JOINT FIRE SUPPORT MULTIPLE QUESTION FILE FIRE SUPPORT MQF.pdfJOINT FIRE SUPPORT MULTIPLE QUESTION FILE The JFS MQF is intended to replace the skill level FIST test, the MQF will not

JOINT FIRE SUPPORT MULTIPLE QUESTION FILE

The JFS MQF is intended to replace the skill level FIST test, the MQF will not be administered

by skill level. This will be the only test used for 13F/13A certifications. All Soldiers are

authorized to maintain a copy of the MQF. When testing is required for certifications or training,

50 questions from the MQF will be selected by the senior 13F/13A. The 50 question test should

encompass all references. The MQF supplies Soldiers with the question but not the answer, it

is the responsibility of the individual to research and study the correct answer.

Joint Fire Support MQF references validated as of 05 June 2017

References:

ATP 3-09.30 Techniques for Observed Fire August 2013

ATP 3-09.32 Joint Application of Firepower (JFIRE) January 2016

FM 3-09 Field Artillery Operations and Fire Support April 2014

JP 3-09.3 Close Air Support November 2014

1. ________________ is fires that directly support land, maritime, amphibious, and special

operations forces to engage enemy forces, combat formations, and facilities in pursuit of

tactical and operational objectives (Joint Publication [JP] 3-09.3). It requires close

coordination and integration with maneuver forces. Effective fire support requires an

observer that understands the tasks to accomplish and how these tasks support the

overall operation. The observer must be able to accurately locate targets, understand

which targets to attack, and effectively communicate what he sees to the rest of the fire

support community.

a. Joint Effects

b. Fire Support

c. Detailed Integration

d. Coordinated Fires

REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 1, page 1-1

2. True/False: There are five requirements for achieving accurate first-round fire for effect.

These five requirements for accurate predicted fires are: accurate target location and

size, firing unit location, weapon and ammunition information, meteorological

information, and computational procedures. The observer is solely responsible for the

first requirement.

a. True

b. False


3. The _____________ and its elements integrate the fires warfighting function in operations. It has resources to plan for future operations from the main command post and to support current operations from the tactical command post (when deployed). Additionally it has the limited capability to provide coverage to the command group and the deputy command group when deployed. The _____________ is the centerpiece of the targeting architecture, focused on both lethal and nonlethal target sets. The __________ thus collaboratively plans, coordinates and synchronizes fire support, to include Joint Fires. a. Joint Effects Cell b. Fire Direction Center c. Fire Support Element d. Fires Cell


4. The ________________ has the responsibility to integrate fire support with the scheme of maneuver. He provides the commander’s intent for an operation and issues guidance, including guidance for fire support. The ________ translates the guidance into fire support tasks. Each fire support task and purpose directly supports a maneuver task and purpose. Then assigns responsibility of tasks in the Fire Support Plan, assets, and priority of fires, to the observers using all available assets. Ensures dissemination of FS products to all supporting assets. a. Maneuver Commander / FSO b. Brigade FSO / Battalion FSO c. Brigade Commander / Brigade FSO d. DIVARTY Commander / FIST


5. A target identified too late, or not selected for action in time, to be included in deliberate targeting that, when detected or located, meets criteria specific to achieving objectives and is processed using dynamic targeting. a. Target b. Time Sensitive Target c. Target of Opportunity d. Unplanned Target


6. A ______________ is a target that is known to exist in the operational environment, upon which actions are planned using deliberate targeting, creating effects which support commander’s objectives. a. Established Target b. Approved Target c. Priority Target d. Planned Target


7. A _____________ is a planned target upon which fires or other actions are scheduled for prosecution at a specified time. a. Scheduled Target b. Specified Target c. Time Sensitive Target d. Priority Target


8. A ___________ target is a planned target upon which fires or other actions are determined using deliberate targeting and triggered, when detected or located, using dynamic targeting. a. Scheduled Target b. On-call Target c. Deliberate Target d. Dynamic Target


9. A _______________ is a target on which the delivery of fires takes precedence over all the fires for the designated firing unit or element. a. Priority Target b. Immediate Suppression c. Final Protective Fire d. On-call Target


10. ________________ is an immediately available prearranged barrier of fire designed to impede enemy movement across defensive lines or areas. a. On-call Target b. Final Protective Fire c. Immediate Suppression d. Defensive Fires


11. A __________________ consists of two or more targets on which fire is desired simultaneously. a. Collective Target Set b. Series of Targets c. Multiple Target d. Group of Targets


12. A ____________________ is a number of targets and/or group(s) of targets planned to be fired in a predetermined sequence to support a maneuver operation. a. Sequential Targets b. Series of Targets

c. Collective Target Set d. Program of Targets


13. A _______________ consists of a number of planned targets of a similar nature that are planned for sequential attack. a. Sequential Targets b. Series of Targets c. Group of Targets d. Program of Targets


14. ___________________ is accomplished using targeting and the running estimate. It

includes developing integrated fire plans (target lists, fire support execution/fire support

task matrix, scheme of fires, and overlays) and determining forward observer control

options that support the commander's scheme of maneuver.

a. Fires Coordination

b. Indirect Fires Execution

c. Fire Support Planning

d. Fire Support Coordination


15. _______________________ is the planning and executing of fire so that targets are

adequately covered by a suitable weapon or group of weapons (JP 3-09).The FIST must

maintain situational understanding at all times and monitor voice requests for fire support

within the maneuver element to prevent fratricide as the result of friendly fire support.

The FIST must advise the commander on any fire support coordination measures

(FSCM) in effect.

a. Fire Support Coordination

b. Indirect Fires Execution

c. Fire Support Planning

d. Joint Fires Coordination


16. True / False: In order to develop an effective fire support plan, the FSO must understand

the fires planning process and address all the essential elements of a fire support plan.

