Insights Mock Extra Test 24 May 2015

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INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK PRELIMINARY EXAM - 2015

INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK TEST (EXTRA)

GENERAL STUDIES

PAPER-I Time Allowed: 2 Hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS

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2. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test I Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.

4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed only in English. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.

5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet. 6. All items carry equal marks.

7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate.

8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.

9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end. 10. Penalty for wrong answers :

THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.

(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.

(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.

(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.

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INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK TEST SERIES FOR CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMINARY EXAM 2015

2 [INSIGHTS MOCK TEST – 2015, EXTRA TEST]

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1. Consider the following statements with respect to Agent Orange. 1. Agent Orange is a chemical

composition, famously known to be used in Vietnam War, is a herbicide and defoliant.

2. The orange colour of the compound gives it the name.

3. Defoliants are used in cotton cultivation.

Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 1 and 3 only d) All

2. Consider the following statements. 1. The sulphur content in the fossil

fuel is a major source of pollution. 2. Some microorganism can be used

to cleave the carbon-to -sulphur bond to remove sulphur from coal

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 Only b) 2 Only c) Both d) None

3. Consider the following statements :-

1. Biomining and Bioleaching techniques are environment friendly

2. Minerlals like cobalt,copper,zinc,lead and nickel are extracted through this technique but metals like gold and uranium cannot .

3. But this technique cannot be applied at greater depths.


a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) All of the above

4. Consider the following statements.

1. Global Warming causes melting of

ice and melting of ice in turn increases the global warming.

2. The Antarctic has not warmed as much as the Arctic.

3. Arctic region is often seen as a high-sensivity indicator of climate change.


a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 c) 1 and 3 d) All of the above

5. Which of the following is/are true about Aerosols?

1. Pollens,spores,water droplets ,sea salt can be termed aerosols

2. Volcanic ash of sulphur is also an aerosol.

3. Aerosols have led to global dimming.


a) 1 & 2 only b) 2 only c) 2 & 3 only d) All

6. Consider the following statements about Oil Spills.

1. Oil spills affects the plummage of birds and reduces their insulating abilities.



2. They restrict the photosynthetic ability of plants.

3. They make birds and animals less buoyant.

4. Oil consuming bacteria can help in bioremediation of oil spills.


a) 1 & 2 only b) 1 & 3 only c) 1 & 4 only d) All of the above

7. Which of the following is true regarding the term ‘Land Farming’:-

1. Land Farming is a method of farming which is commercially very viable.

2. Land Farming uses the technique of aeration.

3. It uses microbes for getting back the fertility of soil.


a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) All of the above

8. With reference to the use of NPK fertilisers which of the following is true:- 1. Over Use of NPK fertilizers reduce

the protein content of wheat, maize and grams.

2. The carbohydrate quality is also affected.

3. Excess potassium decreases the Vitamin C in vegetables and fruits.

4. Carotene content is however increased.


a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 ,3 & 4 only c) 1 ,2 & 3 only

d) All of the above

9. Consider the following statements regarding conservation of Tigers in India : 1. In-situ conservation is done in zoos

and ex-situ in sancuries and national parks

2. Zoos cannot use the assisted reproduction technology for increasing their captive carrying capacity.


a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 1 and 2 both d) None

10. Which of the following is true

regarding Perma-frost? 1. Melting of permafrost is worsening

Global Warming. 2. Frozen organic matter in the

permafrost holds around one-seventh of the world’s


a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 1 and 2 both d) None

11. Consider the following statements:- 1. Unconventional sources of natural

gas are shale gas, coal bed methane ,methane hydrates and tight sandstone.

