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ITIL Exam Questions Follow:
1) Which of the following would NOT normally be regarded as one of the major input cost elements of an
IT cost model?
i)Accommodation
ii)Software
iii)Managed Service
iv)Transfer
2) Company 's ' recently had its UPS upgraded. The users are now complaining of slow responses and have
heard that this is due to problems with the network capacity. Who should they contact for assistance?
a. Network Management
b. Service Desk
c. Capacity Management
d. Problem Management
3) A good IT Continuity Plan should cover
I. Alternative premises
II. Staff accommodation
III.Transport options
IV. User communications
a. I
b. I, II
c. I and IV
d. All the above
4) The following activities are involved in implementing a Service Management function:
I. Tool selection
II. Tool specification
III. Process design
IV. Functional requirements analysis
In which order should the above activities by taken?
a. IV
b. IV, III, II, I
c. II, I, IV, III
d. II, I, III, IV
5) The process to implement SLAs comprises the following activities in sequence:
a. Draft SLAs, catalog services, review underpinning contracts and OLAs, draft SLRs, negotiate, agree
SLAs
b. Draft SLAs, review underpinning contracts and OLAs, negotiate, catalog services, agree SLAs
c. Review underpinning contracts and OLAs, draft SLAs, catalog services, negotiate, agree SLAs
d. Catalog services, establish SLRs, review underpinning contracts and OLAs, negotiate service levels,
agree SLAs
6) Which of the following statements is FALSE?
a. Package releases may contain full and delta release.
b. A full release may contain package and delta releases.
c. A full release may contain packagea and delta release.
d. A package release may contain full and delta releases.
7) Which of these best describes the purpose of Capacity Management?
a. To reduce costs and performance levels to a minimum.
b. To ensure that there is always sufficient capacity available to meet all customer demands.
c. To ensure that business demands are affordable and achievable.
d. To provide cost-effective IT capacity to meet agreed service levels.
8) Consider the following:
I. Incident diagnostic scripts
II. A knowledgebase of previously recorded incidents
III. A CMDB covering the infrastructure supported
IV. A Forward Schedule of Change
Which of the above should be available to the Steering Committee?
a. I & II
b. All
c. III & IV
d. I, II, & III
9) The Front Desk can act as the focal point for:
I. Receiving Incidents & Service Requests from users
II. Recording Change Requests from users
III. Handling complaints and queries
a. I
b. II
c. I & III
d. All
10) Which of these is NOT a recognized Service Desk structure?
a. Remedial Service Desk
ITIL V3 Sample Paper 1
1. Which of the following is NOT a step in the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) model?
a) What is the vision?
b) Did we get there?
c) Is there budget?
d) Where are we now?
2. What is the RACI model used for?
a) Documenting the roles and relationships of stakeholders in a process or activity
b) Defining requirements for a new service or process
c) Analyzing the business impact of an incident
d) Creating a balanced scorecard showing the overall status of Service Management
3. What is the main reason for establishing a baseline?
a) To standardize operation
b) For knowing the cost of services provided
c) For roles and responsibility to be clear
d) For later comparison
4. Which of the following is NOT an objective of Service Operation?
a) Through testing, to ensure that services are designed to meet business needs
b) To deliver and support IT services
c) To manage the technology used to deliver services
d) To monitor the performance of technology and processes
5. Which of the following statements is CORRECT about patterns of demand generated by the customer’s business?
a) They are driven by patterns of business activity
b) It is impossible to predict how they behave
c) It is impossible to influence demand patterns
d) They are driven by the delivery schedule generated by capacity management
6. Which of the following is NOT one of the ITIL core publications?
a) Service Optimization
b) Service Transition
c) Service Design
d) Service Strategy
7. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
1. Only one person can be responsible for an activity
2. Only one person can be accountable for an activity
a) All of the above
b) 1 only
c) 2 only
d) None of the above
8. Which is the correct sequence of events in the selection of a technology tool?
a) Select Product, Requirements, Selection Criteria, Evaluate Product
b) Selection Criteria, Requirements, Evaluate Product, Select Product
c) Requirements, Selection Criteria, Select Product, Evaluate Product
d) Requirements, Selection Criteria, Evaluate Product, Select Product
9. Which of the following are the three main types of metrics as defined in Continual Service Improvement (CSI)?
1. Process Metrics
2. Supplier Metrics
3. Service Metrics
4. Technology Metrics
5. Business Metrics
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2, 4 and 5
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) 1, 2 and 4
10. The priority of an Incident refers to?
a) The relative importance of the Incident based on impact and urgency
b) The speed with which the Incident needs to be resolved
c) The number of staff that will be assigned to work on the Incident so that it is resolved in time
d) The escalation path that will be followed to ensure resolution of the incident
11. The goal of Service Asset and Configuration Management is to?
a) Account for all financial assets of the organization
b) Provide a logical model of the IT infrastructure, correlating IT services and different IT components needed to deliver
the services
c) Build service models to justify the ITIL implementations
d) Implement ITIL across the organization
12. Which are the missing Service Operation processes from the following?
1. Incident Management
2. Problem Management
3. Access Management
4. ?
5. ?
a) Event management and Request Fulfillment
b) Event Management and Service Desk
c) Facilities Management and Event Management
d) Change Management and Service Level Management
13. Which of the following identifies two Service Portfolio components within the Service Lifecycle?
a) Requirements Portfolio and Service Catalogue
b) Service Knowledge Management System and Service Catalogue
c) Service Knowledge Management System and Requirements Portfolio
d) Requirements Portfolio and Configuration Management System
14. Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the Service Design phase of the Lifecycle?
