving parts of machinery

2. describe the risks and hazards that commonly occur in printing companies as including:

a) trips caused by badly placed items such as pallets b) slips caused by spilt chemicals c) trapping caused by clothing or rags being caught in machinery d) crushing caused by heavy objects falling on hands or feet e) electric shock caused by poorly maintained wiring f) cuts caused by careless use of sharp blades g) accidents/damage caused by poorly maintained/checked machinery and equipment

3. describe the basic rules of machinery safety, including: a) machine guarding:

i) identifying basic machinery hazards ii) interlocking guards iii) machine controls iv) integrity of guard interlocks

b) safe systems of work c) machinery maintenance

4. state that the isolation points and stop buttons are designed to stop machinery in the

event of an emergency, e.g. an accident or incident 5. identify that in the event of an emergency involving a piece of machinery the power

supply should be turned off immediately

6. state that all equipment and other items should be checked at the start of each day

and/or before use, including: a) machines b) machine guards c) guillotines – a written record must be kept d) hand tools e) services to machines, e.g. electricity, compressed air, gas, supplies f) reporting wear and tear g) undertaking other weekly or monthly safety checks

7. state that the list of prohibited equipment for people under the age of 18 years in the

printing and graphic communications industry includes: a) platens b) wire stitchers c) guillotines d) forklift trucks, which require a licence for use

50

8. state that the procedures for manual handling of objects include: a) planning the lift – whether it needs to be moved by hand, with a lifting aid, e.g. pump

truck, or whether it requires the assistance of a colleague b) standing close to load and bending knees – not attempting to lift a weight that is too

heavy to carry c) taking a firm grip of the object and holding it close to the body d) standing up, keeping back straight and elbows tucked in e) moving forward smoothly, using small steps and not jerking or twisting f) when destination is reached, bending knees and positioning object g) altering hand hold and pushing into final position

9. identify that risk assessment involves:

a) identifying hazards b) deciding who might be harmed and how c) assessing how great the risk is:

i) how often do people approach the hazard ii) how long are they exposed to the hazard iii) how serious could the consequences be

d) deciding whether existing controls are adequate or more are required e) recording the significant findings f) putting in place the additional precautions needed g) reviewing the assessment

10. state that complying with safety instructions for the use of materials and operation of equipment from suppliers, manufacturers and companies is an important part of maintaining a safe workplace.

51

Outcome 3: Describe the use of safety clothing, footwear and equipment in the workplace Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. describe that the Personal Protective Equipment at Work Regulations Act 1992 require

employers to: a) assess risks to health and safety, which have not been avoided before providing

PPE b) provide suitable PPE free of charge to protect employees against risks, which have

not been controlled by other means c) take all reasonable steps to ensure PPE is properly used d) maintain PPE provided, in clean and efficient working order with appropriate storage

accommodation for when it is not in use e) give information, instruction and training for the use of PPE f) ensure that employees must use PPE provided and report any loss or obvious

defect to the employer 2. state that the PPE commonly used in the printing and graphic communications industry

includes: a) safety hand and footwear b) eye, face and ear protection c) barrier cream and cleansing soaps

3. state that the safe working conditions for the operation of computer equipment include:

a) adequate space to work b) suitable environment – lighting, noise free, good ventilation c) adjustable chair – back and height d) adjustable screen height and visibility e) adequate working area including space in front of keyboard to allow wrists to be

supported 4. identify the types and uses of fire extinguishers as:

a) water – to tackle wood, paper and textile fires b) carbon dioxide (CO2 ) - to tackle electrical fires, with the electrical current switched

off c) foam – to tackle flammable liquid fires d) dry powder – to tackle any fire

5. state that emergency exits or first aid signs are square or rectangular and distinguished

by a green background and white lettering or graphics, e.g. Fire Exit 6. state that warning signs are triangular and distinguished by a yellow background and

black lettering or graphics, e.g. Danger Of Electric Shock 7. state that mandatory warning signs are round and distinguished by a blue background

and white lettering or graphics, e.g. Ear Protection Must Be Worn 8. state that prohibitory signs are round and distinguished by a white background and red

lines and borders, and white lettering and black graphics, e.g. No Smoking.

52

Outcome 4: Describe how to create and maintain effective working relationships Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. describe the advantages of team working as including:

a) a productive, stimulating atmosphere b) individuals feeling they belong and having commitment c) problems being overcome/resolved and targets being achieved d) continuous improvement in performance

2. describe the results of poor team working as including:

a) little or no communication – everyone operates in isolation b) failure to accept responsibility – everyone passes the buck c) poor quality work – mistakes, inaccuracies and sub-standard work are the norm d) low productivity and low rates of achievement by individuals e) poor understanding of the requirements of the job – indifferent attitudes f) no improvement in working practices g) uncooperative atmosphere, with conflict, lethargy and a general disinterest

3. state that successful teams work together 4. explain why it is important for all the team members to understand and be working

towards the same goals 7. explain why supporting and assisting colleagues to overcome production problems or

difficulties is an essential part of team working 6. describe the ways of resolving a conflict with a colleague as including:

a) not walking away as the conflict will still be there b) staying calm and not shouting or getting angry c) checking the facts of the matter in dispute d) not telling lies and apologising if in error e) being assertive f) asking another member of the team to mediate g) treating colleagues with respect

7. describe methods of maintaining an effective level of communication and productivity

within the workplace as including: a) reporting difficulties in completing the work b) identifying problems in delivering the completed work in the allocated time c) identifying problems during the production process that will impact upon subsequent

operations reporting problems in the immediate work area – e.g. a health and safety hazard

d) ensuring all necessary information is passed on to colleagues and line managers at the end of the shift

8. explain the principles of equal opportunities in the workplace and why it is wrong to:

a) discriminate against another person for reasons of race, gender, religion, disability, age or sexual orientation

b) harass or bully a colleague for any reason c) ignore or belittle another person d) display inappropriate material in the workplace which some people may find

offensive.

53

Outcome 5: Identify the principles of personal development planning and training Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. describe techniques individuals use to identify their existing skills, including:

a) self-assessment of skills and knowledge, often with reference to national standards or qualifications

b) setting goals to improve skills and knowledge c) implementing a personal action plan to achieve the goals

2. describe how identifying personal strengths and weaknesses contributes to the process

of personal development planning 3. state that an individual learning plan setting out the skills and knowledge to be achieved

usually includes: a) target dates for completion of parts of the learning programme b) the method of delivery of the programme c) a system to review progress against the target dates

4. explain why most people need to be prepared to continue learning new skills and

acquiring further knowledge throughout their working life 5. explain how skills and knowledge can be obtained from teachers, trainers, assessors,

mentors, colleagues and through self study.

54

Outcome 6: Describe the principles and techniques of communicating with others Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. explain why the use of technical and non-technical language when communicating with

colleagues and visitors should be appropriate to their experience and understanding of the subject

2. state that communication includes both verbal and non-verbal expressions

3. state that non-verbal expressions include the use of the face, body and hands to convey

or underpin the spoken message 4. explain why open questions allow the respondent to give more information or express a

point of view 5. explain why closed questions only allow a one word or yes/no answer 6. describe the characteristic types of formal language as:

a) organised or prepared b) avoidance of slang and colloquialisms c) use of complete sentences d) used in larger groups or official circles, e.g. meetings/groups

7. describe the characteristics of informal language as including:

a) improvised and spontaneous b) the use of slang and colloquialisms c) often ignoring conventional sentences d) use in one-to-one or small groups

8. state that the techniques for giving constructive feedback to colleagues include:

a) verbal (one-to-one discussions, group presentations) b) written (memos, notes, reports etc).

55

Outcome 7: Identify the printing processes and their common applications Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. state that the main printing processes are:

a) lithography b) flexography c) letterpress d) gravure e) screen f) pad g) digital print

2. state that lithography is used primarily for printing onto paper and board to produce

magazines, brochures, leaflets, packaging, stationery and many other products requiring high quality multi-colour images

3. state that the lithographic process can be used to produce printed material using:

a) sheet fed presses with one or more printing units b) web offset presses with one or more printing units

4. state that flexography is used primarily for printing onto flexible roll materials e.g. for

food packaging or other types of wrappings, but can also be used for producing books, newspapers, labels, wall coverings etc

5. state that letterpress is used for roll tickets, vouchers, labels and pads where the image

is carried on a metal or wooden block or metal type, and is nowadays often adapted for cutting and creasing, foiling and numbering work

6. state that gravure is used primarily to produce magazines, packaging and security work,

that the image is carried on an engraved cylinder and that this process is particularly suited to high quality long run work

7. state that screen printing uses a mesh screen to transfer the image and is used primarily

for printing on non-standard shapes and substrates, e.g. clothing, large format rigid display material

8. state that pad uses a metal or plastic photo engraved plate (called a cliché) to transfer

the image to an intermediate silicone rubber and onto the substrate, with the ink supplied to the plate after each impression and is used primarily to print on irregular shaped substrate surfaces, e.g. basketballs, masking tape

9. state that digital printing uses electronic data from a computer system and outputs it

direct to a reproduction system which can range from simple desktop printers to large directly imaged printing presses.

56

Outcome 8: Describe the stages in the printing process from pre-press to finished printed product Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to

1. state that any printed work will start with a design made up of type and/or illustrations 2. state that type is measured in points, and that 72 points is equal to one inch 3. state that type is divided into two broad families (serif and sans serif) and is printed in

different styles including (roman, italic and bold) 4. state that the term ‘image’ is used to describe the various types of illustrations and they

consist of continuous tone originals and line originals 5. explain that a continuous tone original has to be converted into a halftone made up of

dots of various sizes for printing, and line originals consist of distinct lines and shaded areas

6. describe how artwork or type matter is usually created or assembled using one or more

software programs on a computer, except for letterpress work which may still be assembled using cold or hot metal type

7. describe how digital type is created by:

a) using a computer keyboard b) scanning a previously printed document and using optical character recognition

software 8. state that digital type matter may also be obtained from:

a) removable digital storage media, e.g. floppy disk, CD b) another computer via a network, e.g. Internet/e-mail/ISDN

9. describe how digital images are created by:

a) scanning an existing hard copy photograph or illustration b) drawing or painting an image directly in a software application c) using a digital camera to take pictures

10. state that digital images may also be obtained from:

a) removable digital storage media, e.g. floppy disk, CD, DVD b) another computer via a network, e.g. Internet/e-mail/ISDN

11. state that multi-page jobs are usually imposed to create sections which will be printed by

one of the following methods: a) sheetwork b) half-sheet work (work and twist) c) work and turn d) work and tumble

12. state that the assembled pages are prepared for printing using an image carrier such as

a: a) lithographic printing plate b) flexographic and letterpress relief printing plate c) gravure cylinder d) screen stencil e) photosensitive drum

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13. state that the main operations in finishing and converting are cutting, folding and securing

14. identify cutting as trimming non-printed sheets and flat printed sheets using a single

knife guillotine or trimming made up work using a multi-knife machine 15. describe folding as a print finishing process which produces a more easily handled

product than a large flat sheet, often described as a section, in which individual pages appear in the correct sequence

16. describe securing as binding together printed sheets or sections using wire stitching,

sewing, adhesive or a proprietory system such as Wiro or Comb binding 17. state that finishing departments may also undertake the following operations:

a) collating b) laminating or encapsulation c) decoration, e.g. gold blocking d) hole punching or drilling e) slitting f) cutting and creasing g) numbering

18. describe carton manufacture as the cutting and creasing of flat printed sheets before

folding and gluing to produce the required carton or box.

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Outcome 9: Identify types of representative organisations and other associations Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. state that representative bodies in the printing and graphic communications industry

mainly fall into two categories: a) employer organisations (also known as trade associations) b) employee organisations – principally trade unions

2. state that membership of any employer or employee organisation is generally not

compulsory for companies or individuals 3. state that organisations available for employers include:

a) British Printing Industries Federation (BPIF) b) British Association of Printers and Copyshops (BAPC) c) Corrugated Packaging Association (CPA) d) European Flexographic Trade Association (EFTA) e) Metal Packaging Manufacture’s Association (MPMA) f) Screen Printing Association (SPA) g) Scottish Printing Employer’s Federation (SPEF) h) Local Chambers of Commerce

4. state that the role of an employer’s organisation often includes:

a) providing a forum for members to discuss common problems b) representing the views of employers to government and other statutory bodies c) negotiating with trade unions and employee representatives on wages and

conditions d) assisting companies to improve their effectiveness and performance

5. state that the trade union with the largest membership in the printing and graphic

communications industry is the Graphical Paper and Media Union (GPMU) 6. state that the role of trade unions is to:

a) negotiate with employers at local and national levels about wages and conditions b) represent the view of members to government and other statutory bodies c) provide benefits to members during times of distress and unemployment

7. state that professional bodies are open to individuals to join for their professional

development, and these include: a) Institute of Printing (IoP) b) Institute of Directors c) Institute of Managment

8. state that national and international organisations also exist to:

a) maintain qualifications and standards and/or promote training e.g. PGCNTO b) research and publish technical and economic information, e.g. PIRA, GATF c) agree international protocols for use by manufacturers of equipment and software

developers. e.g. ISO, CIP.

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Outcome 10: Describe the key job functions within the printing and graphic communications industry and their main purposes Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. describe the following activities within a printing company:

a) sales and marketing b) production (pre-press, printing, finishing and despatch) c) administration and accounting

2. explain that the purpose of sales and marketing is to:

a) market the business to potential customers b) obtain profitable orders for the company

3. state that the production activities of a company are concerned with the manufacture or

processing of products for resale and that people concerned with production management may deal with: a) works order processing and/or control b) production planning and control

4. state that the administration and accounting functions of a company will usually deal

with: a) estimating b) costing, pricing and customer invoicing c) payment of salaries and suppliers’ invoices d) monthly and end of year accounts

5. state that the management team in a company will usually include:

a) a managing director or chief executive b) a finance manager or accountant c) a sales and/or marketing manager d) a production manager

6. state that the principal roles in production departments are:

a) pre-press – desktop publisher, planner, platemaker, scanner b) printing – printer, assistant c) finishing – folder, guillotine operator, finisher, binder, cutting and creasing operator d) despatch – warehouseman, forklift truck driver, van driver.

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Outcome 11: Identify legal issues concerning employment and working in the printing and graphic communications industry Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. state that employers and employees have statutory rights and responsibilities under UK

and European employment law 2. state that an employer must issue every employee with a written statement of their

employment particulars 3. state that employment laws cover many issues including:

a) the minimum wage that must be paid (with exceptions for some young people in training)

b) the maximum time that an individual may be required to work each week c) the minimum paid holiday that must be given each year d) the minimum sick pay (SSP) that must be paid to someone who is off work and

genuinely sick e) the entitlement of parents to time off for maternity and paternity leave f) minimum periods of notice to be given to employees (other than in cases of

immediate dismissal for gross misconduct) 4. state that employers are not entitled to dismiss an employee except in certain

circumstances, including in the case of an employee: a) whose behaviour has been sufficiently bad to justify dismissal b) whose capability or qualifications do not allow the job to be performed competently c) whose role is redundant, because the job no longer needs to be done d) who, for a legal requirement, can no longer be employed, e.g. a driver who loses

their licence e) whose dismissal was for a justifiable and substantial reason

5. state that employees are expected to abide by the terms of their contract of

employment, including: a) giving and working the required amount of notice b) using any grievance procedure in the event of an unresolved grievance or dispute

with their employer c) not breaching their duty of confidentiality to their employer

6. explain that employment contracts are recognised in law as being based on the principle

of mutual trust and confidence and that a major breach of this principle by either party is likely to result in the contract being broken

7. explain that employees are entitled not to be discriminated against on the grounds of:

a) race b) gender c) religion d) disability e) trade union membership or activity f) sexual orientation g) maternity

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8. state that an employee can obtain external help with a serious employment problem from: a) any trade union of which they are a member b) a Citizens Advice Bureau c) a solicitor

9. state that the Data Protection Act 1998 is designed to protect individuals from the use of

personal information that is: a) inaccurate b) incomplete c) irrelevant

10. explain that there are many things which may not be printed or published and that these

include: a) untrue statements about a person or organisation which diminish their reputation

(libel) b) statements which incite racial hatred or are highly offensive c) obscenity d) unauthorised reproduction of copyright material, (usually something created and

owned by another person) e) reproducing licenses, passports, currency, postage stamps etc

11. explain that printing or publishing any of the things listed above is likely to result in:

a) either criminal or civil proceedings, or both, b) criminal courts sentencing the offender to imprisonment, a fine or other punishment c) civil courts awarding monetary compensation to be paid by the defendant if he/she

loses the case 12. state that some printed work must carry a printers imprint stating the name and address

of the printer and that such work includes books, magazines and election publicity 13. state that companies may exist as sole traders/proprietors, partnerships, or limited

liability companies which may be public (plc) or private (ltd), and that proprietors of, or partners in, unincorporated companies have unlimited liability for the debts of the company

14. state that company stationery, including letterheads and invoices, must carry certain

information about the company, including the trading name and address, names of the proprietor, partners or full company name and registered number, registered office and place of registration (if a company).

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Unit 302 Productivity and quality assurance in desktop publishing

(DTP) and pre-press

Rationale This unit is concerned with developing a clear understanding of productivity, quality assurance and the common production processes in DTP and pre-press including workflow, proofing and archiving. Outcomes There are six outcomes to this unit. The candidate will be able to 1. identify the issues which affect profitable production and productivity, and the reasons why

these are important in the printing and graphic communications industry 2. identify the main features of quality assurance and quality control systems 3. identify the activities and processes within DTP and pre-press areas and plan the workflow 4. identify the administrative control procedures in DTP and pre-press areas 5. describe the different methods of producing proofs and the strengths and weaknesses of

each 6. describe the methods used to archive DTP and pre-press work. Connection with other awards This unit contributes towards the knowledge and understanding required for units B1, B2, 002, 212 IT, 305 IT, 340, 705, 706 and 707 of the Level 3 NVQ in Printing. Assessments This unit will be assessed by means of a short written answer test covering the six outcomes.

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Outcome 1: Identify the issues which affect profitable production and productivity, and the reasons why these are important in the printing and graphic communications industry Underpinning Knowledge The candidate will be able to

1. state that for a commercial printing and graphic communications company to stay in

business, it must produce work which is of the quality required by its customers profitably

2. state that work can usually only be produced profitably if it is completed to the standard required within the time which has been allowed for production, unless the customer has explicitly agreed to pay for as much time as is needed to produce the work

3. state that printed work can usually only be produced profitably if it is right first time and produced without excessive waste of materials or resources or damage to equipment

4. state that some printed work is required to be produced by a specific date and time, and that failure to meet the deadline may result in the job being of no use (e.g. newspapers, concert programmes, meeting reports)

5. state that some printed work is required for other manufacturing processes (e.g. packaging or labels) and that failure to meet the deadline may result in very expensive delays in the manufacture of other products

6. identify the key issues affecting profitable production in DTP and pre-press as including that: a) equipment is in serviceable condition, correctly calibrated and available for

production b) correctly configured digital files are compatible with the equipment in use are

produced or received c) accurate work instructions have been prepared and passed to those who will

produce the job d) earlier operations or processes have been completed to the correct specification and

standard e) workers who will produce the job have been properly trained and have the skills and

knowledge necessary to do the work successfully f) materials needed to produce proofs, image carriers, etc. are available when required

7. state that for plant and equipment to be in serviceable condition, correctly calibrated and

fit for production, it must be: a) clean – scanning surfaces, monitors, imaging heads, drums and any transport

systems in the equipment must be free from dust or foreign particles b) lubricated – to ensure there is no unnecessary wear of moving parts c) maintained – in accordance with the manufacturer’s instructions and specifications,

so as to ensure safety of operation and satisfactory performance in operation 8. explain that in order to ensure that digital files are correctly configured and compatible

with the hardware and software in use it is vitally important for pre-press areas and DTP areas to have a common understanding of what is required for subsequent processes

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9. state that for the correct materials to be available in the required quantity: a) an order from a supplier must have been raised or b) the materials identified as being in stock, and c) at the time of delivery or stock allocation, the materials specification and quantity

must have been carefully checked to confirm that they are correct

10. state that in order to be sure that the previous operations or processes have been completed to the correct specification and standard, there must be a system of authorising the release of the work to the next stage of production

11. state that productivity is improved by producing more finished work with the same amount of labour in a given time, and that the companies with the highest levels of productivity are usually best able to compete successfully for business, locally and internationally.

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Outcome 2: Identify the main features of quality assurance and quality control systems Underpinning Knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. state that a quality product or service is one which satisfies the requirements of the

customer

2. state that quality control is usually concerned with identifying defective products and preventing them from reaching the customer, whereas quality assurance is concerned with all aspects of company activities, from initial customer enquiry to delivery of the product or service

3. state that a quality assurance system will also be concerned with continuously improving the product or service by identifying the reasons why failures occur and taking steps to improve the system to reduce or eliminate repetition of the same failures

4. state that quality control will often form part of a quality assurance system and will usually include the following techniques: a) inspection b) testing c) sampling d) the use of input and output controls

5. describe the purpose and use of equipment used for maintaining quality standards in

DTP and pre-press areas, including: a) calibrated densitometers – transmission and reflection b) calibrated dot meter c) colour reference books/swatches (e.g. pantone) d) calibrated ruler e) calibrated targets for scanners f) colour management software g) spectrophotometer

6. state that in order to maintain reliable and consistent quality of output from equipment, it

must be cleaned, lubricated and maintained in accordance with the manufacturer’s recommendations

7. state that a quality assurance system will usually include the following: a) control of suppliers b) receive goods in c) detailed operating procedures d) a system for tracing production and controlling documentation e) arrangements for dealing with non-conforming products f) arrangements for internally auditing the quality system and procedures g) a system for calibration and maintenance of equipment

8. state that a quality assurance system can be designed to meet external standards such

as ISO9000, and that companies with such a system may choose to be externally assessed against the standard with a view to being accredited

9. state that there are other British (BS) and International (ISO) standards, which have relevance to the printing and graphic communications industry, such as viewing conditions for colour assessment.

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Outcome 3: Identify the activities and processes within DTP and pre-press areas and plan the workflow Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to

1. identify the activities of DTP and pre-press production as including:

a) creating and/or receiving artwork for reproduction in print or electronically b) identifying any printing and post-printing requirements, including scheduled

production times c) assessing the suitability of artwork, originals, data files and proofs supplied by the

customer d) planning DTP and/or pre-press work required for the job e) carrying out the colour reproduction activities required to achieve the job

specification (colour management, scanning and colour separation) f) verifying the thumbnails for multi page documents g) determining any imposition requirements) outputting image carriers which meet the

specification for the job h) producing proofs for approval i) archiving data and/or image carriers and proofs

2. state that the reasons for identifying faults in customer supplied artwork, originals, data

files and proofs at the DTP and pre-press stages of production include: a) reduced risk of delays in the later stages of production and completion b) prevent additional costs being incurred production c) avoid wasted materials caused by having to repeat work d) avoid disputes with the customer as to responsibility for defects in the finished job

3. state that consistent and accurate DTP and pre-press work requires hardware to be

maintained and calibrated in accordance with the manufacturers instructions

4. state that consistent and accurate DTP and pre-press work requires that colour management software, including colour profiles, must be correctly installed and configured on the digital devices used to convert or produce data files

5. state that consistent and accurate DTP and pre-press work requires the use of control

and measurement equipment

6. state that the appropriate British Standards for print reproduction include: a) BS 5261 for text and copy preparation b) BS 4785 for process colour reproduction

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7. identify the DTP and pre-press workflow for any given job taking into account the following: a) the steps needed to ensure that the layout and content of the document meet or will

meet with the customer’s instructions and/or specification b) the steps needed to ensure any supplied graphic images have sufficient resolution

to achieve the job specification c) the steps needed to ensure that the document is free from spelling, literal and

grammatical errors d) the scanning requirements, retouching, enlarging or screening of images e) the output requirements – e.g. film, paper, plate, screen or a data file f) the emulsion requirements - ensuring that the contact emulsion of any film is

appropriate for the printing process g) the imposition scheme h) the method of working, i.e. analogue or digital or a mix of the two i) printing production processes j) substrates to be printed on together with any special finishes k) folding and binding requirements

8. identify the quality checks required to assure quality of output for each pre-press activity

or process.

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Outcome 4: Identify the administrative control procedures in DTP and pre-press areas Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. identify from a works instruction ticket/works order/job bag the customer, job number

and name, contact information, job specification, and delivery date

2. state what approval is necessary to undertake any DTP or pre-press work required which had not been anticipated or identified when the job was first received

3. describe how to verify the availability of the required resources (materials, equipment people) to achieve the job specification and that equipment calibration and maintenance is up to date

4. identify the steps to be taken to ensure that, prior to release of DTP or pre-press

products to the next stage of production, authority has been given by the relevant person

5. state that after completion of all DTP or pre-press processes: a) the work must meet the standard in any customer supplied proof for the job or

alternatively that a new proof has been produced and approved by the customer b) that any final proof must be clearly identified as such c) that adequate records are kept to trace the progress and approval of proofing for the

job

6. identify the production records and information required to record DTP and pre-press processes for the purposes of quality assurance

7. identify the production records and information required to record DTP and pre-press processes for the purpose of job costing and invoicing.