2. Only USA,China and Canada produce shale gas in commercial quantity.


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3. China holds the highest reserve of shale gas.


a) 3 only b) 1 and 2 c) 1 only d) All of the above

12. Under which ministry is the National Green Corps Programme run ? a) Ministry of Defence and Ministry of

Environment & Forests b) Ministry of Urban Development c) Ministry of Environment & Forests d) Ministry of Health

13. Which of the following agencies publishes the ‘Global Environment Outlook’ ?

a) UNDP b) UNESCO c) UNEP d) WWF

14. Consider the following statements about Phyto-indicators or Bio-indicators :-

1. Lichens can be used as a reliable indicator to predict air quality.

2. Lichens are also indicators of radioactive materials.

3. Presence of gold,silver and Diamond can also be traced fom the presence of certain variety of plants


a) 1 and 2 only b) 3 only c) 2 & 3 only

d) All

15. With regard to biodiesel ,pick up from the options which of them are sources of biodiesels

1. jatropha,jojoba,algae,fungi 2. jatropha,algae 3. jatropha and jojoba only


a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 1,2 & 3 d) None of the above

16. Consider the following statements with regard to Reverse osmosis Water purifiers:- 1. RO purifiers use chlorine and nano

silvers to purify water. 2. Use of chlorine over a long period

can lead to cancer.


a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 1 & 2 both d) None of the above

17. Which of the following are regarded as Legumes ? 1. Beans and lentils 2. Clover 3. Tamrind 4. alfalfa


a) 1 and 4 only b) 2 and 4 only c) 1,2 & 3 only d) All of the above



18. Coral Bleaching is a result of which of the following causes : 1. Increased solar radiations 2. Increased pH of water due to

carbon sequestration 3. Bacterial infections 4. Mixing of sunscreen ingredients in

water



19. An oligotropic lake has which of the following properties:- a) High levels of nutrient in water b) High aquatic productivity c) Algal blooms d) Low nutrients and low productivity

20. Consider the following statements about Earth Hour :- 1. It is organised worldwide by WWF. 2. Thane became the National earth

hour capital of India and Seoul became the global Earth Hour Capital in 2015.

Which of the above statements is/are INCORRECT?


21. Consider the following statements regarding Zero Liquid Discharge :-

Assertion (A): Country’s knitwear hub, Tirupur in southern Tamil Nadu, has become the first textile cluster in India to achieve zero liquid discharge (ZLD) in their units. Reason (R): ZLD technology includes pre-treatment and evaporation of the industrial effluent until the dissolved solids precipitate

as crystals. These crystals are removed and dewatered. The water vapor from evaporation is condensed and returned to the process. In the context of the statements above, which of these is true?

a) A and R both are true, and R is the correct explanation for A.

b) A and R both are true, and R is the NOT the correct explanation for A.

c) A is correct, R is incorrect. d) A and R both are incorrect.

22. Consider the following statements with respect to aspects of Bio-Leaching :-

1. CFL Bulbs emit UV radiation and can cause skin irritation.

2. The mercury vapour released from it can pose health hazard.



23. With reference to the glaciers, consider the following statements:

1. Totten Glacier is the largest glacier which is in East Antarctica

2. It is melting at a considerable fast rate due to effect of warm ocean water beneath it.

Which among the above statements is / are correct?

a) 1 Only b) 2 Only c) Both 1 & 2 d) None of them

24. Which among the following statements are correct regarding Bio-piracy?

1. Traditional Knowledge Digital Library is a collaborative project between Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR),


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Ministry of Science and Technology and Department of AYUSH, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, and is being implemented at CSIR..

2. It will prevent misappropriation of Indian traditional knowledge, mainly by breaking the format and language barrier and making it accessible to patent examiners at International Patent Offices for the purpose of carrying out search and examination.

