Law Exam 1

7/28/2019 Law Exam 1

1/15

Aviation Law

Exam 1. Time allowed 1 hour 40 minutes: 70 questions.

1. The Convention concerning people who have had damage inflicted onthem by a foreign airline was:

(a) the Rome Convention(b) the Tokyo Convention(c) the Hague Convention(d) the Warsaw Convention

2. The minimum age for a CPL holder is:

(a) 21 years(b) 18 years(c) 17 years(d) 16 years

3. The Transition Altitude can never be less than:

(a) 2,500 feet(b) 2,000 feet(c) 3,000 feet(d) 1,500 feet

4. When required for an outbound aircraft what is the maximumnumber of copies of the general declaration document, the cargomanifest and the stores list ?

(a) 2 general declaration documents, 1 cargo manifest and 1 storeslist

(b) 1 of each(c) 2 of each(d) 3 of each

5. The minimum specification for a crew members' licence to be

recognised by an ICAO Contracting State is set out in which Annex tothe Chicago Convention ?

(a) Annex 1(b) Annex 2

(c) Annex 3(d) Annex 4

Bristol Groundschool Exam 1

7/28/2019 Law Exam 1

2/15

6. Unless cleared for Special VFR operation a VFR flight cannot enter orleave a control zone when the cloud base and visibility are below:

(a) 1,000 feet and 5 kilometres(b) 1,500 feet and 5 kilometres(c) 2,000 feet and 5 kilometres(d) 1,000 feet and 8 kilometres

7. In order to positively identify an aircraft on radar ATC may instructthe pilot to turn through:

(a) 45(b) 30 or more(c) 20(d) 10

8. When should a transponder be ON ?

(a) when requested by ATC(b) only in controlled airspace

(c) at the Captain's discretion(d) at all times during flight

9. The vertical distance of an aircraft when reported above the TransitionLevel is:

(a) elevation(b) height(c) altitude

(d) flight level

10. The Minimum Descent Height (MDH) on a straight-in approachcannot be less than:

(a) 200 feet(b) 400 feet(c) 500 feet(d) the relevant OCH

11. A precision approach is a direct instrument approach which requires:

(a) azimuth and elevation information(b) azimuth, elevation and height information(c) a crew of at least two properly trained pilots

(d) azimuth, elevation and distance information and a flightdirector or autopilot certified to a height of 200 feet


7/28/2019 Law Exam 1

3/15

12. What information is contained in a position report ?

(a) aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude,next position and ETA

(b) aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude,next position and ETA, destination

(c) aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude,destination

(d) aircraft identification, position, time, Mach Number, flight level,next position and ETA

13. An aircraft is inbound to the hold on a track of 190M. The inboundhold track is 010M. The correct entry type would be:

(a) parallel or direct(b) offset or direct(c) parallel or offset

(d) reciprocal or direct

14. When joining a hold the permitted track deviation between sectors is:

(a) 2(b) 2.5(c) 5(d) 10

15. The abbreviation DER means:

(a) distance end of route

(b) departure end of route(c) distance end of runway(d) departure end of runway

16. An aircraft has been allocated a transponder code of 5230. If theaircraft subsequently suffers a radio failure in flight the correcttransponder code to be set would be:

(a) 7600 with mode C(b) 0030 with mode C(c) 5200 with mode C

(d) 7630 with mode C

17. If an aircraft suffers a complete radio failure when on an IFR flight butin VMC the correct action would be:

(a) maintain the last assigned altitude and land at the nearestaerodrome where VMC conditions exist

(b) continue to fly VMC and land as soon as possible(c) return to the aerodrome of departure(d) continue to fly at the last assigned altitude and commence the

approach on flight plan ETA


7/28/2019 Law Exam 1

4/15

18. Where does the initial section of a missed approach procedure end ?

(a) when an obstacle clearance of 50 metres has been achievedand can be maintained

(b) when established in the climb(c) at the missed approach point(d) when en-route to either the hold or departure

19. The type of turn to be executed by an aircraft during the initialapproach between the end of the outbound track and the beginning ofthe intermediate or final approach track if the tracks are notreciprocal is:

(a) a base turn(b) a reverse procedure turn(c) a racetrack(d) a procedure turn

20. When navigation aids can give frequent fixing of position and speedand the preceding aircraft has a TAS at least 40 kts greater than the

following aircraft the minimum time separation between two aircraftat the same altitude is:

(a) 3 minutes(b) 5 minutes(c) 6 minutes(d) 10 minutes

21. When two aircraft are following the same localizer approach course

the minimum radar separation between them must be:

(a) 2 nm(b) 2.5 nm(c) 3 nm(d) 5 nm

22. When two aircraft are following the same localizer approach coursethe minimum radar separation between them required for waketurbulence must be:

(a) 2 nm(b) 3 nm(c) 4 nm(d) 5 nm

23. In order to establish a controlled aerodrome there must be:

(a) an aerodrome control zone(b) an area of controlled airspace around the aerodrome(c) an aerodrome control tower providing an aerodrome control

service(d) an aerodrome control tower providing a flight information

service


7/28/2019 Law Exam 1

5/15

24. Passengers for a flight have been security screened but, because of adelay, they have mixed with unscreened passengers. What securitycheck is required now ?

(a) the baggage belonging to the passengers should be re-screened(b) no further checks are required providing none of the

passengers have left the airport(c) the passengers concerned and their cabin baggage should be

re-screened before boarding the aircraft(d) the unscreened passengers and their cabin baggage should be

checked

25. The State of Design should ensure that a continuing integrityprogramme, including specific information concerning corrosionprevention and control, to ensure the airworthiness of an aeroplanefor:

(a) any aircraft over 5,700 kg maximum take-off mass(b) any aircraft over 5,700 kg maximum landing mass(c) any aircraft with a maximum take-off mass of 5,700 kg or more

(d) any aircraft with a maximum landing mass of 5,700 kg or more

26. How should passenger entry documents embarkation/disembarkationcards) be completed ?

(a) type written by electronic data-processing techniques(b) hand written in ink or lead pencil(c) hand written in ink using block lettering(d) type written

27. When taking off in IMC an aircraft should report to DepartureControl:

(a) when advised to do so by the Tower(b) before entering cloud(c) immediately after the aircraft is airborne(d) when established on the first heading and clear of the

aerodrome

28. Section 2 of a routine AIREP contains:

(a) present position and estimated time of arrival (ETA)(b) ETA at the next FIR boundary and endurance(c) estimated elapsed time (EET) and endurance

(d) ETA and endurance

29. An aircraft entering a holding pattern at FL140 using the offsetprocedure should fly outbound from overhead the beacon for how longbefore commencing the procedure turn ?

(a) 1 minute(b) 1 minute 30 seconds(c) 2 minutes(d) 2 minutes 30 seconds


7/28/2019 Law Exam 1

6/15

30. What is the normal climb gradient for a missed approach ?

(a) 0.8%(b) 2.5%(c) 3.3%(d) 5.0%

31. Which Annex to the ICAO agreement gives details of aerodromedesign?

(a) Annex 10(b) Annex 16(c) Annex 12(d) Annex 14

32. The alert phase is defined as:

(a) a situation where an aircraft reports that all fuel on board hasbeen used

(b) a situation where the aircraft and its occupants are assumed tobe threatened by danger

(c) a situation where apprehension exists as to the safety of anaircraft and its occupants

(d) a situation where it must be assumed the occupants of anaircraft are in distress

33. Unless in designated airspace what is the minimum verticalseparation for IFR flight below FL 290 ?

(a) 500 feet(b) 1,000 feet(c) 1,500 feet(d) 2,000 feet

34. The purpose of an accident investigation is to:

(a) prevent accidents occurring(b) prevent accidents occurring and assist any judicial inquiry(c) apportion blame

(d) prevent accidents occurring and assist the aircraftmanufacturer

35. What braking action can be expected for a measured coefficient of

0.25 ?

(a) poor(b) poor to medium(c) medium(d) good


7/28/2019 Law Exam 1

7/15

36. The common mark for an aircraft is allocated by:

(a) the state of registration(b) the ITU(c) the ICAO(d) the aircraft owner

37. The normal holding speed for a jet aircraft at FL110 is:

(a) 240 kts(b) 230 kts(c) 170 kts(d) 280 kts

38. The following aircraft arrive at the scene of an accident which requiresSearch and Rescue (SAR) service in the order given:

First: an aircraft which cannot contact the Rescue Co-ordination Centre

Second: an aircraft which can contact the Rescue Co-ordination

CentreThird: a SAR helicopter

The aircraft in charge of the operation at the scene would be:

(a) aircraft one then aircraft three(b) aircraft one throughout the operation(c) aircraft one then aircraft two by mutual consent(d) aircraft one then aircraft two by mutual consent then aircraft

three

39. An aircraft is flying on an IFR flight plan in IMC and suffers a totalcommunications failure. The correct procedure is:

(a) try to make contact with another aircraft or ground station(b) ask another aircraft to relay information(c) continue the flight at the planned levels and according to the

planned ETAs(d) land immediately at the nearest suitable aerodrome

40. If an aircraft is in distress the appropriate mode A code to be set is:

(a) 7500(b) 7600

(c) 7700(d) 7000


7/28/2019 Law Exam 1

8/15

41. An aircraft is flying on an IFR flight plan in airspace where VFR flightis permitted. If the aircraft commander wishes to continue the flightunder VFR and can maintain VMC which is the correct combinationof the statements shown below ?