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Outcome 5: Describe the different methods of producing proofs and the strengths and weaknesses of each Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. state that the colour reproduction of different types of proofs is determined by many

factors including: a) substrate on which the proof is printed b) pigments in the dyes, inks or toners used to produce the proofs c) colour calibration of the device used to make the proof d) resolution of the image and proofing device e) use of colour management software and device profiles f) machine printing conditions for wet proofs

2. explain why colours viewed on a screen cannot always match colour proofs produced in

printed format

3. explain what is meant by colour space and how that determines what can or cannot be represented on any particular type of proof

4. state that the institutions/systems established to set standards for the printing and

graphic communications industry include; a) British Standards Institution (BSI) b) International Standards Institution (ISO) c) Deutsch Industrie Norm (DIN)

5. state that the standards set for print production include:

a) pre-press b) image carriers c) machine printing d) process inks e) substrates

6. identify the colour reproduction, colour classification and colour standards as being:

a) colour mixture, light and pigment terminology b) auto typical colour mixture, colour illusions and perception, juxtaposition, moiré and

screen angles c) colour classification and colour space, CIE L*a*b*, CMC d) colour standards – Specifications for Web Offset Publications (SWOP) e) colour viewing standards, BSI 960 Parts 1 and 2 and the metameric effects of

artificial lighting f) additional process printing, Hi-Fi (CMYK and RGB, up to 7 colour printing),

Hexachrome (CMYK plus orange and green), Boosted CMYK (plus light cyan and magenta)

7. state the criteria used to recommend a particular type of proof to a customer, the

limitations of certain proofs to which customers need to be made aware, and the importance of having a signed proof from the customer before any processing work is undertaken.

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Outcome 6: Describe the methods used to archive DTP and pre-press work Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. explain why DTP and pre-press work usually has to be archived 2. describe the essential elements of a DTP and pre-press archiving system including:

a) indexing b) identification and location c) protection from physical damage or loss d) identification of final approved artwork/films/files

3. identify suitable methods of storing digital files as including:

a) CD or CD-RW b) DVD c) Tape d) Optical Disk

4. state that the legal ownership of DTP and pre-press products such as film, plates, proofs

and digital artwork depends on the precise terms of the contract made with the customer which may be specified in the written terms and conditions of sale or purchase

5. state that reasons for archiving original, intermediate and final digital artwork, as well as all intermediate and final films and proofs produced during the processing of a job, include the possible need to identify the cause and/or responsibility for any faults in the finished product.

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Unit 303 Productivity, quality assurance and maintenance in

machine printing and print finishing

Rationale This unit is concerned with developing a clear understanding of productivity, quality assurance and the common production processes in printing and print finishing machine room processes. Outcomes There are seven outcomes to this unit. The candidate will be able to 1. identify the issues which affect profitable production and productivity, and the reasons why

these are important in the printing and graphic communications industry 2. identify the main features of quality assurance and quality control systems 3. identify the systems and documentation usually used in the printing and graphic

communications industry to organise and control production 4. explain the roles and responsibilities for cleaning, lubrication and preventative maintenance

and for reporting and recording machine faults 5. explain the principal activities involved with machine cleaning, lubricating and component

replacement as part of a preventative maintenance programme 6. identify machine faults and how they can be rectified 7. identify procedures for the safe use of chemicals and the disposal of waste. Connection with other awards This unit contributes towards the knowledge and understanding required for units B1, 001, 002, 004, 006, 230, 231, 233, 316, 317, 318, 319, 320, 321, 322, 323, 324, 325, 326, 327, 328 and 329 of the Level 3 NVQ in Printing. Assessments This unit will be assessed by means of a short written answer test covering the seven outcomes.

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Outcome 1: Identify the issues which affect profitable production and productivity, and the reasons why these are important in the printing and graphic communications industry Underpinning Knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. explain why a commercial printing and graphic communications company must produce

work profitably, which is of the quality required by customers if the company is to stay in business

2. state that work can usually only be produced profitably if it is completed to the standard required within the time which has been allowed for production

3. state that work can usually only be produced profitably if it is right first time and produced without excessive waste of materials or resources, or damage to equipment

4. explain why some printed work is required to be produced by a specific date and time, and that failure to meet the deadline may result in the job being of no use (e.g. newspapers, concert programmes, meeting reports)

5. state that some printed work is required for other manufacturing processes (e.g. packaging or labels) and explain why failure to meet the deadline may result in very expensive delays in the manufacture of other products

6. describe the key issues affecting profitable production as including: a) plant and equipment being in serviceable condition and available for production b) correct materials for the job being available in the required quantity at the required

time c) accurate work instructions having been prepared and passed to those who will

produce the job d) previous operations or processes having been completed to the correct specification

and standard e) workers who will produce the job having been properly trained and having the skills

and knowledge necessary to do the work successfully

7. explain that for plant and equipment to be in serviceable condition and fit for production, it must be: a) clean – inks, coatings, substrate particles and solvents must not be contaminating

rollers, cylinders and surfaces which will come into contact with the product b) lubricated – to ensure that moving parts of the equipment do not suffer unnecessary

wear or damage c) maintained – in accordance with the manufacturer’s instructions and specifications,

so as to ensure safety of operation and satisfactory performance in operation

8. state that for the correct materials to be available in the required quantity: a) an order to a supplier must have been raised or b) the materials identified as being in stock, and c) at the time of delivery or stock allocation, the materials specification and quantity

must have been carefully checked to confirm that they are correct

9. state that in order to be sure that previous operations or processes have been completed to the correct specification and standard, there must be a system of authorising the release of the work to the next stage of production

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10. explain that productivity is improved by producing more finished work with the same amount of labour in a given time, and that companies with the highest levels of productivity are usually best able to compete successfully for business, locally and internationally.

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Outcome 2: Identify the main features of quality assurance and quality control systems Underpinning Knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. state that a quality product or service is one which satisfies the requirements of the

customer

2. state that quality control is usually concerned with identifying defective products and preventing them from reaching the customer, whereas quality assurance is concerned with all aspects of company activities, from initial customer enquiry to delivery of the product or service

3. state that a quality assurance system will also be concerned with continuously improving the product or service by identifying the reasons why failures occur and taking steps to improve the system to reduce or eliminate repetition of the same failures

4. state that quality control will often form part of a quality assurance system and will usually include the following techniques: a) inspection b) testing c) sampling d) the use of input and output controls

5. explain the use of tools and equipment used for maintaining quality standards in the

printing and graphic communications industry, as including: a) densitometer b) dot meter c) colour reference book (e.g. pantone) d) calibrated ruler e) light boxes (controlled viewing conditions)

6. state that in order to maintain reliable and consistent quality of output from machines,

they must be cleaned, lubricated and maintained in accordance with the manufacturer’s recommendations

7. describe reasons for and use of procedures within a quality assurance system such as: a) control of suppliers b) receiving goods in c) detailed operating procedures d) a control system and documentation for traceability of raw materials and finished

goods e) arrangements for dealing with non-conforming products f) arrangements for internally auditing the quality system and procedures g) calibration and machine maintenance

8. state that a quality assurance system can be designed to meet external standards such

as ISO9000, and that companies with such a system may choose to be externally assessed against the standard with a view to being accredited

9. state that there are other British (BS) and International (ISO) standards which have relevance to the printing and graphic communications industry, such as viewing conditions for colour assessment.

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Outcome 3: Identify the systems and documentation usually used in the printing and graphic communications industry to organise and control production Underpinning Knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. state that orders will usually fall into one of the following categories:

a) new jobs b) reprints of previously printed jobs c) amendments and changes to previously printed jobs

2. explain that on receipt of an order, the person or department in the company

responsible for organising and controlling production will ensure that: a) the specification of the job is clearly understood, including size, quantity, number of

colours, finishing method b) the time needed to produce the job is calculated and a delivery deadline agreed with

the customer c) a written works order (also known as a works instruction ticket or job bag) will be

produced containing all the information and instructions needed for those who are going to produce the job

d) the materials needed for the job are identified and, where necessary, an order placed with a supplier

e) a production plan is produced, listing all the processes and the sequence in which they will be undertaken

f) a production schedule is produced, so that the workflow through the production departments is efficient and will guarantee that the delivery deadline is met

3. describe the use of visual loading boards, either wall-mounted or electronic version on a computer, as: a) enabling the person or department controlling production to see how much work is

allocated for each production area and b) identifying the progress of every job through different stages of production

4. explain that the person or department controlling production will try as far as possible to

make sure that the production schedule is achieved in each area of production, and that if changes have to be made because of production failures, this may result in one or more jobs being late

5. identify the causes of production schedules not being met as including: a) machines or equipment not being available for production because of breakdowns b) machines or equipment not performing to the required standards because of lack of

maintenance, lubrication or cleaning c) materials not being available in the required quantities at the time they are required d) unplanned absence of staff e) work being produced which does not meet the required standard

6. describe systems for approving production runs, such as the signature of a pass sheet

by a supervisor or signature of a work sheet or production control checklist

7. state that companies with a quality assurance system will have a documented procedure for authorising work to commence on jobs and for authorising completion of various stages of production before releasing work onto the next process

8. explain why a customer-approved proof is usually the basis for determining the standard for the job, unless there are other instructions contained on or in the job bag/work ticket

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9. explain why most printing companies require their production workers to keep a record, either on paper or electronically, recording the jobs they have worked on and the time taken

10. explain how errors can be caused by production workers failing to read or fully comprehend the job instructions or specification and that these are easily avoidable mistakes

11. state that during or at the end of each shift, individual machine operators or supervisors are usually required to report their production to the person or department controlling production, so that any changes necessary to the schedules can be considered and implemented.

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Outcome 4: Explain the roles and responsibilities for cleaning, lubrication and preventative maintenance and for reporting and recording machine faults Underpinning Knowledge The candidate will be able to: 1. describe the responsibilities for carrying out cleaning, lubrication, preventative

maintenance and fault repair work of each of the following: a) machine operators b) team members e.g. assistants c) qualified in-house maintenance staff d) machine manufacturer’s, or agent’s electrical or mechanical engineers

2. explain why companies insist on operators only replacing components within their

responsibility as being due to: a) cost of the component b) safety aspects of replacing the component c) cost and length of time required to replace the component d) tasks involved in replacing the component

3. explain why cleaning, lubrication and preventative maintenance work should be planned

to balance the needs of the activity and the production requirements 4. describe the benefits of planning the cleaning, lubrication and preventative maintenance

of equipment/machinery, including: a) the machinery/equipment is kept at maximum efficiency b) downtime and loss of production is minimised c) workflow from/to other departments is controlled

5. state that the factors that need to be taken into account when organising cleaning,

lubrication and preventative maintenance schedules include: a) the timing – daily, weekly, monthly b) responsibilities for undertaking the required operation – items within own

responsibility, items to be undertaken by other personnel (operatives, support staff) c) implications of downtime whilst operations are taking place – loss of production

within the department, effect on other departments

6. explain that the preparation of a planned cleaning, lubrication or preventative maintenance operation should include: a) consultations with other team members to identify the items to be cleaned and

maintained b) identification of the individual responsibilities for completing the required tasks c) discussions with supervisor/line manager about timing of operations, with reference

to work loadings during relevant period d) discussions with fellow workers in department on production implications of

proposed operation e) consultations with other departments on implications of workflow during operations

7. state that a cleaning, lubrication and preventative maintenance plan includes:

a) a list of items on the equipment/machinery to be cleaned, lubricated or replaced b) identifying the personnel responsible for each item c) the materials and chemicals/solvents to be used for cleaning, lubricating or replacing

each item d) the checks that should be made at the end of the work to ensure the safe and

efficient operation of the piece of equipment/machinery

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8. explain why, at the conclusion of the work, the plan should be reviewed and any defects rectified in the drawing up of future plans

9. state that items to be checked after cleaning, lubrication or preventative maintenance

operations, to ensure any equipment or machinery is safe to operate, include: a) equipment or machinery – to ensure the removal of all cleaning

material/chemical/solvents/waste materials from b) immediate work area – to ensure it is clear of waste materials c) components – to ensure they are restored to their operating positions d) personnel – to check they are clear of the equipment or machinery e) all guards and safety protection equipment – to ensure they have been restored to

position/operating positions

10. state that the faults occurring on a piece or equipment or machinery include: a) faults that disrupt production b) recurring faults c) faults that impair the required quality of the output

11. state that faults, which are not the responsibility of the operator to rectify, should be

reported to the appropriate authority and in accordance with the company procedure 12. explain why it is essential to keep a written record or log of all machine faults, including

any downtime resulting from those faults, and to describe the information required in such a log or report.

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Outcome 5: Explain the principal activities involved with machine cleaning, lubricating and component replacement as part of a preventative maintenance programme Underpinning Knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. state that the purpose of cleaning any piece of machinery is to:

a) ensure the efficient and effective working of the machinery b) prevent damage or discolouration of the output

2. state that cleaning of machinery must only be undertaken within the operator’s area of

responsibility 3. state that cleaning operations must include:

a) reference to the relevant Safety Data Sheets to identify the potential hazards of any solvents

b) the correct use of any personal protective equipment (PPE) c) ensuring that the machinery is rendered safe before commencing cleaning

operations 4. state that the purpose of lubrication is to:

a) reduce friction b) prevent wear c) prevent overheating of moving parts

5. state that the main types of lubricants commonly used in the industry are:

a) oil b) grease

6. state that the main methods of lubrication are:

a) by hand b) automatic

7. state that lubricants can be either:

a) fluid or b) semi-solid

8. state that oil is used to lubricate high-speed moving parts and grease slower moving

parts 9. state that oil is graded according to viscosity (resistance to flow) 10. identify that light oil has a low viscosity and heavy oil a high viscosity 11. explain that the purpose of regular preventative maintenance is to:

a) ensure the effective and efficient operation of the piece of machinery b) reduce wear and tear on the moving parts c) prolong the working life of the equipment d) prevent unexpected breakdown of the machinery

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12. describe the parts/components typically found in printing, finishing and converting

machines which will require periodic refurbishment or replacement, including: a) filters (air/oil/water) b) bearings c) rubber rollers and wheels d) suckers e) chains f) belts g) blankets h) sleeves i) bulbs j) knives k) oils

13. explain why preventative maintenance should only be carried out in accordance with

machine manufacturer and company procedures 14. state that the decision about replacement of worn or defective components will be:

a) within the responsibility of the operator b) reportable to a higher authority

15. explain the importance of replacing worn or defective components with the correct

replacement parts 16. state the importance of using the correct tools for the removal and replacement of

defective components.

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Outcome 6: Identify machine faults and how they can be rectified Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. describe the steps to be taken to determine the nature of a fault, including:

a) determining if the fault is electrical, electronic or mechanical b) identifying whether the fault has occurred previously c) determining whether the fault requires immediate attention or a scheduled repair d) considering if the fault may lead to component/machine/product damage if not

repaired immediately 2. state that the range of information about machine faults include:

a) reports from other members of the crew or support staff (verbally or in writing) b) examination of the piece of machine c) examination of the output from the piece of machinery

3. state that the types of machine faults include:

a) machine operating faults b) component wear and tear

4. identify the variety of machine faults as being:

a) those which are the responsibility of the operative to rectify b) those which are not the responsibility of the operative to rectify and must be reported

to the appropriate authority 5. state that the procedures for the diagnosis of machine faults may be set out in the

machinery manufacturer handbook supplied with the piece of equipment, for example in a troubleshooting section

6. state that the procedures for rectification of machine faults and/or resetting of machine

parameters may be given in the manufacturer handbook 7. explain how, providing it is safe to do so, information about the performance of a

machine may be obtained by: a) listening for unusual or unexpected sounds whilst the machine is running b) feeling for or smelling excessive heat from the machine or ancilliary equipment c) observing the operation of the machine and/or individual components in operation

8. identify the tools used to diagnose and/or rectify machine faults and replace defective

components as being: a) micrometer – for measuring the thickness materials or components b) callipers - for measuring the diameters c) feeler gauges – for measuring of gap between two surfaces d) screwdriver (Phillips/slot) – for tightening or loosening screws e) socket wrench/Allen key - key or socket wrench for adjusting bolts or screws f) open ended spanner - for adjusting nuts or bolts and fits two sides g) ring spanner – for adjusting nuts or bolts and fits around whole nut/bolt h) box spanner – for adjusting nuts or bolts and fits onto the head of the nut/bolt i) socket wrench - box type spanner with ratchet system for speed j) torque wrench/spanner - extra fitting for socket wrench for pre-determined tension k) tommy bar – for tightening and adjusting equipment e.g. plate fitting, roller settings l) circuit tester – for checking fuses and/or presence of electricity

9. describe the use of a parts manual for identifying machine manufacturer part numbers

and ordering replacement parts/components.

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Outcome 7: Identify procedures for the safe use of chemicals and the disposal of waste

Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. state that the activities and production processes of the printing and graphic

communications industy require the use of chemicals and solvents, some of which are potentially dangerous if not used properly

2. identify that the regulation governing the storage, use and disposal of chemicals and

solvents is the Control of Substances Hazardous to Health (COSHH), 1999 3. state that some of the chemicals used in the printing and graphic communications

industry are required under the Special Waste Regulations, 1996 to be consigned for disposal to a licenced carrier

4. identify that the chemicals covered by the Special Waste Regulations, 1996 include:

a) aerosol cans b) blanket wash c) plate cleaners d) etch solution e) gravure etching solutions f) Isopropyl Alcohol (IPA) g) plate developer h) solvent based inks i) wash-up solvents

5. state that under the COSHH regulations companies are required to assess the risk to

health of any chemicals or solvents used as part of the printing process 6. state that the assessments required to be carried out under the regulations include

identifying: a) what hazards exist and the physical state of the hazardous substance b) who will be affected by any hazards c) how much they will be exposed to any hazards and for how long d) the affected locations e) the control measures necessary to maintain acceptable exposure limits f) the control measures necessary to monitor the substance g) the level of instruction, information and training required for employees

7. state that the steps which must be taken having assessed the risk and determined the

chemical or solvent presents a hazard include: a) preventing employees from gaining exposure to the chemical b) changing the process c) replacing it with a safer alternative d) using the chemical or solvent in safer form

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8. identify that the steps which must be taken where it is not practicable to prevent exposure include: a) controlling the exposure by enclosing the process, providing local or general

ventilation, using systems that minimise the exposure, reducing the number of people exposed or the amount of time they are exposed

b) ensuring the control measures are maintained by providing adequate supervision and keeping any equipment in efficient working order and repair

c) monitoring the exposure and keeping records d) reviewing the assessment at regular intervals to ensure no significant changes have

occurred e) informing and training the employees on the risks and the use of any protective

equipment 9. state that a chemical or solvent is considered hazardous if it is:

a) toxic b) harmful c) corrosive d) an irritant e) capable of causing adverse health effects

10. identify that chemicals or solvents should be kept in a closed metal cabinet, with only a

small amount kept in the work area for immediate use 11. state that the responsibility individuals have for their own health and safety when using

chemicals and solvents include: a) taking advantage of any training and information provided about the safe use of

chemicals and solvents b) following the procedures laid down for using and storing chemicals and solvents c) using the personal protective equipment supplied and reporting any faults in the

equipment to the appropriate authority 12. state that examples of waste include:

a) used PPE b) used cloths c) spoiled materials – paper, board or other substrate

13. state that the internal company procedures governing the disposal of waste will include:

a) identification of products, containers and materials covered by Special Waste regulations by department

b) designation of responsibility for collection of special waste to supervisors/line managers/operatives

c) storage of special waste products in sealed containers d) contract with authorised carrier of special waste e) preparation of required consignment note identifying location of special waste after

disposal f) pick up and handling of special waste and consignment note by authorised carrier.

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Unit 304 Digital pre-press processes

Rationale This unit is concerned with developing a clear understanding of controlling digital pre-press, including hardware devices, software applications, conversion of originals to digital files, preflighting and ripping of files, digital creation of image carriers, and digital proofing. Candidates will be expected to cover this unit in the context of their chosen production process e.g. lithography, gravure, flexography, screen etc Outcomes There are six outcomes to this unit. The candidate will be able to 1. describe the operation of hardware and software systems typically used in pre-press 2. explain the systems and processes for converting originals into digital files 3. explain the principles of layout and imposition including the use and placement of marks

and control guides 4. describe the principles for the production of the image carriers 5. describe the principles for the production of digital proofs 6. identify the procedures for pre-flighting and ripping files in digital pre-press. Connection with other awards This unit contributes towards the knowledge and understanding required for units 112, 113, 115, 116, 117, 118, 119, 219 and 229 of the Level 3 NVQ in Printing. Assessments This unit will be assessed by means of a short written answer test covering the six outcomes.

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Outcome 1: Describe the operation of hardware and software systems typically used in pre-press Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to: 1. describe the range of hardware used in digital pre-press as including:

a) computer platform, e.g. PC, MAC b) display (screen or monitor) c) graphic pen tablets d) low resolution printers, e.g. desktop inkjet or laser, black and white or colour e) high resolution printers, e.g. proofing printers f) imagesetters/film recorders/CTP systems g) scanners - flatbed/drum h) removable storage media i) modem (internal/external) - Analogue/ISDN/ADSL service, router, firewall j) hardware Raster Image Processor (RIP) k) network hub or switch l) calibration measuring devices, e.g. transmission/reflection densitometers or dot

meters 2. describe the range of computer software used in pre-press as including:

a) word processing b) graphic image/illustration/drawing - bitmapped and vector systems c) page make up d) scanning e) colour management f) electronic imposition g) OPI – for substituting high/low resolution images h) Portable Document Format (PDF) creation i) software RIP j) pre-flighting k) e-mail/Internet/ISDN transfer l) operating systems software, including servers m) archiving and digital asset management n) management information system

3. explain that problems of compatibility between software and hardware elements in

digital pre-press include: a) incompatibility of computer operating systems/platforms (Mac/Windows/Unix) b) different software versions used by customer and pre-press c) incompatibility of some fonts and image file types between platforms

4. state that there are software products available which will solve many of the issues of

compatibility by different methods which include: a) allowing different platforms to communicate across networks b) converting fonts and images for use on different platforms c) creating PDFs which can be opened on any platform

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5. state that the primary function of colour management software is toneable consistent interpretation and reproduction of colour on any hardware device by: a) determining the standard and meaning of colour objects in an original document b) translating the colour values of each object to values that give the same appearance

when displayed or printed on different devices c) maintaining files containing the colour characteristics or profiles of different devices

and using the information contained in a device profile when printing or displaying to that device

6. state that the elements of a pre-press system that need colour management include:

a) computer display b) scanner and separations software c) printers and imagesetters and their RIPs or printer drivers d) page make up and graphics software

7. state that it is not uncommon for individual printing presses to have profiles created for

them using colour management software 8. state that hardware calibration is not the same as colour management, that most pre-

press hardware will need to be calibrated from time to time and that hardware calibration should be carried out before any colour management software or profiling is configured

9. state that colour is usually displayed on a screen using Red, Green and Blue (RGB)

colour but is often printed using the Cyan, Magenta, Yellow and Black-Key (CMYK) colour mode and that the conversion between these two modes is a critically important function of any colour management software

10. explain why, irrespective of the display, the high resolution colour images in digital

documents may exist in either RGB or CMYK mode and may be composite or separated 11. explain that the colour separation of original images and conversion to CMYK mode can

take place: a) when the original is scanned b) during or after any retouching using graphics software c) at the output stage from page make-up software d) when the document or file is sent to a colour printer e) when the file is ripped for printing to an imagesetter or CTP system

12. explain that it is critically important for reliable and predictable colour reproduction that

the pre-press operator knows where any colour separation or colour mode conversion is taking place within the workflow, and that the colour management profiles and software colour settings are properly configured at that point.

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Outcome 2: Explain the systems and processes for converting originals into digital files Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. state that the terms used in digital image reproduction include:

a) screening - the process by which the tonal variations of a continuous tone image are simulated by a pattern of dots (which may be regular or irregular, square, round, eliptical or other shape) in an image prepared for print reproduction

b) screen angle - the angle at which the screen ruling lines in conventional screening patterns, the purpose of which is to prevent moiré patterns

c) screen ruling - the number of lines in a given distance in conventional screening patterns- lines per inch (lpi) or lines per centimetre (lpc)

d) hardware resolution – a measure of the ability of a hardware device e.g. a scanner, monitor or printer, to obtain, display or print digital information, usually expressed as ‘ppi’ or pixels per inch

e) image resolution – the amount of information contained in the image, usually expressed as dots per inch (dpi)

f) stochastic or ‘FM’ screening – a screening pattern made up of very fine irregular shapes creating moiré free images

g) bitmap – a digital image made up of dots or pixels h) vector – a digital image made up of lines or curves

2. state that:

a) as a rule of thumb, an image resolution needs to be twice the screen ruling that will be used to print the image (e.g. 150# screen requires 300dpi image resolution)

b) for a bitmap image, the total amount of information contained in the file will determine the maximum size that can be printed at any given image resolution

c) for a bitmap image, increasing the size of output will reduce the image resolution and vice versa

d) for a bitmap image, enlarging the image beyond its maximum for the required image resolution will result in a poor quality image, usually described as pixelated

e) for a vector image, the image is defined mathematically as lines or curves and the image can be enlarged without reducing its quality

3. state that the number of grey levels that can be printed by any particular device depends

on the resolution of the device and the screen ruling used to print the image and can be expressed by the formula: printer resolution No. of grey levels = screen ruling squared

4. identify that:

a) using too few grey levels will lead to banding in the printed image, as the change from one grey level to the next is too great

b) the usual number of grey levels in high resolution printed work is approximately 256, and the human eye cannot distinguish between more grey levels than this

5. state that prior to commencing any scanning which requires faithful colour reproduction,

the scanner must be calibrated and an accurate profile for the device correctly configured in the scanning software

6. state that the dynamic range of a scanner will indicate the range of detail that can be

obtained from the original and converted into digital format

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7. identify that scanners may scan images in RGB format and then convert the information to CMYK prior to displaying the image on screen, or may leave the scan in RGB and be converted at a later stage of processing

8. identify that if a colour reproduction is intended to be viewed on a monitor and

judgements made about the colour values or retouching work undertaken based on the visual display, the monitor must be colour calibrated

9. identify that if a colour reproduction is intended to be printed using CMYK colour

separations, the display on any calibrated monitor may need to simulate the CMYK output, as RGB colour space is larger than CMYK colour space

10. explain that it is usually possible to obtain the CMYK values for any particular colour in

an image displayed on a monitor and that these values can be used to see how the colour will print by reference to a printed CMYK colour chip or chart

11. identify that retouching of colour images after scanning is normally undertaken in the

LAB colour mode and then converted to RGB or CMYK mode 12. state that the values when calibrating a monitor include:

a) ambient lighting - the type and level of lighting in the area of screen location b) monitor settings - available from software settings to set optimum monitor gamma

values and the setting for brightness and contrast c) screen age and warm-up time - these factors provide visual errors for reliable colour

reference 13. state that the characteristics of a computer monitor include:

a) the chromacity - the hue and saturation levels of a monitor b) the white point - the quality of pure white on a monitor c) the monitor gamma -a measure of the intensity of the monitor display, that takes into

account the relationship between brightness and contrast 14. state that the factors to be considered when correcting an image include:

a) tonal value range – does the image have a compressed range of grey or colour values and does the limited number of greys or colours produce a false appearance

b) image sharpening – does the image appear out of focus c) colours cast – does the image contain a distinct overall tint; a cast may be caused

by using an incorrect film when originally produced d) under exposed or over exposed – does the whole image or portions of it look too

dark or too light (an original with good exposure may look under exposed or over exposed after scanning)

e) improper saturation – does the image looks washed-out and dull due to low colour saturation or vivid and unnatural as a result of too much saturation

f) hue shift – does the entire colour spectrum of the image need to be shifted 15. identify the impact on the tonal values of an image as result of an adjustments as:

a) highlight is too low - details in light areas are distracting b) highlight is too high - details are lost in the light areas c) mid tones are set too high - colours are pale but there is good detail overall d) shadow is set too low - details in dark areas are lost e) shadow is set too high - to much detail in the shadow

16. identify the meaning of the terms ‘brightness’ and ‘contrast’ of an image as:

a) brightness - refers to the overall lightness of an image of selection b) contrast - the difference between the lightest and darkest portion of an image

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17. explain the following terms and their relevance to colour separation: a) total ink content b) Grey Component Replacement (GCR) c) Under Colour Removal (UCR) d) Under Colour Addition (UCA) e) SWOP coated f) colour gamut g) dot gain.

