WINDOWS SERVER 2008 PART 1 [] http://netrk.wordpress.com1 What is the primary means of identifying network devices and services in a Windows Server 2008 network?A = DHCPB = TCP/IPC = DNSD = IPcorrect = Cexplanation = In a Windows Server 2008 network, the primary means of identifying network devices and services is through the use of DNS.

2 The DHCP relay agent listens for which messages that are broadcast from the client?A = DHCPDISCOVERB = DHCPREQUESTC = DHCPINFORMD = All of the abovecorrect = Dexplanation = The DHCP relay agent is configured with the address of a DHCP server. The DHCP relay agent listens for DHCPDISCOVER, DHCPREQUEST, and DHCPINFORM messages that are broadcast from the client.

3 To support and use the DHCP service across multiple subnets, routers connecting each subnet should comply with the DHCP/BOOTP relay agent capabilities described in __________. A = RFC 1342B = RFC 1442 C = RFC 1542D = RFC 1642correct = Cexplanation = To support and use the DHCP service across multiple subnets, routers connecting each subnet should comply with the DHCP/BOOTP relay agent capabilities described in RFC 1542.

4 Network Access Protection was introduced with which operating system?A = Windows VistaB = Windows NTC = Windows Server 2003D = Windows Server 2008correct = Dexplanation = To allow administrators to enforce network security policies, such as mandatory anti-virus or firewall configurations, Windows Server 2008 has introduced the Network Access Protection (NAP) enforcement platform.

5 Windows Server 2008 (and all Microsoft operating systems going back to Windows 2000) supports which two types of hard disks?A = partitioned and virtualB = basic and virtualC = partitioned and dynamicD = basic and dynamiccorrect = Dexplanation = Windows Server 2008 (and all Microsoft operating systems going back to Windows 2000) supports two types of hard disks, basic and dynamic.

6 You can configure the DNS Server role by using which console?A = Remote ServerB = Terminal ServicesC = Windows ManagerD = Server Manager correct = Dexplanation = The DNS Server role can be configured from the Server Manager console.

7 Which operating system does not support dynamic disks?A = Windows NTB = Windows 2000 ProfessionalC = Windows Vista BusinessD = Windows XP Professionalcorrect = Aexplanation = Dynamic disks provide access to more advanced configuration features. Once a basic disk is converted to a dynamic disk, that disk can be accessed only by operating systems that support dynamic disks Windows 2000 Professional; Windows XP Professional; Windows Vista Business, Enterprise or Ultimate; Windows 2000 Server; Windows Server 2003; and Windows Server 2008.

8 Which partition style is recommended for disks larger than 2TB or for disks that are used in Itanium computers?A = MBRB = NTFSC = FATD = GPTcorrect = Dexplanation = The GPT partition style is recommended for disks larger than 2TB or for disks that are used in Itanium computers.

9 The Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP) was designed for what reason?A = to discover the Media Access Control (MAC) address (an address unique to a Network Interface Card) that corresponds to a particular IP addressB = for diskless workstations that had no means of permanently storing their TCP/IP settingsC = to provide a subnet mask and a default gatewayD = to enable a TCP/IP workstation to retrieve settings for all of the configuration parameters it needs to runcorrect = Bexplanation = The Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP) was designed for diskless workstations that had no means of permanently storing their TCP/IP settings.

10 Which of the following is sent by a DHCP server to a DHCP client to confirm an IP address and provide the client with those configuration parameters that the client has requested and the server is configured to provide?A = DHCPACKB = DHCPNACKC = DHCPRELEASED = DHCPINFORMcorrect = Aexplanation = A DHCPACK message is sent by a DHCP server to a DHCP client to confirm an IP address and provide the client with those configuration parameters that the client has requested and the server is configured to provide.

11 The IP addresses defined in a DHCP scope must be __________.A = contiguousB = associated with a subnet maskC = both A and BD = none of the abovecorrect = Cexplanation = The IP addresses defined in a DHCP scope must be contiguous and are associated with a subnet mask. If the addresses you want to assign are not contiguous, you must create a scope encompassing all of the addresses you want to assign and then exclude specific addresses or address ranges from the scope.