Choose the correct option from the codes given below:


25. Study of pug marks can provide the

certain information such as: 1. Presence of different species in

the area of study. 2. Population of large cats (tigers,

lions etc.). 3. Sex ratio of large cats. 4. It helps in determination of age

also.


a) 1 & 3 Only b) 2 & 3 Only c) All d) None of them

26. Consider the following statements related to Indian Rhinos Vision 2020:

1. The goal of IRV 2020 is to increase the total rhino population in Assam from 2,000 to 3,000 by the year 2020

2. Pabitora National Park has the largest number of one horned rhinos in the world

3. Kaziranga National Park has the highest density of rhinos in the world.

4. Translocations of rhinos from source populations in Kaziranga and Pabitora to target areas such as Manas.


a) 1 & 3 Only b) 1 & 4 Only c) 1,2 & 3 only d) 2,3& 4 only

27. Consider the following statements about the various programmes and activities initiated by Bureau of Energy Efficiency:

1. GOI has launched the Perform, Achieve and Trade Scheme to enhance energy efficiency in large energy-intensive industries and facilities.

2. The Bachat Lamp Yojana under the Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) of UNFCCC as a public initiative.

3. The initiatives are applicable to public industries only.


a) 1 Only b) 2 & 3 Only c) All d) None of them

28. Consider the following statements

about Stockholm Convention. 1. This Convention aims to

eliminate or restrict the production and use of persistent organic pollutants (POPs).

2. POPs are defined as chemical substances that persist in the environment, but do not bio-



accumulate through the food web.

3. Convention has listed the chemicals in three categories of A-Elimination, B-Restriction and C-Unintentional Production.

4. The United States and Israel have not ratified the Convention.


a) 1 & 3 Only b) 1 & 4 Only c) 1,2 & 3 only d) 1,3& 4 only

29. Consider the following statements about the "National Mission for a Green India":

1. To regenerate at least 4 million ha of degraded forest.

2. Increase density of forest cover on 2 million ha of moderately dense forest

3. Overall increase the density of forest and tree cover on 10 million ha of forest, waste, and community lands


a) 1 & 3 Only b) 1 & 2 Only c) 1 only d) 1, 2 & 3 only

30. Consider the following statements about Basel Convention?

1. It is an international treaty that was designed to reduce the movements of hazardous waste between nations.

2. It specifically focuses on to prevent transfer of hazardous waste from developed to less developed countries (LDCs).

3. It also addresses the movement of radioactive waste between different nations.


a) 1 & 3 Only b) 1 & 2 Only c) 1only d) 1, 2 & 3 only

31. Consider the following statements about PEACE (Promoting Energy Access through Clean Energy) initiative.

1. It is a joint initiative of India and USA.

2. It focuses on sharing best practices and institutional and other approaches.

3. "PEACE setter fund" will be established under the initiative.


a) 1 & 3 Only b) 1 & 2 Only c) 1 only d) 1, 2 & 3 only

32. Consider the following statements with respect to pollution. 1. In cities the brown haze dome over

cities is mostly because of sulphur dioxide.

2. Sulphur dioxide is a product from volcanoes and industrial processes.

3. Ammonia, which has a characteristic pungent odour, is a building block in the synthesis of many pharmaceuticals.




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33. Consider the following statements about the Environment Performance Index. 1. India ranks 155 out of 178 countries

in the Global ranking of EPI. 2. EPI is calculated by aggregating

indicators reflecting the National level environment data like health impacts,bio-diversity,air quality, water and sanitation ,water resources,agriculture ,forests,fisheries etc.

3. EPI released by Yale and Columbia University in collaboration with the World Economic Forum supplements the environment targets set by Millenium Development goals.



34. Consider the following statements

regarding bio-fuels:- 1. Scientists have found techniques to

genetically engineer tobacco leaves in order to increase their oil content

2. The Indian approach to biofuels is based solely on non food feedstocks to be raised on degraded or wastelands not suited for agriculture,thus avoiding a conflict beteween food and energy security.

3. Cellulosic ethanol and algal biodiesel are Second generation bio-fuels.

4. Bio-diesel and green diesel are same.

5. An alkaloid developed from jatropha has anti-cancer properties.


a) 1 only b) 1, 2, 3 & 5 only c) 2 ,4 and 5 only d) None of the above

35. Which of the following observation about Ethanol is /are correct? 1. Ethanol has a higher energy density

than gasoline, hence 100% ethanol can be used as fuel.