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Outcome 3: Explain the principles of layout and imposition including the use and placement of marks and control guides Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. identify that the imposition of images will normally be undertaken using:

a) manual systems, or b) imposition software

2. state that the purpose of imposition is to optimise the printing and post-printing

processes, to achieve the most efficient and/or cost-effective use of materials and to provide aids to achieving and maintaining quality in the subsequent processing operations

3. list the factors to be considered when preparing imposition schemes or templates,

including: a) the substrate sheet size – which may be a standard size or a special sheet size for

the job b) the finished page or image size c) the printing machine size – which may be fully used in the processing of the job or

determined by the substrate sheet size in use d) the post press processing affecting page order and/or orientation, e.g. folding, die-

cutting, punching, binding e) the extent of any bleed and the effect of creep f) the grip, lay and pitch edges when the sheet is printed and folded g) the material to be used - paper, board, glass, metal

4. state that the purpose of preparing a template is to identify the various image positions

as they will appear on the printed sheet 5. state that the items to be taken into account when preparing the template include:

a) the image dimensions b) allowances (clamp, grip and trim) for use during subsequent printing and finishing

operations c) image arrangement for printing or trimming d) image arrangement for post press requirements

6. state that the term ‘plate clamp allowance’ refers to the distance from the leading edge of the plate to the first allowable position of the image that will fall beyond the machine plate clamping mechanisms

7. state that the term ‘grip allowance’ refers to the distance from the leading edge of the

sheet to the first allowable position for the image that will fall beyond the machine gripper transfer mechanism

8. state that the term ‘grip edge of the sheet’ refers to that edge of a sheet which will be

held in the printing machine’s gripper mechanism 9. state that the term ‘lay edge of a sheet’ refers to that edge of the sheet that is at right

angles to the gripper edge and is used to maintain accurate registration of the image from side to side

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10. identify the areas to be calculated when preparing an imposition lay down sheet as being: a) the plate clamp and sheet grip allowances b) the centre line c) the page dimensions d) the trim, bleed, creep and fold allocations

11. state that the factors to be considered when planning a multiple page imposition for

folded work include the specification of the folding machine on which the sheet will be folded, particularly the number of folding plates, configuration of folding units and direction of the sheet infeed

12. state that for multiple page imposition folded work, there may be several possible impositions to choose from to achieve the required folded section and that the actual choice will usually depend on the specification of the folding machine being used

13. list the factors to be considered when planning irregular shape or size of images as

including: a) ensuring the full economic use of the sheet size b) determining whether the method of cutting should be straight cuts, or additional

punching or die cutting services c) how the shape will be held in the sheet and/or transported to the delivery during die-

cutting operations d) how the shape will be removed from the sheet after die-cutting operations

14. list the factors to be considered when planning step and repeat images, including:

a) that all repeat images are identical b) that all repeat image are positioned accurately

15. identify the imposition marks commonly used to indicate cuts, bleeds, folds, perforations, registration of colours, side guide, centre guide, collating

16. identify the usual position and commonly used types of colour control strips incorporated into imposition templates.

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Outcome 4: Describe the principles for the production of the image carriers Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. state that the systems available for the production of an image carrier include:

a) automatic surface preparation systems b) manual surface preparation systems

2. state that the range of image carrier systems available for digital pre-press include:

a) lithographic plate making b) gravure cylinder preparation c) screen process stencil d) digital file output

3. list the factors to be considered when selecting an appropriate image carrier, including:

a) shelf life of the image carrier b) production time to produce the image carrier c) the degree of operator skill availability to produce the image carrier d) cost of production e) image resolution requirements

4. identify that the factors impacting upon the cost of producing an image carrier include

the: a) number of original image masters (plates/cylinders/screen) required b) cost of image carrier substrate and any surface preparation c) cost of imaging and processing the image carrier

5. state that the image resolution considerations include the:

a) screen ruling to be used and thinnest line to be reproduced b) capability of the image carrier itself

6. describe the methods and instruments commonly used to verify that finished image

carriers are fit for purpose, including: a) visual inspection b) measurement.

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Outcome 5: Describe the principles for the production of digital proofs Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. explain the purpose and use of colour profiles in relation to both hardware and software

when producing colour digital proofs 2. describe the instruments and aids available for calibrating digital proofing devices,

including: a) colour measurment devices b) colour reference guides

3. explain the principles of colour management software when producing digital proofs,

including: a) printer driver colour handling b) operating system colour handling c) printer hardware colour handling

4. describe the limitations of simulated CMYK and RGB on-screen proofing 5. explain the principles of RIP technologies and their relevance to digital proofing 6. explain the term ‘RIP once, output many’ and its relevance to digital proofing.

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Outcome 6: Identify the procedures for pre-flighting and ripping files in digital pre-press Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to: 1. state that the elements to be defined for production of a digital pre-press document

include: a) final size reproduction b) font list c) page listing d) filenames and location of images e) number of colour separations f) software and version number used to create the native file g) platform and operating system used to create the native file h) any special instructions from the customer

2. state that the purpose of flight checking files before imaging includes:

a) identifying material intended for printing b) identifying any components or settings that may prevent the document from correctly

imaging c) identifying any components or settings that may prevent the job from being printed

and finished correctly 3. list the elements to be checked in digital pre-press files, including:

a) checking that all pages of the job are available b) checking that all fonts for printing are embedded or available in the correct format c) checking that all page layouts match any supplied proof d) checking that all the image files are linked or embedded e) checking that all image files are at a suitable resolution for outputting f) checking that all image files are in a suitable colour mode and format for outputting g) checking that the document settings are appropriate for the final device h) checking that all the colours are defined and named correctly i) checking that all the bleeds and trap specifications are correct j) checking that the total ink content used in any part of the document does not exceed

the total recommended for the substrate and printing processes

4. identify the meaning of the terms ‘Postscript’ ‘PDF’ and ‘RIP’ as being: a) Postscript - a page description language invented by Adobe which, when translated

through a RIP, forms the desired image on an output device b) PDF - Portable Document Format - a file format designed to allow documents to be

opened on any computer and retain their original appearance c) RIP - Raster Image Processor – (Raster = bitmap) the hardware and software

configuration in an output device driven by a page description language to generate a bitmap made up of dots or pixels to describe the page

5. state that postscript language has developed over time, that there are different levels

e.g. PS Level 3, and that the features available and capability of a RIP to process postscript files depends on its postscript level compatibility

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6. state that postscript files can be distilled into PDF format and that this process will: a) give the opportunity to reduce the resolution of images and line art in the original

document to a specified size b) significantly reduce the overall size of the file c) generally ensure that any subsequent use of the PDF (e.g. printing to a PS Level 3

RIP) is reliable d) provide a file which may be small enough to send as an e-mail attachment for

proofing by the customer 7. describe the elements to be checked after ripping a file, including:

a) page orientation b) presence and position of printers marks c) colour separation into correct number of colours d) colour separation of any composite images separated at the RIP e) right/wrong-reading f) positive/negative g) correct fonts h) resolution of images i) colour overprinting/knockout and trapping j) banding in tints or images.

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Unit 305 Desktop publishing (DTP)

Rationale This unit is concerned with developing a clear understanding of processes and procedures for designing and producing DTP documents, including the creation and use of type, photographs and other images, digital image manipulation, document setup, layout and use of colour, proofing and preparing job specifications for print. Outcomes There are seven outcomes to this unit. The candidate will be able to 1. explain the principles involved in planning and designing DTP documents to meet

customer requirements 2. describe the operation of hardware and software systems typically used in DTP 3. describe digital fonts, their attributes and application in DTP 4. explain the systems and processes for the creation, editing and use of digital images in

DTP documents 5. explain the principle issues involved in defining, viewing and outputting colour in DTP

documents 6. identify the principles of setting up and laying out documents in DTP 7. describe the use of proofs during the design and production of DTP documents, and the

pre-flighting and handover of approved documents for print or publishing. Connection with other awards This unit contributes towards the knowledge and understanding required for units 002, 305 IT, 312 IT, 33D, 340, 705, 706 and 707 of the Level 3 NVQ in Printing. Assessments This unit will be assessed by means of a short written answer test covering the seven outcomes.

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Outcome 1: Explain the principles involved in planning and designing DTP documents to meet customer requirements Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. state that the purpose of a briefing session between customer/client and designer

includes identifying: a) the purpose of the document - to inform, invite, entertain or to obtain information b) the target audience c) the text, and images that will be contained in the document d) the budget for the job e) the time scale available to complete the job

2. identify that the stages involved in producing a design solution include:

a) the client brief - discussion, questioning, obtaining clear instructions and requests b) researching a brief c) determining the origination of copy (text and pictures) d) developing ideas or a concept e) preparing visual draft layouts f) preparing customers visual presentation g) preparing a production specification and cost estimate h) liaising with appropriate print production

3. state that the principles of design that can be used when creating or assessing a design

solution include the: a) balance - the positioning and relationship of one mass to another b) unity - the completeness and continuity of a design c) harmony - the restful relationship with each element in a design d) rhythm - the regular accentuation of an element in a design e) colour - the relationship of the type of colour to emotions or feeling f) emphasis - the emphasis of an important element in a design g) movement - the force which causes the eye to move across a design to survey the

whole area h) proportion - the relationship of width and height of paper/screen, type and

illustrations i) scale - the third dimension of proportion, the strength of detail, the density of the

elements and the effect of colour 4. list the design decisions which need to be defined when creating or preparing a design

solution, include: a) geometric centre – the precise centre of the area b) optical centre - the horizontal axis, proportionally sixty per cent up from the foot of

the page providing a pleasing division of space c) margins - the outside, non printing areas of a page defined to suit style and

production requirement for folding, or binding d) symmetric style - balancing design elements on the central axis of a page e) asymmetric style - a design style in which the alignment of elements does not rely

on the central axis for balance f) portrait - a page in which the height of the page is greater than the length g) landscape - a page in which the length of the page is greater than the height

5. state that a typographic grid is a measuring and placement guide that divides an area

into vertical and horizontal squares which can be used to provide proportion placement and size aids for the positioning of elements in a page layout

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6. state the range of colours available in the pigmentary colour wheel are: a) primary - red, yellow blue - obtained from natural pigments b) secondary - orange, violet, green - obtained by the mixing of two primary colours c) tertiary - red/orange, yellow/orange, red/violet, blue/violet, blue/violet, blue/green,

yellow/green - obtained by mixing two secondary colours 7. state that colour harmonies are defined by their relationship in the colour wheel and

include: a) split complimentary colours b) analogous colours c) monochromatic colours d) tints of a colour e) shades of a colour

8. identify the three dimensions of colour and how they are defined as:

a) hue - the basic colour, e.g. red, yellow, blue b) value - the lightness or darkness of a colour c) intensity - the saturation of purity of a colour, whether it seems bright (very intense)

or dull (almost grey)

9. describe the objective of providing a design solution as achieving a customer brief that establishes a compromise between: a) the aesthetics - is the style of the job appropriate for the intended audience b) the function - does the design solution achieve the purpose for which it is intended c) the costs - does the design solution work within financial constraints

10. identify the difference between house style and corporate identity as being:

a) house style - the consistent use of layout, typeface and style b) corporate identity - the consistent use of colour, style and visual images

11. state that the elements that can be defined in a house style include:

a) hyphenation b) preferred spellings c) use of italic d) use of capitalisation e) abbreviations f) reference marks

12. identify the activities that should be undertaken before commencing DTP production as

being: a) ensuring a reference number or customer designation is available for the job b) ensuring the time available for production is known c) ensuring all the original data file text and pictures are available d) ensuring that hard copy proofs of all work are available e) ensuring all the layout design instructions are available

13. state that the reasons for importing elements into a DTP publication include:

a) a customer requiring editorial control of text b) the lower cost of original keystroke capture c) specialist skills in preparing pictures/images.

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Outcome 2: Describe the operation of hardware and software systems typically used in DTP Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. describe the range of hardware used in DTP as including:

a) computer platform – e.g. PC, MAC b) display (screen or monitor) c) graphic pen tablets d) low resolution printers (e.g. desktop inkjet or laser, black and white or colour) e) high resolution printers (e.g. proofing printers, digital copiers) f) imagesetters/film recorders g) scanners: flatbed/drum h) removable storage media i) modem (internal/external), Analogue/ISDN/ADSL service, router, firewall j) hardware RIPs k) network hub or switch l) calibration measuring devices, e.g. transmission/reflection densitometers or dot

meters 2. describe the range of computer software used in DTP as including:

a) word processing b) graphic image/illustration/drawing - bitmapped and vector systems c) page make up (DTP) d) scanning e) colour management f) PDF creation g) software RIP h) pre-flighting i) e-mail/Internet/ISDN transfer j) operating systems software, including servers k) archiving and digital asset management l) management information system m) Web page make-up

3. explain that problems of compatibility between software and hardware elements in DTP

and digital pre-press include: a) incompatibility of computer operating systems/platforms (Mac/Windows/Unix) b) different software versions used by customer and pre-press c) incompatibility of some fonts and image file types between platforms a) state that there are software products available which will solve many of the issues

of compatibility such as: a) allowing different platforms to communicate across networks b) converting fonts and images for use on different platforms c) creating portable documents (PDFs) which can be opened on any platform

4. state that the primary function of colour management software is to enable consistent

interpretation and reproduction of colour on any hardware device by: a) determining the standard and meaning of colour objects in an original document. b) translating the colour values of each object to values that give the same appearance

when displayed or printed on different devices c) maintaining files containing the colour characteristics or profiles of different devices

and using the information contained in a device profile when printing or displaying to that device

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5. state that the elements of a DTP system that need colour management include: a) computer display b) scanner and separations software c) printers and their RIPs or printer drivers d) page make-up and graphics software

6. state that hardware calibration is not the same as colour management, that some DTP

hardware will need to be calibrated from time to time and that hardware calibration should be carried out before any colour management software or profiling is configured

7. state that colour is usually displayed on a screen using Red, Green and Blue (RGB) colour but is often printed using the Cyan, Magenta, Yellow and Black-Key (CMYK) colour mode and that the conversion between these two modes is a critically important function of any colour management software

8. explain why, irrespective of the display, the high resolution colour images in digital documents may exist in either RGB or CMYK mode and may be composite or separated

9. explain that the colour separation of original images and conversion to CMYK mode can take place either: a) when the original is scanned b) during or after any retouching using graphics software c) at the output stage from page make-up software d) when the document or file is sent to a colour printer e) when the file is ripped for printing

10. explain that it is critically important for reliable and predictable colour reproduction that

the DTP operator knows if any colour separation or colour mode conversion is taking place within the workflow, and that the colour management profiles and software colour settings are properly configured at that point.

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Outcome 3: Describe digital fonts, their attributes and application in DTP Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. state that typography is the art and arrangement of type 2. state that the common types of application software used for creating or generating

textual elements for DTP include: a) word processor - provides letter characters to suit many typographical purposes b) vector graphic- object orientated graphics programs provide an accurate type image

suitable for limited amounts of text copy c) bitmapped graphic- lettering from paint type graphics programs do not provide

smooth enough line images suitable for typesetting d) DTP programs - for electronic page make-up programs, allowing direct input of text

material e) optical character recognition – for converting a scanned image of printed text into a

digital text file 3. state that type designs can be broken down into a series of associated families covering

a range of serif and non-serif styles 4. state that the basic letter shape families used in typography include:

a) Gothic or black letter b) Roman old style- type faces with serifs, and oblique angle of stress from thick to thin

lines in their character shapes c) Latin Modern - serif faces with vertical angle of stress and slight variation in

thickness of character lines d) Egyptian - types that have large square shaped serifs with only slight variation in the

thickness of the character line shapes e) Grotesque/sans serif - types that are without shapes at the end of line characters f) Manuscript - type faces that imitate styles of handwriting g) adorned/pictorial - types that are designed with ornamentation

5. state that the variable characteristics which can be applied to a chosen typeface are:

a) style - the name of a selected typeface b) weight - a variation in the strength of the line used in forming the character shapes

(light, normal, bold, extra bold) c) width – an expanded or condensed variation of the shape of the original style d) size – usually expressed in points

6. state that the typographical attributes to be considered when preparing text for a design

brief include: a) font or type style b) font size c) interline spacing/leading d) font colour e) bold or italic styles f) upper or lower case g) inter word spacing h) character spacing/kerning i) positioning of any of superscripts and subscripts j) positioning of any underlining relative to the type k) spacing for paragraph indents l) spacing for above or below headings

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7. state that the methods of horizontal alignment for text include: a) left b) right c) centred d) justified – with last line either set left, right or centred

8. state that automatic vertical line justification may alter the inter-line or inter-paragraph

spacing of type 9. state that a group of text attributes can be defined as a named paragraph style or tag to

enable consistency in a document and increased speed of layout, and that commonly used names include: a) main heading b) minor heading c) subheading d) body text e) normal f) caption g) bullet h) header or footer

10. state that the available options for paragraph styles or tags include:

a) typeface, font style, size, colour and attribute (e.g. underline) b) character, word and line spacing, including kerning c) paragraph alignment, indentation and spacing d) widow and orphan control, breaks and keep with commands e) hyphenation and justification f) bullets, effects and numbering g) tabulation (tabs) – left, right, centre, decimal h) case -– upper, lower, title

11. state that most fonts, including many of the best known ones, are protected by copyright

and therefore: a) may not be installed on a computer unless a license has been purchased by the

user, allowing the font to be installed b) may not be copied or adapted without the owner’s permission c) may not be sent to another individual or company for further use (e.g. printing)

unless it is embedded within a document in such a way that use as a free-standing font is impossible

12. state that there are several digital formats for fonts, the most common of which are

Truetype (invented by Apple and adopted by Microsoft) and Postscript Type 1 (invented by Adobe)

13. state that Postscript Type 1 fonts exist in two versions – screen fonts and outline

(printer) fonts, and that it is not possible to print to a high resolution output device without the outline font, even though the font may appear on a screen or in a low resolution print because the screen font is present

14. state that truetype fonts can be used both for bitmapped screen display and also for

vector-based output to high resolution devices 15. state that text can be obtained from many sources for use in DTP documents including:

a) ‘cut or copy and paste’ from other documents b) import text files created in other programmes c) scan in using optical character recognition software to convert printed type into

digital format

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16. state that file formats for text include: a) .txt – which include little or no formatting b) .rtf – which include various formatting, including typeface, font style, size etc c) .doc – which may include text formatting and document style settings d) many other formats generated by specific programmes and including code which

may or may not be capable of being imported and interpreted by any given DTP programme

17. state that importing text files into DTP documents requires issues of compatibility to be

considered carefully since hidden codes in the text file may conflict with those used by the DTP programme, and cross-platform importation can result in individual characters being mis-translated between operating systems

18. state that the ‘qwerty’ keyboard does not have enough keys for every character in a font

set and that some characters or symbols have to be entered numerically or through a combination of keystrokes.

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Outcome 4: Explain the systems and processes for the creation, editing and use of digital images in DTP documents Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. state that it is important to gather all graphic images together at the beginning of the

design process 2. state that the types of image available to be considered for different design use include:

a) illustrations b) photographs c) charts and diagrams d) decorative borders or ornaments

3. state that the methods of obtaining or creating digital image files include:

a) copyright free clip-art images b) licensed use of specialist copyright images c) scanning of copyright free artwork publications d) creating bitmapped images e) creating vectored draw-type line images f) digital cameras g) photo CD h) digital video camera i) scanning photographs or original line artwork

4. state that the techniques for improving the impact or interest of a graphic include:

a) cropping the graphic to show a part or small section b) rotating the graphic to any angle c) changing the colours of the graphic or changing the colours to black or another

single colour d) wrapping text around the contours of the graphic

5. state that the purposes of image manipulation includes:

a) enhancing images to make them clearer, or more easily reproduced b) modifying images to create artificial visual effects

6. state that the use of types of tools and palettes available for image manipulation include:

a) paint tools to apply or amend material to an image - fill, eraser, pencil, brush, spray, line, curve, rectangle, ellipse

b) selection tools to adjust an image using filters to apply special effects and change the appearance of an image - ripple, contours, negative, posterize

c) image editing tools to make visual adjustment to an image for reproduction 7. state that the manipulation of digital images includes:

a) selecting and amending objects in a graphic image to change the size, shape, border, fill, colour, background

b) flipping, rotating, scaling and cropping the image c) adding text to the image d) applying masks and layers

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8. state that the digital graphic file formats most commonly used for print and graphic communications are: a) TIFF (Tag Image Format File) b) JPEG (Joint Photographic Expert Group) – a compressed file format c) EPS (Encapsulation PostScript) – usually used for line-art images d) BMP (bitmap) e) GIF (graphics interchange format) – usually only used for screen display

9. state that the range of options for saving files in TIF format include:

a) non compressed - saving a raster image file with no compression b) LZW compressed (Lempel-Ziv and Welch) - no data is lost, used only for grey scale

and RGB images 10. state that JPEG is a common method of compressing bitmap images to produce a

smaller file, but involves a trade off between the degree of file compression and the image quality

11. state that the terms used in digital image reproduction include:

a) screening - the process by which the tonal variations of a continuous tone image are simulated by a pattern of dots (which may be regular or irregular, square, round, eliptical or other shape) in an image prepared for print reproduction

b) screen angle - the angle at which the screen ruling lines in conventional screening patterns, the purpose of which is to prevent moiré patterns

c) screen ruling - the number of lines in a given distance in conventional screening patterns- lines per inch (lpi) or lines per centimetre (lpc)

d) hardware resolution – a measure of the ability of a hardware device e.g. a scanner, monitor or printer, to obtain, display or print digital information, usually expressed as ‘ppi’ or pixels per inch

e) image resolution – the amount of information contained in the image, usually expressed as dots per inch (dpi)

f) stochastic or FM screening – a screening pattern made up of very fine irregular shapes creating moiré free images

g) bitmap – a digital image made up of dots or pixels h) vector – a digital image made up of lines or curves

12. state that:

a) as a rule of thumb, an image resolution needs to be twice the screen ruling that will be used to print the image (e.g. 150# screen requires 300dpi image resolution)

b) for a bitmap image, the total amount of information contained in the file will determine the mazimum size that can be printed at any given image resolution

c) for a bitmap image, increasing the size of output will reduce the image resolution and vice versa

d) for a bitmap image, enlarging the image beyond its maximum for the required image resolution will result in a poor quality image, usually described as pixelated

e) for a vector image, the image is defined mathematically as lines or curves and the image can be enlarged without reducing quality

13. state that prior to commencing any scanning which requires faithful colour reproduction,

the scanner must be calibrated and an accurate profile for the device correctly configured in the scanning software

14. state that scanners may scan images in RGB format and then convert the information to CMYK prior to displaying the image on screen, or may leave the scan in RGB for conversion at a later stage of processing

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15. state that if a colour reproduction is intended to be viewed on a monitor and judgements made about the colour values or retouching work undertaken based on the visual display, the monitor must be colour calibrated

16. explain that it is usually possible to obtain the CMYK values for any particular colour in an image displayed on a monitor and that these values can be used to see how the colour will print by reference to a printed CMYK colour swatch or chart

17. state that retouching of colour images after scanning is normally undertaken in the LAB colour mode and then converted to RGB or CMYK mode

18. state that the factors to be considered when correcting an image include:

a) tonal value range – does the image have a compressed range of grey or colour values and does the limited number of greys or colours produce a false appearance

b) image sharpening – does the image appear out of focus c) colours cast – does the image contain a distinct overall tint - a cast may be caused

by using an incorrect film when originally produced d) under exposed or over exposed – does the whole image or portions of it look too

dark or too light (an original with good exposure may look under exposed or over exposed after scanning)

e) improper saturation – does the image looks washed-out and dull due to low colour saturation or vivid and unnatural as a result of too much saturation

f) hue shift – does the entire colour spectrum of the image need to be shifted 19. identify the meaning of the terms ‘brightness’ and ‘contrast’, in relation to an image, as

being: a) brightness - refers to the overall lightness of an image of selection b) contrast - the difference between the lightest and darkest portion of an image

20. explain the following terms and their relevance to images and/or fills in DTP documents

intended for print: a) Total Ink Content b) Grey Component Replacement (GCR) c) Colour Gamut d) Dot Gain.