To help ensure all considerations are addressed, the FSO uses the memory aid FA-

PARCA, which means—

F-Fire support tasks, described in terms of a clear task, purpose, and effect

A-Allocation of assets/targets to subordinate units

P-Positioning guidance for fire support assets and observers

A-Assault Instructions

R-Resources Available

C-Coordinating instructions

A-Assessment (measure of performance, measure of effectiveness)

a. True

b. False


17. True / False: When occupying an observation post using SLOCTOP; A reconnaissance

security sweep should be made 180 degrees forward of the OP.

a. True

b. False


18. Occupying an observation post using SLOCTOP; Identify the item that is not part of L-

Location.

a. Select a position that is not sky lined or easily identifiable as an observation post

(military crest, 2/3 up, on nondescript high ground).

b. Send the team location to the fires cell, artillery/mortar fire direction center (FDC) and

supported maneuver organization.

c. Select a position on the highest terrain in order to quickly detect enemy forces

(provides the best observation).

d. The team should prepare its observed fire (OF) fan for use, begin its terrain sketch

using reference points within its area of observation, and develop its visibility

diagrams.


19. Occupying an observation post using SLOCTOP; what is the number one priority for the

team?

a. Observation

b. Communication

c. Targeting

d. Security


20. Occupying an observation post using SLOCTOP; Identify the item that is not part of T-

targeting.

a. Locate targets using the most accurate and expedient means available, incorporate

the targets into the terrain sketch.

b. Conceal the laser rangefinder/designator and operate all lasing devices within safety

parameters.

c. Affix the night sight to the laser rangefinder/designator as soon as possible.

(Although it may be daylight, the night sight may be able to see through smoke and

other obscurations.)

d. Refine company/troop targets and those assigned by higher headquarters.


21. True / False: Occupying an observation post using SLOCTOP; during O-observation

ensure all team members are proficient in friendly/threat forces recognition.

a. True

b. False


22. Occupying an observation post using SLOCTOP; what does the P stand for?

a. Position Occupation

b. Precision Targeting

c. Precision Refinement

d. Position Improvement


23. What is the preferred method of establishing accurate target location?

a. Precision Target Location Tools

b. LLDR

c. Map, Compass, and Binoculars

d. PFED


24. An observer must be able to self-locate to within ______ meters or ________ meters if

degraded by lack of position locating systems or other navigational aids.

a. 1 or 150

b. 10 or 150

c. 10 or 100

d. 100 or 250


25. _______________is the process of measurement of a feature or location on the earth to

determine an absolute latitude, longitude, and elevation.

a. Targeting

b. Mensuration

c. Accuracy

d. Orienting


26. What are three base (reference) directions or azimuths?

a. North, Magnetic, Map

b. Mils, Degrees, Cardinals

c. True, Grid, Magnetic

d. True, Map, Magnetic


27. ____________ is the interior angle formed at the target by the intersection of the

observer-target and the gun-target lines with its vertex at the target.

a. OT Factor

b. Angle T

c. Vertex Angle

d. Vertical Angle


28. If angle T is ___________ or greater, the FDC should tell the observer. If the observer is

told that angle T is _________ or greater, at first he continues to use his OT factor to

make his deviation corrections. If he sees that he is getting more of a correction than he

asked for, he should consider cutting his corrections to better adjust rounds onto the

target.

a. 500 mils

b. 600 mils

c. 600 meters

d. 100 meters


29. The M22/M24 binocular reticle pattern is divided into increments of _______ with shorter

hash marks at _________ increments.

a. 100 meters and 10 meters

b. 10 meters and 5 meters

c. 100 mils and 50 mils

d. 10 mils and 5 mils


30. Select the correct Hand Measurement of Angular Deviation. ANSWER C


31. Using a declinated M2 or a lensatic7 compass on a tripod or other stable platform, the

observer can measure direction to an accuracy of ____________. Take care when using

a compass around electronic devices such as radios and computers, or large

concentrations of metal such as vehicles. Observers should move about ____________

away from vehicles to avoid incorrect readings.

a. 1 mil and 100 meters

b. 10 mils and 50 meters

c. 1 mil and 50 meters

d. 10 mils and 100 meters


32. In artillery and mortar calls for fire, the observers will always convert direction to

__________ direction in the CFF request.

a. True North

b. Magnetic

c. Lensatic

d. Grid


33. Using a protractor, the observer can scale direction from a map to an accuracy of

_________ mils.

a. 20

b. 10

c. 100

d. 1


34. Laser range finders are the preferred means of determining the observer-target distance.

When a laser range finder is used, distance may be determined to the nearest

__________ meters.

a. 10

b. 5

c. 1

d. 100


35. Using flash to bang, the observer counts the number of seconds between the time the

round impacts (flash) and the time the sound reaches the observer (bang) and multiply

by _________ meters/second. The answer is the approximate number of meters

between the observer and the round.

a. 350

b. 400

c. 450

d. 250


36. If there is a significant difference in vertical shift (greater than or equal to _________

meters in altitude between the observer's position or known point and the target), the

observer includes the vertical shift in his target location (expressed to the nearest

_______ meters).

a. 30, 10

b. 50, 10

c. 35, 5

d. 5, 5


37. The terrain sketch is a panoramic sketch as precise as possible of the terrain by the

observer of his area of responsibility. It aids in target location in a static environment.

What should the terrain sketch also provide?

a. A call for fire cheat card

b. Means of orienting relief personnel

c. Code words to deceive enemy if lost

d. Fires net frequency

REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 3, page 3-14/15

38. What is the purpose of DA Form 5429-R?

a. Requesting CAS

b. Recording Fire Mission Data

c. Requesting Ammunition

d. Equipment Maintenance


39. True / False : The three transmissions of a fire mission are

- Observer ID and warning order

- Target location and target description

- Method of engagement and method of fire and control

a. True

b. False


40. The warning order clears the net for the fire mission. The warning order consists of

a. Type of adjustment, callsign, and method of target location

b. Mission type, type of adjustment, and the size of element to FFE

c. Callsign, type of adjustment, and the method of target location

d. Type of mission, the size of the element to FFE, and the method of target location


41. Normally, _________________ missions are fired on planned targets, and a length of

time to continue firing (duration) is associated with the call for fire.

a. Final Protective Fire

b. Suppression

c. FFE

d. Immediate Suppression or Immediate Smoke


42. When engaging a planned target or target of opportunity that has taken friendly

maneuver or elements under fire, the observer announces __________________

(followed by the target location).

a. Final Protective Fire

b. Suppression

c. FFE

d. Immediate Suppression or Immediate Smoke


43. True / False: When conducting an immediate suppression or immediate smoke mission

the CFF is sent in three transmissions.

a. True

b. False


44. True / False: The methods of target location are grid, polar plot, and shift from known

point.