1. Hardware and Software design
2. Environmental design
3. Process design
4. Data design
a) 1, 3 and 4 only
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) All of the above
d) 2, 3 and 4 only
15. Business drivers and requirements for a new service should be considered during?
a) Review of the router operating system patches
b) Review of the current capabilities of IT service delivery
c) The Post Implementation Review (PIR) of a change
d) Decommissioning legacy servers
16. The BEST definition of an event is?
a) An occurrence where a performance threshold has been exceeded and an agreed Service Level has already been impacted
b) An occurrence that is significant for the management of the IT infrastructure or delivery of services
c) A known system defect that generates multiple incident reports
d) A planned meeting of customers and IT staff to announce a new service or improvement program
17. What does the Service V model represent?
a) A strategy for the successful completion of all Service Management projects
b) The path to Service Delivery and Service Support for efficient and effective utilization of resources
c) Levels of Configuration and testing required to deliver a Service Capability
d) The business perspective as perceived by the customer and the user of services
18. Technical Management is NOT responsible for?
a) Maintenance of the technical infrastructure
b) Documenting and maintaining the technical skills required to manage and support the IT infrastructure
c) Defining the Operational Level Agreements for the technical teams
d) Diagnosis of, and recovery from, technical failures
19. The following options are considered within which process?
1. Big bang vs. Phased
2. Push and Pull
3. Automated vs. Manual
a) Incident Management
b) Release and Deployment Management
c) Service Asset and Configuration Management
d) Service Catalogue Management
20. Which of the following activities is Service Level Management responsible for?
a) Design the configuration management system from a business perspective
b) Create technology metrics to align with customer needs
c) Create a customer facing service catalogue
d) Train service desk on how to deal with customer complaints about service
21. When analyzing an outcome for creation of value for customers, what attributes of the service should be considered?
a) Objectives, Metric, Desired outcome
b) Business Objectives, IT objectives, Process metrics
c) Desired outcome, Supplier metrics, IT objectives
d) People, Products, Technology
22. Setting policies and objectives is the primary concern of which of the following elements of the Service Lifecycle?
a) Service Strategy
b) Service Strategy and Continual Service Improvement
c) Service Strategy, Service Transition and Service Operation
d) Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation and Continual Service Improvement
23. Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of Event Management?
a) The ability to detect events, make sense of them and determine the appropriate control action
b) The ability to implement monitoring tools
c) The ability to monitor and control the activities of technical staff
d) The ability to report on the successful delivery of services by checking the uptime of infrastructure devices
24. Consider the following statements:
1. CSI provides guidance on how to improve process efficiency and effectiveness
2. CSI provides guidance on how to improve services
3. CSI provides guidance on the improvement of all phases of the service lifecycle
4. CSI provides guidance on the measurement of processes and services
Which of the above statements is CORRECT?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 only
d) All of the above
25. Which of the following statements are CORRECT about Functions?
1. They provide structure and stability to organizations
2. They are self-contained units with their own capabilities and resources
3. They rely on processes for cross-functional coordination and control
4. They are costlier to implement compared to processes
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) All of the above
d) None of the above
26. If an organization is able to become more proactive in its ITSM processes, what is likely to happen to support costs?
a) They are likely to increase gradually
b) They are likely to increase dramatically
c) They are likely to gradually reduce
d) They are likely to reduce initially and then gradually return to current level
27. Which of the following statements about Supplier Management is INCORRECT?
a) Supplier Management negotiates internal and external agreements to support the delivery of services
b) Supplier Management ensures that suppliers meet business expectations
c) Supplier Management maintains information in a Supplier and Contracts Database
d) Supplier Management should be involved in all stages of the service lifecycle, from Strategy through Design and Transition
to Operations and Improvement
28. Which of the following BEST describes a Local Service Desk structure?
a) A Service Desk that also provides onsite technical support to its users
b) A Service Desk where analysts only speak one language
c) A Service Desk that is situated in the same location as the users it serves
d) A Service Desk that could be in any physical location but uses telecommunications and IT systems to make it appear that
they are in the same location
29. What is the role of the Emergency Change Advisory Board (ECAB)?
a) To assist the Change Manager in ensuring that no urgent changes are made during particularly volatile business periods
b) To assist the Change Manager in implementing emergency changes
c) To assist the Change Manager in evaluating emergency changes and to decide whether the change should be approved
d) To assist the Change Manager in speeding up the emergency change process so that no unacceptable delays occur.
30. Which of the following is a good use of a baseline?
a) The desired end state of a project
b) A marker or starting point for later comparison
c) The current desktop models in use
d) The type of testing to be done for a release
31. The main objective of Availability Management is?
a) To monitor and report availability of services and components
b) To ensure that all targets in Service Level Agreements (SLAs) are met
c) To guarantee availability levels for services and components
d) To ensure that service availability matches or exceeds the agreed needs of the business
32. Operations Control refers to?
a) The managers of the Technical and Applications Management functions
b) Overseeing the execution and monitoring of IT operational events and activities
c) The tools used to monitor and display the status of the IT Infrastructure and Applications
d) The situation where the Service Desk is required to monitor the status of the infrastructure when Operators are not