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Outcome 5: Explain the principle issues involved in defining, viewing and outputting colour in DTP documents Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. state that colour DTP documents, which are intended for print, should be set up in the

correct colour mode for the process which will be used for printing 2. identify the main choices of colour model used in print reproduction as being:

a) CMYK - Cyan, Magenta, Yellow and Black (Key) b) RGB - Red, Green and Blue c) a spot colour matching standard system – e.g. Pantone, Focal Tone d) Hexachrome – CMYK plus green and orange

3. state that most DTP software programmes give the user the option to convert all colours

in a document to CMYK at the output stage, but that this may result in some unexpected colour changes in the appearance of the document

4. state that some imported files may contain colours which are not the same as those

defined in the DTP document or which have a slightly different name from the same colour used in the DTP document, and that this will cause problems when trying to output colour separations

5. explain why the appearance of a colour displayed on a screen may be very different

from the colour that will print 6. explain what steps can be taken to reduce the risk of unexpected differences between

screen colour and printed colour 7. state that importing images into a DTP document in an inappropriate file format may

lead to difficulties in printing those images in colour 8. state that importing images in RGB format into a DTP document may lead to difficulties

in producing CMYK separations 9. state that black text should not be defined as RGB black in multi-colour DTP documents

because it may separate into CMYK black, which is difficult to print 10. state that the term ‘registration’ refers to the positioning of different printing plates to

produce one image with any variations causing problems, resulting in white gaps between a letter and coloured background or blurred overlapping between distinct colour areas

11. identify the meaning of the terms ‘trapping’, ‘knockout’ and ‘overprint’ as being:

a) trapping - procedure in which colours are deliberately overlapped in order to compensate for slight mis-registration on the printing press

b) knockout - process of removing obscured portions of an underlying image during printing in order not to produce unwanted colours

c) overprint – the opposite of knockout – the colour overprints what is underneath - often black text that is on another colour is set to overprint in order to avoid having small white edges around the text

12. explain why a backgound colour set as white is not necessarily the same as a

background set as nothing.

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Outcome 6: Identify the principles of setting up and laying out documents in DTP Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. state that the basic information required for setting up a DTP document includes:

a) portrait or landscape orientation b) page size c) single or double sided pages d) output destination e) number of colours permissable f) document purpose

2. explain that the reason for setting up a page template is to provide consistency and

balance in the document 3. state that master pages for multi-page documents can be set for equal or unequal left

and right hand margins, which may be mirrored on facing or the same pages 4. state that by convention, documents are usually numbered with odd numbers on the right

hand of a pair of facing pages 5. explain that the number of columns selected for a document will be influenced by:

a) the page width of the document – running text in a single line across a page is very difficult for the eye to follow, especially if the text is small

b) the type size – narrow columns used with large type sizes will cause excessive hyphenation or big gaps between words in justified text

c) any house style for the publication d) the use of the document – e.g. a poster or invitation may not look right in columns

6. explain that text and images can be set into frames or boxes or onto the base page, and

that text can be linked between frames or from page to page, so that it is continuous and will reflow if additions or deletions are made at any point in the document

7. explain that, to avoid text reflowing between frames/boxes or pages, text can be set into

frames/boxes which are not linked 8. state that the way in which text interacts with other frames/boxes on a page is

determined by the attributes given to the other frames/boxes, and that these will include whether the text flows through, above, below or around the frame/box and whether any external margin is set around the frames/boxes

9. explain that frames/boxes are usually in front or behind each other on a page, and why

this can affect what actually prints in the finished document 10. explain that frames/boxes can be set to have an opaque background or a transparent

background, which will determine whether the content behind them can be seen in the finished document

11. state that frames/boxes may be given borders or rules which will print in the finished

document 12. state that it is important to ensure that any pictures in a frame/box with a border are

correctly sized to avoid a gap between the image and the frame edge

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13. state that if any image is intended to go right to the page edge, the image in the DTP document must be set up to extend beyond the page boundary, usually by approximately 3mm, and this feature is known as the bleed

14. state that DTP applications usually give users the choice to link or embed graphic

images in the document and that: a) linking images leaves the high resolution image file outside the publication and uses

a low resolution header in the image file for display purposes in the document b) linking images results in a small DTP native file, because the image files are not

included in it c) linked images have to be supplied separately as well as the DTP document if it is

sent for printing elsewhere 15. state that some DTP software programmes are enabled to allow databases and tables

to be imported and formatted 16. state that some DTP software programmes have the facility to automatically generate

indices and tables of contents 17. explain that in many DTP software programmes, right clicking the mouse button will

bring up a context-sensitive menu 18. state that column guides and page grids can be set up to aid layout and that

frames/boxes can be set to snap to the guides or grid 19. state that most DTP software allows the user some control to customise the programme,

which can range from grid setting to function keys and combination keystroke assignment

20. state that help on any particular issue can be obtained from the user manual for the

software, from the help menu on the screen or from the Internet 21. state that several DTP software programmes have features which allow the finished

document to be used either for print or for publication on the Internet by using Standard Generalised Markup Language (SGML).

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Outcome 7: Describe the use of proofs during the design and production of DTP documents, and the pre-flighting and handover of approved documents for print or publishing Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. state that the sequence of proof verification used to identify appropriate authorisation

includes: a) rough visual - an outline sketch of a layout presented to a customer showing

proposed design, also called a scamp b) presentation visual - material prepared as a sample of the proposed final

appearance of a printed work c) page proof - a proof of a completed page of a document that has been assembled

and composed in a DTP system d) press proof - the last proof to be read before giving authorisation for printing

2. state that quality control elements may be included in the non printing areas of pre-press

page proofs as an aid to ensuring accurate colour reproduction, and include: a) grey scale b) star target c) process control strips d) colour bars

3. state that the reasons for using a standard set of authors/publishers proof-reading

symbols include: a) maintaining consistency of instructions b) reducing the likelihood of misunderstanding and errors c) enabling a fast method of marking up a script for correction

4. state that proof-reading during and at the end of the DTP stage of production should include checking for: a) images and captions being correctly positioned and matched b) correct spelling of words and names c) accuracy of any numbers such as telephone or fax numbers d) consistent typography e) text flow – ensuring lines have not been lost or reflowed into the wrong columns or

pages f) colours appearing as expected g) images having sufficient resolution

5. state that the customer should always be made aware of the limitations of any proof

supplied, especially with regards to colour accuracy 6. state that the advantages of using low resolution pdf files as proofs incude that they:

a) are usually small enough to attach to e-mails for immediate transmission b) can have background watermarks added, such as the word proof c) can be configured to prevent unauthorised printing and changing d) can be derived from the same postscript file, which can be used for printing therefore

guaranteeing that the pdf proof and printed document will have the same structure and appearance (except colour)

e) can be opened and viewed on any computer that has Acrobat Reader installed 7. state that the purpose of using a pre-flight check verification system is to ensure DTP

documents conform to a set of pre-defined requirements for digital pre-press and print production

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8. describe the methods of pre-flight checking a document as including: a) using electronic pre-flight software to identify and report on all the elements in a

publication b) examining each page of a document and checking all elements (lines, boxes,

images, objects, fonts, fills etc) against pre-defined requirements c) printing a comprehensive report and analysis using the DTP software programme

features 9. state that the DTP document should meet the specification required by the pre-press

area that will output the job to image carrier, and that different pre-press areas and processes may have different requirements

10. state that many pre-press companies will accept high resolution composite pdf files for

separation and output, providing the pdf files have been configured to their specification 11. state that the advantages of supplying a high resolution composite pdf to pre-press are

that: a) the document layout is unlikely to change prior to printing b) all the fonts used in the document can be embedded, preventing missing fonts from

delaying the job at the output stage and complying with the licensing restrictions on the use and distribution of fonts

c) all the images used in the document can be downsampled to a pre-determined size, preventing the supply of vastly oversized image files that may slow down the processing of the job or even prevent it printing at all

d) all the images will be contained in the pdf file, avoiding missing images at the output stage

12. explain why it is always advisable to supply a hard copy proof along with any digital files

to pre-press 13. explain why it is always advisable to obtain an approval signature from the customer on

a hard copy proof or a digital signature attached to a digital proof file before handing the job over to further stages of production.

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Unit 306 Machine printing (Sheet Fed Lithography)

Rationale This unit is concerned with developing a clear understanding of the procedures to control machine printing processes, including the products appropriate to each printing process, control systems for inking, coatings and drying systems, properties and structures of materials, use of microprocessors, control of and rectification of common faults, control of quality and completion of quality assurance documentation. Outcomes There are eight outcomes to this unit. The candidate will be able to 1. identify the printed products associated with the various printing processes and reasons

for selecting one over another 2. describe the types and characteristics of paper and board 3. identify the procedures for controlling the inking, coatings drying systems commonly used

in machine printing 4. describe the properties, structures and manufacture of the materials commonly used in

machine printing 5. identify the principal types of proof used and their role in the printing process 6. identify and explain the use of microprocessors and computers commonly found in

machine printing 7. describe the make-ready and operating procedures for sheet fed lithography 8. identify the procedures for controlling quality in machine printing including sampling and

inspection regimes. Connection with other awards This unit contributes towards the knowledge and understanding required for units 228, 231 and 234 of the Level 3 NVQ in Printing. Assessment This unit will be assessed by means of a short written answer test covering the eight outcomes.

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Outcome 1: Identify the printed products associated with the various printing processes and reasons for selecting one over another Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. identify that the products appropriate to the printing processes used in the printing and

graphic communications industry include: a) digital - publications, short run work, proofs, patterns and dummies b) flexography - labels, flexible packaging and corrugated board c) letterpress - publications, posters, stationery, greetings cards d) lithography - (heat set, cold set, sheet) publications, stationery, greetings cards,

carton and box, posters, metal decoration and books e) pad - pre-formed articles, industrial components, ceramics, promotional material

(pens, cigarette lighters etc) f) photogravure - publications, carton and box, and packaging g) screen process - point of sale material, posters, packaging, industrial, ceramic,

fabric, metal decoration, and pre-formed articles 2. identify the characteristics of the seven printing processes as being:

a) digital - inkjet, photocopying, dye sublimation and laser, often short run, some water based inks that bleed/smudge, ink lacks density in some products, good colour

b) flexography - ink squash on edge of image, print on a variety of substrates, filmic, paper, metallic foils and board

c) letterpress - ink squash on image edge, indentation of image on reverse side of substrate, used for ancillary operations, numbering, foil blocking etc

d) lithography - good colour, even ink distribution across image, inks are generally transparent, mainly on paper and board, but to a wide range of special substrates

e) pad - a type of printing used on irregularly shaped substrates, in which the image is transferred from a metal or plastic intaglio plate to an intermediate silicone rubber pad and, ultimately, to the substrate

f) photogravure - cells visible in fine line and text, good colour, used for long run products

g) screen process - thick ink film, inks are generally opaque, high-density colour, often resistant to fade, wide variety of substrates and articles, short run products, due to slow speed of production

3. describe the types and varieties of image carriers used in the various printing

processes, including: a) flexography, photopolymer (or rubber) b) letterpress, cast metal, engraved metal, etched metal, photo polymer, duplicate

plates, plastic moulded, flat, rotary, roller c) gravure, (invert and semi-invert) conventional, double positive, single positive,

variable area engraving, cell shape, cell and wall ratio/size, cell angles d) lithography, analogue, digital, photo emulsions, ablation, direct, negative and positive

working plates, multiple exposure, step and repeat, screen angles e) screen processes, stencils types, direct coating, transfer systems, capillary, plotter

cutters, screen angles, mesh types, mesh count, mesh tension 4. identify that types of printing presses used for the production of printed materials are:

a) article b) sheet fed c) web fed

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5. identify the various sheet and web fed press design types that can be used for

production as being: a) ‘H’ or ‘Y’ units b) blanket to blanket perfector c) common blanket d) common impression, ‘satellite and tandem’ e) half unit f) intermittent web g) perfecting h) stack or arch i) unit type press j) variable.

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Outcome 2: Describe the types and characteristics of paper and board Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to Paper and board 1. explain the meaning of the following attributes of paper and board and identify the tests

that can be made to check these characteristics: a) brightness/whiteness- using a spectrophotometer to measure reflectance of light b) opacity – measuring light passing through paper c) tensile strength – measure of the load which has to be applied to the ends of a strip

of paper for it to break d) wet strength - the measurement of the moisture held before breaking e) dimensional stability- measuring the relative humidity of a paper f) sizing – use of the Cobb Test g) picking resistence – use of the IGT Printability Tester h) weight – measuring weight of a standard size of paper i) caliper/thickness- measuring with a micrometer with the result expressed in microns j) gloss – this depends on the amount of specular reflection from its surface and can

be measured by comparing this amount of light with that reflected from a standard glossy surface

2. describe the following features and how they are incorporated into a paper:

a) watermarks – use of a dandy roller b) textured – use of embossed rollers on a paper making machine

3. describe the main features and uses of the following papers:

a) bulky mechanical b) part mechanical c) recycled d) woodfree e) newsprint f) machine-finished (MF) g) matt-coated h) gloss-coated i) machine-glazed (MG) j) chromo paper k) cast-coated l) specialist papers:

i) kraft (bleached or unbleached) ii) handmade paper iii) carbonless paper iv) heat sealable paper v) pressure sealable paper vi) self-adhesive paper vii) gummed paper

4. identify the available board types and their typical uses, including:

a) unlined chipboard b) lined chipboard c) straw board d) pulp board e) coated board f) art board g) corrugated board

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5. identify the factors concerned with the handling and storage of paper, including:

a) humidity b) temperature

Print faults associated with paper 6. describe the following printing defects associated with paper:

a) hickies b) debris or lint piling c) surface picking d) chalking e) cheesey drying f) mottle g) set-off h) ink-rub or matt-rub i) show-through j) blade scratches k) distortion l) creasing m) tail end hook n) reel defects:

i) web breakage ii) burst reel iii) telescoped reel iv) reel out of round v) web wrinkles vi) chain marks

Metallic foils 7. describe the characteristics and features of metallic foils:

a) physical properties b) printing and handling characteristics

Filmic materials 8. describe the characteristics and features of filmic materials:

a) polypropylene films b) polyester films c) polyethylene films d) nylon films e) physical properties f) printing and handling characteristics.

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Outcome 3: Identify the procedures for controlling the inking, coatings drying systems commonly used in machine printing

Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. identify that the types of roller covering materials used for ink, damping and impression

rollers as being: a) synthetic rubber, - plastics, nylon and polymers b) metals - brass, copper, chrome

2. define the structure and manufacture of printing and impression rollers (to include static assist) as being: a) bearings b) coating bonded to core (vulcanised, electrolysis) c) journals d) multi component impression rollers e) steel core

3. identify the controls of inking and coating systems for the various printing processes as:

a) litho/letterpress - ink feed/flow rate, tack, dwell time, roller pressure condition type and settings, oscillation, computer controls and remote operation, viscosity, temperature, additives, condition of storage tanks, filters and pumps

b) gravure - ink viscosity, roller pressure condition and type, doctor blade pressure and angle, anilox roller selection, ink curtain or spray rate, computer controls and remote operation, solvent selection and mix, condition of storage tanks, filters and pumps

c) flexography - ink viscosity, roller pressure condition and type, doctor blade pressure and angle, anilox roller selection, ink curtain or spray rate, computer controls and remote operation, solvent selection and mix, condition of storage tanks, filters and pumps, types of metering systems

d) screen processes - ink texture/ viscosity, flow coater and squeegee, angle, pressure, material type, and design, snap value/gap, temperature, additives

e) others - temperature, pressure, voltage, age, condition, levels, colour measurement and density, chill roller/unit temperature, condition of pumps filters and compressors, and drying considerations such as temperature, exhaust fumes, lamp temperature and type

4. define other, as in point ‘e’ above, inking and coating systems as:

a) dye sublimation b) foil application c) inkjet/droplet d) thermal e) toner powder

5. identify ‘hydraulics’ as the term used to describe the application of fluids under pressure,

which is frequently used in the control of inking systems 6. identify ‘pneumatics’ as the term used to describe the application of gas under pressure,

(usually compressed air), which is frequently used in the control of inking systems

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7. explain the following principles of drying for various inking systems: a) absorption b) evaporation c) quick setting inks d) precipitation e) oxidation f) polymerisation – heat assisted g) polymerisation - UV assisted h) polymerisation – electron beam assisted i) temperature controlled waterless systems j) use of chilling units

8. identify the health and safety considerations associated with drying equipment as being: a) safety data sheets b) emissions to the atmosphere - CO2, ozone etc c) guarding of dangers d) heat – burns, fires e) material safe storage and handling f) solvent – flash point, toxicity, dermatitis, narcotic effects g) UV – ozone, eye damage

9. state that the term ‘viscosity’ is used to describe the resistance of a liquid to flow - the

higher the viscosity the slower the flow 10. state that changes in viscosity adjustments made by adding vehicle/solvent to the ink

body can affect the colour value, drying rate, press speed 11. state that the viscosity of the ink has a direct influence on printability, trapping, gloss,

adhesion, penetration, drying speed 12. state that viscosity is temperature critical and many liquid ink systems employ a cooling

unit to cool the ink to a temperature of 70/80 degrees Fahrenheit or 21/26 degrees Centigrade.

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Outcome 4: Describe the properties, structures and manufacture of the materials commonly used in machine printing Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. identify that the terms to describe the parts of a solution are:

a) solvent - the dissolver b) solute - the dissolved and that a saturated solution cannot hold any more solute at the same temperature

2. define the following terms in relation to fount solutions:

a) pH of a solution b) conductivity c) buffered solution d) surface tension

3. describe the various ways that water can be treated to aid purification 4. identify various grades of oil and grease used for lubrication purposes as, varying in

viscosity identified by the SAE (Society Automotive Engineers – American) rating 5. identify that viscosity can change with temperature and humidity variations 6. list the colours in the visible light spectrum as being:

a) red b) orange c) yellow d) green e) blue f) indigo g) violet

7. state that the primary colours of light are:

a) red b) green c) blue and together represent the ‘additive theory of colour’

8. state that the secondary colours of light are:

a) cyan b) yellow c) magenta and together represent the ‘subtractive theory of colour’

9. state that the units used to measure light radiation are nanometres and that visible light

is between 400nm (blue) to 700nm (red) 10. state that ultraviolet and infrared are radiations of energy outside either end of the

visible light spectrum 11. state that the primary colours for printing are:


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12. state that the secondary subtractive colours are: a) red b) green c) blue

13. state that other colours can be identified either by name or by suppliers colour book

references 14. identify that the ‘Pantone Colour Matching System’ is the industry standard for

identifying formulas to produce spot colour for printing. This is only a guide for flexography as it does not represent the substrates used within the process

15. state that the term ‘hue’ is used to define one colour from another, ie blue from red etc 16. state that the term ‘tint’ is used to define the effect of white being mixed/introduced with

a hue 17. state that the term ‘shade’ is used to define the effect of black being mixed/introduced

with a hue 18. state that the main types of ink colorants are pigment dyes and lakes 19. state that dyes chemically bind to the substrate, which they colour, while pigments

require a binder to fix them to the substrate 20. state that lakes are produced by chemically dyeing colourless pigments 21. state that most pigments in common use are produced synthetically, and are referred to

as organic pigments, and that the properties for selection for specific applications include: a) ability to be wet by the vehicle b) colour strength c) distribution d) light fastness e) particle size f) stability to chemical attack g) vehicle compatibility

22. state that binders solidify and hold the pigment particles in a dried ink film, and are

usually resins 23. explain the principles of:

a) alternating current b) direct current c) three phase electricity

24. state that the terms associated with electrical energy are: a) current – the flow of electrons under pressure, measured in amperes (amps) b) ohm – unit of resistance to the passage of current c) volt – unit of potential difference or electrical pressure d) watts/kilowatts – unit of electrical power calculated by multiplying the voltage by the

amperage (W = V x A)

25. state that in simple terms static electricity is a charge of one polarity 26. state that a charging unit is often introduced into a press feeder systems to assist in

neutralising the affects of static upon the substrate

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27. state that static electricity can be produced on non-conductive surfaces by friction or pressure, such as when substrates are separated in the feed of a printing press

28. identify that paper, plastics and polymers are subject to static electricity charges 29. identify that acetate, vinyls, polyester and polycarbonates can be used as:

a) cylinder packing b) image carriers c) printing substrates

30. state that the types of cleaning fluids, and solvents, used in the printing and graphic

communications industry may include: a) alcohol or water based b) hydrocarbons c) petro-chemicals d) vegetable based and that the trend is to move towards non-voc (volatile organic chemical) chemistry, biodegradable and renewable resources.

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Outcome 5: Identify the principal types of proof used and their role in the printing process Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. state that the purpose of a proof is to provide the customer, pre-press technician and

printer with a means of having a common understanding of how the printed work should look

2. identify that there are several things to check for on a proof including: a) text layout, spelling and grammar b) image resolution and quality c) page imposition d) correct font usage e) colour accuracy f) colour trapping, overprinting and knockouts

3. state that not all kinds of proofs are capable of being used for checking every issue

4. state that proofs from low resolution desk-top printers (e.g. ink-jet, laser) are suitable for

checking text layout, grammar, spelling and font usage, but are unlikely to be suitable for checking colour accuracy, image quality or colour issues

5. state that proofs from high-resolution digital devices (e.g. proofing printers) can be used to check colour accuracy, trapping, overprinting and knockout, providing they have been calibrated and the correct colour management software is used

6. state that high-resolution proofs made from films (e.g. chromalin) reproduce exactly what is contained on the films and are suitable for checking most aspects of the job

7. state that the customer should always be made aware of the limitations of the proof supplied to or by them

8. state that before processing any job, it is usual practice to obtain a signed proof from the customer so that those working on the job know what they are required to produce

9. identify that there is a wide variety and type of proof available, but few give an

absolutely perfect match with machine prints 10. state that ink density, dot gain, coating and substrate type will all affect the colour of the

printed image 11. state that the properties of the substrate; surface, absorbency and shade, will affect the

colour of the printed image 12. explain the term dry-back as being the loss of gloss of an ink as it drys 13. define the terms:

a) machine proof b) wet proof.

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Outcome 6: Identify and explain the use of microprocessors and computers commonly found in machine printing Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. identify that the use of computers and microprocessors on printing presses include:

a) monitoring and controlling image production b) storage and profiling of information for future reprints c) monitoring and controlling press functions d) providing production control data as part of a management information system e) utilising electronic job data/instructions f) recording quality control information and job run details

2. identify the uses of computers to analyse data of the image produced as including:

a) densitometry standardisation of colour b) determining print values against the standard to be achieved as:

i) dot gain ii) ink trapping iii) dot area/image resolution iv) grey balance

c) production run records and variances from standard d) quantities e) registration f) statistical process control g) substrate deformation h) unwanted marks and blemishes

3. identify that the printing functions that can be controlled by microprocessor and

computers include: a) ancillary operations b) automated web changes/splices c) control of ink duct/ink application systems d) cylinder movements e) delivery systems parameters f) diagnostics of maintenance procedures and service requirements g) direct imaging systems h) drying systems i) feeder setting j) ink and coatings distribution/levels k) machine configuration l) materials location and supply m) pressure settings n) provide facilities for online links to supplier/manufacturer o) web leads p) web movement, and control q) web tension

4. identify that the areas of the company that use Management Information Systems (MIS)

data relating to work in progress include: a) administration b) production control c) production d) sales

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5. identify that the information supplied by computer-controlled systems will include: a) breakdown and non production time incurred b) cost against estimate c) job location and status d) job progress start and finish times/dates e) records of material usage and quantities f) staffing details, rotas and contacts

6. state that some press monitoring and control systems are termed ‘closed loop’ and are self regulating, requiring no input from the operator once established

7. explain the advantages of computer assisted press controls as providing:

a) accurate information b) better quality control c) compatible with ‘just in time’ materials and production requirements d) faster make ready e) greater consistency f) greater customer support g) less down time h) less waste i) links with management information systems j) once only data acquisition k) quicker set up for re-print work l) quicker turn around times m) reduction in manning levels n) reduction in pre-press operations o) repeatability p) shorter production cycles.

