Law Exam 3

7/28/2019 Law Exam 3

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Aviation Law

Exam 3. Time allowed 1 hour 40 minutes: 70 questions.

1. The Rome Convention and later amendments covers:

(a) damage caused by foreign aircraft to third parties on the ground(b) offences and certain other acts committed on board an aircraft(c) regulations concerning transportation of dangerous goods(d) the liability of the owner or operator of an aircraft which has

caused damage to persons or property on land or water

2. Which convention is concerned with offences and certain other actscommitted on board an aircraft?

(a) The Paris Convention(b) The Chicago Convention(c) The Tokyo Convention(d) The Rome Convention

3. The signed States Convention concerning passengers and consigners

who have had damage inflicted on them by a foreign airline is:

(a) the Tokyo Convention(b) the Paris Convention(c) the Rome Convention

(d) the Warsaw Convention

4. The Warsaw Convention and its later amendments covers:

(a) the permit of the operator for international flights(b) the limitations of the responsibility of the operator against

transported passengers and cargo(c) regulation concerning transportation of dangerous goods(d) the aerodrome security system

5. The minimum age for a CPL holder is:

(a) 17 years(b) 18 years(c) 16 years(d) 21 years

6. Concerning aircraft registration, no combination of letter can be usedwhich can be confused with distress codes, for example:

(a) RCC(b) DDD(c) LLL

(d) PAN

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7. The body which governs issuing of pilot licenses or equivalentdocuments must decide if the experience of the pilot, in training doneon a simulator, is acceptable as part of the total flying time of required1500 hours. Exemption from such experience shall be limited to amaximum of:

(a) 100 hours, of which not more than 15 hours may be done on aflight procedure trainer or a synthetic flight trainer

(b) 75 hours, of which not more than 20 hours may be done on aflight procedure trainer or a synthetic flight trainer

(c) 100 hours, of which not more than 20 hours may be done on asynthetic flight trainer

(d) 100 hours, of which not more than 25 hours may be done on aflight procedure trainer or a synthetic flight trainer

8. The minimum and maximum ages for an ATPL holder to exercisehis/her privileges are:

(a) 17 and 59 years(b) 16 and 60 years(c) 18 and 60 years(d) 21 and 59 years

9. In which of the following annexes of the Chicago Convention is theminimum specification for a crewmember’s licence to be recognised by a Contracting State contained?

(a) Annex 2

(b) Annex 3(c) Annex 1(d) Annex 4

10. For a holder of a pilot licence for fixed-wing aircraft and helicopters,who has attained the age of 40, the period between medical renewalsdecreases from:

(a) 12 months to 6 months(b) All of the answers are incorrect

(c) 12 months to 3 months(d) 24 months to 12 months

11. Except when cleared by an ATC unit, a VFR flight can not enter orleave a control zone when the cloud base is lower than:

(a) 1000 feet and less than 8 km visibility (b) 2000 feet and less than 5 km visibility (c) 1500 feet and less than 5 km visibility (d) 1000 feet and less than 5 km visibility


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12. When requesting a pilot to engage the parking brake, a marshaller willgive the following signal:

(a) Arms repeatedly crossed above the head(b) Arms placed down and crossed in front of the body moving

horizontally (c) Raise arm and hand with fingers extended, horizontally in frontof body, then clench fist

(d) Arms placed horizontally sideways with palms towards theground beckoning downwards

13. When doing a procedure turn (45º/180º) going outbound turned 45ºoff track, the time taken from the beginning of the turn for Cat A andCat B aircraft is:

(a) 1 minute 30 secs.(b) 1 minute

(c) 1 minute 15 secs.(d) 2 minutes

14. Where does the initial phase of a missed approach procedure end?

(a) At the point where a new approach, hold or return to en-route is

initiated(b) At the point where the climb is initialized(c) At the missed approach point (MAP)(d) At the point where 50 feet obstacle clearance is first maintained