1. the pilot must inform ATC "cancel IFR'2. the pilot must request and obtain a new clearance3. the pilot must request a change of IFR flight plan to a VFR

flight plan4. the flight plan becomes a VFR flight plan automatically

(a) 1 & 4(b) 2 & 3(c) 1 & 3(d) 2 & 4

42. The pilot of an aircraft which is on the correct approach glide path

would see x red lights of the PAPIs. x is:

(a) 1

(b) 2(c) 3(d) none

43. The centre line and barette lights of a category one precision approachlighting system have to be:

(a) flashing green and adjustable(b) flashing white and adjustable

(c) fixed green and adjustable(d) fixed white and adjustable

44. Low intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects are:

(a) fixed red(b) flashing red(c) fixed orange(d) flashing yellow

45. If a passenger is refused entry into a country other than their own he

will be brought back to the operator for transport away from thatcountry and:

(a) the operator is then responsible for transporting the passenger

(b) the country refusing admission is responsible for transportingthe passenger

(c) the state of the operator is responsible for transporting thepassenger

(d) the operator is responsible for offering transport to thepassenger but may charge the appropriate fare


7/28/2019 Law Exam 1

9/15

46. Assuming all aircraft report their distance to or from the same "ontrack" waypoint the minimum separation based on RNAV distancesmay be:

(a) 80 nm(b) 60 nm(c) 50 nm(d) 20 nm

47. The minimum separation for wake turbulence purposes between amedium aircraft following a heavy aircraft departing from the samerunway is:

(a) 1 minute(b) 2 minutes(c) 3 minutes(d) 4 minutes

48. What is the appropriate quadrantal level for an aircraft flying on atrack of 358T, with variation 3E and drift 2S ?

(a) FL110(b) FL140(c) FL165(d) FL135

49. What distance after completion of the turn in a turning departure istrack guidance acquired in a turning departure ?

(a) 5 kms(b) 10 kms(c) 15 kms(d) 20 kms

50. What is the speed limit in class E airspace ?

(a) 250 kts IAS for IFR and VFR below FL100(b) 250 kts IAS for IFR only below FL150(c) 250 kts IAS for IFR only at all levels(d) 250 kts IAS for IFR only below FL100

51. Independent parallel approaches can be made on parallel runwayswhen the missed approach track of one runway diverges from themissed approach track of the other by at least:

(a) 20(b) 25(c) 30(d) 45


7/28/2019 Law Exam 1

10/15

52. Airspace in which IFR and VFR flights are permitted and all flightsreceive a control service; IFR flights are separated from other IFRflights and receive traffic information about other VFR flights, andVFR flights receive traffic information about other VFR flights wouldbe classified as:

(a) Class B(b) Class A(c) Class E(d) Class D

53. The accuracy required by Mode C before it can be used by the ATCcontroller is:

(a) 200 feet(b) 250 feet(c) 300 feet

(d) 500 feet

54. The maximum period for which a licence issued by another

Contracting State may be rendered valid under JAR is:

(a) one year for CPL/ATPL(b) permanently as a PPL(c) until the expiry date on the licence(d) at the discretion of the Contracting State accepting the licence

55. What letter on a flight plan indicates the change from IFR to VFR ?

(a) I(b) V(c) Y(d) Z

56. When does a medical certificate become valid ?

(a) after a medical assessment has been carried out(b) it is permanently valid(c) from the date of a change to any rating(d) from the date of the initial general medical examination

57. If a transponder failure is detected before departure from anaerodrome the aircraft:

(a) cannot fly(b) can fly for up to 24 hours by which time the transponder must

be repaired(c) can fly to an aerodrome where the transponder can be repaired(d) can only fly VMC/VFR


7/28/2019 Law Exam 1

11/15

58. The section of the Aeronautical Information Document (AIP) whichcontains information about SIGMETs is:

(a) GEN(b) MET(c) ENR(d) AD

59. Temporary changes of long duration or changes of short durationwhich require extensive text and/or graphical representation arepublished as AIP supplements. Long duration is considered to be:

(a) 2 months or longer(b) 3 months or longer(c) 6 months or longer(d) 1 year or longer

60. What colour code is issued when an ASHTAM indicates that thevolcanic ash cloud is detected above FL250 ?

(a) green(b) orange(c) yellow(d) red

61. Which Annex to the ICAO Convention gives information concerningthe entry and departure of goods in transit ?

(a) Annex 8

(b) Annex 9(c) Annex 10(d) Annex 14

62. The minimum notification required for a non-scheduled flight fromone Contracting State to another is:

(a) receipt of flight information at least one hour in advance ofarrival

(b) receipt of flight information at least two hours in advance ofarrival

(c) receipt of flight information at least four hours in advance ofarrival

(d) receipt of flight information at least twelve hours in advance ofarrival


7/28/2019 Law Exam 1

12/15

63. A control zone must extend at least:

(a) 5 nm from the centre of the airfield concerned in the directionfrom which approaches are made

(b) 10 nm from the centre of the airfield concerned in the directionfrom which approaches are made

(c) 15 nm from the centre of the airfield concerned in the directionfrom which approaches are made

(d) 20 nm from the centre of the airfield concerned in the directionfrom which approaches are made

64. A clearway is a specified area which is established to:

(a) protect an aircraft during take off and landing(b) enable the aircraft to stop after an aborted take off(c) enable the aircraft to make a part of the initial climb to a

specific altitude

(d) decrease the risk of damage to aircraft which take off

65. Which of the following statements is correct ?

(a) runway markings are white and taxiway markings are yellow(b) runway and taxiway markings are white(c) runway and taxiway markings are yellow(d) runway markings are yellow and taxiway markings are white

66 Runway approach lights must include:

(a) flashing lights

(b) a group of at least three white lights which are flashing insequence in the direction of the runway

(c) green lights(d) a straight row of lights in the direction of the runway

67. The ground sign X seen in a search and rescue area indicates:

(a) engineering or technical assistance required(b) landing not possible(c) medical assistance required(d) all personnel have been found

68. If an aircraft is thought to have encountered difficulty the initiation ofthe alert phase is the responsibility of:

(a) air traffic control centres only(b) search and rescue co-ordination centres(c) air traffic control co-ordination centre(d) air traffic control and flight information centres


7/28/2019 Law Exam 1

13/15

69. On an instrument approach runway which is more than 2,400 metreslong there will be:

(a) an aiming point marking and centreline markings only(b) touchdown zone markings and centreline markings only(c) aiming point markings and touchdown zone markings(d) an aiming point marking 150 metres from the runway

threshold

70. A flashing white light signal from ATC to an aircraft in flight indicates:

(a) clear to land(b) land at this aerodrome and proceed to the apron(c) give way to other aircraft and continue circling(d) aerodrome unsafe; do not land


7/28/2019 Law Exam 1

14/15

Aviation Law

Exam 1, Answers

A B C D

1

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

10

11

12

13

14

15

16

17

18

19

20

21

22

23

24

25

26

27

28

29

30

31

32

A B C D

33

34

35

36

37

38

39

40

41

42

43

44

45

46

4748

49

50

51

52

53

54

55

56

57

58

59

60

61

62

63

64

A B C D

65

66

67

68

69

70


7/28/2019 Law Exam 1

15/15

Answers1 (a)

2 (b)

3 (c)

4 (c)

5 (a)

6 (b)

7 (b)

8 (d)

9 (d)

10 (d)

11 (b)

12 (a)

13 (c)

14 (c)

15 (d)

16 (a)

17 (b)

18 (b)

19 (a)

20 (a)

21 (b)

22 (c)

23 (c)

24 (c)

25 (a)

26 (b)

27 (c)

28 (d)

29 (a)

30 (b)

31 (d)

32 (c)

33 (b)

34 (a)

35 (a)

36 (b)

37 (b)

38 (d)

39 (c)

40 (c)

41 (a)

42 (b)

43 (d)

44 (a)

45 (d)

46 (c)

47 (b)

48 (c)

49 (b)

50 (a)

51 (c)

52 (d)

53 (c)

54 (a)

55 (c)

56 (d)

57 (c)

58 (a)

59 (b)

60 (d)

61 (b)

62 (b)

63 (a)

64 (c)

65 (a)

66 (d)

67 (c)

68 (d)

69 (c)

70 (b)


Documents

Law Exam 1