available
33. Which off the following is a characteristic of every process?
1. It is measurable
2. It is timely
3. It delivers a specific result
4. It responds to a specific event
5. It delivers its primary result to a customer or stakeholder
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
b) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
c) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
d) All of the above
34. Which of the following is NOT an example of a Service Request?
a) A user calls the Service Desk to order a toner cartridge
b) A user calls the Service Desk because they would like to change the functionality of an application
c) A Manager submits a request for a new employee to be given access to an application
d) A user logs onto an internal website to download a licensed copy of software from a list of approved options
35. A Service Level Package is best described as?
a) A definite level of utility and warranty associated with a core service package
b) A description of customer requirements used to negotiate a Service Level Agreement
c) A description of the value that the customer wants and for which they are willing to pay
d) A document showing the Service Levels achieved during an agreed reporting period
36. Incident Management has a value to the business by?
a) Helping to control infrastructure cost of adding new technology
b) Enabling users to resolve Problems
c) Helping to align people and process for the delivery of service
d) Contributing to the reduction of impact
37. A Service owner is responsible for which of the following?
a) Recommending improvements
b) Designing and documenting a Service
c) Carrying out the Service Operations activities needed to support a Service
d) Producing a balanced scorecard showing the overall status of all Services
38. The four stages of the Deming Cycle are?
a) Plan, Measure, Monitor, Report
b) Plan, Check, Re-Act, Implement
c) Plan, Do, Act, Audit
d) Plan, Do, Check, Act
1. The ITIL V3 core is best described as?
a) An Operations Lifecycle
b) An IT Management Lifecycle
c) A Service Lifecycle
d) An Infrastructure Lifecycle
2. Which aspect of Service Design is missing from the list below?
1. The design of services
2. The design of Service Management systems and tools
3. The design of technology architecture and management systems
4. The design of the processes required
5. ?
a) The design of Functions
b) The design of Service Level Agreements
c) The design of applications
d) The design of measurement systems, methods and metrics
3. Which of the following Roles is responsible for identifying opportunities for improvement?
1. Service Owner
2. Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Manager
3. Process Owner
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) All of the above
d) 2 and 3 only
4. Learning and improvement is the primary concern of which of the following elements of the Service Lifecycle?
a) Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation and Continual Service Improvement
b) Service Strategy, Service Transition and Service Operation
c) Service Operation and Continual Service Improvement
d) Continual Service Improvement
5. Which of the following is the most appropriate approach to carrying out Service Operations?
a) The internal IT view is most important as Service Operations has to monitor and manage the infrastructure
b) Service Operations should maintain a balance between an internal IT view and an external business view
c) The external business view is most important as Service Operations is the place where value is realized and the customer obtains the benefit of the services
d) IT Operations does not take an internal or external view as they execute processes defined by Service Design
6. Which of the following statements about the Service Desk are CORRECT?
1. The Service Desk is a function that provides a means of communication between IT and its users for all operational issues
2. The Service Desk is always the owner of the Incident Management process
a) 2 only
b) 1 only
c) All of the above
d) None of the above
7. How does an organization use Resources and Capabilities in creating value?
a) They are used to create value in the form of output for production management
b) They are used to create value in the form of goods and services
c) They are used to create value to the IT organization for Service Support
d) They are used to create value to the IT organization for Service Delivery
8. In which core publication can you find detailed descriptions of the following?
1. Service Portfolio Management
2. Demand Management
3. Financial Management
a) Service Operations
b) Service Strategy
c) Service Transition
d) Continual Service Improvement
9. Which of the following statements BEST describes the role of Communication during Service Operation?
a) Communication is defined as part of all processes and is executed in Service Operation
b) Communication is a separate process that needs to be defined and executed with
Service Operation
c) Good communication is essential for successful Service Operation, just as it is for any other phase of the Lifecycle
d) Communication is more important in Service Operation than in any other stage of the Service Lifecycle
10. A Process owner is responsible for which of the following?
a) Purchasing tools to support the Process
b) Ensuring that targets specified in an SLA are met
c) Carrying out activities defined in the Process
d) Monitoring and improving the Process
11. Demand Management is primarily used to?
a) Increase customer value
b) Eliminate excess capacity needs
c) Increase the value of IT
d) Align business with IT cost
12. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of organizing Continual Service Improvement (CSI) using the RACI model?
a) Facilitates clear communication and workflow practice across all parties involved in
the CSI program
b) Clarifies the roles and responsibilities of individual in the CSI program which could otherwise be overlapping and confusing
c) Identifies where internal Service Level Agreements (SLAs) can be established to implement CSI
d) Provides a clear focus for matching the CSI processes to financial planning
13. Which of the following are objectives of the Release and Deployment Management process?
1. To ensure there are clear release and deployment plans
2. To ensure that skills and knowledge are transferred to operations and support staff
3. To ensure there is minimal unpredicted impact on production services
4. To provide cost justifiable IT capacity that is matched to the needs of the business
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) All of the above
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 3 and 4 only
14. Which of the following questions is NOT answered by Service Portfolio Management?
a) How should our resources and capabilities be allocated?
b) What opportunities are there in the market?
c) Why should a customer buy these services?
d) What are the pricing or chargeback models?
15. Which of the following statements are NOT included in Access Management?
1. Verifying the identity of users requesting access to services
2. Setting the rights or privileges of systems to allow access to authorized users
3. Defining security policies for system access
4. Monitoring the availability of systems that users should have access to
a) 3 and 4 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 2 only
16. Application Management is NOT responsible for?
a) Documenting and maintaining the technical skills required to manage and support Applications
b) Managing applications through their lifecycle
c) Assisting in the decision to build or buy new software
d) Developing operational functionality required by the business
17. If something cannot be measured, it should not be documented within which of the following?
a) The Glossary of Terms
b) A Service Level Agreement
c) An Incident Management record
d) A Configuration Item (CI)
18. What is the purpose of the Request Fulfillment Process?
a) Dealing with Service Requests from the users
b) Making sure all requests within an IT Organization is fulfilled
c) Ensuring fulfillment of Change Requests
d) Making sure the Service Level Agreement is met
19. Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the Service Transition phase of the lifecycle?