a. True

b. False


45. Using the laser grid method of target location during an adjust fire mission; how are the

corrections sent?

a. same as a standard grid mission

b. deviation correction, range correction, height of burst correction

c. in the form of a grid to the burst location

d. sent only as refinement


46. True / False: In a polar plot mission the FDC only needs to know the target location.

a. True

b. False


47. In a polar plot mission a _____________ tells the FDC how far, in meters, the target is

located above or below the observer's location.

a. Altitude

b. Elevation

c. Angle T

d. Vertical Shift


48. True / False: In a shift from known point mission the range shift is in relation to the

observer’s location.

a. True

b. False


49. What is the purpose of the target description in a call for fire?

a. so the FDC can determine the amount and type of ammunition to use

b. so the commander can approve the target engagement

c. to determine the priority on the High Payoff Target List (HPTL)

d. so the ground commander can make a Tactical Risk Assessment (TRA)


50. The method of engagement consists of

a. type of mission, ammunition, danger close, attitude, and mark

b. warning order, type of mission, trajectory, danger close, and mark

c. warning order, type of mission, trajectory, attitude, distribution, and mark

d. type of adjustment, trajectory, ammunition, distribution, danger close, and mark


51. True / False: The type of adjustment that may be employed is area fire or precision fire.

a. True

b. False


52. True / False: Precision fire is used for Final Protective Fires (FPF) and destruction

missions.

a. True

b. False


53. Danger close for artillery and mortars is ______ and naval gunfire is_______.

a. 600 / 750

b. 600 / 1000

c. 600 / 700

d. 600 / 500


54. True / False: MARK is included in the method of engagement to indicate that the

observer is going to call for rounds for either of the following reasons

-to orient themselves in zone of observation

-to indicate targets to ground troops, aircraft, or other observers

-to mark the Illumination optimal height of burst

a. True

b. False


55. During a call for fire an observer wants to indicate a change in the type of ammunition,

what term would be used?

a. Ammunition

b. Volume of fire

c. Followed by

d. Projectile


56. If target length, or length and width are given, the observer must also give __________.

a. Depth

b. Attitude

c. Radius

d. Altitude


57. If the observer wishes to control the time of delivery of fire, they would include

_____________ in the method of control. This method of control is also useful when

sending the call for fire to the FDC prior to receiving clearance to fire.

a. At my command

b. Time on target

c. Time to target

d. Duration


58. In the initial call for fire the observer should announce ______________ to indicate the

observer cannot see the target (because of vegetation, terrain, weather, intensity of the

conflict, or smoke).

a. Unobserved

b. Lost

c. Lost line of sight

d. Cannot observe


59. True / False: The FDC announces “SPLASH” to the observer 5 seconds prior to round

impact. The observer then announces SPLASH out, the observer does not wait to see

the impact to announce SPLASH out.

a. True

b. False

REF: ATP 3-09.30 AUG2013, Chapter 4 and 5, page 4-8, 4-11, and 5-9

60. The observer normally uses __________ for suppression and smoke missions.

______________ will tell the FDC the total time to engage a target.

a. Time on target

b. Duration

c. Time

d. Interval


61. A __________ is the observer's determination of the location of the burst, or the mean

point of impact (MPI) of a group of bursts, with respect to the adjusting point as observed

along the observer-target line.

a. Spotting

b. Correction

c. Impact

d. Adjusting point


62. True / False: The sequence of spottings is height of burst, range, and deviation.

a. True

b. False


63. True / False: The three HOB spottings are air, graze, and mixed.

a. True

b. False


64. A spotting of ________ is a round whose location cannot be determined by sight or

sound.

a. Doubtful

b. Unobserved

c. Lost

d. Cannot observe


65. A spotting of __________ is a round not observed but known to have

Impacted.

a. Doubtful

b. Unobserved

c. Lost

d. Cannot observe


66. A _______________ is the angular measurement from the adjusting point to the burst as

seen from the observer's position.

a. HOB spotting

b. Correction

c. Range spotting

d. Deviation spotting


67. True / False: A spotting of “LINE” is a round that impacts on line with the adjusting point

as seen by the observer (on the observer-target line).

a. True

b. False


68. During adjustments of a fire mission an observer spots round burst left of the target

along the OT line. The observer measures the angular deviation as 70 mils. His

deviation spotting is _______________.

a. Left 70

b. Depends on OT factor

c. Right 70

d. 70 left


69. What spotting would an observer make if the round was a dud (nonfunctioning fuze),

resulting in no visual or audible identification.

a. Unobserved

b. Lost

c. Dud

d. Doubtful


70. During subsequent corrections the observer sends the observer-target direction if it has

not been sent previously or if the observer-target direction changes by more than

____________ from the previously announced direction.

a. 10 mils

b. 50 mils

c. 20 mils

d. 100 mils


71. If a burst correction is desired during an immediate suppression mission what should be

transmitted before the correction?

a. Altitude

b. Target description

c. Number of rounds

d. Repeat


72. Which adjustment technique mathematically ensures FFE rounds will be within 50

meters of the target.

a. Creeping fire

b. One round adjust

c. Precision fire

d. Successive bracketing


73. _________________________ is best when responsive fires are required and the

observer is experienced in the adjustment of fire.

a. Creeping fire

b. One round adjust

c. Hasty bracketing



74. __________________ is best used on danger close missions and other missions

requiring the observer to make small adjustments to bring fires onto the target in order to

minimizing collateral damage.

a. Creeping fire

b. One round adjust

c. Hasty bracketing



75. Normally, the observer using successive bracketing requests FFE when they split a

______ meter bracket. Under certain conditions when the PER of the weapon is _____

meters or larger, an observer is justified in calling for FFE when a _____ meter bracket

is split.

a. 50, 38, 100

b. 100, 25, 200

c. 50, 25, 100

d. 100, 38, 200


76. The objective of impact registration is to get spottings of _________________________

along the observer-target line from rounds fired with the same data or from rounds fired

with data 25 meters apart.

a. 2 rounds, 1 over and 1 short

b. 2 rounds, target hit or range correct

c. 4 rounds, target hit or range correct

d. 4 rounds, 2 over and 2 short


77. True / False: If PER is greater than or equal to 25 meters the objective of impact

registration is to get spottings of four rounds (two overs and two shorts) along the

observer-target line from rounds fired with the same data or from rounds fired with data