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Outcome 7: Describe the make-ready and operating procedures for sheet fed lithography Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. describe the principles of printing by offset lithography 2. explain that it is necessary to identify the job instructions and obtain the job sample or

proof to confirm the job requirements 3. list and describe the pre-make-ready duties, including the allocation of duties to other

members of the crew 4. describe the relationship between plate cylinder, blanket cylinder and impression

cylinder for the following press designs: a) single colour press b) two colour unit press c) multiple colour unit press d) perfecting presses e) convertible presses f) common impression cylinder presses

5. describe the paper transport systems and the considerations to be made when setting up the machine

6. explain the ink and dampening systems, methods of setting roller to roller, and roller to

plate contact, and the factors to be taken into account when setting the machine for production

7. describe the fount chemistry requirements, including the principles of conductivity, pH

and surface tension, and how this is monitored to ensure consistent quality 8. explain the principles and operating requirements for waterless printing 9. identify the adjustments to be made to achieve the correct ink and fount balance,

including the use of any electronic data available to aid setting 10. describe the considerations to be taken into account when preparing plates and fitting

these to the press 11. describe and evaluate the characteristics of blankets and their use on lithographic

presses, including: a) warp and weft b) release opportunities c) resilience d) smash resistance e) durability f) compressible blankets g) hardness of the blanket

12. identify the sequence of events when adjusting for register, fit and achieving colour 13. describe and evaluate the various ink drying systems available to sheet fed lithography

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14. identify and describe the uses of the various types of in-line equipment commonly

associated with sheet fed lithography 15. state the procedures to be followed when removing printed work, including:

a) mark waste to be sorted b) record job details c) forward to next operation.

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Outcome 8: Identify the procedures for controlling quality in machine printing including sampling and inspection regimes Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. state that quality can be defined as meeting the job specification or as meeting the

customer requirements 2. state that the four features of quality control systems are:

a) inspection b) testing c) sampling d) the use of input/output controls

3. state that the term ‘inspection’ is used to describe the scrutiny or monitoring of samples

against the set standard 4. state that the term ‘testing’ is used to identify a method of ensuring products meet a

defined specification 5. state that the term ‘sampling’ is used to identify the selection of material, product or

process for inspection 6. state that sampling plans can be based upon statistical criteria such as:

a) standard deviation b) distribution curves c) on previous records for the job

7. define the terms used in inspection as including:

a) mean - average b) median - middle value c) mode - most common value d) normal distribution - measurements of an inspection are the same or distributed

within a certain variance and mean e) output - materials or product after a process f) process - the task or procedure g) random - no fixed interval or frequency h) range - how far from the smallest value to the largest value i) sentence - result of inspection, accept, reject or rework

8. define the terms used in sampling as including:

a) 100 per cent inspection – every individual item b) batch - a given number of items c) frequency - how often a sample is taken d) colour comparisons can be made visually against the standard or sample or by the

use of specialised equipment 9. define the terms used in input/output control as including:

a) in control - meeting the required specification b) input - materials or product before a process

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10. state that testing can be conducted either visually or with the assistance of specialised

equipment consisting of: a) broad head micrometers b) colorimeters c) colour viewing booths d) densitometers e) drying time tester f) dyne tester g) grain direction test h) magnetic ink oscilloscope i) rub testers j) shore meter k) special lighting conditions l) spectro-photometers m) tack meter n) tensile strength tester o) tension meter p) viscometers q) visual display monitors

11. state that most instruments used for testing quality must be subject to regular and

consistent calibration checks 12. state that the term ‘metamerism’ is used to describe the situation where colours may

appear to change under different lighting conditions 13. state that the term ‘juxtaposition’ is used to describe how colours can appear to change

or be affected by those colours adjacent to or surrounding the colour being viewed 14. state that correct colour viewing conditions should conform to British Standards 950

Part 1 15. state that in a quality control strip the grey balance patch is used as a visual check of

the process colours: cyan, magenta and yellow and should be a neutral grey of the appropriate percentage black

16. identify that the maintenance of equipment and good housekeeping procedures are

essential for consistent production of quality 17. state that consistent application of defined standards will assist in meeting the company

quality assurance programme, maintaining and improving standards, and company morale and viability

18. identify the factors that can affect quality as being:

a) administration b) consumables c) customer support d) information e) materials f) process g) reproduction h) storage and handling i) training

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19. identify the cures for the print faults listed below:

a) adhesion – ensure correct ink is being used for the substrate, use correct viscosity, ensure pH is correct

b) bad ink transfer – add fresh ink or medium to reinforce viscosity, decrease metering of anilox roller

c) bleeding – increase drying speed of ink, use faster evaporating solvents, balance dryers, reduce ink viscosity or reduce ink film, decrease dryer temperature

d) blocking – use less heat initially, reduce viscosity, check driers e) brittleness – control web temperature f) curing (UV) – eliminate direct exposure to sunlight, use UV filter covers on lights,

reduce press speed, reduce ink film thickness g) dark/dirty print – lower ink viscosity, add extender to ink, reduce ink film thickness h) dot gain – reduce anilox volume to a minimum while maintaining colour balance i) feathering – reset pressures between all rollers j) foaming – adjust pH and reduce viscosity, add small amounts of defoamer k) filling in – use well dispersed inks free of large particles, increase pressure settings l) gear marks - adjust overall plate package thickness to pitch line m) ghosting – change anilox roller to a higher specification, increase ink flow, clean

fountain roller and/or anilox roller n) hickies/spots – clean plate, reduce ink tack level o) halo – adjust impression of plate to substrate, adjust pressure between anilox roller

and plate p) ink drying too slow – adjust drying speed, adjust viscosity, adjust plate impression q) ink drying too fast – add pH stabiliser solution, maintain correct printing viscosity,

use correct anilox r) misregister – remount plate in register, check plate and tape thickness, adjust

tension controls s) moiré - check screen angles t) mottled print – add fresh ink or medium to correct viscosity for greater opacity level u) odour – balance solvents and check for their proper usage, use correct UV

chemistry, check dryers v) picking – ensure driers are operating properly, use minimum pressure settings,

changer to a harder and faster drying ink w) pin holing – use slower evaporating solvents, decrease dryer capacity, increase

press speed x) plate swelling – check ink and solvents used with compatibility of plate supplier,

increase plate drying time after processing y) skip out – check calliper of plates for variations, check impressions to determine

accuracy of plates, readjust impression settings for plates and anilox rollers z) smearing/tracking – clean and replace doctor blade, clean plates, lower viscosity.

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Unit 307 Machine printing (Web Fed Lithography)





machine printing 7. describe the make-ready and operating procedures for web fed lithography 8. identify the procedures for controlling quality in machine printing including sampling and

inspection regimes. Connection with other awards This unit contributes towards the knowledge and understanding required for units 002, 230, 231, 232, 233, 234, 235 and 236 of the Level 3 NVQ in Printing. Assessment This unit will be assessed by means of a short written answer test covering the eight outcomes.

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Outcome 7: Describe the make-ready and operating procedures for web fed lithography Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. describe the principles of printing by offset lithography, particularly with reference to web

offset 2. explain that it is necessary to identify the job instructions and obtain the job sample or

proof to confirm the job requirements 3. list and describe the pre-make-ready duties, including the allocation of duties to other

members of the crew 4. describe the relationship between plate cylinder, blanket cylinder and impression

cylinder for the following press designs: a) single colour perfecting presses b) multiple colour unit presses c) satellite presses

5. describe the web transport and splicing systems, and the considerations to be made when setting up the machine

6. explain the ink and dampening systems, methods of setting roller to roller, and roller to

plate contact, and the factors to be taken into account when setting the machine for production

7. describe the fount chemistry requirements, including the principles of conductivity, pH

and surface tension, and how this is monitored to ensure consistent quality 8. explain the principles and operating requirements for waterless printing 9. identify the adjustments to be made to achieve the correct ink and fount balance,

including the use of any electronic data available to aid setting 10. describe the considerations to be taken into account when preparing plates and fitting

these to the press 11. describe and evaluate the characteristics of blankets and their use on lithographic

presses, including: a) warp and weft b) release opportunities c) resilience d) smash resistance e) durability f) compressible blankets g) hardness of the blanket

12. identify the sequence of events when adjusting for register, fit and achieving colour 13. describe the differences between heat and cold set presses and the type of work

suitable for each type of machine 14. describe and evaluate the various ink drying systems available to web fed lithography

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15. identify and describe the uses of the various types of in-line equipment commonly

associated with web fed lithography 16. state the procedures to be followed when removing printed work:

a) mark waste to be sorted b) record job details c) forward to next operation.

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10. state that testing can be conducted either visually or with the assistance of specialised

equipment consisting of: a) broad head micrometers b) colorimeters c) colour viewing booths d) densitometers e) drying time tester f) dyne tester g) grain direction test h) magnetic ink oscilloscope i) rub testers j) shore meter k) special lighting conditions l) spectro-photometers m) tack meter n) tensile strength tester o) tension meter p) viscometers q) visual display monitors












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19. identify the cures for the print faults listed below:

a) adhesion – ensure correct ink is being used for the substrate, use correct viscosity, ensure pH is correct

b) bad ink transfer – add fresh ink or medium to reinforce viscosity, decrease metering of anilox roller

c) bleeding – increase drying speed of ink, use faster evaporating solvents, balance dryers, reduce ink viscosity or reduce ink film, decrease dryer temperature

d) blocking – use less heat initially, reduce viscosity, check driers e) brittleness – control web temperature f) curing (UV) – eliminate direct exposure to sunlight, use UV filter covers on lights,











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Unit 308 Machine Printing Processes (Flexography)


for selecting one over another 2. describe the types and characteristics of paper, board filmic and other plastic materials 3. identify the procedures for controlling the inking, coatings drying systems commonly used



machine printing 7. describe the make-ready and operating procedures for flexography 8. identify the procedures for controlling quality in machine printing including sampling and

inspection regimes.

Connection with other awards This unit contributes towards the knowledge and understanding required for units 002, 004, 230, 231, 233, 235, 237 and 238 of the Level 3 NVQ in Printing. Assessment This unit will be assessed by means of a short written answer test covering the eight outcomes.

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(pens, cigarette lighters etc) f) photogravure - publications, carton and box, and packaging g) screen process - point of sale material, posters, packaging, industrial, ceramic, fabric,

metal decoration, and pre-formed articles 2. identify the characteristics of the seven printing processes as being:









processes, including: a) flexography, photopolymer- liquid and solid, analogue and digital plates, rubber

plates b) letterpress, cast metal, engraved metal, etched metal, photo polymer, duplicate






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production as being: a) ‘H’ or ‘Y’ units b) blanket to blanket perfector c) common blanket d) common impression, ‘satellite and tandem’ e) half unit f) intermittent web g) perfecting h) stack or arch i) unit type press j) variable

6. identify that the main flexography press types are:

a) in-line b) corrugated c) CI press.

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Outcome 2: Describe the types and characteristics of paper and board, filmic and other plastic materials Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to Paper and board 1. explain the meaning of the following attributes of paper and board and identify the tests









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4. identify the available board types and their typical uses, including: a) unlined chipboard b) lined chipboard c) straw board d) pulp board e) coated board f) art board g) corrugated board



6. describe the following printing defects associated with paper:






a) polypropylene films b) polyester films c) polyethylene films d) nylon films e) pvc films f) cellophane g) physical properties h) printing and handling characteristics

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9. describe the following printing defects associated with filmic materials: a) gauge bands b) creasing c) die lines d) slack tension e) grease marks f) dyne level g) corona treatment h) tight winding i) slip.

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rollers as being: a) synthetic rubber, - plastics, nylon and polymers b) metals - brass, copper, chrome c) ceramic





c) flexography - ink viscosity, roller pressure condition and type, doctor blade pressure and angle, anilox roller selection, computer controls and remote operation, solvent selection and mix, condition of storage tanks, filters and pumps, types of metering systems








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7. explain the following principles of drying for various inking systems:

a) absorption b) evaporation c) quick setting inks d) precipitation e) oxidation f) polymerisation – heat assisted g) polymerisation - UV assisted h) polymerisation – electron beam assisted i) temperature controlled waterless systems j) use of chilling units







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24. state that the terms associated with electrical energy are:

a) current – the flow of electrons under pressure, measured in amperes (amps) b) ohm – unit of resistance to the passage of current c) volt – unit of potential difference or electrical pressure d) watts/kilowatts – unit of electrical power calculated by multiplying the voltage by the




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Outcome 7: Describe the make-ready and operating procedures for flexography Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. describe the principles of printing by flexography 2. explain that it is necessary to identify the job instructions and obtain the job sample or

proof to confirm the job requirements 3. describe the functions of the main parts of web fed and sheet fed flexographic presses 4. list and describe pre-make-ready duties, including the allocation of duties to other

members of the crew 5. describe the relationship between plate cylinder, and impression cylinder in respect of

the following press designs: a) sheet fed – usually found only in corrugated production b) stack press c) common impression presses d) in-line presses


7. describe the different types of inking systems and the factors to be taken into account

when setting the machine for production 8. describe the different types of anilox roller, in terms of the relationship between the

anilox roll and the plate, and their suitability for differing substrates and types of work 9. identify the adjustments to be made to achieve the correct ink balance e.g. the use of

any electronic data available to aid setting 10. describe the considerations to be taken into account when preparing plates and fitting

these to the press, including the various factors involved in the tape selection 11. identify the sequence of events when adjusting for register, fit and achieving colour 12. describe and evaluate the various ink drying systems available for flexographic presses 13. identify and describe the uses of the various types of in-line equipment commonly

associated with flexography, including: a) rewinding b) sheeting c) various conversion processes

14. identify the procedures to be followed when removing printed work, including:

a) mark waste to be sorted b) record job details c) forward to next operation

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15. list the different types of ink used in the flexographic process as including: a) water based b) solvent based c) UV cured

16. identify the different types of metering systems, including:

a) 2 roll b) single blade c) chambered blade

17. describe the principles involved in fingerprinting a press with relation to determining the

dot characteristic curves 18. explain the relationship between the repro section and make-ready on the press in

terms of: a) how the colours are separated b) achromatic separations c) undercolour removal d) working with dot characteristic curves from the fingerprint trail

19. describe the following printing defects associated with flexography:

a) adhesion – print is removed when scratching the surface b) bad ink transfer – print very weak or patchy c) bleeding – incomplete drying of first colour down prior to second colour d) blocking – the extent to which damage has been done to at least one surface upon

separation of copies e) brittleness – ink film cracks or breaks on substrate when the substrate is flexed f) curing (UV) – UV ink fails to cure in the correct place on the press g) dark/dirty print – excessive ink transfer to substrate, excess colour strength h) dot gain - gain or loss of image size usually measured by the halftone reproduction i) feathering – marks made on the trailing edge of the print, generally caused by

excessive ink build up j) foaming – excessive foam present in the ink unit, tray or ink pump unit k) filling in – accumulation of excess ink on and around the plate surface, especially

with regard to small type and halftones l) gear marks – parallel lines of misprint on the substrate m) ghosting – the presence of a faint image of a design in non-image areas n) hickies/spots – a small, solid print area encircled with a white halo o) halo – an undesirable peripheral outline of the printed image p) ink drying too slow – one colour bleeds into another, colours do not overprint

correctly, ink picks off or transfers to press rollers, print blocks in reels q) ink drying too fast – ink dried on plates and rollers and not transferring to substrate r) misregister – one part of the design is not correctly positioned with another s) moiré – undesirable interference pattern in process printing t) mottled print – a non-uniform ink lay resulting in a speckled or spotted appearance u) odour – undesirable odour in print substrate v) picking – the lifting of any portion of the substrate surface during impression w) pin holing – when a print fails to form a complete, continuous coverage, evident by

the random formation of small holes in the printed area x) plate swelling – plate dimensionally larger and softer y) skip out – poor or no ink transfer on to the substrate z) smearing/tracking – a print defect where an unwanted image appears, often as a

dark line in a light or solid print area.

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10. state that testing can be conducted either visually or with the assistance of specialised equipment consisting of: a) broad head micrometers b) colorimeters c) colour viewing booths d) densitometers e) drying time tester f) dyne tester g) grain direction test h) magnetic ink oscilloscope i) rub testers j) shore meter k) special lighting conditions l) spectro-photometers m) tack meter n) tensile strength tester o) tension meter p) viscometers q) visual display monitors











a) administration b) consumables c) customer support d) information e) materials f) process g) reproduction h) storage and handling i) training.

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Unit 309 Machine printing (Gravure)





machine printing 7. describe the make-ready and operating procedures for gravure 8. identify the procedures for controlling quality in machine printing including sampling and

inspection regimes. Connection with other awards This unit contributes towards the knowledge and understanding required for units 230, 231, 233, 236 and 240 of the Level 3 NVQ in Printing. Assessment This unit will be assessed by means of a short written answer test covering the eight outcomes.

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variable area engraving, cell shape, cell and wall ratio/size, cell angles d) lithography, analogue, digital, photo emulsions, ablation, direct, negative and

positive working plates, multiple exposure, step and repeat, screen angles e) screen processes, stencils types, direct coating, transfer systems, capillary, plotter



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Outcome 3: Identify the procedures for controlling the inking, coatings drying systems commonly used in machine printing Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. identify that the types of roller covering materials used for ink, damping and impression














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Outcome 7: Describe the make-ready and operating procedures for gravure Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. describe the principles of printing by gravure 2. explain that it is necessary to identify the job instructions and obtain the job sample or

proof to confirm the job requirements 3. describe and explain the functions of the constituent parts of a web fed gravure press 4. list and describe the pre-make-ready duties, including the allocation of duties to other

members of the crew 5. describe the relationship between gravure cylinder, and impression cylinder in respect of

the following press designs: a) sheet fed – sometimes found in security printing and occasionally speciality carton

printing b) publication presses c) packaging presses d) in-line presses


7. describe the different types of inking systems and factors to be taken into account when

setting the machine for production 8. describe the different types of doctor blade and their suitability for differing substrates

and types of work 9. identify the adjustments to be made to achieve the correct ink and fount balance,

including the use of any electronic data available to aid setting 10. describe the considerations to be taken into account when preparing cylinders and fitting

these to the press 11. identify the sequence of events when adjusting for register, fit and achieving colour 12. describe and evaluate the various ink drying systems available to gravure presses 13. identify and describe the uses of the various types of in-line equipment commonly

associated with gravure, including: a) rewinding b) sheeting c) folding d) various conversion processes

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14. state the procedures to be followed when removing printed work, including: a) marking waste to be sorted b) recording job details c) forwarding to next operation.

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10. state that testing can be conducted either visually or with the assistance of specialised equipment consisting of: a) broad head micrometers b) colorimeters c) colour viewing booths d) densitometers e) drying time tester f) dyne tester g) grain direction test h) magnetic ink oscilloscope i) rub testers j) shore meter k) special lighting conditions l) spectro-photometers m) tack meter n) tensile strength tester o) tension meter p) viscometers q) visual display monitors












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19. identify the cures for the print faults listed below: a) adhesion – ensure correct ink is being used for the substrate, use correct viscosity,

ensure pH is correct b) bad ink transfer – add fresh ink or medium to reinforce viscosity, decrease metering

of anilox roller c) bleeding – increase drying speed of ink, use faster evaporating solvents, balance

dryers, reduce ink viscosity or reduce ink film, decrease dryer temperature d) blocking – use less heat initially, reduce viscosity, check driers e) brittleness – control web temperature f) curing (UV) – eliminate direct exposure to sunlight, use UV filter covers on lights,











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Unit 310 Machine printing (Screen)

Rationale This unit is concerned with developing a clear understanding of the procedures to control the machine printing processes, including the products appropriate to each printing process, control systems for inking, coatings and drying systems, properties and structures of materials, use of microprocessors, control of and rectification of common faults, control of quality and completion of quality assurance documentation.

Outcomes There are eight outcomes to this unit. The candidate will be able to 1. identify the printed products associated with the various printing processes and reasons

for selecting one over another 2. describe and evaluate the types and characteristics of substrates used in screen printing 3. identify the key parameters of the screen printing process including inks, coatings and

drying systems 4. explain physical, chemical and behavioural properties of materials and the theory of

colour 5. identify the principal types of proof used and their role in the printing process 6. identify and explain the use of microprocessors and computers commonly found in

machine printing 7. describe and evaluate the make-ready and operating procedures for screen printing 8. identify the procedures for controlling quality in machine printing, including sampling and

inspection regimes. Connection with other awards This unit contributes towards the knowledge and understanding required for units 002.2, 206.1, 206.2, 206.3, 230.3 231.1, 23.2, 231.3, 239.1, 239.2 and 239.3 of the Level 3 NVQ in Printing. Assessment This unit will be assessed by means of a short written answer test covering the eight outcomes.

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Outcome 1: identify the printed products associated with the various printing processes and reasons for selecting one over another Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. identify that the products appropriate to the seven printing processes used in the printing

and graphic communications industry are: a) digital - publications, short run work, proofs, patterns and dummies. b) flexography - publications, carton and box, fabric, newspapers, bags, packaging,

books c) letterpress - publications, posters, stationery, greetings cards d) lithography (heat set, cold set, sheet) publications, stationery, greetings cards,

carton and box, posters, metal decoration, books e) pad - pre-formed articles, industrial components, ceramics, promotional material

(pens, cigarette lighters etc) f) photogravure - publications, carton and box, packaging g) screen process - point of sale material, posters, packaging, industrial, electronics,

ceramic, fabric, metal decoration, pre-formed articles 2. identify the characteristics of the seven printing processes as being:

a) digital - ink jet, photocopying, dye sublimation, often short run, some water based inks that bleed/smudge, ink lacks density in some products, good colour, ultraviolet (UV) curing inks along with specialist chemistries expanding the range of applications, able to print an increasing number of substrates with these special ink chemistries

b) flexography - ink squash on edge of image, print on a variety of substrates, plastic and paper/board mainly. Particularly used in the packaging industry and increasingly in label printing


d) lithography - good colour, even ink distribution across image, mainly on paper and board, but to a wide range of chosen substrates. Waterless lithography used in special applications where very high quality images are required

e) pad - originally used for printing watch dials it has been developed for printing on irregularly shaped substrates, in which the image is transferred from a metal or plastic photopolymer etched plate to an intermediate silicone rubber pad and, ultimately, to the substrate


g) screen process – less than a micron to 300 microns film thickness, wide variety of inks, substrates and articles, very flexible process capable of short or long runs, extending into non traditional print applications

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3. describe the types and varieties of image carriers used in the various printing processes as being: a) flexography/letterpress - cast metal, engraved metal, etched metal, photo polymer,

duplicate plates, plastic moulded, flat, rotary, roller b) gravure, (invert and semi-invert) conventional, double positive, single positive,

variable area engraving, cell shape, cell and wall ratio/size, cell angles. Can be metal, ceramic and photopolymer

c) lithography - analogue, digital, photo emulsions, ablation, direct, negative and positive working. Waterless lithography plates substitute silicone rubber membrane for hydrophilic surface

d) screen process – stencils types, direct coating, capillary, plotter cutters rarely used, laser cut metal shims in electronics printing. Cylindrical screens for textile and label printing. Mesh materials, polyester, stainless steel, nylon, nickel, mesh characteristics, mesh tension, frame types

4. identify that types of printing presses used for the production of printed materials are: a) article b) sheet fed c) web fed

5. explain that the choice of a particular process for printing will be determined by the:

a) physical properties of the substrate b) run length of the job c) cost of making ready and running.

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Outcome 2: Describe and evaluate the types and characteristics of substrates used in screen printing Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. explain, with reference to the screen printing process, the relevance of substrate

characteristics, including: a) surface finish b) colour c) absorbancy or otherwise d) printability in its natural state e) any surface treatment necessary to improve printability f) dimensions g) dimensional stability h) shape i) location factors j) rigidity k) ink/colour/printing medium selection l) post treatment requirement, if any m) effect of multiple passes, if required n) processing limitations - temperature, time etc o) any special characteristics

2. describe, if a substrate is used as a transfer medium, what methods of transfer are used and the materials involved, including: a) ceramic transfers, types and firing conditions b) sublimation transfers for solids and textiles c) textile transfers d) organic transfers, waterslide, heat activated e) direct printing onto glass and ceramic f) over lacquering, overprinting g) food safety

3. describe the following substrate, their usage and common faults found with them when printing: a) paper b) board c) transfer paper d) corrugated board e) fluted board (correx) f) vinyl g) rigid PVC h) textiles i) plastic j) fabricated panels

4. describe the tests that can be made to check the printability of substrates and their

suitability for use 5. identify factors concerned with the handling and storage of substrates.

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Outcome 3: Identify the key parameters of the screen printing process including inks, coatings and drying systems Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. describe how the screen printing process works, including the effects of the squeegee,

the flood coater, the stencil, the ink and the machine type along with other key parameters relevant to the principal screen printing application

2. describe the preparation of the image carrier (stencil) 3. state the characteristics in the stencil specification that are likely to affect the quality of

the final print and what those effects will be 4. describe the types of screen printing presses used for the production of printed

materials, including: a) hand bench b) semi-auto flatbed c) auto flatbed with grippers and belt fed d) cylinder press e) cylindrical screen f) surface mount/electronics g) multi-colour in-line flatbed h) multi-colour in-line cylinder i) carousel textile press manual and automatic j) three dimensional object press k) cylindrical object press, single and multi-colour l) in-line web fed flatbed and cylindrical, single and multi-colour

5. identify the types of stencils (image carriers) available for screen printing 6. explain the function and usage of the squeegee, including:

a) types of squeegee, including the importance of hardness measured in degrees shore, profile and edge

b) effects of angle, pressure, speed c) care and maintenance of squeegee. Removal of ink, cleaning and dressing

7. explain why a flood coater is used in some screen printing applications 8. explain the effects of altering the main parameters in screen printing, including:

a) the squeegee angle - its effect on ink flow and the deposit b) the squeegee speed - its effect on the time ink has to flow through the mesh c) the squeegee pressure - its effect on the angle of the squeegee to the stencil, the ink

flow; image distortion and excessive wear on the stencil and the squeegee d) the squeegee edge and how it contributes to maintaining an even ink deposit along

the length of the squeegee e) snap distance (off contact) - its effect on ink flow, image size and wear on the stencil f) peel off and ink tack - the effect on image size and stress on the mesh g) mesh tension - its effect on registration and evenness of ink film

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adhesion, penetration and drying speed.

