Law Feedback Paper 2

Aviation Law Feedback Paper 2 1. An Examiner’s authorisation will last no more than:

(a) 2 years (b) 3 years (c) Expiry of his/her medical certificate (d) Validity of his/her type rating

2. ATC radar operator cannot distinguish between 7500 and 7700 on the

radar display. An aircraft is believed to be tinder Unlawful Interference. Auto display of 7500 and 7700 is not available. The radar controller to confirm suspicion should:

(a) Select 7600 followed by 7700 (b) Select 7700 followed by 7600 (c) Select 7500 followed by 7700 (d) Select 7000 followed by 7700

3. What is a “strayed” aircraft?

(a) One that has gone significantly off-track (b) One that is lost and has reported so to ATC (c) A combination of a and b. (d) One which its position has not been established by ATC

4. What is a State required to provide to an aircraft subjected to Unlawful

Interference?

(a) ATC services, navigational aids and permission to land (b) ATC services, navigational aids, permission to land and re-fuelling (c) Arc services, navigational aids permission to land and catering for

passengers (d) It must inform all aircraft in the area concerning the Unlawful

Interference 5. In ICAO Annex 17 (Security), what does Security mean?

(a) To safeguard international civil aviation operations against Unlawful Interference

(b) To safeguard international civil aviation operations (c) To safeguard international civil aviation operations against hi-

jacking (d) To safeguard international civil aviation operations against

terrorism

Bristol Groundschool Feedback Paper 2

6. Runway edge lights are (not including displaced thresholds):

(a) fixed variable white (b) fixed variable white or yellow (c) flashing white (d) fixed red

7. For what period are SAR services to be provided by a Contacting State?

(a) During the hours of operation of an FIR (b) On a 24 hour basis (c) 2 hours before until 2 horns after the first flight arrives and the

last departing flight within an FIR (d) During the hours of both commercial and military air operations

within the FIR 8. A proficiency test took place on 15th April. Validity of last test was 30th

June. The period for the next test can be up to but not exceed:

(a) 30th April next year (b) 15th October same year (c) 30th October same year (d) 31st December same year

9. What is the distance from the end of a runway that an aircraft should

be identified for separation to be applied?

(a) 2 nm (b) 1 nm (c) 5 nm (d) 10 nm

10. The transfer of an aircraft from one ATC unit to another is carried out:

(a) With agreement of the receiving unit (b) Automatically at the control boundary (c) With the agreement of the pilot (d) Through a central control unit

11. A control zone extends laterally from the centre of an aerodrome or

aerodromes in the direction of approaching aircraft for at least:

(a) 7 nm (b) 5 nm (c) 15 nm (d) 20 nm

12. Approach control is provided for:

(a) All arriving and departing controlled flights (b) All arriving IFR traffic (c) Traffic within the CIA (d) All VFR traffic


13. How will a member State withdraw from the Tokyo Convention?

(a) By informing ICAO (b) By informing all member States (c) By informing the UN (d) By informing all Contracting States to the UN

14. A racetrack is:

(a) a right hand circuit pattern (b) taking off and landing traffic the same runway (c) traffic landing and taking-off again within 1 hour and returning to

the same airport of the original departure. (d) a descent or climb conducted in a holding pattern

15. An integrated aeronautical information package consists of:

(a) AIP and amendment service, supplements to the AIP, NOTAMs. Preflight Information Bulletins (PIBs), AICs, checklists and summaries.

(b) AIP and amendment service, NOTAMs, Preflight Information Bulletins (PIBs), AICs, AIRACs, checklists and summaries.

(c) AIP and amendment service, supplements to the AIP, NOTAMs, AIRACs, AICs, checklists and summaries.