15. What are the phases in a missed approach procedure?

(a) Initial, intermediate and final(b) Arrival, initial, intermediate and final(c) Initial and final(d) Arrival, intermediate and final

16. The vertical distance of an aircraft above transition level is called?

(a) Height

(b) Altitude(c) Flight level

(d) Commanders choice

17. After completion of an instrument approach, the visual phase of aflight to bring an aircraft into position for a landing on a runway which is not suitably located for a straight-in approach is called:

(a) A visual approach(b) An aerodrome traffic pattern(c) visual manoeuvring (circling)(d) a contact approach


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18. If carrying out a straight-in approach, the MDH can not be lowerthan:

(a) the OCH(b) 350 ft

(c) 400 ft(d) 200 ft

19. When, on the final approach track, a stepdown fix is made, thedescent has to be conducted such that:

(a) you are 50 ft above the nominal glide path(b) the fix is passed not lower than the specified crossing altitude(c) you leave the intermediate approach altitude step by step until

reaching the MAP(d) the fix is passed with the mandatory vertical speed of 500 ft/min

20. Concerning the three entries to the hold, the entry has to be flown on:

(a) heading(b) track(c) course(d) bearing

21. When given instructions to set a mode/code, a pilot shall:

(a) only use the word ‘wilco’ (b) only read back the code

(c) only use the word ‘roger’ (d) read back the mode and the code

22. The ICAO definition of a precision approach is a direct instrumentapproach:

(a) conducted by a crew consisting of a least 2 pilots, who areproperly trained

(b) which uses azimuth, elevation and distance information,provided that the pilot uses a flight director or an autopilot

which is certified to a height of 200 ft(c) which uses azimuth and elevation information

(d) which uses azimuth, elevation and height information

23. In an instrument approach procedure the segment where the aircraftis lined up with the runway centreline and when the descent forlanding is commenced is called:

(a) the intermediate approach segment(b) the initial approach segment(c) the arrival segment(d) the final approach segment


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24. What does DER mean?

(a) Distance end of route(b) Departure end of route(c) Distance end of runway

(d) Departure end of runway

25. ATC has given you transponder code 5320. In case of a radio failure inflight, you set code:

(a) 7600 Mode C(b) 0020 Mode C(c) 5300 Mode C(d) 7620 Mode C

26. The phases used to indicate that an aircraft is in distress or usedwhen an aircraft is assumed to be in distress, are:

(a) the uncertainty phase, urgency phase and distress phase(b) the uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase and urgency

phase(c) the uncertainty phase, alert phase and distress phase(d) the uncertainty phase, alert phase and urgency phase

27. What action should be taken if you suffer a radio failure during anIFR flight in VMC?

(a) Return to the aerodrome from which you departed

(b) Continue flying in VMC and land as soon as possible(c) Maintain your assigned altitude and land at the nearestaerodrome at which there are VMC conditions

(d) Continue flying at your assigned altitude and start yourapproach at your ETA

28. ATS airspace, in which IFR and VFR flights are permitted and allflights receive Air Traffic Control Service; IFR flights are separatedfrom other IFR flights and receive traffic information concerning VFRflights, and VFR flights receive traffic information concerning all other

flights, is classified as:

(a) Airspace E(b) Airspace B(c) Airspace A(d) Airspace D

29. If a traffic controller has wind information, in components, significantchanges in the average surface wind direction and speed must begiven to the pilot at the start of the final approach. Significant changeof the average tailwind component is:

(a) 5 kts

(b) 2 kts(c) 4 kts(d) 3 kts


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30. What is the minimum longitudinal separation, based on time, betweentwo aircraft that are at the same altitude and for which navigationaids can give a frequent determination of position and speed andwhen the preceding aircraft has a true airspeed of a least 40 ktshigher than the following aircraft?

(a) 5 minutes(b) 6 minutes(c) 10 minutes(d) 3 minutes

31. What is the speed limit (IAS) in airspace E?

(a) 250 kts for IFR and VFR, below FL 100(b) 250 kts for IFR only, below FL 195(c) 250 kts VFR and IFR, all altitudes(d) 250 kts for IFR only, below FL 100

32. How much longitudinal, radar separation must be provided, asrequired for wake turbulence, between two aircraft on the samelocalizer?