50 meters apart.

a. True

b. False


78. During a registration mission spottings of target hit or range correct count as spottings

of _______________________.

a. Both over and short

b. Target

c. Line

d. Accurate and sufficient


79. During impact registration the observer spots the rounds for deviation to the nearest one

mil and brings the rounds onto the observer-target line before ____________________.

a. Splitting 400 meter bracket

b. Adding or dropping

c. Splitting 200 meter bracket

d. Corrections are made


80. During impact registration when the 50 meter range bracket has been established,

_____ rounds are fired with data 25 meters in the direction opposite that of the last

range spotting.

a. 1

b. 2

c. 4

d. FFE


81. True / False: During impact registration range refinement, if the registration point is

nearer the last round(s) fired, no range refinement is necessary to move the impact

toward the registration point.

a. True

b. False


82. If the registration point is equidistant between the two sets of rounds, the observer

determines the range refinement to be ADD _____ or DROP _____ from the last data

fired.

a. 50

b. 25

c. 10

d. 20


83. If the registration point is nearer the pair of rounds at the opposite end of the bracket,

(instead of the last round) the observer determines the range refinement to be ADD

____ or DROP _____.

a. 25

b. 20

c. 10

d. 50


84. What form would an observer use to keep track of the rounds and spottings in relation to

the registration point?

a. DA 5429-R

b. DA 4187-R

c. DA 2185-R

d. Shell Report


85. In registration, deviation refinement is determined by adding the deviation spottings of

the rounds establishing the two over and two short (this may include two, three, or four

deviation spottings). Then ____________ the total of the deviation spottings by the

number of rounds (two, three, or four) to get an average deviation. Express the result to

the nearest mil. The average deviation multiplied by the observer-target factor equals the

correction, which the observer expresses to the nearest _____________.

a. Multiply, 10 mils

b. Divide, 10 meters

c. Subtract, 1 meter

d. Add, 1 mil


86. Upon achieving the objective of registration the observer has recorded the following

usable deviation spottings. What should the observer send to the FDC for deviation

refinement?

Round Spotting OT Factor

6 7 Right 2

7 15 Right

8 5 Left

9 3 Right

a. Left 20

b. Right 20

c. Right 10

d. Left 10


87. Mortar registration procedures are identical to the impact registration procedures for

artillery. The exception is that once a ___ meter range bracket has been split and the

last round fired is within ___ meters of the target, the observer sends refinement

corrections to the FDC and ends the mission. Make range corrections to the nearest 25

meters. Only ___ round over and ___ round short are required.

a. 50, 25, 2, 2

b. 100, 50, 2, 2

c. 50, 25, 1, 1

d. 100, 50, 1, 1


88. In the event the Excalibur projectile does not acquire adequate GPS signal, or

experiences a reliability failure in flight, the round is designed to

a. Continue its flight path to the target un-armed and impact as a dud

b. Continue to target as a non-PGM and function as a standard HE round

c. Continue its trajectory to the ballistic impact point without arming and dud

d. Continue its trajectory to the ballistic impact point and function as a standard HE

round


89. What munition is available to utilize with the 120mm mortar that minimizes collateral

damage and reduces the number of rounds required to defeat targets?

a. XM 982

b. APKWS

c. APMI

d. Copperhead


90. What fuze can be added to 155mm HE M795 to provide near precision?

a. APKWS

b. Excalibur

c. PGK

d. APMI


91. PGK incorporates a safe arm function. During the last few seconds of flight, PGK

performs a “should hit vs. will hit” test. If the “will hit” grid is more than _______ meters

away from the “should hit” grid, PGK will fail safe (not arm) and will not detonate on

impact.

a. 50

b. 150

c. 100

d. 30


92. The illumination shell is a base ejection projectile containing a flare attached to a

parachute. What is NOT a use of Illumination?

a. Illuminate areas of suspected threat activity

b. Provide illumination for night adjustment of fires

c. Mark friendly location for CAS attacks

d. Harass threat positions


93. What is the initial height of burst for 155mm M485A2 Illumination?

a. 600

b. 500

c. 550

d. 750


94. What is the initial height of burst for 105mm Illumination?

a. 600

b. 500

c. 550

d. 750


95. What is the initial height of burst for 120mm Illumination?

a. 600

b. 500

c. 550

d. 750


96. Use the ____________________ pattern when an area requires more illumination than

can be furnished by one gun illumination.

a. Two gun illumination range spread

b. Two gun illumination

c. Multi-gun illumination

d. Two gun GTL spread


97. Which illumination pattern is fired perpendicular to the observer target line?

a. Two gun illumination range spread

b. Two gun illumination lateral spread

c. Multi-gun illumination

d. Two gun illumination


98. In order for an observer to achieve as few as possible shadows during an illumination

mission they should request ___________________ in the call for fire.

a. Two gun illumination

b. Illumination lateral spread

c. Illumination OTL and GTL spread

d. Illumination range and lateral spread


99. Illumination range and deviation correction of less than ________ meters should not be

made.

a. 100

b. 50

c. 30

d. 200


100. What is the minimum illumination HOB correction?

a. 10 meters

b. 5 meters

c. 50 meters

d. 100 meters


101. During an ILLUM mission if the flare burns out 60 mils above the ground and the OT

factor is 2, what correction should the Observer send for HOB?

a. Down 150

b. Down 120

c. Down 100

d. Down 50


102. During an ILLUM mission your round burns on the ground for 13 seconds. You are

observing 155mm M485A2 illumination and the rate of decent is 5 meters per second.