(d) AIP & Supplements, AIRACs, NOTAMs and prefIight bulletins 16. On an ILS procedure Dead Reckoning may be used. DR track will

intersect the ILS localiser at:

(a) 30° and not more than 5 nm (b) 30° and not more than 10 nm (c) 45° and not more than 5 nm (d) 45° and not more than 10 nm

17. The State of design shall ensure a structural integrity programme exists

for the airworthiness of aircraft with specific information relating to corrosion protection and control with respect to aircraft

(a) up to 5700 kg MTOM (b) over 5700 kg MTOM (c) up to 5700 kg MTOM and MLM (d) over 5700 kg MTOM and MLM

18. A precision Approach Procedure is defined as:

(a) An approach using bearing, elevation and distance information (b) An approach with a crew of at least 2 pilots trained for such

operations (c) An instrument approach procedure utilising azimuth and glide

path information provided by an ILS or a PAR (d) An approach using bearing, elevation and, optionally, distance

information


19. Between two aircraft on the same localiser, with longitudinal separation, the following radar separation must be provided, for wake turbulence:

(a) 5 nm (b) 2.5 nm (c) 2 nm (d) 3 nm

20. In what section of the AIP are details of SIGMET found?

(a) GEN (b) ENR (c) AD (d) COMMS

21. Low intensity obstruction lights on vehicles and moving objects are

(a) Flashing green (b) Flashing yellow (c) Steady red (d) Steady blue

22. What is the delay for a controlled flight after which a flight plan has to

be re-filed?

(a) 30 minutes EOBT (b) 30 minutes ETD (c) 60 minutes EOBT (d) 60 minutes ETD

23. What is the speed to allow 2 minute separation between 2 aircraft

departing on the same track?

(a) + 40 kts (b) + 20 kts (c) + 15 kts (d) + 70 kts

24. The maximum speed change on a radar approach is

(a) ± 40 kts (b) ± 5 kts (c) + 10 kts (d) ± 20 kts

25. What is the speed limit below 10 000 ft in Class B airspace?

(a) 250 kts TAS (b) 250 kts IAS (c) not applicable (d) 200 kts IAS


26. The ground signal to aircraft signifying that all personnel have been found is:

(a) LL (b) LLL (c) Y (d) ++

27. A pilot should set a Flight Level on departure at the:

(a) Transition Level (b) Transition Altitude (c) As advised by ATC (d) When the pilot decides to

28. If a pilot cannot comply with a holding pattern the aircraft Commander

should:

(a) elect to change informing ATC (b) fly a non-standard holding pattern (c) inform ATC and request an alternative clearance (d) follow loss of communications procedure

29. The obstacle clearance in the primary area of an intermediate approach

is:

(a) Not more than 150 m (b) Reduces from 300 m to 150 m (c) Equal to or greater than 300 m (d) 500 m in mountainous terrain

30. To whom is the alerting service provided?

(a) All IFR traffic (b) All flight-planned aircraft (c) All hi-jacked aircraft (d) All traffic known to ATC

31. What Annex contains information concerning Air Traffic Services?

(a) Annex 11 (b) Annex 10 (c) Annex 14 (d) Annex 15

32. The report of ‘Established’ when flying an NDB approach should be

transmitted when the aircraft is within:

(a) Half scale deflection (b) ± 3° (c) ± 5° (d) ± 10°


33. Aerodrome Reference Code is dependent on Code Element 1 (aeroplane reference field length) and Code Element 2. What is Code Element 2 dependent upon:

(a) Wing span and inner main gear wheel span (b) Fuselage width and inner main gear wheel span (c) Fuselage width and outer main gear wheel span (d) Wing span and outer main gear wheel span

34. What is the distance on final approach within which the controller

should suggest that the aircraft executes a missed approach if the aircraft either disappears from the radar for a significant time or the identity of the aircraft is in doubt?