(a) 5 nm

(b) 2.5 nm(c) 2 nm(d) 3 nm

33. Independent parallel approaches on parallel runways can be used

when:

(a) the missed approach track of one diverges by at least 20º fromthe missed approach track of the adjacent approach

(b) the missed approach track of one diverges by at least 25º fromthe missed approach track of the adjacent approach

(c) the missed approach track of one diverges by at least 30º fromthe missed approach track of the adjacent approach

(d) the missed approach track of one diverges by at least 45º fromthe missed approach track of the adjacent approach

34. A minimum radar separation must be provided to aircraft following

the localizer course of:

(a) 3 nm between aircraft on the same localizer course(b) 2 nm between aircraft on the same localizer course(c) 3 nm between aircraft on the adjacent localizer course(d) 5 nm between aircraft on the same localizer course

35. Who is responsible for the safety of an ATC clearance concerningterrain clearance?

(a) The ATS reporting point, when accepting the flight plan

(b) The captain(c) The operator of the aircraft(d) ATC


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36. For a flight into controlled airspace a flight plan must be filed at least:

(a) 50 minutes before off-block time(b) 60 minutes before departure(c) 10 minutes before departure

(d) 30 minutes before off-block time

37. When an aircraft is on the intermediate or final phase of an approacha radar controller can request it to change speed, except in certainconditions specified by the proper ATS authority. The speed changemust not be more than:

(a) + 15 kts(b) + 8 kts(c) + 10 kts(d) + 20 kts

38. A separation minimum based on RNAV distance can be given at themoment the level is being passed, assuming that every aircraft reportsits distance to or from the same ‘on track’ waypoint. The minimumseparation is:

(a) 60 nm

(b) 80 nm(c) 50 nm(d) 20 nm

39. In the case of a delayed flight into controlled airspace the filed flight

plan must be amended or cancelled and a new flight plan must befiled when the delay is:

(a) 30 minutes more than the estimated off-block time(b) 60 minutes more than the estimated off-block time(c) 30 minutes more than the estimated departure time(d) 60 minutes more than the estimated departure time

40. What are the contents of section 2 of the AIREP?

(a) Present position and estimated time of arrival (ETA)(b) Estimated time over the FIR boundary and endurance

(c) Estimated elapsed time (EET) and endurance(d) Estimated arrival time (EAT) and endurance

41. Which separation minimum must be used for wake turbulencepurposes, when an aircraft in the medium weight category departsbehind an aircraft in the heavy weight category and both use thesame runway?

(a) 2 minutes(b) 1 minute(c) 3 minutes

(d) 4 minutes


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42. The alert phase is defined as:

(a) a distress situation wherein an aircraft and its occupants isassumed to be threatened by danger

(b) a situation wherein an aircraft reports that it has used all the

fuel on board(c) a situation wherein apprehension exists as to the safety of anaircraft and its occupants

(d) a situation wherein the occupants of an aircraft are assumed tobe in distress

43. The minimum sector safe altitude gives an obstacle clearance of 300metres within a certain radius from the navigation aid on which theinstrument procedure is based. This radius is:

(a) 15 nm (28 km)(b) 30 nm (55 km)

(c) 25 nm (46 km)(d) 20 nm (37 km)

44. An aircraft on a radar approach should be told to consider making amissed approach when the aircraft is not visible on the radar screenfor a significant period of time and when the aircraft is within:

(a) the last 2 nm of the approach(b) the last 5 nm of the approach(c) the last 4 nm of the approach(d) the last 3 nm of the approach

45. Which mode A code must be used to make sure your aircraft isrecognised as an aircraft in distress?

(a) code 7500(b) code 7700(c) code 7000(d) code 7600

46. Clocks and other timing equipment used by the air traffic services

must be checked in order to be able to give the time within plus orminus:

(a) 15 seconds of UTC(b) 10 seconds of UTC(c) 30 seconds of UTC(d) 1 minute of UTC


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47. Track separation between aircraft using the same NDB has to beapplied when the aircraft:

(a) have to fly within 45º of each other, separated by a distance of 15 km or more from the fix

(b) have to fly within 45º of each other, separated by a distance of 15 nm or more from the fix(c) have to fly within 30º of each other, separated by a distance of

15 nm or more from the fix(d) have to fly within 30º of each other, separated by a distance of

15 km or more from the fix

48. An aircraft must be told to make a missed approach when no landingclearance has been given from the non-radar traffic controller whenthe aircraft is at a distance of:

(a) 5 nm from touchdown

(b) 1.5 nm from touchdown(c) 4 nm from touchdown(d) 2 nm from touchdown

49. Whilst in airspace where VFR flights are permitted, the pilot incommand of an IFR flight wants to continue his flight under visual

flight rules until the destination is reached:

1. The pilot has to inform the ATC unit ‘cancel IFR’ 2. The pilot has to ask for clearance and get it3. The pilot has to request to change the IFR flight plan to a VFR

flight plan4. The flight plan becomes a VFR flight plan automatically

The correct combination of statements is:

(a) 1 and 4(b) 1 and 3(c) 2 and 3(d) 2 and 4

50. A control zone has to extend to at least:

(a) 5 nm from the centre of the airfield concerned in the directionfrom which approaches are made

(b) 20 miles from the centre of the concerned airfield or concernedairfields in the direction from where approaches can be made

(c) 15 miles from the centre of the concerned airfield or concernedairfields in the direction from where approaches can be made

(d) 10 miles from the centre of the concerned airfield or concernedairfields in the direction from where approaches can be made


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51. When an aircraft encounters difficulty, the initiation of the alert phaseis the responsibility of:

(a) air traffic coordination centres(b) air traffic control and flight information centres

(c) search and rescue coordination centres(d) air traffic control centres only

52. Which part of the AIP contains the section concerning SIGMETs:

(a) GEN(b) MET (c) AGA(d) ENR

53. Temporary changes of long duration in specifications for AIPsupplements and information of short duration, which contains

extensive text and/or graphical representation, has to be published asAIP-supplements. Long duration is considered to be:

(a) 3 months or longer(b) 2 months or longer(c) 1 year or longer

(d) 6 months or longer

54. How many red lights should be seen by a pilot whose aircraft is on aglidepath defined by PAPIs

(a) 2(b) none(c) 3(d) 1

55. Which ‘codeletter’ identifies the taxiway that should be used by anaircraft with an outer main gear wheel span of 15m?

(a) codeletter E(b) codeletter C

(c) codeletter B(d) codeletter D

56. A clearway is a squared area that is established to:

(a) protect aircraft during take off and landing(b) to enable the aircraft to stop in the case of an aborted take off (c) to enable the aircraft to make a part of the initial climb to a

specific altitude(d) to decrease the risk of damage to aircraft which get off at the end

of the runway


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57. In a precision approach category I lighting system, the centreline andthe barette lights have to be:

(a) flashing green lights, from which the intensity of the light isadjustable

(b) fixed white lights, from which the intensity of the light isadjustable(c) flashing white lights, from which the intensity of the light is

adjustable(d) fixed green lights, from which the intensity of the light is

adjustable

58. According to the ‘Aerodrome Reference Code’, the ‘codeletter E’ indicates a wingspan of:

(a) 15m to 24m(b) 36m to 52m

(c) 52m to 65m(d) 24m to 36m

59. Obstacle lights with low intensity on fixed objects have to be

(a) fixed red

(b) fixed orange(c) flashing yellow(d) flashing red

60. It says in the Annex of the ICAO-convention that the sizes of airfields

are specified by codes for different runways. What is the minimumwidth of a runway with runway code 4?