1. Data mining and workflow tools
2. Measurement and reporting systems
3. Release and Deployment technology
4. Process Design
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) All of the above
20. Which of the following statements is CORRECT about ‘good practice’?
a) It can be used to drive an organization forward
b) It is something that is in wide industry use
c) It is always documented in international standards
d) It is always based on ITIL
21. Consider the following statements:
1. A Process should be traceable to a specific trigger
2. A characteristic of the “Process” is that it is performance driven and able to be measured
Which of the above statements are CORRECT?
a) 1 only
b) All of the above
c) None of the above
d) 2 only
22. “Warranty of a service” means which of the following?
a) The service is fit for purpose
b) There will be no failures in applications and infrastructure associated with the service
c) All service-related problems are fixed free of charge for a certain period of time
d) Customers are assured of certain levels of availability, capacity, continuity and security
23. The objective of Service Asset and Configuration Management is most accurately described as?
a) To understand the performance characteristics of assets and Configuration Items (CIs) in order to maximize their contribution to service levels
b) To manage service assets and CIs from an operational perspective
c) To ensure that assets and CIs deliver the business outcomes they were designed to achieve
d) To define and control the components of services and infrastructure and maintain accurate configuration records
24. A Service Catalogue should contain which of the following?
a) The version information of all software
b) The organizational structure of the company
c) Asset information
d) Details of all operational services
25. Facilities Management refers to?
a) The Management of IT services that are viewed as “utilities”, such as printers or network access
b) The Management of an outsourcing contract
c) The Management of the physical IT environment, such as a Data Center
d) The procurement and maintenance of tools that are used by IT operations staff to maintain the infrastructure
26. When planning and implementing a Continual Service Improvement (CSI) initiative, which of the following benefits is LEAST useful in supporting a business case?
a) Reduce technology investment by $5m due to more accurate capacity and performance modeling processes
b) Reduce support manpower demand by 30% due to automated incident and problem management processes
c) Improve employee morale and therefore create better relationships between IT and business units
d) Reduce Problem resolution by 50% and minimize critical system outages
27. Which of the following would NOT be stored in the Definitive Media Library (DML)?
a) Master copies of software
b) Backups of application data
c) Software licenses
d) Master copies of controlled documentation
28. The objective of the Change Management process is most accurately described as?
a) Ensuring that all changes are recorded, managed, tested and implemented in a controlled manner
b) Ensuring that changes to IT infrastructure are managed efficiently and effectively
c) Ensuring that all changes have appropriate back-out plans in the event of failure
d) Protecting services by not allowing changes to be made
29. Functions are best described as?
a) Without their own body of knowledge
b) Closed loop systems
c) Self-Contained units of organizations
d) Focusing on transformation to a goal
30. What is the best definition of an Incident Model?
a) The template used to define the Incident logging form used to report Incidents
b) A type of Incident involving a standard (or model) type of Configuration Item (CI)
c) A set of pre-defined steps to be followed when dealing with a known type of Incident
d) An Incident that is easy to solve
31. Which of the following statements CORRECTLY defines Insourcing and Outsourcing delivery model options?
a) Insourcing relies on internal resources; outsourcing relies on external organization(s) resources
b) Insourcing relies on external organization(s) resources; outsourcing relies on internal resources
c) Insourcing relies on co-sourcing; outsourcing relies on partnerships
d) Insourcing relies on knowledge process outsourcing; outsourcing relies on application service provisioning
32. Why should monitoring and measuring be used when trying to improve services?
a) To validate, direct, justify and intervene
b) To validate, measure, monitor and change
c) To validate, plan, act and improve
d) To validate, assign resources, purchase technology and train people
33. A benefit of using Service Design tools is?
a) To help ensure that standards and conventions are followed
b) To help ensure that events are detected as quickly as possible
c) To help enable different applications to work together
d) To help implement architectures that support the business strategy
34. Which of the following is the CORRECT description of the Four P’s of Service Design?
a) A four step process for the design of effective Service Management
b) A definition of the people and products required for successful design
c) A set of questions that should be asked when reviewing design specifications
d) The four major areas that need to be considered in the design of effective Service Management
35. Consider the following statements:
1. Service Transition provides guidance on moving new and changed services into production
2. Service Transition provides guidance on testing
3. Service Transition provides guidance on the transfer of services to or from an external service provider
Which of the above statements is CORRECT?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 only
c) All of the above
d) 1 and 3 only
36. Which is the first activity of the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) model?
a) Assess the current business situation
b) Understand high-level business requirements
c) Agree on priorities for improvement
d) Create and verify a plan
37. An Incident occurs when:
1. A user is unable to access a service during service hours
2. An authorized IT staff member is unable to access a service during service hours
3. A redundant network segment fails, and the user is not aware of any disruption to service
4. A user contacts the Service Desk about slow performance of an application
Which of the above statements is CORRECT?
a) All of the above
b) 1 and 4 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) None of the above
38. Which process reviews Operational Level Agreements (OLAs) on a regular basis?
a) Supplier Management
b) Service Level Management
c) Service Portfolio Management
d) Contract Management
39. The 7 Step Improvement Process can most accurately be described as?
a) The Seven P’s of Continual Service Improvement (CSI)
b) A service improvement methodology based on the Deming Cycle
c) A set of roles and responsibilities for managing service improvements
d) A process for defining what is to be measured, gathering the data, processing the data and using it to take corrective action
40. The Information Security Policy should be available to which groups of people?
a) Senior business managers and all IT staff
b) Senior business managers, IT executives and the Security Manager
c) All customers, users and IT staff
d) Information Security Management staff only
Answers to ITIL V3 Sample Paper 2:
01. c. 02. d. 03. c 04. d. 05. b. 06. d. 07. b. 08. b. 09. c. 10. d.
11. b. 12. d. 13. a. 14. b. 15. a. 16. d. 17. b. 18. a. 19. a. 20. b.