What HOB correction do you send?

a. Up 100

b. Up 50

c. No refinement

d. Up 150


103. True / False: The four types of smoke are obscuring, marking, incendiary, and

deception.

a. True

b. False


104. __________ is a smoke curtain used on the battlefield between threat observation

points and friendly units to mask friendly forces, positions, and activities.

a. Signaling smoke

b. Obscuring smoke

c. Screening smoke

d. Signaling smoke


105. ____________ is placed on or near the threat to suppress threat observers and to

minimize their vision.

a. Deception smoke

b. Obscuring smoke

c. Screening smoke

d. Masking smoke


106. Use the quick smoke mission to obscure areas from ____ meters up to ____ meters

wide.

a. 600 to 1500

b. 150 to 500

c. 600 to 1000

d. 150 to 600


107. True / False: A quick smoke mission requires the observer to send length, attitude,

maneuver target direction, wind direction, and duration in the call for fire.

a. True

b. False


108. During a quick smoke mission with shell smoke (HC) use HE in adjustment until a

____ meter bracket is split. The observer then requests shell smoke. Fire one smoke

round, and make any necessary corrections. Then request FFE.

a. 100

b. 200

c. 400

d. 50


109. Final protective fires may be any distance from the friendly position, but is normally

within _____ to ______ meters of friendly positions.

a. 200 to 400

b. 200 to 600

c. 400 to 600

d. 100 to 400


110. True / False: The observer adjusts only the center weapon onto the center grid of the

FPF when adjusting for an automated FDC that uses muzzle velocity variations and

special corrections.

a. True

b. False


111. True / False: During multiple missions the observer should use the assigned target

number followed by corrections.

a. True

b. False


112. A linear irregularly shaped target requires the observer to send target description,

length, width, and ________ in the third transmission of the call for fire.

a. Direction

b. Elevation

c. Attitude

d. Radius


113. Attitude is sent to the nearest _______ and less than 3200 mils.

a. 1 mil

b. 10 mils

c. 20 mils

d. 100 mils


114. What is the max range of the M777 155mm standard HE?

a. 18200

b. 37500

c. 22500

d. 21700

REF: ATP 3-09.32 JFIRE JAN2016 page 31

115. What is the max range of the M224 60mm mortar?

a. 3500

b. 3489

c. 3600

d. 3689



a. 5800

b. 4800

c. 4600

d. 5400



a. 5800

b. 7200

c. 7400

d. 6700


118. What is the max range of M982 Excalibur?

a. 44,000

b. 24,500

c. 22,200

d. 37,500


119. A _____ operation is a coordinated attack using a combination of FW and Army RW

assets normally supported by artillery or NSFS. Electronic warfare (EW), air defense

artillery, and intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance assets also may support.

To maximize the effectiveness of a ______, fires are integrated, mutually supportive,

and synergistic, not simply deconflicted.

a. JARN Joint Air Reconnaissance Network

b. JAAT Joint Air Attack Team

c. JAAF Joint Aviation Assault Force

d. JAST Joint Air and Surface Team


120. Size, activity, location, time, remarks (SALT-R) is the standard format for passing

BDA information. Minimum requirements include _______________________.

a. Good effects, damage, and time

b. Good bombs, no need for re-attack

c. End of mission

d. Successful, unsuccessful, or unknown


121. JTACs and FAC(A)s can use ________ to develop and correlate targeting data, mark

targets, and provide terminal guidance operations.

a. LLDRs

b. Digitally aided CAS

c. Ground burst illumination

d. JFOs


122. What is line 8 of the JFO target brief?

a. Mark type

b. Location of nearest friendlies

c. Target location

d. Egress


123. True / False: When communicating direct to a CAS platform and a JTAC or FAC(A) is

not available the observer must state “I am not a JTAC” or “I am a JFO”.

a. True

b. False


124. True / False: After receiving the army attack aviation call for fire from the ground

forces, the aircrews are not required to identify the location of the friendly element and

the target prior to conducting an engagement.

a. True

b. False


125. True / False: Army Attack Aviation and Special Operations Forces (SOF) gunship

use the same call for fire format

a. True

b. False


126. How would an observer maintain positive control of SOF Gunship or Army Attack

Aviation during engagement?

a. State “I am not a JTAC”

b. State “cleared hot”

c. State “check fire”

d. State “at my command”


127. True / False: Clearance to fire is the transmission of the Aviation/SOF gunship call for

fire unless “at my command” or “danger close” has been stated.

a. True

b. False


128. If “danger close” has been announced in an Aviation/SOF gunship call for fire what

else must be passed to the attacking aircraft?

a. Grid to nearest friendlies

b. Ground commanders risk assessment

c. Ground commanders initials

d. At my command


129. What fixed wing aircraft is equipped with 30mm, 105mm, and small diameter bombs?

a. F16

b. B-1B

c. F/A-18

d. AC-130W


130. Which fixed wing aircraft can be equipped with 20mm, 2.75 inch rockets, AGM 65,

GBU, and GP bombs?

a. B-52

b. F-16

c. F-15E

d. F-35

REF: ATP 3-09.32 JFIRE JAN2016 page 77/78

131. True / False: The AH-64 is equipped with 30mm, 2.75 inch rockets, and AGM-176

Hellfire.

a. True

b. False


132. What UAS can be equipped with GBU and Hellfire?

a. MQ-1C

b. MQ-9

c. MQ-5B

d. Predator


133. What brevity term is sighting of a FRIENDLY aircraft or ground position?

a. Contact

b. Spot

c. Eyes on

d. Visual


134. What brevity term acknowledges sighting a specified reference point (either visually or

via sensor)?

a. Visual

b. Spot

c. Contact

d. Joy


135. What brevity term is sighting a target, non-friendly aircraft, or enemy position?

a. Tally

b. Contact

c. Bogey

d. Squirter


136. Brevity: Acquisition of laser designation or the platform is laser spot tracker (LST)

capable.

a. Capture

b. Spot

c. Contact

d. Acquire


137. Brevity: The laser designator system is inoperative

a. Dead eye

b. Blind

c. No joy

d. Terminated


138. Brevity: Mark / marking a target by infrared (IR) pointer.

a. Snake

b. Pulse

c. Lasing

d. Sparkle


139. Brevity: Oscillate an IR pointer in a figure eight about a target.

a. Pulse

b. Snake

c. Sparkle

d. Rope


140. Brevity: Once the aircrew sees the IR energy and is able to discern between the

friendly and target end of the pointer, a ____________________ call may be made.

a. Tally

b. Match sparkle

c. Cease sparkle

d. Contact sparkle


141. Brevity: Specified surface target or object has been acquired and is being tracked

with an onboard sensor.

a. Track

b. Captured

c. Spot

d. Contact


142. Brevity: FRIENDLY air-to-surface missile launch.

a. One away

b. Remington

c. Rifle

d. Winchester


143. Brevity: No ordnance remaining.

a. Remington

b. Winchester

c. Rifle

d. Browning


144. ___________ is the unintentional or incidental injury or damage to persons or objects

that are not lawful military targets.