12 After the client receives an offer from at least one DHCP server, it broadcasts a DHCPREQUEST message to all DHCP servers with 0.0.0.0 as the source address and __________ as the destination address.A = 265.265.265.265B = 225.225.225.225C = 255.255.255.255D = 205.205.205.205correct = Cexplanation = The client broadcasts a DHCPDISCOVER message to find a DHCP server. Because the client does not already have an IP address or know the IP address of the DHCP server, the DHCPDISCOVER message is sent as a local area broadcast, with 0.0.0.0 as the source address and 255.255.255.255 as the destination address. The DHCPDISCOVER message is a request for the location of a DHCP server and IP addressing information.

13 Which of the following is not considered a top-level domain?A = .natoB = .intC = .coopD = .comcorrect = Aexplanation = The generic top-level domain names include .aero, .biz, .com, .coop, .edu, .gov, .info, .int, .il, .museum, .name, .net, .org, and .pro.

14 Active Directoryintegrated zones follow what type of update model?A = multiple nodeB = multimaster C = replicationD = notificationcorrect = Bexplanation = Active Directoryintegrated zones follow a multimaster update model, meaning that all Active Directoryintegrated zones contain a read/write copy of the zone and can make changes to the zone information. Therefore, primary and secondary distinctions are not necessary.

15 What is the length of time that the DNS service waits before retrying a query made during a recursive lookup?A = 3 seconds B = 5 secondsC = 7 secondsD = 15 secondscorrect = Aexplanation = By default, DNS servers use timings for retry intervals and time-out intervals. This includes a recursion retry interval of three seconds. This is the length of time that the DNS service waits before retrying a query made during a recursive lookup.

16 Which zone enables a host to determine another hosts name based on its IP address?A = standard primary zoneB = standard secondary zoneC = reverse lookup zoneD = stub zonecorrect = Cexplanation = Most queries sent to a DNS server are forward queries; that is, they request an IP address based on a DNS name. DNS also provides a reverse lookup process that enables a host to determine another hosts name based on its IP address. This is a reverse lookup zone.

17 Windows Server 2008 includes all of the following routing protocols that can be added to the Routing and Remote Access service with the exception of __________.A = OSPFB = IGMP Router & ProxyC = DHCP Relay AgentD = RIPv2correct = Aexplanation = Windows Server 2008 includes the following three routing protocols that can be added to the Routing and Remote Access service RIPv2, DHCP Relay Agent, and IGMP Router & Proxy.

18 Which column of the IP Routing Table indicates the gateway value for each routing table entry?A = firstB = secondC = thirdD = fourthcorrect = Cexplanation = The third column indicates the gateway value for each routing table entry. When a particular route or table entry is applied to a packet, the gateway value determines the next address or hop to which the packet should be sent.

19 Which mutual authentication method offers encryption of both authentication data and connection data?A = EAP.TLSB = MS-CHAPv2C = MS-CHAPv1D = Extensible Authentication Protocol-Message Digest 5 Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (EAP-MD5 CHAP)correct = Bexplanation = MS-CHAPv2 is a mutual authentication method that offers encryption of both authentication data and connection data.

20 By default, the Callback Options setting is configured as __________.A = Always Callback ToB = Set by Caller C = No CallbackD = None of the abovecorrect = Cexplanation = By default, the Callback Options setting is configured as No Callback.

21 The File Services role and other storage-related features included with Windows Server 2008 provide tools that enable system administrators to address many problems on a scale appropriate to a large enterprise network. However, before you implement the role or begin using these tools, what should you spend some time thinking about?A = how quickly you can recover from the failure of a hard drive, a server, or an entire facilityB = your users needs and how these needs affect their file storage and sharing practicesC = how you control access to network file sharesD = how users will find the files that they needcorrect = Bexplanation = The File Services role and other storage-related features included with Windows Server 2008 provide tools that enable system administrators to address all of these problems on a scale appropriate to a large enterprise network. However, before you implement the role or begin using these tools, you should spend some time thinking about your users needs and how these needs affect their file storage and sharing practices.

22 When you work with basic disks in Windows Server 2008, how many primary partitions can you create?A = 1B = 2C = 3D = 4correct = Dexplanation = When you work with basic disks in Windows Server 2008, you can create up to four primary partitions; that is, a partition that can be used to load an operating system. For the fourth partition, you have the option of creating an extended partition instead on which you can create as many logical drives as you need.