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Outcome 4: Explain physical, chemical and behavioural properties of materials and the theory of colour Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. state that inks are made up of:

a) pigment b) vehicle c) driers d) resins

2. list the colours in the visible light spectrum as being:



a) red b) green c) blue and together represent the additive theory of colour


a) cyan b) yellow c) magenta d) and together represent the subtractive theory of colour

5. state that the primary colours for printing are:

a) cyan b) yellow c) magenta and together represent the subtractive theory of colour

6. state that the secondary subtractive colours are:

a) red b) green c) blue

7. state that the third level of subtractive colour is called the tertiary level, and is made up

of the colours: a) russet b) olive c) citron

8. state that other colours can be identified either by name or by supplier colour book

references 9. identify that the Pantone Colour Matching System is the industry standard for identifying

formulas to produce spot colour for printing

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10. state that the term ‘hue’ is used to define one colour from another, i.e. blue from red etc 11. state that the term ‘tint’ is used to define the effect of white being mixed/introduced with


with a hue 13. state that dyes chemically bind to the substrate, which they colour, while pigments

require a binder to fix them to the substrate 14. state that most pigments in common use are produced synthetically and are referred to,

as organic pigments and that the properties for selection for specific applications include the: a) ability to be wet by the vehicle b) colour strength c) distribution d) light fastness e) particle size f) stability to chemical attack g) vehicle compatibility


neutralising the effects of static upon the substrate 17. state that static electricity can be produced on non-conductive surfaces by friction or

pressure, such as when substrates are separated in the feed of a printing press 18. state that paper, plastics and polymers are subject to static electricity charges 19. state that the types of cleaning fluids, and solvents, used in the printing and graphic

communications industry can be: a) alcohol or water based b) hydrocarbons c) petro-chemicals d) vegetable based and that the trend is to move towards non-voc (volatile organic chemical) chemistry, and renewable resources.

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Outcome 5: Identify the principal types of proof used and their role in the printing process

Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. state that the purpose of a proof is to provide the customer, pre-press technician and














a) machine proof b) wet proof (done on a hand or semi-automatic proofing press rather than a production

machine).

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computers include: a) ancillary operations b) automated web changes/splices c) control of ink duct/ink application systems d) cylinder movements e) delivery systems parameters f) diagnostics of maintenance procedures and service requirements g) direct imaging systems h) drying systems i) feeder setting j) ink and coatings distribution/levels k) machine configuration l) materials location and supply m) pressure settings n) provide facilities for online links to supplier/manufacturer o) web leads p) web movement and control q) web tension



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6. state that some press monitoring and control systems are termed ‘closed loop’ and are

self regulating, requiring no input from the operator once established 7. explain the advantages of computer assisted press controls as providing:


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Outcome 7: Describe and evaluate the make-ready and operating procedures for screen printing Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. describe the principles of screen printing 2. identify job instructions and obtain job samples or proofs to confirm the job requirements 3. describe the main types of screen printing machines 4. list and describe the pre-make-ready duties 5. describe the relationship between screen mesh stencil frame and the squeegee

6. describe the paper/substrate transport systems, and the considerations to be made

when setting up the machine 7. describe the factors affecting the choice of ink and solvent used for screen printing 8. describe the ancillary additives used in screen printing 9. define the term ‘fast thinner’ 10. state the effects of the over and under thinning of ink 11. state the effects of adding a transparent base to an ink 12. list the circumstances when a retarder should be added to the ink 13. describe the effect of retarder action 14. state the main factors affecting the choice of:

a) thinner b) cleaner c) retarder for a particular ink

15. describe the importance of viscosity 16. list the advantages and disadvantages of UV curing inks 17. identify the adjustments to be made to achieve the correct ink coverage 18. describe the considerations to be taken into account when preparing and fitting screens

on to the press 19. identify the sequence of events when adjusting for register, fit and achieving colour 20. describe and evaluate the various ink drying systems available to screen printing

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21. state the procedures to be followed when removing printed work as including: a) marking waste to be sorted b) recording job details c) forwarding to the next operation.

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Outcome 8: Identify the procedures for controlling quality in machine printing, including sampling and inspection regimes Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. state that quality can be defined as meeting the job specification or as meeting the

customer requirements 2. state that quality control is the use of methods to identify and eliminate variables and

deficiencies (in production), and consists of sampling and inspection of the product, process and materials

3. state that the term ‘sampling’ is used to identify the selection of material, product or

process for inspection 4. state that the term ‘inspection’ is used to describe the scrutiny, measurement or

monitoring of samples against the set standard 5. state that sampling plans can be based upon statistical criteria such as:

a) standard deviation b) distribution curves c) or on previous records for the job

6. define the terms used in inspection as being:

a) 100 per cent inspection – every individual item b) batch - a given number of items c) frequency - how often a sample is taken d) in control - meeting the required specification e) input - materials or product before a process f) mean - average (total of items divided by the number of items) g) median - middle value h) mode - most common value i) normal distribution - measurements of an inspection are the same or distributed

within a certain variance and mean j) output - materials or product after a process k) process - the task or procedure l) random - no fixed interval or frequency m) range - how far from the smallest value to the largest value n) sentence - result of inspection, accept, reject or rework

7. state that inspection can be carried out with a range of instruments for specific tasks 8. state that colour comparisons can be made visually against the standard or sample or

by the use of specialised equipment 9. state that the term ‘metamerism’ is used to describe the situation where colours may


or be affected by those colours adjacent to or surrounding the colour being viewed 11. state that ideally correct colour viewing conditions should conform to British Standards

950 Part 1

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12. state that in a quality control strip the grey balance patch is used as a visual check of the process colour, including cyan, magenta and yellow, and should be a neutral grey of the appropriate percentage black


essential for consistent production of quality 14. state that inspection can be conducted either visually or with the assistance of

specialised equipment consisting of: a) broad head micrometers b) colorimeters c) colour viewing booths d) densitometers e) drying time tester f) grain direction test g) magnetic ink oscilloscope h) rub testers i) shore meter j) special lighting conditions k) spectro-photometers l) tack meter m) tensile strength tester n) tension meter o) viscometers p) visual display monitors

15. identify the factors that can affect quality as including:


16. state that most instruments used for inspecting quality must be subject to regular and

consistent calibration checks 17. state that consistent application of defined standards will assist in meeting the company

quality assurance programme, company moral and viability, and maintaining and improving standards

18. identify the cures for the following print faults:

a) bubbling b) bits c) leaks/bleeds d) flooding/splurge e) slur/ghosting f) streaks g) mottling h) cobwebbing/whiskering i) drying in j) first colour refusal k) second colour refusal (pin-holing) l) set off/sweating back m) mis-register between colours

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19. list the major faults that can occur in drying and state how they can be reduced,

including: a) incomplete drying of printed film b) curling or cockling of stock c) excessive shrinkage of stock d) excessive cure of first printing in ultraviolet drying e) inadequate cure of ultraviolet ink f) inadequate cure of infrared curing textile ink g) scorching on various coloured textile fabrics.

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Unit 311 Mechanised print finishing and binding

Rationale This unit is concerned with developing a clear understanding of the procedures to control the processes involved in mechanised print finishing and binding operations, including the properties and characteristics of materials, controlling and rectifying faults and quality control. Outcomes There are six outcomes to this unit. The candidate will be able to 1. describe and identify the terminology for imposition and folding schemes used in print

finishing, converting and bookbinding 2. describe and evaluate the types and characteristics of paper and board 3. identify the properties and characteristics of materials used in finishing and binding

operations 4. describe and evaluate the make-ready and operating procedures for a range of print

finishing equipment 5. explain the purpose and procedures for quality control in mechanised print finishing and

binding 6. describe the procedures to control damage to materials during finishing and binding

operations. Connection with other awards This unit contributes towards the knowledge and understanding required for units 316, 317, 318, 319, 320, 321, 322, 323, 324, 325, 326, 327, 328, 329, 330 and 331 of the Level 3 NVQ in Printing. Assessment This unit will be assessed by means of a short written answer test covering the six outcomes.

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Outcome 1: Describe and identify the terminology for imposition and folding schemes used in print finishing, converting and bookbinding Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. describe the terminology associated with folding and imposition schemes as including:

a) sheet work - the term used to describe the method of printing each side of the sheet using two plates, one for each side to produce one copy of the job using both plate images

b) half sheet work - the term used to describe the method of printing each side of the sheet using the same plate to produce two copies after the sheet is cut in half

c) work and turn – the term used to describe the method of printing each side of a sheet of paper using the same grip edge

d) work and tumble – the term used to describe the method of printing each side of the sheet using the same lay edge but a different grip edge

2. list methods of identifying grain direction to include:

a) bending – a substrate bends easiest with the grain b) wetting – a substrate will cockle and warp as the fibres expand c) tearing – with the grain, a substrate should tear in virtually a straight line d) folding – the fold with the grain will be relatively smooth compared with a fold

against the grain which will have a raised or bumpy effect 3. identify that the effects on output if the grain direction is incorrect include:

a) cracking - if folding thick material b) inaccurate folding – consistent folds are often difficult to maintain c) warping - if adhesive binding uses water-based adhesives.

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Outcome 2: Describe and evaluate the types and characteristics of paper and board Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. explain the factors to be taken into consideration when choosing a suitable paper,

including the: a) characteristics of the paper b) requirements of the printing and finishing processes c) variety of papers available

2. explain the meaning of the following attributes of paper and board and describe the

tests that can be made to check these characteristics: a) brightness/whiteness b) opacity c) tensile strength d) wet strength e) permanence f) dimensional stability g) rigidity h) ink hold-out i) sizing j) picking resistence k) weight l) caliper/thickness m) gloss


a) watermarks b) textures




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5. identify the board types available and their typical uses, including: a) unlined chipboard b) lined chipboard c) straw board d) pulp board e) coated board f) art board

6. identify the system for measuring the weight of paper 7. identify the factors to be taken into account when ordering paper:

a) the name of the paper b) quantity of sheets required, allowing for overs c) substance d) caliper e) long or short grain f) packing – ream wrapped or packed on pallets

8. identify the factors concerned with the handling and storage of paper, including: a) humidity b) temperature.

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Outcome 3: Identify the properties and characteristics of materials used in finishing and binding operations Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. identify the properties, characteristics and compatibility of the following used in finishing

and binding operations: a) cloth leather b) coated fabrics c) PVC materials d) PVA emulsions – synthetic, often water based, long open time, can be used

immediately e) hot melts – synthetic, requires pre-melting time, short open time f) animal glues – traditional adhesive for bookbinding, manufactured from residual

animal products g) scotch/pearl glues – requires soaking to absorb water before boiling. A form of

animal glue h) starch pastes – derived from vegetable sources, contain a high percentage of water,

slow drying time i) laminates j) varnishes k) foils l) wire – supplied on a spool, available in various grades, both round and flat m) sewing thread – supplied in cones or skeins, various plies available n) plastic combs – supplied in boxes, variety of thicknesses and colours available o) wiro/spiral wire – supplied in both reel form and box form, variety of thicknesses and

colours available p) interscrews (brass/plastic) – supplied in boxes, extensions available for various

thicknesses of work q) slide bars – supplied in boxes, various widths and colours available

2. identify the following factors in relation to the various materials used in the finishing processes: a) cost b) units of purchase c) durability d) tensile strength e) suitability to different binding processes and techniques f) ideal storage conditions g) life expectancy (shelf life) h) conditions of use (where it will be used) i) Ph effect they may have on the product j) lead time for delivery of materials from suppliers k) details of suppliers.

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Outcome 4: Describe and evaluate the make-ready and operating procedures for a range of print finishing equipment Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. describe and list the uses of the following pieces of equipment:

a) adhesive binding machinery b) case making machinery c) casing-in machinery d) multi-knife trimming machinery e) guillotines f) folding machines g) auto punching and cutting machinery h) foil blocking machinery i) mail processing machinery j) in-line insetting-stitching-trimming machinery k) in-line gathering-adhesive binding-trimming machinery l) in-line book block feeding-forwarding-case binding machinery

2. identify job instructions and obtain job samples or proofs to confirm job requirements 3. list and describe the make ready duties for the equipment outlined in Item 1, including

the duties of team members where appropriate 4. describe the paper or product transport systems and the considerations to be made

when setting up the machine, where appropriate 5. identify the adjustments to be made to achieve the correct product quality, including the

use of any electronic data available to aid setting 6. identify the sequence of events when making fine adjustments for position and obtaining

a pass 7. identify and describe the uses of the various types of in-line equipment commonly

associated with printing finishing and binding processes 8. describe the operating procedures for the following pieces of equipment:

a) adhesive binding machinery b) case making machinery c) casing-in machinery d) multi-knife trimming machinery e) guillotines f) folding machines g) auto punching and cutting machinery h) foil blocking machinery i) mail processing machinery j) in-line insetting-stitching-trimming machinery k) in-line gathering-adhesive binding-trimming machinery l) in-line book block feeding-forwarding-case binding machinery

9. state the procedures to be followed when removing finished work, including:

a) marking waste to be sorted b) recording job details c) forwarding to the next operation.

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Outcome 5: Explain the purpose and procedures for quality control in mechanised print finishing and binding Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. state that quality can be defined as meeting the job specification or as meeting the







a) standard deviation b) distribution curves c) or on previous records for the job

7. define the terms used in inspection as being:

a) mean - average (total of items divided by the number of items) b) median - middle value c) mode - most common value d) normal distribution - measurements of an inspection are the same or distributed

within a certain variance and mean e) output - materials or product after a process f) process - the task or procedure g) random - no fixed interval or frequency h) range - how far from the smallest value to the largest value i) sentence - result of inspection; accept, reject or rework

8. define the terms used in sampling as being:

a) 100 per cent inspection – every individual item b) batch - a given number of items c) frequency - how often a sample is taken

9. define the terms used in input/output control as being:



consistent calibration checks 11. identify that the maintenance of equipment and good housekeeping procedures are

essential for consistent production of quality

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12. state that consistent application of defined standards will assist in meeting the company quality assurance programme, company moral and viability, and maintaining and improving standards

13. identify the factors that can affect quality include:

a) administration b) consumables c) customer support d) information e) materials f) process g) storage and handling h) training

14. identify the cures for the print finishing faults on the equipment listed below as:

a) adhesive binding machinery: i) rounding of book spine ii) books not square iii) cracking of the covers iv) spine creasing v) insufficient gluing penetration vi) marking of book blocks

b) case making machinery: i) uneven turn-ins on material ii) cover material not sticking to cover boards iii) cover boards not parallel with each other

c) casing-in machinery: i) book blocks not sufficiently glued ii) glue marks on cover iii) books distorted when nipped iv) book blocks not squarely attached to covers

d) multi-knife trimming machinery: i) marking of books ii) books not square iii) creasing on the spines iv) variations in cut size v) spines splitting and head and tail

e) guillotines: i) overcut ii) undercut iii) wavy edge cut iv) bow or hollow cut v) oblique cut vi) feathering vii) setting off viii) marks on the cut face of the paper ix) marking of the product

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f) folding machines: i) sheets fail to feed and separate ii) feeding doubles iii) sheets fail to transfer and run evenly on in-feed conveyor table or roller cross

carrier iv) sheets fail to enter fold plate v) sheets fail to leave plate vi) sheets fold out of square at plate blank vii) sheets fail to be driven between knife fold rollers viii) perforating line splits ix) sheets/sections creasing x) sheets/sections marking xi) sections insert into each other on delivery table/box xii) sections conveyed to delivery are uneven

g) auto punching and cutting machinery: i) holes not punched through cleanly ii) cuts not in correct position iii) holes punched in wrong position iv) cuts uneven

h) foil blocking machinery: i) blurred image ii) loss of detail iii) marking of material outside the blocking area iv) foil not sticking sufficiently to the surface of the substrate

i) mail processing machinery: i) cutting out of square ii) creasing iii) marking of product iv) missing inserts – incorrect feeding from hoppers v) jamming – incorrect feeding from hoppers/incorrect roller pressures

j) in-line insetting-stitching-trimming machinery: i) trimming out of square – product not entering trimmer squarely, timing out of

synchronicity ii) stitches missing – stitching head switched off, stitcher has run out of wire iii) stitches not clenching – stitching head not positioned correctly above

clencher, damaged clencher iv) sections in the wrong order – sections loaded in wrong hoppers v) marking on the spine of the product – dirt/oil in stitching head

k) in-line gathering-adhesive binding-trimming machinery: i) rounding of the book spine ii) books not square iii) cracking of the covers iv) spine creasing v) insufficient gluing penetration vi) blades set too close to gluing rollers marking of book blocks

l) in-line book block feeding-forwarding-case binding machinery m) newspaper specific equipment

i) inserting equipment ii) stitch and trim equipment iii) moving materials equipment iv) feeder machinery v) publishing equipment vi) auto-palletising equipment.

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Outcome 6: Describe the procedures to control damage to materials during finishing and binding operations Underpinning knowledge The candidate should be able to 1. identify the procedures for protecting materials from damage during adhesive binding

operations, including: a) adjusting clamping pressure to suit product without marking b) setting/adjusting glue rollers to ensure sufficient gluing without marking c) correctly positioning covers, ensuring they feed centrally and squarely into machine

without damage d) ensuring conveyor systems are clean and free from dirt, using appropriate

solvents/cleaners e) cleaning knives using correct and appropriate methods and cleaning agents that

comply with all aspects of health and safety 2. identify the procedures for protecting materials from damage during case making

operations, including: a) cleaning and setting rollers using appropriate methods to suit product b) cleaning and setting feeders, ensuring covers/boards feed centrally and squarely

into machine without damage c) setting/adjusting glue rollers to ensure sufficient gluing without marking d) cleaning suckers/grippers and ensuring they are set/adjusted correctly to suit

product without marking e) ensuring delivery conveyor is clean and free from dirt, using appropriate

solvents/cleaners

3. identify the procedures for protecting materials from damage during casing-in, including: a) adjusting clamping pressure to suit product without marking b) setting/adjusting glue rollers to ensure sufficient gluing without marking c) setting/adjusting cover feeder to ensure feeding is centrally and squarely into the

machine without damage d) cleaning transportation rollers/tapes using appropriate solvents/cleaners e) ensuring various units involved with casing-in such as jacketing, nipping units are

clean; using appropriate methods and cleaning agents that comply with all aspects of health and safety, and are set to suit product without marking

4. identify the procedures for protecting materials from damage during multi-knife trimming

operations, including: a) adjusting clamping pressure to suit product without marking b) cleaning the machine bed using appropriate solvents and cleaning agents c) cleaning knives and carriages using correct and appropriate methods that comply

with all aspects of health and safety d) ensuring that product feeds into trimming unit squarely without damage e) ensuring that product leaves trimming unit squarely without damage

5. identify the procedures for protecting materials from damage during guillotine

operations, including: a) adjusting clamping pressure to suit substrate without marking b) cleaning machine bed using appropriate solvents/cleaners c) cleaning knife and carriage using correct and appropriate methods and cleaning

agents that comply with all aspects of health and safety

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6. identify the procedures for protecting materials from damage during folding machine operations, including: a) adjusting roller pressures to ensure product is folded undamaged (marking, creasing

etc) b) cleaning transportation tapes/rollers using appropriate solvents/cleaners c) ensuring anti-static devices are working correctly (sheets not sticking together,

dragging etc) d) ensuring bundling unit is set to correct pressure so as not to distort folded output

7. identify the procedures for protecting materials from damage during auto punching and

cutting operations as including: a) adjusting roller pressures to ensure product enters the machine undamaged

(marking, creasing etc) b) cleaning knife and carriage using correct and appropriate methods and cleaning

agents that comply with all aspects of health and safety c) ensuring that punching/drilling bits are re-sharpened so as to produce clean sharp

holes in the product, using correct and appropriate methods d) cleaning machine bed using appropriate solvents/cleaners

8. identify the procedures for protecting materials from damage during foil blocking

operations, including: a) ensuring temperature is set correctly so as not to distort and burn the product b) ensuring pressure is set correctly so as not to damage the product c) cleaning machine bed using appropriate solvents/cleaners d) cleaning the image carrier – removing foil residue that could otherwise lower the

quality of the finished product 9. identify the procedures for protecting materials from damage during mail processing

operations as including: a) cleaning machine bed using appropriate solvents/cleaners b) cleaning transportation belts/rollers using appropriate solvents/cleaners c) cleaning knives using correct and appropriate methods and cleaning agents that

comply with all aspects of health and safety d) adjusting clamping pressure to suit product without marking e) correctly positioning of inserts to ensure they feed centrally and squarely into the

machine 10. identify the procedures for protecting materials from damage during in-line insetting-

stitching-trimming operations, including: a) cleaning knives and clamps using correct and appropriate methods and cleaning

agents that comply with all aspects of health and safety b) cleaning transportation belts/rollers using appropriate solvents/cleaners c) cleaning and adjusting stitching heads using appropriate methods and cleaning

agents d) ensuring saddle chain is clean and free from dirt using appropriate methods and

cleaning agents that comply with all aspects of health and safety e) cleaning suckers/grippers and ensuring they are set/adjusted correctly to suit

product without marking

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11. identify the procedures for protecting materials from damage during in-line gathering-adhesive binding-trimming operations, including: a) adjusting clamping pressure to suit product without marking b) setting/adjusting glue rollers to ensure sufficient gluing without marking c) ensuring trimmings from circular saw go into waste extraction and do not

contaminate glue d) correctly positioning of covers ensuring they feed centrally and squarely into

machine without damage e) ensuring conveyor systems are clean and free from dirt, using appropriate

solvents/cleaners f) ensuring book blocks are feeding centrally and squarely into the trimming unit g) adjusting clamping pressure in trimming unit to suit product without marking h) cleaning knives using correct and appropriate methods and cleaning agents that

comply with all aspects of health and safety.

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Unit 312 Carton manufacturing processes

Rationale This unit is concerned with developing a clear understanding of the procedures for controlling carton manufacture including design, technological development, materials technology, die forme manufacture, the ‘make ready’ and operation of carton production equipment and quality control. Outcomes There are seven outcomes to this unit. The candidate will be able to 1. identify the materials and equipment used in carton manufacturing processes 2. identify the principles, methods and techniques of carton design and manufacturing

processes 3. describe the technological changes in design and manufacture of cartons as a form of

packaging 4. describe the make ready and operational procedures for cutting and creasing machinery,

multi-folding and gluing machinery, and enhancing machinery 5. describe the manufacturing procedures of die making and cutting, and creasing formes 6. describe the purpose and principles of machine stripping 7. describe the purpose and procedures for quality control in carton manufacturing

processes. Connection with other awards This unit contributes towards the knowledge and understanding required for units 401, 402, 403 and 404 of the Level 3 NVQ in Printing. Assessment This unit will be assessed by means of a short written answer test covering the seven outcomes.

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Outcome 1: Identify the materials and equipment used in carton manufacturing processes Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to Materials 1. identify the properties of the substrate commonly used in carton manufacturing

processes as being: a) cartonboards – strength properties, weight, calliper, grain direction, brightness,

stiffness, folding and creasing properties b) corrugated boards - fluting structures and configurations

2. identify the properties of the adhesives commonly used in carton manufacturing

processes as being: a) emulsions – viscosity, open time, setting time, transparency, adhesion b) hot melts – melting temperature, adhesion, setting speed c) adhesive tapes – instant adhesion, dry adhesive d) latexes – rubber based, usable when dry

3. identify the rules used in die forme manufacture and their purpose as being:

a) cutting rule – sever substrate along a specific line b) creasing rule – impart a crease along a specific line to allow the substrate to fold

without cracking or splitting c) scoring rule – alternative to creasing rule, used on thick material d) perforating rule – create tear offs along specific lines e) special rules – zip-a-tear (easy opening), wavy/deckle edge (fancy edges), jigsaw

(jigsaws) 4. identify the material used for die boards and their purpose as being:

a) interior birch plywood 18mm thick – to make cutting and creasing formes b) interior birch plywood 15mm thick – to make stripping boards

5. identify the different types of ejection materials and their purpose as being:

a) open cell – can be used on flat dies, thicker substrates b) closed cell – can be used on flat and rotary dies, thinner substrates c) high performance shaped – provide stability near nicks and outer edges of cutting

area d) cork – provide greater stability with thinner materials

6. identify the different types of matrix materials used for creasing and their function as

being: a) pre-formed – used for medium to long runs, easy correction, accurate location b) pertinax – used for long runs, short changeover times, accurate locating c) folding boxboard – used for pre-production jobs, customer samples and short run

work d) presspahn – used for short runs

7. identify the different types of materials used for enhancing and their function as being:

a) foils – assist design features to stand out b) laminates/films – protection of substrate etc c) blocking/embossing dies – to provide a raised or recessed image

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Equipment 8. identify the equipment and purpose for which it is used in sample making as being:

a) technical drawing equipment – to create hand made pre-production samples b) creasing tool and creasing rule – to allow creasing of samples c) computer and peripheral equipment – to create line drawings/blueprints d) Computer Aided Design (CAD) software – create manufacturing files for use in

creating carton designs, print layouts, die boards, costings, estimates 9. identify the equipment and the function for which it is used in die forme manufacture as

being: a) drill and jigsaw – create bridges and slots for rules b) laser cutter – cutting of rule slots in die boards c) rule cutters/lipper cutter – cut rule to required length d) rule bender – bend and shape rule e) rule bridger – remove section of rule for use in one piece formes f) rule extractor – for safe removal of rule from formes

10. identify the equipment and the function for which it is used in matrix cutting as being:

a) mitre cutters (bench and hand) – to create angles and required lengths of pre-formed matrix

b) chamfer knife/cutting knife – to trim and chamfer matrix c) counter cutting systems – CAM system to create pertinax counters

11. describe the equipment and the function for which it is used in cutting and creasing as

being: a) hand fed vertical platen b) automatic machine fed light platen c) automatic machine fed horizontal platen d) automatic machine fed cylinder press e) automatic machine fed rotary press f) machine stripping units g) hand stripping equipment h) machine separating units

12. describe the equipment and the function for which it is used in enhancing as being:

a) automatic machine fed light platen b) automatic machine fed horizontal platen c) window patching machine d) laminating machine

13. identify the equipment and the function for which it is used in folding and gluing as

being: a) straight line b) glued lock bottom (crashlock base) c) 4/6 corner d) adhesive applicators.