(a) 40 meters(b) 45 meters(c) 50 meters(d) 35 meters

61. Runway-lead-in lights must consist of:

(a) only flashing lights(b) a group of at least three white lights, which are flashing in

sequence in the direction of the runway (c) arbitrary number of green lights(d) always a straight row of lights in the direction of the runway


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62. When someone’s admittance to a country is refused and he is broughtback to the operator for transport away from the territory of the state:

(a) the operator won’t take any transport costs out of the passenger,which arise from his (her) inadmissability

(b) the operator is not responsible for that person, to whom theadmittance to the host country is refused(c) the operator and the state of the operator are both responsible

for the refused person(d) the operator won’t be prevented to take any transport costs out

of a certain person, which arises from his (her) inadmissibility

63. An aircraft, which is not concerned with regular international flightsand which makes a flight to or via a dedicated aerodrome of a memberState and is temporarily free of tax, if admitted, will stay within thatState without paying customs:

(a) during a period, which is determined by the State(b) during a period of 24 hours(c) during a period of 12 hours(d) during a period of 48 hours

64. The colour identification of the contents of droppable containers and

packages containing survival equipment should take the form of coloured streamers according to the following code:

(a) red for food and water(b) blue for medical supplies and first aid equipment

(c) yellow for blankets and protective clothing(d) black for food and water

65. An aircraft flies over mountainous terrain at which a search andrescue operation is conducting to find survivors of a lane crash. Thepilot sees a ground sign in the form of a ‘X’. This indicates:

(a) we have found all personnel(b) engineering assistance required(c) landing impossible

(d) medical assistance required

66. The national civil aviation security programme must be establishedby:

(a) ICAO and other organisations including the contracting statesconcerned

(b) ICAO(c) all contracting states(d) ECAC


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67. Member states should ensure that specific security measures areconducted in the air transport of undesirable passengers. These areseen as:

(a) none of the answers are correct

(b) deportees, inadmissible passengers and persons in custody (c) deportees and inadmissible passengers only (d) deportees and persons in custody

68. For the transport of persons who are a risk for security and/or healthcertain precautions should be taken, like:

(a) embark after all other passengers(b) embark before all other passengers(c) embarking at the captain’s discretion(d) embarking at the states’ discretion

69. Just before arrival at the apron the aircraft unintentionally taxies ontothe grass causing the wheel to ride into a pothole. The aircraft hassustained serious damage and consequently the crew is forced todelay the departure.

(a) considering there is no physical injury and that the flight has

ended, the action that has to be taken is merely constricted tonotification to the insurance company, the mechanic, theoperator and persons who are in charge of runway and taxiways

(b) this is an accident and the crew should follow the appropriateprocedures

(c) this is an incident and the captain has to report this to theaerodrome authority within 48 hours(d) this is an irregularity in the exploitation, the crew should inform

the operator about the delay caused by the necessary repairs

70. The Ground-Air signal LLL in a search area means:

(a) require medical assistance(b) operation completed(c) require assistance

(d) proceeding in this direction


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Intentionally Blank


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Aviation Law

Exam 3, Answers

A B C D

1

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

10

11

12

13

14

15

1617

18

19

20

21

22

23

24

A B C D

25

26

27

28

29

30

31

32

33

34

35

36

37

38

39

4041

42

43

44

45

46

47

48

A B C D

49

50

51

52

53

54

55

56

57

58

59

60

61

62

63

6465

66

67

68

69

70


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Answers

1. A

2. C3. D4. B5. B6. D7. D8. D9. C10. A11. C12. C13. B

14. B15. A16. C17. C

18. A19. B20. B21. D22. C23. D24. D

25. A26. C27. B28. D29. B30. D31. A32. A

33. C34. A35. B36. B

37. D38. B39. A40. D41. A42. C43. C44. A45. B46. C47. C

48. D49. A

50 A

51. B52. A53. A54. A55. A56. C57. B58. C59. A60. B61. B62. D

63. A64. C65. D66. C

67. B68. B69. B70. B


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Law Exam 3