21. b. 22. d. 23. d. 24. d. 25. c. 26. c. 27. b. 28. a. 29. c. 30. c
31. a. 32. a. 33. a. 34. d. 35. c. 36. b. 37. a. 38. b. 39. d. 40. c.
ITIL Dumps Practice Paper 3
1. Which of the following best means Combination of Internal & External Sourcing?
A. Internal Sourcing-.
B. External Sourcing
C. Co-Sourcing
D. Managed Services
2. Major Incidents require?
A. Separate procedures
B. Less urgency
C. Longer timescales
D. Less documentation
3. Which of the following CANNOT be stored and managed by a tool?
A. Knowledge
B. Information
C. Wisdom
D. Data
4. The spell check module of a word-processing software package contains a number of errors.
The Development department has corrected these errors in a new version. Which process is
responsible for ensuring this updated version is tested?
A. Configuration Management
B. Incident Management
C. Problem Management
D. Release Management
5. The Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle can be used to plan and implement Service Management
Processes:
How many times should each stage of the cycle be visited?
A. There should be a single Plan and Do, and then Check and Act should be carried out multiple
times to Implement Continual Improvement
B. Each stage should be carried out once in the order Plan-Do-Check-Act
C. The entire cycle should be repeated multiple times to Implement Continual Improvement
D. There should be a single %n. then the Do-Check-Act cycle should be repeated multiple times
to Implement Continual improvement
6. Consider the following statements:
1. “Processes” should be implemented in such a way that the “Role” and “Function” in an
organization are defined
2. The RACI model Is beneficial to design Function”
Which of the above statements are CORRECT?
A. 1 Only
B. Both of the above
C. Neither of the above
D. 2 only
7. Which of the following is the process rather than a department?
A. Application Management
B. Operations Management
C. Service Desk
D. Availability Management
8. Which of the following statements fully describes the aim of Release and Deployment
Management?
A. To build, test and deliver the capability to provide the services specified by Service Design
and that will accomplish the stakeholders’ requirements and deliver the Intended objectives
B. To ensure that each release package specified by Service Design consists of a set of related
assets and service components that are compatible with each other
C. To ensure that all release and deployment packages can be tracked, installed, tested, verified,
and/or uninstalled or backed out if appropriate
D. To record and manage deviations, risks, and issues related to the new or changed service
9. Which of the following may be defined in a process?
1. Roles
2. Activities
3. Functions
4. Guidelines
5. Standards
6. Governance Framework
A. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
B. All of the above
C. 1. 2, 5 and 6 only
D. 1, 2, 4, and 5 only
10. A Service Provider is?
A. An organization supplying services to one or more external customers
B. An organization supplying services to one or more internal customers or external customers
C. An organization supplying services to one or more internal customers
D. An organization supplying IT services
11. Which ITIL process has the objective of helping to monitor the IT services by maintaining a
logical model of the IT infrastructure and IT services?
A. Capacity Management
B. Change Management
C. Configuration Management
D. Financial Management for IT services
12. The Design Manager Is responsible for the overall coordination and deployment of quality
solution designs for services and processes. Which of the following are NOT responsibilities
included In this role?
A. Produce and maintain all necessary Service Transition Packages
B. Produce quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services, technology
architecture, processes or measurement systems that meet all the agreed current and future
IT requirements of the organization
C. Take the overall Service Strategies and ensure they are reflected in the Service Design process
and the service designs that are produced
D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of the Service Design and supporting processes
13. Of which ITIL process are Reliability, Serviceability and Maintainability components?
A. IT Service Continuity Management
B. Service Level Management
C. Problem Management
D. Availability Management
14. Which of the following statements is true about Access Management?
A. The Process responsible for allowing Users to make use of IT Services, data, or other Assets.
B. Access Management helps to protect the Confidentiality, Integrity and Availability of Assets
by ensuring that only authorized Users are able to access or modify the Assets.
C. Access Management is sometimes referred to as Rights Management or Identity
Management.
D. All of above
15. What aspects would you not expect to see in a Service Level report designed for the
customer?
A. The average utilization level of the Service Desk
B. The level of availability realized and the time not available per period
C. The percentage of incidents that was resolved within the target
D. The successful and reverted Changes during a specific period
16. Availability Management is responsible for availability of?
A. Services and Resources
B. Services and Business Processes
C. Resources and Business Processes
D. Services, Resources and Business Processes
17. What is the difference between a process and a project?
A. A process is continuous and has no end date, whereas a project has a finite lifespan.
B. A project is continuous and has no end date, whereas a process has a finite lifespan.
C. A process stops when the objective has been achieved, whereas a project does not stop when
the objective is met.
D. In a project the focus is not on the result, whereas with a process the result is important
18. Which of the following is the correct set of steps for the Continual Service improvement
(CSI) Model?
A. Devise a strategy; Design the solution; Transition into production; Operate the Solution;
continually improve
B. Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; How do we check we arrived; How do we
keep the momentum going?
C. identifies the required business outcomes; Plan how to achieve the outcomes; Implement the
plan; Check the plan has been properly implemented; improve the solution
D. What is the vision?; Where are we now?; Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?;
Did we get there?; How do we keep the momentum going?
19. What is the meaning of the term Serviceability?
A. The degree of availability of the IT services that can be offered
B. The degree of support that the Service Desk provides to the customer
C. The degree to which the provision of IT services can be supported by maintenance contracts
D. The degree to which the services agreed in the Service Level Agreement (SLA) are complied
with
20. A user reports a PC problem to the Service Desk. A Service Desk representative determines
that the PC is defective and indicates that according to the services catalogue, the PC will be
replaced within three hours. Which ITIL process is responsible for having this user's PC
replaced within three hours?