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Outcome 2: Identify the principles, methods and techniques of carton design and manufacturing processes Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. describe the customer specifications required to create a carton design and sample,

including: a) product details – size, weight, properties b) methods of use – for retention after purchase, immediate disposal c) special protection requirements – barrier coating, laminating, varnishing d) packaging machine requirements – automatic, semi-automatic, dimension allowance

for packing e) distribution and sales requirements – locality, seasonal/all year round, age group f) hygiene – used for cosmetics, foods, pharmaceuticals etc g) dimensions for panels, angles etc h) use of correct rule symbols – cut, crease, score, perforate, cut/crease

2. describe the basic styles, types and parts of carton designs and their purpose as being:

a) skillet – tube style, glued closures b) reverse tuck end/tuck same panel – tube style, tuck in flaps top and bottom c) envelope base – tube style, locking base d) crashlock base – tube style, glued and locking base e) trays – self locking, glued corner f) A-B-C panels – wider dimension at opening, narrower dimension at opening, top to

bottom dimension g) glue, tuck-in and dust flaps – items of closure for cartons h) locking and friction closures – base and top tuck-ins

3. list the sequence of operations for making samples as including:

a) obtaining customer specifications or samples of product b) determining carton style c) determining closures d) selecting materials to be used e) drawing out carton design f) cutting and creasing sample g) assembling the sample h) ensuring correct fit of product within sample carton

4. identify that the methods of checking for accuracy and potential problems caused by the

wrong grain direction being used, will include: a) quality checks - determine squareness of carton through folding along creases; assemble locks and closures to ensure fit and strength b) problems - front panel of carton bowing, carton folding out of square, poor stacking ability c) weak carton construction

5. describe the principles of CAD, including:

a) single designs – to produce initial image of package b) multi-image layouts – to calculate efficient use of the manufacturing process c) sample output through plotter – provide customer and pre-production models d) other methods of manufacturing - laser die boards, creasing counters, stripping units

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6. list the hazards associated with sample making, including: a) cuts caused by the incorrect use of sharp tools b) the incorrect use of adhesives c) posture and eye problems through poor operating use when using computer

equipment 7. describe carton layouts and terminology as including:

a) the arrangement of cartons on predetermined board size to maximise board use and achieve efficient use of equipment

b) the use of gutters c) interlocking of multiple cartons on a sheet d) overall size – the measurement of extreme points of a carton in both x and y axis e) step size – the measurement from centre line of one carton to centre line of next in

both x and y axis f) gutter – space between cartons in a layout g) minimum sheet size – calculated usable board size including trims h) cutting size – calculated size of cutting area.

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Outcome 3: Describe the technological changes in design and manufacture of cartons as a form of packaging Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. describe the principles of CNC equipment listed below:

a) sample/graphics plotters – automatic production of carton samples and drawings from CAD

b) automatic rule benders – accurate repeat of rule shapes and sizes from CAD c) laser cutters – accurate cutting of die boards from CAD d) cutting and creasing machines – quick setting of equipment and tooling e) folder gluers – quick setting of equipment

2. describe the principles of in-line printing and die cutting as being the use of the last unit

of a multi-colour printing press for rotary die cutting 3. describe the developments in embossing die location using video fix method 4. describe the developments in cutting and creasing to include:

a) ejection materials – new type profile rubbers b) machine stripping – using graduated pin heights, stripping forks and flexible

supports 5. describe the developments in folding and gluing as including:

a) boxing glue applicators – computer controlled positioning of adhesive at high speed b) automatic feeding – continuous machine feed and stack turning c) automatic carton packing – continuous machine

6. describe the developments in automatic material handling – robotic handling of

materials and products.

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Outcome 4: Describe the make ready and operational procedures for cutting and creasing machinery, multi-folding and gluing machinery, and enhancing machinery Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. identify the instructions required for make-ready of machinery and equipment as

including: a) production details – quantity, job description, completion date b) carton specifications – style, size c) materials information – board, foils, films, adhesives details d) make-ready requirements – possible pre-make-ready details e) machinery requirements – minimum/maximum size, running speed, ability to

process the job f) quality requirements – sampling checks g) post production requirements – following operations, packing details, delivery date,

distribution details 2. identify that the operator responsibilities are:

a) to set up and operate machinery and equipment to achieve the job specification b) to identify and rectify faults c) the routine cleaning and maintenance of machinery and equipment d) to control quality assurance e) to complete required documentation for production and quality assurance f) the safety of one self and assistants

3. describe the sequence of operations for the cutting and creasing machines listed below:

a) hand platen press b) vertical light platen c) automatic horizontal flatbed platen - to achieve correctly set machines in minimum

time, to produce carton blanks of the best quality achievable, which will run at the most effective speed

4. state the reasons for following the correct sequence of operations required to set up the

cutting and creasing machines listed below: a) hand platen press b) vertical light platen c) automatic horizontal flatbed platen - to achieve correctly set machines in minimum

time, to produce carton blanks of the best quality achievable, which will run at the most effective speed

5. describe a matrix and its purpose as being material fixed to cutting plates with channels

cut in it to form creases of the correct width and depth in the material being processed 6. calculate matrix channel width and depth using the formulae listed below:

a) groove width against grain direction – 2 x board thickness + creasing rule thickness b) groove width with grain direction – 1.5 x bard thickness + creasing rule thickness c) groove depth – equal to material thickness

7. identify the common problems found in cutting and creasing, including:

a) poor crease quality – wrong channel, poor quality board, wrong pressure b) poor cutting quality – poor make ready, damaged rules c) poor material quality – bad stock d) feeder problems – sheets not separating, poor stacking e) poor register quality – incorrect grip/side lay, poor stacking f) cartons break out in machine – insufficient nicks, high pressure

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8. identify that the sequence of operations required to set up folding and gluing machine

will include: a) setting up feeder and feed gate b) positioning carriers for pre-fold c) positioning glue pot/overhead dispensers d) positioning carriers for final fold e) setting up trombone unit f) setting delivery/compression unit

9. identify the importance of pre-folding for packaging machines as being able to run at

effective speeds without cartons inverting on themselves when being opened to have product inserted

10. describe the common problems found in folding and gluing, and the rectification of the

problems, including: a) poor feeding – cartons blocking together, twisting upon entering pre-fold b) damage to carton – wrong speed of delivery/machine c) cartons twist while running through machine – uneven carrier pressures, glue on

machine parts d) glue problems – too much/not enough adhesive, incorrect speed of machine, wrong

type of adhesive e) poor production quantities – slow running, large gap between cartons

11. identify the reasons for enhancing as including: a) blocking – highlight graphic design features with coloured and metallic foils b) embossing – highlight graphic design features through raised areas c) window patching – allow visibility of product within the carton without allowing

contamination d) laminating – protect and strengthen substrate

12. describe the common problems found in enhancing, and the rectification of the problem,

including: a) blocking/embossing out of square b) block movement while running machine – insecure attachment of die c) temperature too high/low – non-foiled area filling in, foiled area patchy, incomplete d) pressure too high/low – deep impression, foiled area patchy, incomplete e) register of print/substrate being enhanced – poor set up of feed table f) adhesive application on window patching – incorrect amount of adhesive g) adhesive bond – incorrect type of adhesive, incorrect amount of adhesive h) mis-register of film – incorrect setting of film feed.

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Outcome 5: Describe the manufacturing procedures of die making and cutting, and creasing formes Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. state that the purpose of die formes is to cut and crease the substrate along specific

lines to a required size/shape 2. describe the following types of die formes:

a) one piece jigsaw cut b) one piece laser cut c) rotary d) wood block

3. state the advantages/disadvantages of the die boards listed above, including:

a) one piece jigsaw cut – advantages; i) easy storage ii) ease of handling

b) one piece jigsaw cut – disadvantages; i) reliant on jigsaw operator for accuracy ii) not easy to adjust to print register

c) one piece laser cut – advantages; i) extremely accurate ii) quick to produce

d) one piece laser cut – disadvantages; i) large area required for storage ii) can be heavy to handle

e) rotary – advantages; i) hard wearing for long runs ii) used for cutting heavy materials

f) rotary – disadvantages; i) storage

g) wood block – advantages; i) very accurate ii) easy adjustment to print register

h) wood block – disadvantages; i) large number of chases required for storage

4. describe the need for the following operations carried out on rule:

a) lipping – to achieve continuous cutting lines at joints b) bridging – allow rule to fit in one piece die formes with bridges c) chamfering rules – to achieve continuous cutting at angles other than 90 degrees

5. calculate creasing rule heights and thickness required for different thickness substrates:

a) height of rule - cutting rule height minus board thickness b) thickness of rule is determined by board thickness: 250 micron to 600 micron = 2 pt.;

625 micron to 800 micron = 3 pt.; 875 micron to 1000 micron = 4 pt.; 1100 micron to 1200 micron = 6 pt

6. identify the following types of punches and their reasons for use:

a) bowl – cut area remains in sheet b) side ejection – self clearing, cut area passes through side of punch c) spring – used on heavier materials, strong ejection facility d) inside bevel – provides clean cut around outer edge of punch e) outside bevel – provides tapered cut around outer edge of punch

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7. identify the hazards associated with die forme manufacture, including:

a) inserting/removing rules – cuts to hands/fingers b) saw blades – cuts and possible minor burns to hands/fingers c) eye injuries – possible contact from dust and splinters d) manual lifting – possible strains/muscle injuries from lifting die formes and boxes of

rule

8. describe the sequence of operations required to produce a die forme to include: a) producing the image on the die board b) cutting the image c) cutting, shaping and fitting rules d) producing a hand cut sample to check for make up and accuracy e) cutting and fitting appropriate ejection material

9. state the importance of using the correct type of ejection material on various areas of die

formes and different substrates as being to effectively eject the sheet from the rules and aid the transfer of the sheet through the cutting and creasing process without damaging the product

10. describe the point system as including:

a) the principles of the point system – derived from printing type size b) the relevance of the point system to die forme manufacture – rule thickness, die

board rule slot width.

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Outcome 6: Describe the purpose and principles of machine stripping Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. identify the principles of machine stripping, including:

a) types of stripping unit – plywood units, adjustable machine units b) costs – creating stripping units versus hand stripping c) running times – possible slower running to maintain sheet stability d) methods of stripping – removal of all waste, retention of front waste only

2. describe the principles of machine separation as cartons being:

a) separated after having waste removed b) pressed through a frame c) stacked on a pallet for further processing - interleaving sheets will be inserted at pre-

determined intervals to tie the stack together.

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Outcome 7: Describe the purpose and procedures for quality control in carton manufacturing processes Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. describe the importance of quality control in sample making, including:

a) face up/face down orientation b) make up of carton sample including security of closures c) correct size d) suitable material e) ability to hold the product

2. describe the importance of quality control in die forme manufacture, including:

a) print side up/down orientation b) size consistency of multi-image formes c) correct rule type used d) loose, damaged or missing rules e) correct type/amount of ejection material

3. describe the importance of quality control in cutting and creasing, including:

a) print register b) creasing quality c) cutting quality d) cleanliness of cartons e) efficient running speeds

4. describe the importance of quality control in enhancing, including:

a) position of blocking/embossing b) quality of foiling and foil transfer c) pressure of blocking/embossing d) using correct materials e) efficient running speeds f) positioning of window patch film g) adhesive bond h) avoidance of excess glue

5. describe the importance of quality control in folding and gluing, including:

a) squareness of fold b) amount of pre-fold required c) adhesive bond d) avoidance of excess glue e) marking of cartons f) efficient running speeds.

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Unit 313 ICT for print administration

Rationale This unit is concerned with developing a clear understanding of the uses of information communications technology (ICT) in print administration, including word processing, spreadsheets, databases and electronic communications. Outcomes There are five outcomes to this unit. The candidate will be able to 1. describe the principles of ICT 2. describe the use of spreadsheets in print administration 3. describe the use of databases in print administration 4. describe the use of reports and presenting information 5. describe the use of electronic communications in print administration. Connections with other awards This unit contributes towards the knowledge and understanding required for units 423, 513, 514, 515, 516, 517, 518, 520, 522 and 523 of the Level 3 NVQ in Printing. Assessment This unit will be assessed by means of a short written answer test covering the five outcomes.

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Outcome 1: Describe the principles of ICT Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. define the main uses of ICT in print administration as:

a) communications e.g. letters, reports and e-mails b) managing customer and supplier information c) processing customer enquiries and orders d) processing data e) estimating f) financial accounting

2. explain the purpose and use of hardware, including:

a) hard drive/disk b) motherboard c) central processing unit (CPU) d) Random Access Memory (RAM) e) compact disk read and write (CDRW) f) digital versatile disk (DVD) g) network interface cards h) wireless and infra red devices i) communication media - modem, WAP phone, ADSL, ISDN

3. describe computer networks:

a) peer to peer b) client/server

and their methods of connection as including: i) microwave ii) infrared iii) cable

4. explain the purpose and use of removable storage media 5. state that the hard disk is a high-speed storage device usually used for storing programs

that run the computer and data in the form of files – and that the size of the hard disk is usually measured in megabytes or gigabytes

6. explain that the use of software is governed by licence and copyright 7. explain that the use of personal data is regulated by the Data Protection Act 8. describe the principles related to the ownership of data and responsibility for maintaining

the confidentiality and security of this data 9. describe the main features of the Computer Misuse Act e.g. use of e-mail, hacking, virus

generation, distribution and protection, wilful damage of data and systems.

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Outcome 2: Describe the use of spreadsheets in print administration

Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. define the mathematical functions that can be included in formulae as:

a) mathematical actions such as + - * or / b) sum ∑ – add the numbers in the cells identified c) average – average the numbers in the cells identified d) count – number of cells in the range identified e) maximum – largest value in the cells identified f) minimum – smallest value in the cell identified

2. identify the advantages of using freeze panes, screen borders and windows 3. describe commonly used cell formats and relate them to typically used numeric data 4. identify why different types of charts are suited to different types of data.

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Outcome 3: Describe the use of databases in print administration Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. describe why data may need to be extracted from one database and stored in another

database 2. describe the difference between looked up data and dynamically linked data 3. describe the use of a filter in databases.

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Outcome 4: Describe the use of reports and presenting information Underpinning Knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. describe how common word processing facilities, e.g. mail merge, templates, tables and

styles, can be used in documents 2. describe how different styles and sizes of type can affect the appearance of a document 3. describe the purpose of using and when to use text enhancement 4. describe how the use and positioning of graphics can be used to improve the

appearance of a document 5. identify the main purpose of using headers and footers 6. describe reasons for using graphic representation of data in documents.

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Outcome 5: Describe the use of electronic communications in print administration Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. state that documents containing text, images and numerical information can be sent

within e-mails as attachments 2. describe potential problems with using automated reply methods, where groups or list of

recipients are used 3. state the advantages and disadvantages of using an address book 4. describe the purpose of compression/decompression software for sending large files e.g.

Portable Document Format (pdf) as attachment to documents and the differences between permanent e.g. pdf, jpg and temporary e.g. zip, sit compressed file formats

5. describe the purpose and use of firewalls and anti-virus software.

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Unit 314 Estimating and costing

Rationale This unit is concerned with developing a clear understanding of the role and purpose of identifying costs and providing estimates to meet customer specifications. Outcomes There are four outcomes to this unit. The candidate will be able to 1. explain how estimates are made up, how direct and indirect costs are provided for

within the estimate, and how a selling price is determined 2. explain why different methods of producing a job will affect the cost of production and

how estimating software contributes to the process of accurate estimating and process optimisation

3. describe estimated and actual costs of production 4. state the procedures for producing invoices and dealing with queries. Connection with other awards This unit contributes towards the knowledge and understanding required for units B1, 513, 514, 515 and 516 of the Level 3 NVQ in Printing. Assessment This unit will be assessed by means of a short written answer test covering the four outcomes.

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Outcome 1: Explain how estimates are made up, how direct and indirect costs are provided for within the estimate, and how a selling price is determined Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. state that estimated costs are the predicted costs of producing a particular job based on

experience of production times for different processes, expected materials usage and cost and accurate hourly cost rates

2. state that estimated costs will include all the direct costs contained in the job such as

materials, labour and artwork and may include an apportionment of the indirect costs, such as the costs of managing the company, the premises costs, energy, insurance and administration

3. identify that an estimate given to a customer will also usually include an element of profit

as determined by the management of the company and which is likely to depend on several factors

4. state that an estimate given to a customer is not usually regarded as a fixed price in law,

whereas a quotation usually is 5. identify that the actual costs of a job can only be known after the job has been

completed 6. state that the estimating process will normally begin with a customer enquiry, for a:

a) repeat order b) new order c) variation of a previously printed job

7. state that information about repeat orders and variations will normally be contained in

the company records 8. state that the information required to prepare an estimate includes:

a) the type of job (brochure, leaflet, poster, headed stationery, magazine etc) b) the quantity required c) the finished size d) the type paper/board required e) the number of colours f) the finishing details and trimmed size g) whether the job is to be quoted ex works or is delivery also required h) what the customer will supply

9. identify the operations required to produce any job as:

a) the creation of original artwork, which may include text, images, and illustrations b) the production of proofs for approval by the customer c) the creation of an image carrier containing suitably imposed pages d) printing processes e) finishing processes f) packing and despatch

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10. state that the information available to estimate the cost of production comes from a number of different sources, including: a) supplier materials or outwork price lists along with delivery times, discounts offered,

payment terms etc b) production records for previous jobs of a similar nature c) estimates of previous jobs for same customer d) pre-prepared estimate forms e) database of suppliers and their specialities f) material sample books

11. define the materials as including:

a) bromide paper or film (together with an allowance for processing chemistry) b) image carriers, e.g. plates, gravure cylinders, screens, blocks, stereos (together with

an allowance for processing chemistry) c) coatings (e.g. inks, toners, varnishes) d) substrates (e.g. paper, board, plastics, metal, flexible packaging) e) finishing materials (e.g. laminates, adhesives, cover materials, backing or mounting

boards) f) packing materials

12. define outwork requirements as including:

a) artwork related (e.g. design, scanning) b) plate, cylinder or screen making c) proofing d) trade printing e) varnishing or laminating f) cutting and creasing or other specialist finishing process g) folding and securing

13. state that labour costs can be estimated in a number of ways, and the most common is

by using hourly cost rates for each process, piece of equipment or individual worker 14. state that hourly cost rates are usually obtained by adding together all the costs related

to a particular piece of equipment, for example premises costs (based on the space the machine occupies), operator, energy, maintenance and depreciation, financing costs, and that the total costs annually, monthly, or weekly arrived at are then divided by the number of hours available for production over the same period

15. state that hourly cost rates may also include an apportionment of the company’s indirect

costs and that this method of covering all the company overheads is known as full absorption costing

16. identify that indirect costs can also be provided for by not including them in the hourly

cost rates, but by adding a percentage or fixed amount to the estimated direct costs, and that this method is known as marginal costing

17. state that some of the indirect costs may be recovered by adding a percentage or fixed

amount to individual components within the job, such as the materials (e.g. to cover the costs of ordering, handling and storage), the outwork, packaging, despatch, etc

18. identify that by adding together all the estimated direct costs of producing a job (e.g.

materials, labour, outwork) together with an amount for the estimated indirect costs, a total can be arrived at for the estimated cost of producing the job

19. state that companies usually operate to make a profit, so an uplift or mark-up is made to the total estimated costs before giving a price to the customer

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20. state that the amount of any uplift/mark-up for profit and the establishing of a selling price is determined by considering company strengths, weaknesses, opportunities and threats (SWOT) in relation to the job, the customer, and company business

21. identify that the reasons for setting the selling price at a particular level may be the result of: a) the pressure of market forces – where there is strong competition for work and price

may need to reflect this b) current workload in the company – if busy, this may lead to a relaxed view about

taking on additional work, or, if slack, the need to get orders to keep the operators and machines busy

c) type of work - whether it fits easily with the company production methods or would require changes to accommodate it

d) client history – whether is it a long-standing customer, who brings a substantial amount of work to the company, or a new customer who needs to be encouraged in the hope of placing future order, or a customer who is a bad or late payer, or one who constantly changes the job specification

22. define the strengths as including:

a) a full order book b) the specialist or highly productive equipment possessed c) the expertise in producing jobs of this nature d) the relationship with the customer e) the position in the market place for this type of work

23. define the weaknesses as:

a) lack of forward orders for this type of work b) relative new position in this market place or with this customer

24. define the opportunities as a wish to:

a) attract a new customer b) achieve greater profitability c) enter a new market

25. define the threats as:

a) the competitive nature of the market for this type of work b) previous relationships/experiences with this client

26. state that a market driven pricing policy may result in different profit margins being

achieved for different products within the company’s range and even for different customers.

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Outcome 2: Explain why different methods of producing a job will affect the cost of production and how estimating software contributes to the process of accurate estimating and process optimisation Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. state that the main purpose of costing and estimating is to evaluate the possible

methods of achieving the customer specification and deciding which is the most cost effective

2. state that whilst material costs may remain similar for different methods of production,

the labour, equipment costs and outwork costs may change significantly for different methods of working, machines employed and quantities produced

3. explain that although bigger and faster machines will usually have a lower unit cost of

production when running, the hourly cost rates and setting up times may have a significant effect on the costs of producing smaller quantities

4. explain why, in a company with several differently specified machines, operating at

different hourly cost rates, it may not be immediately apparent to an estimator which machine will be the most cost effective for a particular job

5. state that in order to estimate the most cost effective method of production, the

estimator may have to make several calculations using different hourly cost rates, make-ready times and running speeds for each different machine, and then compare the results of those calculations

6. state that in order to estimate the most cost effective method of production, the

estimator may have to make several calculations using different methods of working, impositions and/or finishing methods, and then compare the results of these calculations

7. state that a computer estimating programme can help considerably in determining the

most cost effective method of production by quickly and accurately comparing the costs of alternate methods of working and/or machines used

8. state that computer estimating programmes also aid the calculation of estimates

through: a) speed – computers are able to make complicated calculations much faster b) data storage and retrieval - previous data and information can be stored, accessed

and re-used for other estimates c) consistency and accuracy – the same hourly cost rates can be used even when

several people are producing estimates, and arithmetical errors may be reduced d) administrative efficiency – estimates can be retrieved and the data used to create

job bags/works tickets/instructions and the basis for estimated and actual cost comparisons

e) integration –estimates are available to management as part of a larger management information system and can be used to drive stock control, production planning, sales and marketing functions.

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Outcome 3: Describe estimated and actual costs of production Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. state that establishing the actual costs of producing the job and recording the

information involves the following: a) accurately recording the actual cost of outwork required to produce the job and

establishing the cost b) accurately recording the actual time taken and cost for each task carried out c) accurately recording the actual cost of all materials used to produce the job

2. identify the sources from which the information can be gathered as including:

a) daily dockets/time sheets/shop floor data collection systems b) material used, such as stock usage reports c) works instruction tickets or job bags d) despatch notes e) outwork and materials orders and/or invoices f) direct services

3. state that it is normal practice is to collate all information about costs from the

documents listed in item 2 onto a single summary sheet 4. state that the purpose of a summary sheet is to ensure that all the costs that have been

incurred in producing the job are captured and recorded 5. state that, if the actual costs of labour, materials and outwork are added to the indirect

costs (administration, packing, delivery, handling etc), the total actual cost of production of the job can be discovered and compared with the estimate

6. state that IT systems are ideal for accurately recording, calculating and presenting

information relating to estimated and actual costs, and that most companies use some form of Management information System (MIS) for this purpose

7. state that an MIS may be either an off-the-shelf package, or one specifically written for

the company 8. state that the problems for administrative staff attempting to gain an accurate picture of

the actual costs are: a) tasks being overlooked or omitted, leading to a false picture of cost and the

impression of a bigger profit than was actually achieved or a belief that a higher than necessary estimate was produced for the job

b) the complete time being spent on the job is not entered, producing a false picture of the costs

c) the time being spent on a job is inflated to ensure the required shift hours are covered, leading to a false picture being created of a loss or an underestimate on the job

9. state that, for the purpose of reviewing cost data, the works instruction ticket/job bag

may provide the following information: a) a cross check on the materials used to produce the job b) information about all the operations involved in producing the job c) whether any author’s corrections were carried out and any extra proofs supplied d) delivery method for the job

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10. state that a Despatch Note or Advice Form is usually sent to the customer, giving information about what the consignment contains

11. state that the Despatch Note or Advice Form will also tell the customer and the accounts

department of the total quantity delivered, so that it can be checked and invoiced in due course

12. state that a check with the estimate for the job (if any) will reveal whether the:

a) difference between the estimated and actual costs is so close as not to matter b) actual costs are much greater than the estimated costs c) actual costs are much lower than the estimated costs

13. state that significant variations between estimated and actual costs must be investigated

and that the first check should be to establish that all the data is present and has been accurately recorded

14. identify that when all data has been verified as present and accurate, any significant

variation between estimated and actual costs is most likely to be due to one of the following reasons: a) the estimate was correct but actual costs of production were greater due to longer

time (more labour) being taken to produce the job; higher material costs either by purchase price increases or wastage of material; higher outwork costs; or a more expensive method of production being used

b) the estimate was correct but actual costs of production were lower due to a shorter time (less labour) being used to produce the job; lower material costs, either through better purchasing or more efficient use of material; lower outwork costs; or a more efficient method of production being used

c) the actual costs were fair but the estimate was too low due to the omission or underestimate of the time for one or more processes; or underestimate of materials or outwork costs

d) the actual costs were fair but the estimate was too high due to an over-estimate of the time for one or more processes; or over-estimate of materials or outwork costs

e) the specification of the job changed between estimate and production (and the charge for the job must reflect this)

f) author alterations and corrections have occurred, which were not included in the estimate (and are most likely chargeable as an extra)

15. state that, where there are differences between the actual cost and estimated cost, this

may need to be discussed with staff involved in production, sales, estimating and purchasing as follows: a) the production staff needing to look at the way they carry out their operations with a

view to introducing cost savings and/or improving efficiency and productivity b) the estimating staff needing to review their hourly cost rates and production speeds c) the purchasing staff needing to monitor the supply and costs of materials and

outwork, and seek alternative suppliers where necessary d) the sales staff needing to review the profit uplift being applied to particular types of

work 16. state that comparing actual costs with estimated costs on a regular basis enables the

accuracy of the estimating and/or efficiency of production to be established 17. state that comparing actual costs with selling prices on a regular basis enables trends

about which type of work is profitable and which is not to be identified, and that this should be discussed with the sales staff to look at the type of work they are promoting.