(a) 1 nm (b) 2 nm (c) 3 nm (d) 4 nm

35. The maximum distance from the DER that track guidance for a turning

departure must be acquired is:

(a) 5 km after the completion of the turn (b) 10 km after the completion of the turn (c) 15 km before the initiation of the turn (d) 20 km before the initiation of the turn

36. Voice ATIS is transmitted on a:

(a) Discrete VHF frequency only (b) Discrete VHF frequency or on voice on VOR (c) VHF frequency or on ILS frequency (d) ILS only

37. What is one of the privileges of the holder of a Commercial Pilot’s

Licence?

(a) Act as PiC of any aircraft in commercial air transport operations (b) Act as PiC of any aircraft involved in operations other than air

transportation (c) Act as a flying instructor (d) Act as PiC of any single pilot aeroplane in commercial air

transport operations 38. Which Annex covers the requirement of licensing of personnel?

(a) 4 (b) 1 (c) 14 (d) 7


39. Included in the requirements for 1500 hours, an ATPL holder must have

(a) 500 hours multipilot operations in transport category aircraft (b) 500 hours multipilot operations including 250 hours as PiC of

transport category aircraft (c) 500 hours multipilot operations including up to 150 hours flight

engineering time (d) 500 hours multipilot operations including 200 hours night time

40. The lowest DH for a Cat 1 system is:

(a) 100 ft (b) 200 ft (c) 50 ft (d) 350 ft

41. A captain is authorised in the event that a passenger has committed an

offence or is suspected to be about to commit an offence, to:

(a) Disable them (b) Require passengers to assist in restraining (c) Request cabin crew to assist (d) Deliver the person to the appropriate authority

42. Who is responsible for setting into movement the Alert Phase?

(a) ATC and the FIR (b) The State and ATC (c) The Area Control and the RCC (d) RCC and the FIR

43. Annex 17 states that each State is responsible for establishing security

at:

(a) all aerial locations within the FIR (b) at each aerodrome (c) all international airports (d) all international and commercial airports

44. Arrival and departure documentation is acceptable in the form of:

(a) Typewritten only (b) Electronic form only (c) Typewritten and electronic form only (d) Handwritten in block capitals and in ink

45. Will an aircraft be allowed to land at an ATZ which has not received

permission to enter the Zone?

(a) No (b) Yes (c) Only if it expedient to do so (d) Only if the aircraft declares an emergency


46. Where in the AIP is a list of Location Indicators to be found?

(a) GEN (b) COMMS (c) AD (d) AGA

47. ICAO Annex 17 lays down the rules to establish security measures for

passengers with regards to:

(a) Cabin baggage, checked baggage, cargo and other goods, access control and airport design

(b) Cabin baggage and checked baggage (c) Passenger baggage (d) Cabin baggage, checked baggage, cargo and other goods and

access control 48. What is the minimum radar separation?

(a) 5 nm (b) 10 nm (c) 3 nm (d) 1 nm

49. At 1321 UTC an aircraft on an IFR flight is told by ATC to “turn

immediately left on a heading of 070°”. At 1322 UTC the Commander discovers that he/she is no longer in radio contact. The commander must return to the flight-planned tack

(a) by the most direct route (b) On an intercept of not more than 10° (c) On an intercept of not less than 10° (d) On an intercept of not more than 15°

50. The Chicago convention was formed in:

(a) 1929 (b) 1944 (c) 1969 (d) 1958


Aviation Law Feedback Paper 2, Answers A B C D 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

A B C D

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

41 42 43 44

45 46 47 48 49 50

A B C D

21 22

23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40


Answers

1 b 11 b 21 b 31 a 41 b 2 c 12 a 22 a 32 c 42 d 3 c 13 a 23 a 33 d 43 c 4 a 14 d 24 d 34 b 44 c 5 a 15 a 25 c 35 b 45 d 6 b 16 d 26 a 36 b 46 a 7 b 17 b 27 b 37 d 47 d 8 d 18 c 28 c 38 b 48 c 9 b 19 a 29 b 39 a 49 b

10 a 20 a 30 d 40 b 50 b


Documents

Law Feedback Paper 2