2. Ethanol has a lower octane rating , thus it improves the compression ratio of the engine which is better for increased thermal efficiency.

3. Ethanol as fuel causes damage to engine due to knocking ,hence knock sensors are used in such engines.

Choose the incorrect answer using the codes below:


36. Which of the following is/are NOT true about desertification? 1. Water erosion, wind erosion,

vegetal degradation and frost shattering are the major processes of desertification.

2. Rajasthan, Gujarat,J & K and Maharashtra have the largest areas undergoing desertification.


a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both d) None

37. Consider the following statements about the National Green Tribunal established for the effective and expeditious disposal of cases related to environment protection and forest conservation :- 1. The NGT,with its main bench in

New Delhi, is the first body of its kind to apply its parental statute of



Polluter pays principle and the principle of sustainable development.

2. India is the first country in the world which has an exclusive body like NGT to tackle environmental issues.


a) 2 only b) 1 and 2 c) 1 only d) None of the above

38. Which of the following is true regarding the term ‘Water Footprint’:- 1. It is the total volume of freshwater

used to produce goods and services consumed by the individual or community or produced by any business.

2. It is measured in terms of cubic meters/person/year.

3. Blue water footprint is the volume of fresh water that was polluted in producing goods and services consumed by an individual or community.



39. With reference to the term ‘Global Hectare’ which of the following statements are true:-

1. It is used to measure the ecological footprint of the entire earth.

2. It is used to measure the biocapacity of the entire earth.

3. It is the average productive land and water an individual or community requires for producing all resources one consumes.



40. Consider the following statements:

1. The area recorded as forests in government records is known as ‘Forest Area’.

2. Land having an area of more than 1 hectare with a minimum tree canopy density of 10% irrespective of ownership or legal status is ‘Forest Cover’.

3. A forest cover is always a part of Forest Area.


a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 1 and 2 both d) All

41. Which of the following is not a correct

match? a) Forest survey of India head

quarters at Dehradun b) Zoological survey of India at

Kolkata c) Botanical survey of India at Pune d) Central Natural Herbarium at

Howrah

42. Which of the following is not the correct match? 1. Eastern Dooars Elephant reserve is

located in Assam 2. Mayurbhung Elephant reserve is

located in West Bengal 3. Shrivilliputtur Elephant reserve is

located in Kerala 4. Nilambur Elephant reserve is

located in Tamil Nadu

Choose the incorrect answer using the codes below:


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a) 3 only b) 1 and 2 c) 1 only d) All of the above

43. Consider the following statements regarding Biosphere Reserves and National Parks:- 1. The Wildlife Protection Act 1972

provides for 4 types of protected areas:- Wildlife sanctuaries,national parks,community reserves and conservation reserves.

2. In a Biosphere reserve no economic activity is permitted.

3. No human activity is allowed in a National Park but in a wildlife sanctuary limited activities are permitted.

4. There is o comprehensive legislation for Bio-sphere reserves.


a) 3 & 4 only b) 1,2 & 3 only c) 1 3 & 4 only d) All of the above

44. Consider the following statements about Wetlands :- 1. Study of Wetlands is known as

Paludology 2. Wetlands help in mitigating the

effect of climate change by acting as a carbon sink.

3. They can remove important nutrients like phosphorus and nitrogen dissolved in water.

4. The biological productivity of a wetland is comparable to tropical rainforests.

5. Ramsar Convention is a not part of UNESCO system of convention and environmental agreements.

6. The Montreux Record is a register of internationally recognised wetlands where changes in ecology have happened.


a) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 6 only b) 2, 3, 4 and 6 only c) 1, 2 , 3 and 4 only d) All of the above

45. Consider the following statements about ‘Phumdis’ :- 1. Phumdis are floating islands in

Loktak Lake in Meghalaya. 2. Kiebul Lamjao National Park, the

world’s largest floating park is home to Sangai, a deer subspecies indigenious to this area.