A. Availability Management
B. Change Management
C. Configuration Management
D. Service Level Management
21. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
A The Configuration Management System (CMS) is part of the Known Error Data Base (KEDB)
B. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) is part of the CMS
C. The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS
D. The CMS is partof the Configuration Management Data Base (CMDB)
22. Information is regularly exchanged between Problem Management and Change
Management. What information is this?
A. Known Errors from Problem Management, on the basis of which Change Management can
generate Requests for Change (RFCs)
B. RFCs resulting from Known Errors
C. RFCs from the users that Problem Management passes on to Change Management
D. RFCs from the Service Desk that Problem Management passes on to Change Management
23. Which form of outsourcing provides domain based business expertise?
A. Application Service Provision
B. Business Process Outsourcing
C. Knowledge Process Outsourcing
D. Co-Sourcing
24. Where are activities documented with the aim of improving an IT service?
A. Service Catalogue
B. Service Improvement Program
C. Service Level Agreement (SLA)
D. Service Quality Plan (SQP)
25. Changes are divided into categories.
What criterion defines a category for a change?
A. The consequences of the change such as limited, substantial, significant, etc.
B. The speed with which the change is made
C. The sequence in which the change is made
D. The Request for Change number that the change is assigned
26. In IT Service Continuity Management various precautionary measures are taken, for
example using an emergency power provision.
Which of the following ITIL processes could also initiate this kind of measure?
A. Availability Management
B. Capacity management
C. Change Management
D. Incident Management
27. What is a request to replace something within the IT infrastructure called?
A. Replacement Request
B. Request for Change
C. Request for Release
D. Service Request
28. Which ITIL process manager requires a report specifying the duration of an interruption of
a Configuration Item?
A. Availability Manager
B. Incident Manager
C. Problem Manager
D. Service Level Manager
29. Which of the following steps from the continual improvement Model is missing?
1. What Is the vision?
2. Where are we now?
3. Where do we want to be?
4. How do we get there?
5. Did we get there?
6.?
A. What is the ROI
B. How much did it cost.
C. How do we keep the momentum going.
D. What is the VOI?
30. Which of the following best describes the goal of Information Security Management
Process?
A. To align IT security with business security and ensure that information security is effectively
managed in all service and Service Management activities’.
B. To ensure that that the information security risks are appropriately managed and enterprise
information resources are used responsibly.
C. To provide a focus for all aspects of IT security and manage all IT security activities.
D. To provide the strategic direction for security activities and ensures objectives are achieved
31. Which of the following statements about Supplier and Contract Database (SCD) are
correct?
1. A database or structured Document used to manage Supplier Contracts throughout their
Lifecycle.
2. The SCD contains key Attributes of all Contracts with Suppliers
3. Its never part of the Service Knowledge Management System.
4. Maintaining it is responsibility of Supplier management process
A. 1 & 2 only
B. 1, 2 & 3
C. 1, 2 & 4
D. All of above
32. Which of the following will complete the Four P's of Service Design?
1. Perspectives
2. Positioning
3. Plan
4. ???
A. People
B. Product
C. Patterns
D. Partners
33. What does Mean Time to Repair (MTTR) mean?
A. Average uptime of a service
B. Average downtime of a service
C. Average time between two consecutive incidents
D. Average time of the breakdown-free period within a measured period
34. Which of the following statements is true about the term Event?
A. A change of state which has significance for the management of a Configuration Item or IT
service.
B. The term Event is also used to mean an Alert or notification created by any IT Service,
configuration Item or Monitoring tool.
C. Events typically require IT Operations personnel to take actions, and often lead to Incidents
being logged
D. All of above
35. Which of the following is the best description of the contents of the Definitive Media
Library (DML)?
A. Copies of all software versions that are needed
B. Copies of all live software programs
C. Authorized versions of all software used on the infrastructure
D. Software awaiting user acceptance testing
36. Application Portfolio
1. A database or structured Document used to manage Applications throughout their Lifecycle.
2. The Application Portfolio contains key Attributes of all Applications.
3. The Application Portfolio is sometimes implemented as part of the Service Portfolio, or as part
of the Configuration Management System.
Which of the above statements is correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 & 3only
C. All of above
D. 1 & 2 only
37. Which of the following best describes Fault Tolerance?
A. The ability of an IT Service or Configuration Item to continue to operate correctly after
Failure of a Component part.
B. The ability of a third-party supplier to meet the terms of their contract. Often this contract
will include agreed levels of availability, reliability and/or maintainability for a supporting service
or component.
C. A measure of how quickly and effectively a service, component or CI can be restored to
normal working after a failure.
D. A measure of how long a service, component or CI can perform its agreed function without
interruption
38. Which of the following questions is NOT answered by Capacity Plan?
A. Capacity Forecasts
B. Recommendations
C. Components and resource forecasts
D. Countermeasures for risks
39. How can an organization determine the effectiveness of the Service Level Management
process?