a. Fratricide

b. Collateral damage

c. Error probability

d. Retrograde


145. True / False: Regardless of friendly force posture, commanders, JTACs, and aircrew

will refer to the Standing posture column and use this distance to determine when

danger close procedures apply.

a. True

b. False


146. The mission of the Field Artillery is to __________________ the enemy with

integrated fires to enable maneuver commanders to dominate in unified land

operations.

a. Destroy, suppress, or neutralize

b. Destroy, deter, or defeat

c. Destroy, defeat, or disrupt

d. Destroy, deny, or disrupt

REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 1, page 1-1

147. Field artillery contributes to unified land operations by ___________ in space and time

on single or multiple targets with precision, near-precision, and area fire capabilities.

a. Massing fire

b. Placing indirect fire

c. Denying enemy

d. Converging fires


148. Actions executed to deliberately mislead adversary military, paramilitary, or violent

extremist organization decision makers, thereby causing the adversary to take

specific actions (or inactions) that will contribute to the accomplishment of the friendly

mission.

a. Defeat

b. Deceive

c. Delay

d. Destroy


149. Tactical mission task that occurs when an enemy force has temporarily or

permanently lost the physical means or the will to fight.

a. Defeat

b. Deceive

c. Delay

d. Destroy


150. Slow the time of arrival of enemy forces or capabilities or alter the ability of the enemy

or adversary to project forces or capabilities.

a. Suppress

b. Defeat

c. Deceive

d. Delay


151. Tactical mission task that physically renders an enemy force combat-ineffective until it

is reconstituted.

a. Destroy

b. Defeat

c. Deceive

d. Neutralize


152. Tactical mission task in which a commander integrates direct and indirect fires,

terrain, and obstacles to upset an enemy’s formation or tempo, interrupt the enemy’s

timetable, or cause enemy forces to commit prematurely or attack in a piecemeal

fashion.

a. Divert

b. Disrupt

c. Defeat

d. Deceive


153. The act of drawing the attention and forces of an enemy from the point of the principal

operation; an attack, alarm, or feint that diverts attention.

a. Divert

b. Deceive

c. Defeat

d. Delay


154. Tactical mission task that results in rendering enemy personnel or materiel incapable

of interfering with a particular operation.

a. Delay

b. Neutralize

c. Disrupt

d. Suppress


155. Tactical mission task that results in temporary degradation of the performance of a

force or weapons system below the level needed to accomplish the mission.

a. Neutralize

b. Delay

c. Disrupt

d. Suppress


156. Activity that neutralizes, destroys, or temporarily degrades surface-based enemy air

defenses by destructive and/or disruptive means.

a. Immediate suppression

b. Destruction mission

c. Suppression of enemy air defense

d. Offensive task


157. A ______________ is a tactical plan for using the weapons of a unit or formation so

that their fire will be coordinated.

a. Scheme of maneuver

b. Fire plan

c. Annex D

d. Offensive plan


158. A ______________________ is a target whose loss to the enemy will significantly

contribute to the success of the friendly course of action.

a. High value target

b. High value individual

c. High payoff target

d. High yield target


159. A _______________ is a target the enemy commander requires for the successful

completion of the mission.

a. High payoff target

b. High yield target

c. High value individual

d. High value target


160. ________________ is normally a high volume of fires delivered over a short period of

time to maximize surprise and shock effect.

a. Suppression fire

b. Offensive fire

c. Destruction fire

d. Preparation fire


161. ____________________ is an offensive task that is designed to develop the situation

or regain contact.

a. Preparation fires

b. Deliberate contact

c. Movement to contact

d. Scheme of maneuver


162. ___________________ is an offensive task that destroys or defeats enemy forces,

seizes and secures terrain, or both.

a. Movement to contact

b. Exploitation

c. Attack

d. Deliberate attack


163. ______________ is an offensive task that usually follows the conduct of a successful

attack and is designed to disorganize the enemy in depth.

a. Deep fires

b. Attack

c. Disruption

d. Exploitation


164. _____________ is an offensive task designed to catch or cut of a hostile force

attempting to escape, with the aim of destroying it.

a. Exploitation

b. Neutralize

c. Movement to contact

d. Pursuit


165. A ____________________ is a task conducted to defeat an attacking enemy force,

retain key terrain, gain time, economize forces, and develop conditions favorable for

offensive or stability tasks.

a. Defensive task

b. Offensive task

c. Concept of fires

d. Scheme of maneuver


166. _______________ is a defensive task that concentrates on denying enemy forces

access to designated terrain for a specific time rather than destroying the enemy

outright.

a. Terrain denial

b. Specified defense

c. Terrain defense

d. Area defense


167. __________________ is a defensive task that concentrates on the destruction or

defeat of the enemy through a decisive attack by a striking force.

a. Area defense

b. Deception defense

c. Mobile defense

d. Mobile strike


168. ______________________ is a defensive task that involves organized movement

away from the enemy.

a. Retrograde

b. Retreat

c. Recession

d. Reconnoiter


169. _______________ are those operations undertaken by a commander to provide early

and accurate warning of enemy operations, to provide the force being protected with

time and maneuver space within which to react to the enemy, and to develop the

situation to allow the commander to effectively use the protected force.

a. Passage of lines

b. Security operations

c. Signaling operations

d. Force protection


170. _____________________ is an operation in which a force moves forward or rearward

through another force’s combat positions with the intention of moving into or out of

contact with the enemy.

a. Forward passage of lines

b. Movement to contact

c. Position exploitation

d. Passage of lines


171. ____________________ occurs when a unit passes through another unit’s positions

while moving toward the enemy.

a. Hasty attack

b. Movement to attack

c. Forward passage of lines

d. Enemy passage of lines


172. _________ is a tactical mission task in which the unit employs all available means to

break through or establish a passage through an enemy defense, obstacle, minefield

or fortification.

a. Breach

b. Clear

c. Attack

d. Offense


173. _____________________ is the act of designing an operating force, support staff, or

sustainment package of specific size and composition to meet a unique task or

mission.

a. Retrograde

b. Task organizing

c. Coordinating fires

d. Mission organizing


174. ______________ is assigned to and forming an essential part of a military

organization as listed in its table of organization for the Army, Air Force, and Marine

Corps, and are assigned to the operating forces for the Navy.