3. Phumdis are a cause of ecological concern for the Loktak Lake.


a) 1 and 2 only b) 3 only c) 2 & 3 only d) None of the above

46. Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Lyophilisation Technology’. 1. It is a technique launched for the

conservation of river Ganga from the sewage disposed off into it.

2. The process is low on chromium intake and utilises much less water as compared to conventional techniques.


a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both d) None of the above



47. Consider the following statements with regard to paddy cultivation.

1. Paddy fields are among the world’s biggest producers of methane contributing approxmately 10% of global emissions.

2. Methane, a compound of carbon and oxygen is produced by bacteria in soil.

3. Production of methane by paddy fields cannot be reduced without significant reduction in rice yields.

4. Digestive process of ruminant is a major source of Methane



48. Consider the following statements with regard to Red Sanders :- 1. The Andhra Pradesh government

has sent a proposal for inclusion of Red Sanders in Schedule IV of Wildlife Protection Act 1972

2. It is listed as critically endangered species in IUCN list because of its over-exploitation in South India.

3. Its wood is aromatic similar to sandalwood.

4. Its endemic to southern Eastern Ghats .



49. Which of the following are not considered as Minor Forest Produce as per ST and other Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act 2006 ?

1. Bamboo 2. Sandalwood & Pulpwood 3. Soapnut & Honey 4. Tendu leaves


a) 2 only b) 1 only c) 1 & 2 only d) All of the above

50. Consider the following statements about the Olive Ridley turtles:- 1. The Astaranga Coast and

Gahirmatha marine sanctuary, located in West Bengal are home to Olive Ridley turtles.

2. They are best known for their behaviour of synchronised nesting termed as ‘Arribadas’.

Choose the correct answer using the codes below:-

a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 & 2 d) None of these

51. Consider the following statements 1. Xenobiotics are foreign substances,

naturally occuring outside body which have an action when introduced within the body causing impact on hormonal /metabolic balance.

2. Xenobiotics are a large problem in sewage treatment plants.

3. DDT is a type of xenobiotic compound.




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52. Consider the following statements regarding statements :-

Assertion (A): Technically, any desirable trait found in nature can be transferred to any chosen organism. Reason (R):It has been discovered that DNA is interchangeable among animals,plants,bacteria and other organisms. In the context of the statements above, which of these is true?

a. A and R both are true, and R is the correct explanation for A.

b. A and R both are true, and R is the NOT the correct explanation for A.

c. A is correct, R is incorrect. d. A and R both are incorrect.

53. Consider the following statements with respect to aspects of Bio-Leaching :- 1. It is being used successfully to

recover metals from a variety of ores.

2. It is energy saving alternative. 3. It is not very environment friendly.


a) 1 and 2 Only b) 1,2 and 3 Only c) 2 and 3 Only d) 3 Only

54. With reference to the mechanism of Global Heat Balance, consider the following statements: 1. The water vapour in the

atmosphere absorbs short-wave radiation causing Global Warming.

2. The rising columns of warm areas in urban areas are due to formation of urban heat islands and are called ‘Urban Thermal Plume’.



55. Which among the following statements are correct regarding Eutrophication? 1. Use of precipitants like sodium

arsenite, copper sulphate, alum, lime, Iron and sodium aluminate can be used to limit the dissolved nutrients which lead to growth of fungi.

2. Electro-dialysis, ion-exchange and reverse osmosis are some other techniques to control eutrophication.



56. Consider the following observations related to Ozone Hole:

1. The ozone hole occurs during the Antarctic spring, from September to early December; as strong easterly winds start to circulate around the continent and create an atmospheric container.

2. Every summer (December to January) the hole repairs itself when stratospheric temperatures rise and the air above Antarctica mixes with the rest of the world's atmosphere.





57. If a tropical rainforest is removed, it

doesnot regenerate quickly as compared to a tropical deciduous forest. This is due to:-

a) The soil of rainforest is deficient in nutrients.

b) Propagules of trees in a rain forest have poor visibility

c) The rainforest species are slow growing

d) Exotic species invade the fertile soil of the rain forest.