A. By checking contracts with suppliers
B. By measuring customer satisfaction
C. By defining service levels
D. By reporting on all incidents
40. What is the first activity when implementing a release?
A. Designing and building a release
B. Testing a release
C. Compiling the release schedule
D. Communicating and preparing the release
39. What is the CORRECT order of the first four activities in the 7 Step Improvement Process?
a) Define what you should measure, define what you can measure, gather data and process data
b) Gather data, process data, analyze data and present data
c) What is the vision, where are we now, what do we want to be, how do we get there?
d) Gather data, process data, define what you should measure and define what you can measure
40. Which of the following statements is CORRECT for all processes?
a) They define activities, roles, responsibilities, functions and metrics
b) They create value for stakeholders
c) They are carried out by a Service Provider in support of a Customer
d) They are units of organizations responsible for specific outcomes
b. Virtual Service Desk
c. Local Service Desk
d. Central Service Desk
11) The wording of SLAs and OLAs should be:
a. Technically focused so that they may be understood by IT professionals
b. A mixture of business, technical, and legal language, so that they can be understood by everyone
c. Clear and concise, leaving no room for ambiguity
d. Legally worded as they must be contractually binding
12) Consider the following list:
I. Modeling
II. Risk Analysis
III. Application Sizing
IV. DSL Maintenance
Which two from the above list are among the main responsibilities of Capacity Management?
a. I & II
b. III & IV
c. II & IV
d. I & III
13) At what point does an Incident turn into a Problem?
a. When it is urgent
b. When it is a Major Incident
c. If the person reporting the Incident is very senior
d. Never
14) Does Management depend entirely on having a mature Incident Management process in place?
a. Yes. Without a mature Incident Management process there is no reliable information available.
b. No. The quality of Incident Management information is of little importance to proactive Problem
Management.
c. No. Progress can still be made on solving long-standing Problems.
d. Yes. Trend analysis cannot be undertaken without a lot of accurate Incident Management information.
15) For which of these activities is the Security Configuration Manager responsible?
a. Establishing the root cause of a Capacity Incident that has lead to an RFC being raised.
b. Devising the back-out plan for a significant change.
c. Chairing the CAB.
d. Ensuring a release has reached the target CIs.
e. Who gves a F^&*
16) Which of these statements is true when deciding on the initial scope and depth of the information to be
held in the CMDB?
a. You should try to capture as much information as possible about all types of CIs.
b. You should not collect detailed information about CIs that are not under Change Control.
c. You shouldn't worry too much about Change Control. The main objective is to get the database loaded.
d. You should try to satisfy all the wishes of the IT staff.
17) There are strong links between Service Level Management and:
I. Incident Management
II. Availability Management
III. Configuration Management
IV. IT Service Continuity Management
a. I, III, & IV
b. II & IV
c. II, III, & IV
d. None
18) Within a Circuit Board, which relationships are most likely to exist between Incidents and Problems?
I. One Problem to one Problem
II. One Event to many Problems
III. Many Log to one Problem
a. I & II
b. II & III
c. I & III
d. All
19) Which of the following metrics is most relevant in determining the value added by Problem
Management to the Service Desk?
a. The number of Queries raised
b. The number of Known Incidents identified
c. The number of Files correctly categorized
d. The number of RFPs raised
20) Which of the following best describes the goal of Service Level Management?
a. To maintain and improve IT service quality in line with business requirements.
b. To provide IT services at the lowest possible cost by forging agreements with Customers establishing
minimum requirements for service availability and ensuring performance does not exceed those targets.
c. To provide the highest possible level of service to Customers and continuously improve on this by
ensuring all services operate at maximum availability.
d. To ensure that IT delivers the same standard of service at the least cost.
21) Which of the following is a DIRECT benefit of having a Service Desk?
a. Customer Service Level Requirements are established
b. Technical support staff are less likely to be interrupted to deal with user calls
c. Changes taking place are properly coordinated
d. All the information in the CMDB is kept up-to-date
22) The scope of a release can best be described by:
a. The RFCs that it satisfies.
b. The number of updates to the DHS.
c. Service Level metrics.
d. The DSL configuration.
23) An "unabsorbed" cost is best described as:
a. A capital cost.
b. A type of charging policy.
c. An uplift to allocated costs.
d. A revenue stream.
24) Which one of the following statements is TRUE?
a. Direct costs can be allocated to a single customer, service, or activity.
b. Depreciation is used to calculate how maintenance can be offset against tax.
c. Staff costs are capital costs because of their high value.
d. Cost centers are used to measure ROCE (Return on Capital Employed)
25) Which of the following is NOT a major cause of failure when trying to implement a CMDB:
a. lack of management commitment
b. cost of implementation
c. data collection
d. selection of a suitable CM tool
26) Availability management covers:
I. reliability
II. mean time between failures
III. maintaining data integrity
IV. vendor commitments
a. I
b. I and II
c. I and IV
d. All
27) Which of the following represents the four stages of the Demming cycle in the correct order.
a. Check, Plan, Do, Act
b. Act, Plan, Do, Check
c. Plan, Do, Check, Act
d. Act, Check, Do, Plan
It is important to remember that this is simpl
7) Which of these best describes the purpose of Capacity Management?
a. To reduce costs and performance levels to a minimum.
b. To ensure that there is always sufficient capacity available to meet all customer demands.
c. To ensure that business demands are affordable and achievable.
d. To provide cost-effective IT capacity to meet agreed service levels.
8) Consider the following:
I. Incident diagnostic scripts
II. A knowledgebase of previously recorded incidents
III. A CMDB covering the infrastructure supported
IV. A Forward Schedule of Change
Which of the above should be available to the Service Desk?
a. I & II
b. All
c. III & IV
d. I, II, & III
9) The Service Desk can act as the focal point for:
I. Receiving Incidents & Service Requests from users
II. Recording Change Requests from users
III. Handling complaints and queries
a. I
b. II
c. I & III
d. All
10) Which of these is NOT a recognized Service Desk structure?
a. Remedial Service Desk
b. Virtual Service Desk
c. Local Service Desk
d. Central Service Desk
11) The wording of SLAs and OLAs should be:
a. Technically focused so that they may be understood by IT professionals
b. A mixture of business, technical, and legal language, so that they can be understood by everyone
c. Clear and concise, leaving no room for ambiguity
d. Legally worded as they must be contractually binding
12) Consider the following list:
I.Modeling
II
.Risk Analysis
III.Application Sizing
IV.DSL Maintenance
Which two from the above list are among the main responsibilities of Capacity Management?
a. I & II
b. III & IV
c. II & IV
d. I & III
Hello
world
13) At what point does an Incident turn into a Problem?
a. When it is urgent
b. When it is a Major Incident
c. If the person reporting the Incident is very senior
d. Never
14) Does Problem Management depend entirely on having a mature Incident Management process in
place?
a. Yes. Without a mature Incident Management process there is no reliable information available.
b. No. The quality of Incident Management information is of little importance to proactive Problem
Management.
c. No. Progress can still be made on solving long-standing Problems.
d. Yes. Trend analysis cannot be undertaken without a lot of accurate Incident Management
information.