23 What is the first step in designing a file-sharing strategy?A = deciding how many shares to create and where to create themB = determining usernames and passwordsC = deciding security measuresD = projecting anticipated storage needs and procuring the correct server hardware and disk arrays to meet your needscorrect = Dexplanation = The first step in designing a file-sharing strategy begins before you even install the server operating system by projecting your anticipated storage needs and procuring the correct server hardware and disk arrays to meet your needs. Once you are ready to begin configuring file sharing, you will then decide how many shares to create and where to create them.

24 Windows Server 2008 has several sets of permissions that operate independently of each other. Which permissions control access to folders over a network?A = share permissionsB = NTFS permissionsC = registry permissionsD = Active Directory permissionscorrect = Aexplanation = Share permissions control access to folders over a network.25 What standardized, highly portable print job format is the default format used by the Windows 2000, Windows XP, and Windows Server 2003 print subsystems?A = XML Paper Specifications (XPS)B = Enhanced Metafile (EMF)C = PCL 6D = PCL 5ecorrect = Bexplanation = Enhanced Metafile (EMF) is a standardized, highly portable print job format that is the default format used by the Windows 2000, Windows XP, and Windows Server 2003 print subsystems.

26 Which document management menu command enables users to send jobs to the printer, where they remain in the queue, unprocessed, until you select the same menu item again?A = Document > RestartB = Document > PauseC = Printer > Use Printer OfflineD = Printer > Pause Printingcorrect = Cexplanation = The Printer > Use Printer Offline document management menu command enables users to send jobs to the printer, where they remain in the queue, unprocessed, until you select the same menu item again.

27 Which version of Windows automatically supports automatic policy-based printer deployments by default? A = Windows XP B = Windows Server 2003C = Windows 2000D = None of the abovecorrect = Dexplanation = Clients running earlier versions of Windows, including Windows XP and Windows Server 2003, do not support automatic policy-based printer deployments. To enable the GPO to deploy printers on these computers, you must configure the systems to run a utility called PushPrinterConnections.exe.

28 How many possibilities of filter combinations exist in the Print Management Console? A = 1B = approximately 100C = approximately 500D = more than 1,000correct = Dexplanation = When creating filters, each entry in the Field drop-down list has its own collection of possible entries for the Condition drop-down list, and each Condition entry has its own possible entries for the Value setting. Therefore, there are many thousands of possible filter combinations.

29 Which of the following is the default view of the Reliability and Performance Monitor?A = Performance MonitorB = Reliability MonitorC = ResourceD = Networkcorrect = Cexplanation = Resource view is the default view of the Reliability and Performance Monitor. This view provides a quick overview of the four major performance components of a Windows server CPU, Disk, Network, and Memory.

30 In which node is Event Viewer located?A = Setup nodeB = Application nodeC = Diagnostics node D = Security nodecorrect = Cexplanation = Event Viewer is accessible from Server Manager by drilling down to the Diagnostics node or by selecting Event Viewer from the Administrative Tools folder on the Start menu.

31 Automatic Updates has been enhanced to support WSUS. This enhancement adds all of the following features when used in conjunction with a WSUS server except __________.A = approved content download from a WSUS serverB = scheduled content download and installationC = the ability to configure all Automatic Updates options by using Group Policy Object Editor or by editing the registryD = support for Unix-based systemscorrect = Dexplanation = Automatic Updates has been enhanced to support WSUS. This enhancement adds the following features when used in conjunction with a WSUS server approved content download from a WSUS server, scheduled content download and installation, the ability to configure all Automatic Updates options by using Group Policy Object Editor or by editing the registry, and support for systems without a logged-on local administrator.

32 Server management includes all of the following with the exception of __________.A = reviewing and changing configuration optionsB = controlling download and installation behaviorC = automatically or manually synchronizing the serverD = viewing the update statuscorrect = Bexplanation = Server management includes reviewing and changing configuration options, automatically or manually synchronizing the server, viewing the update status, and backing up and restoring the server. Client management includes controlling download and installation behavior and configuration for Active Directory and nonActive Directory environments.33 Which rule allows you to specify one or more computers that do not need to be authenticated to pass traffic?A = TunnelB = Authentication exemptionC = IsolationD = Server to servercorrect = Bexplanation = The Authentication exemption rule allows you to specify one or more computers that do not need to be authenticated to pass traffic; for example, defining a DHCP server that should not have an Isolation connection security rule apply to it.