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Outcome 4: State the procedures for producing invoices and dealing with queries Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. identify that the term ‘invoice’ is used to describe a document sent to another person or

organisation which contains details of goods or services supplied and the charge for those goods/services

2. state that the term ‘credit note’ is used to describe a document sent to another person or

company to effect a reduction in the amount charged on an invoice 3. state that the production of an invoice will normally involve consulting the following

documents: a) any estimate or quotation given to the customer for the goods/services b) previous job records c) works order/instruction ticket/job bag d) customer’s order e) cost summary sheet f) information about any overs produced and whether these are chargeable g) information about any shortages and the allowance to be made for the same h) amendments made to order during production i) despatch advice note(s)

4. state that the items to be charged to the customer, include:

a) work originally ordered b) additional work requested and carried out

5. state that any estimate(s) should include:

a) the price estimated or quoted to the customer b) the date of the estimate c) whether any alterations were subsequently requested and revised estimates

submitted

6. state that previous job records may be helpful where an estimate has not been issued to the customer and will provide information about what charges were made previously

7. state that the works order/instruction ticket/job bag should indicate any changes made

during the production processes, including: a) increases/decreases in the quantity b) size of the job c) number of colours d) type or weight of paper e) amendments or alterations to the text made by the customer (author’s corrections) f) despatch or delivery details

8. state that the customer’s order should indicate clearly what the customer required and is prepared to pay for

9. state that any overs produced may be charged for if the Terms and Conditions, under

which the contract was made, permit for them to be charged and whether there is a limit to the quantity of overs that may be so charged

10. state that the despatch instructions and/or the original estimate may indicate whether

the cost of delivery of the finished job will fall on the company or the customer

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11. identify the items normally included on an invoice as being: a) the date on which the invoice is being issued b) customer name and address, including status as a company, e.g. plc/ltd, or as an

individual, partnership or firm c) customer’s order number or reference number (if any) d) the work carried out , possibly identifying any additional work not included on the

original estimate e) invoice value excluding VAT f) if the vendor is a VAT registered person - the rate of VAT applying to the goods or

services, the tax point, the actual amount of VAT and the VAT registration number of the vendor

g) total amount due from the customer h) details of payment due date i) details of payment terms j) the name(s) of the person(s) or organisation issuing the invoice, their usual place of

business and, if a company, the registered office address and registered company number

12. state that it is normal practice to include Terms and Conditions of Contract with the

estimate and/or order acknowledgement and this will usually include reference to the following: a) price variations b) tax c) preliminary work d) copy supplied e) proofs provided f) delivery and payment g) variations in quantity h) claims i) liability j) customer’s property k) material supplied by the customer l) insolvency m) illegal matter (obscene, libellous etc) n) force majeure o) resolution of disputes

13. state that queries from customers relating to invoices should be dealt with promptly and

courteously 14. state that the range of queries from customers may include:

a) quantities of finished job delivered b) amount charged for extras c) mathematical error in calculating the total d) quality of finished product

15. state that the actions following a query from a customer may result in:

a) a credit note being raised b) an amended invoice being issued c) reference to a higher authority within the company for response.

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Unit 315 Production planning and control

Rationale This unit is concerned with developing a clear understanding of the role and purpose of production planning and control, including the systems and procedures commonly used in the printing and graphic communications industry. Outcomes There are three outcomes to this unit. The candidate will be able to 1. identify the requirements for production 2. identify the procedures for preparing production schedules 3. identify the procedures for organising and monitoring production. Connection with other awards This unit contributes towards the knowledge and understanding required for units B1, 513, 519, 520, 521 and 522 of the Level 3 NVQ in Printing. Assessment This unit will be assessed by means of a short written answer test covering the three outcomes.

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Outcome 1: Identify the requirements for production Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. state that production control is a management function that plans, directs and controls

the production activities of the company to ensure the best advantage is made of: a) labour b) equipment c) materials d) capital

2. identify that a production control system must be capable of performing the following

functions: a) planning b) scheduling c) provisioning d) control

3. state that the term ‘planning’ is a series of short term activities covering:

a) estimating b) technical planning c) preparation of works instructions d) stock control e) outwork purchasing f) materials control

4. state that planning in the wider sense may also involve long-term activities, such as:

a) sales forecasting b) market research c) purchase of capital equipment d) financial and labour requirements

5. state that the term ‘scheduling’ involves loading jobs through the production processes

to meet customer requirements, whilst gaining the optimum use of the equipment, labour and materials

6. state that the term ‘provisioning’ is the term used to describe the procedure of ensuring

the right materials are at the right place at the right time 7. state that the term ‘control’ is used to describe the set of procedures that ensure the

production plans are followed by the respective production departments, and thataction plans are initiated when the progress of a particular job is out of step with the plan

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8. analyse the benefits of an effective production control system as being: a) the volume of work for any particular load centre (department) is clearly identified

along with any spare capacity b) information on the progress of any individual job, including the amount of work

completed and that which has still to be completed, is readily available c) any overload in capacity during normal working hours is identified, allowing steps to

be taken to arrange for additional hours to be scheduled d) any area where the recorded time or materials used in excess of the budgeted or

estimated figures is highlighted and decisions made as to whether any extra cost can be attributed to the customer

e) sudden changes in priorities in the production requirements, due to equipment breakdown, operator illness, are accommodated and incorporated into the production plan

9. state that the documentation commonly incorporated in a production control system

includes: a) works orders (work instruction tickets, cost sheets, materials release, job control

cards) b) loading cards c) stock control cards d) production programme sheets/work to lists e) production return/feedback sheets

10. state that, on receipt of an order from a customer, the steps to be taken include:

a) acknowledging receipt of the customer’s order b) checking the details of the order against the original enquiry and estimate c) identifying any differences, for example in the number of copies required, the

materials to be used, delivery dates and location d) raising a revised estimate that incorporates the differences if required e) identifying any potential production problems that completion of the job may cause

as a result of the resources required or the delivery schedule specified by the customer

f) advising the customer of any difficulties and negotiate solutions that take account of the needs of the customer and company policies and procedures

g) informing the customer of any additional charges that may be incurred and obtaining agreement for them

h) raising a works instruction ticket for the job, when any difficulties have been resolved 11. state that, where a discrepancy occurs between the original estimate and the customer’s

order, the action to be taken includes: a) studying the job specification and methodically identifying the differences b) preparing a revised estimate based on the new specification c) making contact with the customer to go through the changes to highlight the cost

differences and production problems d) reaching agreement with the customer on the production of the new job

specification/timescales and costs 12. define the supplies required for any particular job as including:

a) materials – stock, plates, film etc b) equipment in production departments c) personnel time in production departments d) outwork operations for the required processes

13. state that the availability of supplies for the job should be confirmed to ensure they will

be accessible in the required quantities to meet the specification, therefore allowing the job to be completed on time

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14. state that, where supplies for the job are not available, appropriate steps should be taken to obtain the supplies from alternative sources

15. state that the identification of the requirements for production will include identifying any

problems that are apparent in meeting the production specification of the job, taking the necessary action and communicating the information to the relevant people

16. analyse the production specification for a particular job as being the:

a) number of good copies required by the customer b) quality required by the customer c) delivery schedule for the job as specified by the customer, which could involve the

delivery of the whole job, a specified number of copies or a timed delivery to a specified location

d) use of outside suppliers, such as outworkers or another company supplying elements of the job (covers, inserts etc) or undertaking parts of the job (cutting and creasing etc)

17. state that problems that arise in meeting the production requirements for a particular job

include: a) machines not being available at the required time due to planned maintenance,

defects awaiting repair, or being scheduled for other jobs b) materials being out of stock, delivered late or being required for other jobs with a

greater priority c) outworkers not being available at the time required or for length of time necessary to

complete the job 18. define the range of actions needed to deal with problems as including:

a) reporting the problem to a higher authority for decision on the approproiate action to be taken

b) recording the problem on the relevant internal document c) clarifying the problem with the relevant people or company to ensure a simple

misunderstanding is not causing the problem d) resolving the problem by using in-house resources

19. state that problems that arise out of production requirements can also provide

opportunities for other jobs to be slotted in or for pressure to to be taken off other parts of the production process.

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Outcome 2: Identify the procedures for preparing production schedules Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. state that the range of jobs requiring production schedules include:

a) routine orders b) urgent orders c) orders requiring internal work and external outwork d) orders with multiple delivery dates

2. state that the scheduling of work is likely to be part of a system for planning and

controlling the production of jobs as they move through the various processes 3. define the main features of such a system as being:

a) planning the production methods and processes for each job b) estimating the time available and times required for each operation c) recording of data as each job progresses through the production processes

4. describe the advantages of planning and controlling production as including:

a) better utilisation of the available resources b) increased production leading to greater profitability for the company and job security

for the employees c) improved harmony and cohesion amongst the production departments d) reduced stocks of materials, as supplies can be ordered to meet the production

schedule for each job e) less work in progress because each job can be scheduled through each of the

required production processes f) better relationships with customers as jobs are completed and delivered according

to schedule 5. state that, without a system of planning and controlling production, there is likely to be:

a) excessive stocks of materials to allow for any possible requirement b) excessive work in progress because each job goes immediately to production

without any thought about how and when it will be completed c) low morale amongst the employees as there will be no order to the jobs coming

through and no priority on which should be done first d) chaotic delivery of orders as there will no way of determining when any particular job

will be completed, resulting in poor customer relationships e) low utilisation of equipment as jobs become grouped together, combined with long

waiting times between jobs

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6. state that, for the system to be effective, there is need for a Production Controller with responsibility for: a) the organisation of jobs through the various production departments or load centres

– a single unit of production, a printing press or group of units such as the platemaking department

b) organising the supply of materials c) overseeing outwork production, including the despatch of materials and their return d) compiling schedules to ensure optimum utilisation of the available resources e) updating and reorganising schedules to meet changed circumstances f) the communication of information about the schedules to all relevant departments g) ensuring production times comply with the budgeted output times h) ensuring delivery dates or schedules to customers are met

7. state that the documents associated with a production control system are:

a) works order set b) job control cards c) visual loading board d) T-cards e) production programme sheets f) production return sheets

8. define the works order as including:

a) works instruction ticket/job bag b) cost sheet c) materials release d) cutting slip - information about the materials required for the job, such as paper or

board, and the cutting instructions for the material 9. state that the works instruction ticket/job bag can take the form of a single sheet or a

printed envelope and is used to instruct the various production departments about the operations and activities required to process the job

10. describe the amount of information contained on the works instruction ticket/job bag as

including: a) the type and weight of stock to be used b) the number of sheets required and the length of the run c) the type, colour and quantity of ink d) the number and type of plates required for the job e) the method of working to complete the job f) the finished size of the job g) the number of workings/colours h) the colour sequence to achieve the required result i) any special instructions and post printing requirements j) the date for delivery of the completed job to the customer

11. identify that job control cards are used to carry the job details, that the front contains

sufficient details to plan the production and the reverse provides the opportunity to reproduce the information which is on the works instruction ticket/job bag

12. state that customer details and job number are normally at the top and that the figures at

the top provide a diary to check for significant dates 13. state that the progress of the job is indicated by striking through the relevant completion

dates to indicate that the job has passed through a particular section or department 14. identify that a visual loading board is used to provide an at-a-glance view of the current

and future status of jobs in the department or load centre and the sequence in which they will run

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15. state that the visual loading board can also be used to indicate the long-term availability or booked capacity of a particular piece of equipment

16. state that the term ‘T- Cards’ is used to describe the shape of the cards placed in racks

or slotted panels of the visual loading board as part of a job sequencing system 17. state that the essential details, such as customer, job number and completion date, are

entered on the horizontal bar of the T and the additional information on the vertical bar, hidden away in the slotted panel

18. identify that, as the job progresses, the card is moved along the board to the next

department to provide an easy visual check on where any particular job is being worked on at any one time

19. state that the sequence or priority of jobs is normally produced on production

programme sheets or work-to list, with the sheets issued at the start of the week for each department, or section and updated each day according to the progress or otherwise of the jobs in hand

20. define the term ‘scheduling’ as placing of jobs in the sequence they should be

completed by each department or load centre 21. explain that an important part of the scheduling for any job is to identify the potential

production problems that might occur to prevent the job being completed successfully or to delay it and that these include: a) the inability of the production processes to produce the required result b) a conflict in demand caused by other jobs already in production and demanding

priority over the available resources c) delays caused by the suppliers not delivering materials on time, or customers failing

to supply the required materials (artwork, film, paper etc) d) bottlenecks caused by a number of jobs having to go through a particular process

with limited capacity e) machine breakdowns f) insufficient manpower due to sickness, holiday, vacancies or non-availability for

overtime working g) technical faults caused by a problem with a piece of equipment.

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Outcome 3: Identify the procedures for organising and monitoring production Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. identify that, for effective organisation and monitoring of production, regular

communication is essential between all departments and personnel involved in the production process

2. define the the list of departments and personnel as including:

a) supervisors/line managers of the relevant production departments b) purchasing department c) sales department d) despatch office e) customer

3. identify examples of good communication between departments such as:

a) sales team and estimators consulting about gaining orders to match customer expectations

b) purchasing department maintaining contact with the production departments to ensure that materials are available on time and in the right quantity

4. state that the production control function would cease to function without a suitable

feedback system from each department to indicate at the end of each day which jobs have been passed on and which are still to be completed

5. identify that the information fed back from the production departments is used to update

the production control board and provide the basis for the updated production programme sheets

6. explain that organising and monitoring production to meet customer needs has the

potential to create conflict between colleagues and departments 7. state that the aim of organising and monitoring production is not to apportion blame, but

to understand the cause of the problem and suggest what amendments or changes could be made to the working practices or procedures to improve the situation

8. state that colleagues should be treated in an appropriate manner and the goodwill

should be promoted 9. state that the style of communication with work colleagues, supervisors and suppliers

should be appropriate to their needs and reflect their position and experience 10. identify that the process of monitoring the flow of jobs through the production

departments will vary from company to company and, in small companies the manager may undertake the role as part of the general administration, whereas in larger companies an account executive or customer care member may have this responsibility

11. state that, in small companies, where all the production departments are likely to be

close at hand, the information on the progress of a job is likely to be gathered through informal communications

12. state that, in large companies, where the production departments may be spread over a

considerable area, there is likely to be a more formal system in place involving written communications about the progress of jobs

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13. state that, in those companies where single shifts operate, it will normally be sufficient for a daily check to be made on the progress of a job, but where multiple shifts operate, a check will normally be made at the end of each shift to provide an up-to-date record

14. state that companies with computerised management information systems (MIS) will

collect information about the progress of jobs from the keypads or bar code readers 15. identify that, where there is no MIS system, it is normal to have a written form that can

be completed by the supervisor/line manager to record the progress of jobs at the end of each shift or at the end of each day

16. state that, as jobs are received, they are normally logged into the order book and

allocated space in the works or production schedule 17. state that the Production Control Department will:

a) dictate the precise sequence of dealing with the various jobs, or b) issue a list of jobs to be completed during a particular period (day or week), leaving

the supervisor/line manager to organise the order in which they are processed 18. identify that, once completed, the schedule becomes the authority for the production

departments to proceed and, if difficulties subsequently arise, which indicate a need for an adjustment to the schedule, consultations with the relevant departments and colleagues should be held before any changes are made

19. state that the impact upon other jobs and the knock-on effect on other departments will

need to be considered together with the financial constraints under which the job is being produced

20. state that there will be a set of standard procedures for adjusting work schedules and

these should be followed 21. describe the actions to adjust the production schedule as including:

a) altering the production method b) organising an additional shift or overtime c) move the job to another machine d) outsourcing the job to another printer

22. state that controlling and monitoring the production process will involve communicating

to the appropriate departments and personnel in writing using a variety of documentation

23. state that accuracy and legibility are an essential part of the communication process 24. explain the purpose of acurately monitoring individual pieces of equipment as being to:

a) ensure planned maintenance tasks are carried out b) identify where an overhaul is required c) make recommendations for replacements when required

25. identify where assistance can be obtained to help with:

a) new employee training b) further training for skilled employees c) assisting crew members to gain relevant qualifications.

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Unit 316 Service customer accounts

Rationale This unit is concerned with developing a clear understanding of promoting the company, the impact of marketing upon the production and providing a service to customers. Outcomes There are three outcomes to this unit. The candidate will be able to 1. identify the methods of promoting company products and services 2. identify the methods of contacting customers and handling their different needs 3. describe the procedures for handling customer complaints and ways of improving

customer service. Connection with other awards This unit contributes towards the knowledge and understanding required for units 513, 524, 525, 526, 527 and 528 of the Level 3 NVQ in Printing. Assessment This unit will be assessed by means of a short written answer test covering the three outcomes.

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Outcome 1: Identify the methods of promoting company products and services Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. state that promoting the products and services of a company is an important part of print

administration 2. state that the company products and services should be promoted to existing and new

customers 3. state that the methods of promoting company products and services to existing and new

customers will include: a) press advertisements b) directory inserts, e.g. Yellow Pages c) general distribution of brochures and leaflets d) personalised direct mail to specific potential customers e) cold calling by the company employees or a direct selling organisation f) Web site to promote and receive/process estimates and orders g) e-commerce aimed at print buyers

4. state that keeping an existing customer is more effective and efficient than attempting to

win new ones 5. explain that getting to know customers and gaining their trust will help to keep them

loyal to the company 6. identify that, to gain the trust of a customer, it is necessary to specify clearly the

products and services offered by the company that are appropriate to the customer 7. state that, when talking to a potential customer, the absence of jargon or technical terms

will help to give them confidence 8. identify that, where customers demonstrate technical knowledge or expertise, it should

be acknowledged in discussions.

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Outcome 2: Identify the methods of contacting customers and handling their different needs Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. state that good communications with customers can bring about improvements in the

following areas: a) the image of the company with regards to customers and suppliers b) the profits of the company c) the working relationships with customers and suppliers d) the morale of the staff

2. explain that communicating with customers is an important function of the print

administration department and that communications will take the form of: a) non-verbal discussions b) face-to-face discussions c) written (letters, facsimiles, e-mails etc) d) telephone conversations

3. identify that effective communication includes:

a) listening b) questioning c) empathising d) presenting e) persuading f) writing g) use of body language h) use of interpersonal skills

4. describe communication as a three way process involving:

a) listening b) questioning c) non-verbal communication

5. state that to listen effectively means:

a) never making assumptions b) paying attention c) not forming judgements about the person speaking or what they are saying until they

have finished d) not interrupting the speaker

6. define effective questioning as meaning:

a) avoiding closed or leading questions b) using open questions - how, why, what, who, when, where

7. define effective non-verbal communication as meaning:

a) giving a clear indication of listening b) maintaining an open stance

8. state that face-to-face communication consists of the: a) words we speak to relay our thoughts and feelings b) body language that gives non-verbal signs to back up the message c) voice that uses inflexion to give another layer of meaning to the message

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9. identify the advantages of face-to-face communication as allowing: a) speaker and listener to understand each others’ mood and to interpret it b) immediate action to be taken clarify any information or instructions

10. identify the use of body language as an important tool in face-to-face communications 11. state that written communication has the advantage of being permanent and less liable

to misinterpretation, and is recognised for legal purposes 12. state that, unless sent as a facsimile or an e-mail, written communication is not suitable

for urgent messages 13. state that communication by telephone has similar advantages and disadvantages as

face-to-face communication, but relies on verbal questioning alone to check the correct interpretation of the message

14. state that customers may have problems with:

a) sight b) speech c) hearing d) reading e) writing f) language

15. state that communicating effectively with customers who have disabilities may involve

the provision of devices or services to assist those with impaired hearing or vision 16. identify that any information given to meet the needs of a customer should be:

a) complete b) accurate c) relevant d) prompt

17. state that servicing the needs of customers will be assisted by keeping a file of:

a) estimates b) orders c) production details d) invoices

18. state that the information relating to customers and customer service that needs to be

stored, includes: a) appointment diaries b) codes of practice c) complaints procedure details d) customer details e) letters and press cuttings about customers and the company f) order information g) product and service information h) samples of finished work i) samples of paper and boards j) colour charts k) statistics l) statutory information relating to the customer

19. identify that the method of storing information may be:

a) electronic – via a computer b) paper based system – filing cabinet

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20. state that whatever the storage method it is important that information can be found quickly and that confidentiality is retained

21. state that providing feedback to colleagues about the needs of particular customers is

important as a way of: a) identifying the changing needs of customers b) developing opportunities for communicating with them c) advising individuals within the organisation of the needs of customers d) identifying the results of a situation in which assistance has been given

22. state that the relevant legislation covering customer relations includes:

a) Data Protection Act, 1984 - protects the individual against commercial organisations misusing their personal information

b) Consumer Protection Act, 1987 - protects customers against goods or products, which may cause injury or loss

c) Trade Descriptions Act 1968 - protects consumers against false or misleading goods or products

d) Sales of Goods Act 1979 - protects the customer by defining the contract of sales and its implications

e) Consumer Credit Act 1974 protects the customer by defining what credit is and imposing rules about payments

f) Health and Safety at Work Act 1974 - provides a duty of care to the customer on business premises

g) Food Safety Act 1987 - sets standards of food preparation and delivery h) Copyright, Designs and Patents Act, 1988 – protects every piece of literary,

dramatic, musical and artistic work i) Children’s and Young Person’s (Harmful Publications) Act, 1955 – makes it an

offence to publish or print books or magazines containing stories or pictures that portray the commissioning of crimes, acts of violence or cruelty, or incidents of a repulsive or horrible nature that might tend to corrupt a child or young person into whose hands it might fall

j) Obscene Publications Acts, 1959 and 1964 – makes it an offence to distribute, circulate, sell, let or hire and obscene article

k) Printer’s Imprint Act, 1961 – requires a printer (subject to certain exceptions) to put his name and address on the first or last leaf of every paper or book he prints

l) Food Labelling Regulations 1984 – sets out the labelling requirements for most foods when ready for distribution or sale

m) Materials and Articles in Contact with Food Regulations 1987 – governs the production of materials and articles which in their finished state are intended to come in contact with food

n) Customer’s property – a printer has a duty to take reasonable care of any property belonging to a customer that comes into his possession. There is also a right to retain possession of a customer’s property if a debt is due to the printer for the manufacture or processing of those goods. Ownership of printing plates or other intermediates between the printer and customer is dependent upon whether the customer has specifically charged for them, as opposed to being charged for making the plates etc.

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Outcome 3: Describe the procedures for handling customer complaints and ways of improving customer service Underpinning knowledge The candidate will be able to 1. identify the initial action for dealing with customer’s problem as being to put them at their

ease and this will involve: a) acknowledging the problem b) understanding the problem c) taking ownership of the problem

2. state that the company should not be compromised by assuming that all the facts as

originally presented by the customer represent a true and accurate picture of the problem

3. state that taking ownership of the problem conveys to the customer the company’s

acceptance of the problem, but the following actions should be taken in addition: a) tell the customer what you are going to do and by when b) maintain contact with the customer until the problem is resolved c) avoid making promises that cannot be kept, or that you are not authorised to make d) make written records of the points discussed and, where appropriate, inform the

relevant supervisor or line manager of the outcome 4. state that customer problems are likely to be resolved through the creation of a

constructive relationship which will involve: a) being open and honest b) dealing with them courteously c) dealing with any perceived problem d) correctly identifying their needs and dealing with them

5. state that customer dissatisfaction can be avoided by timely and accurate

communication of problems 6. state that unnecessary pressure can be removed from the production schedule if the

real needs of a customer can be identified, which may include establishing: a) when the item is needed by b) if all the items are needed at that time c) when the plates or film will arrive d) if all the finishing processes are required e) the amount the customer is willing to pay f) that the customer will be available to clear proofs when required

7. explain that care should be taken to ensure that the customer realises when special

steps have been taken to achieve their requirements and that it may not always be possible to deliver the same standard of service on future occasions

8. identify that, in dealing with customer problems, it is important for individuals to keep to

their area of responsibility and not to go outside it 9. state that a customer problem which is outside the area of responsibility for an individual

must be accurately relayed to the appropriate individual with factual statements of the situation

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10. state that many companies have customer service procedures and standards, which include: a) logging of customer complaints and outcomes b) timescales for dealing with written communications c) how quickly the telephone should be answered d) how soon a visitor should be greeted after arrival, how good was the information

given, how good was the referral, if necessary etc 11. state that satisfied customers are more likely to stay loyal and return with additional or

repeat orders.

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Documents

Level 3 Certificate in Printing and Graphic Communications (5261)