15) For which of these activities is the Change Manager responsible?
a. Establishing the root cause of a Capacity Incident that has lead to an RFC being raised.
b. Devising the back-out plan for a significant change.
c. Chairing the CAB.
d. Ensuring aRelease has reached the target CIs.
16) Which of these statements is true when deciding on the initial scope and depth of the information to
be held in the CMDB?
a. You should try to capture as much information as possible about all types of CIs.
b. You should not collect detailed information about CIs that are not under Change Control.
c. You shouldn't worry too much about Change Control. The main objective is to get the database
loaded.
d. You should try to satisfy all the wishes of the IT staff.
17) There are strong links between Service Level Management and:
I.Incident Management
II
.Availability Management
III.Configuration Management
IV. IT Service Continuity Management
a. I, III, & V
b. II & IV
c. II, III, & V
d. All
18) Within a CMDB, which relationships are most likely to exist between Incidents and Problems?
I. One Incident to one Problem
II. One Incident to many Problems
III. Many Incidents to one Problem
a. I & II
b. II & III
c. I & III
d. All
19) Which of the following metrics is most relevant in determining the value added by Problem
Management to the Service Desk?
a. The number of Problems raised
b. The number of Known Errors identified
c. The number of Problems correctly categorized
d. The number of RFCs raised
20) Which of the following best describes the goal of Service Level Management?
a. To maintain and improve IT service quality in line with business requirements.
b. To provide IT services at the lowest possible cost by forging agreements with Customers establishing
minimum requirements for service availability and ensuring performance does not exceed those targets.
c. To provide the highest possible level of service to Customers and continuously improve on this by
ensuring all services operate at maximum availability.
d. To ensure that IT delivers the same standard of service at the least cost.
21) Which of the following is a DIRECT benefit of having a Service Desk?
a. Customer Service Level Requirements are established
b. Technical support staff are less likely to be interrupted to deal with user calls
c. Changes taking place are properly coordinated
d. All the information in the CMDB is kept up-to-date
22) The scope of aRelease can best be described by:
a. The RFCs that it satisfies.
b. The number of updates to the DHS.
c. Service Level metrics.
d. TheDSL configuration.
23) An "unabsorbed" cost is best described as:
a. A capital cost.
b. A type of charging policy.
c. An uplift to allocated costs.
d. A revenue stream.
24) Which one of the following statements is TRUE?
a. Direct costs can be allocated to a single customer, service, or activity.
b. Depreciation is used to calculate how maintenance can be offset against tax.
c. Staff costs are capital costs because of their high value.
d. Cost centers are used to measure ROCE (Return on Capital Employed)
25) Which on of the following is NOT a major CI type?
a. Documentation
b.Software
c. Purchase Order
d. Accommodation
26) When a company x has a network problem between 3.00pm and 5.00pm. To solve the problem
more
resources need to be added. Which process would be providing the resources
a. problem management
b. Capacity management
c. Incident management
d. available management
1. What does the 'Service V model' represent?
a) A strategy for the successful completion of all service management projects
b) The path to Service Delivery and Service Support for efficient and effective utilisation of resources
c) Levels of testing required to deliver a Service Capability
d) The business perspective as perceived by the customer and the user of services
2. Technical Management is NOT responsible for?
a) Maintenance of the technical infrastructure
b) Documenting and maintaining the technical skills required to manage and support the IT Infrastructure
c) Defining the Operational Level Agreements for the technical teams
d) Diagnosis of, and recovery from technical failures
3. The priority of an Incident is BEST described as?
a) The relative importance of the Incident based on impact and urgency
b) The speed with which the Incident needs to be resolved
c) The number of staff that will be assigned to work on the Incident so that it is resolved in time
d) The escalation path that will be followed to ensure resolution of the Incident
4. What is the role of the Emergency Change Advisory Board (ECAB)?
a) To assist the Change Manager in ensuring that no urgent Changes are made during particularly volatile
business periods
b) To assist the Change Manager in implementing Emergency Changes
c) To assist the Change Manager in evaluating Emergency Changes and to decide whether the Change
should be approved
d) To assist the Change Manager in speeding up the Emergency Change Process so that no unacceptable
delays occur
5. A Service Owner is responsible for which of the following?
a) Continual Improvement of the service
b) Designing and documenting a service
c) Carrying out the Service Operations activities needed to support a service
d) Producing a Balanced Scorecard showing the overall status of all services
6. Operations Control refers to?
a) The managers of the Technical and Applications Management functions
b) Overseeing the execution and monitoring of IT operational events and activities
c) The tools used to monitor and display the status of the IT Infrastructure and Applications
d) The situation where the Service Desk is required to monitor the status of the infrastructure when
Operators are not available
7. Which of the following statements is CORRECT about patterns of demand generated by the
customer's business?
a) They are driven by patterns of business activity
b) It is impossible to predict how they behave
c) It is impossible to influence demand patterns
d) They are driven by the delivery schedule generated by Capacity Management
8. What is the main reason for establishing a Baseline?
a) To standardise operation
b) For knowing the cost of services provided
c) For roles and responsibility to be clear
d) For later comparison