34 To set the Netsh IPSec context, what is the first command you enter at the command prompt?A = netshB = ipsecC = staticD = dynamiccorrect = Aexplanation = To set the Netsh IPSec context, type netsh at the command prompt, and then press Enter. Key ipsec, and press Enter. From here, you can enter the word static at the Netsh IPSec prompt. Static mode allows you to create, modify, and assign policies without affecting the active IPSec policy.

35 Which type of attack is one in which a malicious user masquerades as the legitimate sender or recipient of network traffic?A = data modificationB = denial of serviceC = man in the middleD = identity spoofingcorrect = Dexplanation = An attacker can falsify or spoof the identity of either the sending or receiving computer by using special programs to construct IP packets that appear to originate from valid addresses inside of a trusted network. IPSec allows the exchange and verification of identities without exposing that information to interpretation by an attacker.

36 What is used to determine encryption key material and security protection for use in protecting subsequent main mode or quick mode communications?A = quick mode negotiationsB = quick mode messagesC = main mode negotiationsD = main mode messagescorrect = Cexplanation = Main mode negotiation is used to determine encryption key material and security protection for use in protecting subsequent main mode or quick mode communications.

37 In a PKI, each user/computer possesses a piece of information that is known only to the individual user or computer that is called a __________.A = public keyB = private packetC = private keyD = shared secret keycorrect = Cexplanation = Each user/computer possesses a private key, which is a piece of information known only to the individual user or computer.

38 Certificate templates can be used to automate the deployment of PKI certificates by controlling the __________.A = security settings associated with each template B = user settings associated with each templateC = configuration settings associated with each templateD = networking settings associated with each templatecorrect = Aexplanation = Certificate templates can be used to automate the deployment of PKI certificates by controlling the security settings associated with each template.

39 Depending on the enforcement method in use, a NAP enforcement point can take a number of different forms, such as what?A = 802.1X-capable Wireless Access Point for 802.1X enforcementB = Health Registration Authority (HRA) that can obtain health certificates from client computers when the IPSec enforcement method is usedC = Windows Server 2008 DHCP server for the DHCP enforcement method D = All of the abovecorrect = Dexplanation = Depending on the enforcement method in use, a NAP enforcement point can take a number of different forms, such as an 802.1X-capable Wireless Access Point for 802.1X enforcement, a Windows Server 2008 DHCP server for the DHCP enforcement method, or a Health Registration Authority (HRA) that can obtain health certificates from client computers when the IPSec enforcement method is used.

40 What is an optional component that can be deployed to allow non-compliant client computers to achieve network compliance and gain network access?A = enforcement serverB = health policy serverC = health requirement serverD = remediation servercorrect = Dexplanation = A remediation server isan optional component that can be deployed to allow non-compliant client computers to achieve network compliance and gain network access. 41 Which optional role service is part of the File Server role that allows administrators to configure advanced file server functionality such as disk quotas, file screens, and e-mail notifications of user quota activities?A = File Server ManagerB = File Server Resource ManagerC = File Resource ManagerD = Server Resource Managercorrect = Bexplanation = The File Server Resource Manager (FSRM) is an optional role service that is part of the File Server role, which allows administrators to configure advanced file server functionality such as disk quotas, file screens, and e-mail notifications of user quota activities.

42 Shadow Copies of Shared Folders functionality is enabled at which level?A = volumeB = fileC = userD = networkcorrect = Aexplanation = Shadow Copies of Shared Folders functionality is enabled at the volume level, which means that it will be enabled or disabled for all shared folders on the C\ drive, the D\ drive, and so forth. Shadow Copies of Shared Folders works by periodically taking a snapshot of the contents of all shared folders on a particular volume and storing those snapshots to allow users and administrators to refer back to them later for any of the purposes described above.

43 The File Server Resource Manager console was first introduced in which product?A = Windows NTB = Windows Server 2003C = Windows Server 2003 R2D = Windows Server 2008correct = Cexplanation = The File Server Resource Manager console, first introduced in Windows Server 2003 R2, provides tools that enable file server administrators to monitor and regulate their server storage.

44 Three options can be found on the Previous Versions tab for any snapshots listed. Which of the following is not an option?A = OpenB = DuplicateC = CopyD = Restorecorrect = Bexplanation = From the Previous Versions tab, you have one of three options for any snapshots listed Open, Copy, and Restore.