a. Assign

b. Task organized

c. Operational

d. Organic


175. __________ is to place units or personnel in an organization where such placement is

relatively permanent, and/or where such organization controls and administers the

units or personnel for the primary function, or greater portion of the functions, of the

unit or personnel.

a. Assign

b. Organic

c. Attach

d. Task


176. ______________________ is the authority to perform those functions of command

over subordinate forces involving organizing and employing commands and forces,

assigning tasks, designating objectives, and giving authoritative direction necessary

to accomplish the mission.

a. Tactical control

b. Operational control

c. Organizational control

d. Positive control


177. ________________ is the authority over forces that is limited to the detailed direction

and control of movements or maneuvers within the operational area necessary to

accomplish missions or tasks assigned.

a. Positive control

b. Operational control

c. Organizational control

d. Tactical control


178. ____________________ is a support relationship requiring a force to support another

specific force and authorizing it to answer directly to the supported force’s request for

assistance.

a. General support

b. Operational support

c. Reinforcing

d. Direct support


179. _____________________ is a support relationship requiring a force to support

another supporting unit.

a. General support reinforcing

b. Reinforcing

c. Indirect support

d. General support


180. ______________ is that support which is given to the supported force as a whole and

not to any particular subdivision thereof.

a. General support

b. General support reinforcing

c. Direct support

d. Close support


181. ____________ is the delivery technique of applying accurately computed corrections

(not determined by firing) to standard firing data for all nonstandard conditions

(weather, weapon, ammunition, rotation of the earth) to deliver accurate surprise,

nuclear, or nonnuclear fire on any known target in any direction from any weapon

limited only by the characteristics of the weapon and ammunition used.

a. Accurate fire

b. Predetermined fire

c. Responsive fire

d. Predicted fire

REF: FM 3-09 APR2014, Chapter 1, page 1-40/41

182. ___________________ is the specific targeting of enemy indirect fire systems

including their command and control, sensors, platforms, and logistics before they

engage friendly forces.

a. Counterfire

b. Reactive counterfire

c. Proactive counterfire

d. Deliberate counterfire


183. ____________________ provides immediate indirect fires to neutralize, destroy, and

suppress enemy indirect fire weapons once acquired.

a. SEAD mission

b. Reactive counterfire

c. Immediate suppression

d. Proactive counterfire


184. _____________________ is the related tasks and systems that provide collective and

coordinated use of Army indirect fires, air and missile defense, and joint fires through

the targeting process.

a. Offensive fires

b. Deliberate targeting

c. Fires warfighting function

d. Joint fire support


185. What is NOT a method in which to achieve responsive fires?

a. Rehearsals

b. Planning fire support requirements in advance

c. Streamlining the call for fire by shortening the number of transmissions

d. Continually training observers in all aspects of fire support


186. The goal of the Field Artillery is to achieve ____________________. This enables

greater effectiveness and a reduced logistical footprint. It requires that all five of the

requirements for accurate fire are consistently being met.

a. Accurate and sufficient fires

b. Lasting operational effects

c. First round fire for effect

d. Fires that support the scheme of maneuver


187. The ___________________ is an Army coordination organization that provides

selected operational functions between the Army and the air component commander.

Its mission is to provide Army forces liaison at the joint air operations center. They

provide the critical and continuous coordination between the air and land

commanders.

a. Ground liaison detachment

b. Battlefield coordination detachment

c. Fires and effects coordination cell

d. Joint fires cell


188. The __________________ plans, coordinates, integrates, synchronizes and

deconflicts the employment and assessment of fires for both current and future

operations. They’re generally organized with a fire support officer and assistants, an

air defense airspace management element (ADAM), an electronic warfare element, a

targeting element, and digital systems operators.

a. Battalion fires cell

b. Joint fires cell

c. Division fires cell

d. Brigade fires cell


189. A _____________________ is a subordinate operational component of a tactical air

control system designed to provide air liaison to land forces and for the control of

aircraft.

a. Joint Fires Observer

b. Tactical Air Control Party

c. Joint Terminal Attack Cell

d. Terminal Attack Control Element


190. ________________ is the detection, identification, and location of a target in sufficient

detail to permit the effective employment of weapons.

a. Target acquisition

b. The targeting process

c. Attack guidance

d. Target exploitation


191. ______________ typically neutralize or incapacitate a target or modify adversarial

behavior without causing permanent injury, death, or gross physical destruction. At

times a target may return to pre-engagement functionality as part of the desired

effect. Assessment of this effect is usually measured by time and level of effort

required for recovery of the target.

a. Nonlethal effects

b. Suppression effects

c. Influencing effects

d. Nonkinetic effects


192. ________________is a clear and concise expression of the purpose of the operation

and the desired military end state that supports mission command, provides focus to

the staff, and helps subordinate and supporting commanders act to achieve the

commander’s desired results without further orders, even when the operation does

not unfold as planned.

a. Operations Order

b. Commander’s intent

c. Scheme of maneuver

d. Concept of operations


193. The _____________ is the detailed, logical sequence of targets and fire support

events to find and engage targets to accomplish the supported commander’s intent.

It’s planned to support the commander’s scheme of maneuver and is built on the fire

support tasks developed by the FSCOORD/FSO.

a. Commanders intent

b. Concept of maneuver

c. Concept of fires

d. Scheme of fires


194. ______________ is the commander’s guidance to his staff, subordinate commanders,

fire support planners, and supporting agencies to organize and employ fire support in

accordance with the relative importance of the unit’s mission.

a. Scheme of fires

b. Priority of fires

c. High payoff target list

d. Concept of fires


195. _________________ is the continuing process of analyzing, allocating, and

scheduling fires to describe how fires are used to facilitate the actions of the

maneuver force.

a. Fire support planning

b. Targeting

c. Fires processing

d. Fires synchronization


196. A _______________________ is a plan that addresses each means of fire support

available and describes how Army indirect fires, joint fires, and target acquisition are

integrated with maneuver to facilitate operational success.

a. Concept of operations

b. Scheme of fires

c. Fire support plan

d. Fire support execution matrix


197. _____________ is the planning and executing of fire so that targets are adequately

covered by a suitable weapon or group of weapons.

a. Fire support coordination

b. Fire support planning

c. Joint fires coordination

d. Fire support execution


198. _____________ is the process of selecting and prioritizing targets and matching the

appropriate response to them, considering operational requirements and capabilities.

a. Proactive counterfire

b. Target execution

c. Target prosecution

d. Targeting


199. ______________ are criteria applied to enemy activity (acquisitions and battlefield

information) used in deciding whether the activity is a target.

a. Target selection standards

b. Attack guidance matrix

c. Target synch matrix

d. Task execution


200. _________ is the first step in the targeting process. It begins with the military

decision-making process (MDMP). It does not end when the plan is completed; the

decide function continues throughout the operation.

a. Detect

b. Assess

c. Decide

d. Attack


201. The second step of the targeting process, ___________, directs how and which target

acquisition assets find the specified targets to the requisite level of accuracy.

a. Detect

b. Assess

c. Decide

d. Deliver


202. ______________ occurs throughout the operations process. Targeting is

continuously refined and adjusted between the commander and staff as the operation

unfolds. Combat assessment measures how effectively attack systems and munitions

functioned, effects on the target, and a recommendation as to whether the target

should be reattacked.

a. Tactical risk assessment

b. Assess

c. Measure of effectiveness

d. Decide


203. _________________is the geographical area where high-value targets can be

acquired and engaged by friendly forces.

a. Target area of interest

b. Named area of interest

c. Known area of interest

d. Series of targets


204. The ______________ is the operation that directly accomplishes the mission.

a. Shaping operation

b. Direct engagement

c. Decisive operation

d. Strategic operation


205. A _______________ is a criterion used to assess friendly actions that is tied to

measuring task accomplishment.

a. Collateral damage estimate

b. Measure of performance

c. Effects assessment

d. Measure of effectiveness


206. A ____________________ is a criterion used to assess changes in system behavior,

capability, or operational environment that is tied to measuring the attainment of an

end state, achievement of an objective, or creation of an effect.

a. Assessment

b. Measure of effectiveness

c. Measure of performance

d. Patterns of life


207. ________________________ is the process by which the supported commander

ensures that fires or their effects will have no unintended consequences on friendly

units or the scheme of maneuver.

a. Collateral damage estimation

b. Fire support coordination measures

c. Airspace coordinating measure

d. Clearance of fires


208. Permissive fire support coordination measures ____________ the attack of targets by

reducing the coordination necessary for the clearance of fires.

a. Restrictive

b. Redundant

c. Increase

d. Facilitate


209. True / False: Restrictive fire support coordination measures are those that provide

safeguards for friendly forces and noncombatants, facilities, or terrain.

a. True

b. False


210. A _______________ is a line that delineates surface areas for the purpose of

facilitating coordination and deconfliction of operations between adjacent units,

formations, or areas (JP 3-0). It divides up areas of operation and define responsibility

for clearance of fires. It is both permissive and restrictive in nature. a. Coordinated fire line

b. Phase line

c. Fire support coordination line

d. Boundary


211. A ___________________ is an area assigned to an artillery unit where individual

artillery systems can maneuver to increase their survivability.

a. Free fire area

b. Position area for artillery

c. Firing point

d. Firing area


212. A _______________ is an area, usually a friendly unit or location which the maneuver

commander designates as critical to the protection of an asset whose loss would

seriously jeopardize the mission.

a. Critical friendly zone

b. Censor zone

c. Artillery target intelligence zone

d. Call for fire zone


213. A _______________ is an area from which radar is prohibited from reporting

acquisitions. Normally placed around friendly weapon systems to prevent them from

being acquired by friendly radars.

a. Artillery target intelligence zone

b. Call for fire zone

c. Critical friendly zone

d. Censor zone


214. A ______________ is a line beyond which conventional, indirect, surface fire support

means may create effects at any time within the boundaries of the establishing HQ

without additional coordination.

a. Fire Support Coordination Line

b. Coordinated Firing Line

c. Restrictive Firing Line

d. Boundary

REF: JP 3-09.3 NOV2014, page III-63

215. ______________ facilitate the expeditious engagement of targets of opportunity

beyond the coordinating measure. It applies to all fires of air, land, and maritime-

based weapon systems using any type of munition against surface targets.

a. Coordinated Firing Line

b. Free Fire Area

c. Fire Support Coordination Line

d. Phase Line


216. A ______________________ is a specific designated area into which any weapon

system may fire without additional coordination with the establishing HQ. It is used to

expedite joint fires and to facilitate emergency jettison of aircraft munitions.

a. Restrictive Fire Area

b. Coordinated Firing Area

c. Coordinated Firing Line

d. Free Fire Area


217. A __________ is a three-dimensional area used to facilitate the integration of joint

fires and airspace.

a. Kill Box

b. Airspace Coordination Area

c. Free Fire Area

d. No Fire Area


218. A _____________ is a land area designated by the appropriate commander into

which fires or their effects are prohibited.

a. No Fire Area

b. Free Fire Area

c. Restrictive Fire Area

d. Impact Area


219. A ___________ is an area in which specific restrictions are imposed and into which

fires (or the effects of fires) that exceed those restrictions will not be delivered without

coordination with the establishing HQ.

a. Restricted Area

b. No Fire Area

c. Restrictive Fire Area

d. Restrictive Firing Line


220. The _____________ is a line established between converging friendly forces — one

or both may be moving — that prohibits joint fires or the effects of joint fires across

the line without coordination with the affected force. The purpose of the line is to

prevent friendly fire and duplication of engagements by converging friendly forces.

a. Restrictive Firing Line

b. Coordinated Firing Line

c. Phase Line

d. Boundary


221. A three-dimensional block of airspace in a target area, established by the appropriate

commander, in which friendly aircraft are reasonably safe from friendly surface fires. It

is normally established using lateral, altitude, or time separation, or a combination

thereof.

a. Airspace Coordination Area

b. Kill Box

c. Air Corridor

d. Airspace Coordinating Measure


222. What format would an observer use when the decision has been made to attack a

target using CAS?

a. CAS 9 Line

b. CAS Brief

c. JFO Target Brief

d. Joint Tactical Air Strike Request

REF: JP 3-09.3 NOV2014, page V-63

Documents

JOINT FIRE SUPPORT MULTIPLE QUESTION FILE FIRE SUPPORT MQF.pdfJOINT FIRE SUPPORT MULTIPLE QUESTION FILE The JFS MQF is intended to replace the skill level FIST test, the MQF will not