58. Select the correct sequence of food chain in the arctic waters from the following:-

a) Zooplankton---diatoms---fish--

-polar bear---seal b) Diatoms---zooplankton---fish--

-seal---polar bear c) Fish---diatoms---seal---

zooplankton---polar bear d) Diatoms—fish---polar bear---

seal---zooplankton

59. Which one of the following terms describes not only the physical space occupied by an organism but also its functional role in the community of organisms? a) Ecotone b) Ecological niche c) Habitat d) Home range

60. Consider the following statements :-

Assertion (A): Diversity observed in the entire geographical area is called Gamma Diversity. Reason (R): Biodiversity decreases from high altitude to low altitude. In the context of the statements above, which of these is true?

a) A and R both are true, and R is the correct explanation for A.

b) A and R both are true, and R is the NOT the correct explanation for A.

c) A is correct, R is incorrect. d) A and R both are incorrect.

61. Which of the following statements is correctional about the International whaling Commission?

1. The Commission was setup under the International Commission for Regulation of whaling signed in 1946.

2. India is the founding member of this commission.



62. With reference to Women Scientists Scholarship Scheme, consider the following statements:

1. The Ministry of Women and Child development is implementing this scheme.

2. The Scheme aims to provide opportunities to disabled women scientists for pursuing Higher Studies in frontier areas of Science and Engineering.


a) 1 only. b) 2 only. c) Both. d) None.

63. Consider the following statements regarding the North East Centre for Technology Application and Research (NECTAR):

1. It is an autonomous society, set up under Department of Science


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& Technology, Government of India.

2. It is headed by the Union Minister for Science and Technology.

3. NECTAR’s main task is to ensure that the funds allocated for technological innovations to North Eastern States are spent correctly and efficiently.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

a) 2 only. b) 1 & 3 only. c) 2 & 3 only. d) None.

64. Consider the following statements regarding the Department of Scientific and Industrial Research (DSIR):

1. It is a part of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

2. It has a mandate to carry out the activities relating to indigenous technology promotion, development, utilization and transfer.

3. It oversees the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR), India's largest research and development organization.


a) 2 only. b) 1 & 3 only. c) 2 & 3 only. d) None.

65. With reference to Innovation in Science Pursuit for Inspired Research (INSPIRE) programme, consider the following statements:

1. INSPIRE is an innovative programme developed and being implemented by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and sports.

2. The Programme covers students in the age group 10-32 years.



66. Consider the following statements regarding the Science and Engineering Research Board:

1. It is an autonomous body under the Department of Science and Technology, Government of India.

2. It is a statutory body, established by an Act of the Parliament of India in 2009.

3. It is chaired by the Union Minster for Science and Technology.


a) 1 & 2 only. b) 1 & 3 only. c) 2 & 3 only. d) None.

67. With reference to Streptokinase drug, consider the following statements:

1. It is an inexpensive clot dissolving drug used in the treatment of myocardial infarction and pulmonary embolism.

2. It works by activating plasminogen to produce plasmin which in turn helps in dissolving the clot.

3. Recombinant Streptokinase has been launched for Indian market under the brand name ‘Lupifio’ and ‘Klotbuster’.


a) 1 & 2 only. b) 1 & 3 only. c) 2 & 3 only. d) All.



68. Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Diastep’:

1. It is special footwear suitable for low-risk diabetic patients.

2. It was developed by the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR).

3. It has been designed to take special care of fluctuations in foot volume.


a) 1 & 2 only. b) 3 only. c) 2 & 3 only. d) All.

69. With reference to Panchi, an Unmanned Aerial Vehicle (UAV), consider the following statements:

1. It is the wheeled version of Unmanned Aerial Vehicle (UAV) Nishant capable of taking-off and landing using small airstrips.

2. It was designed and developed by the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR).



70. Consider the following statements regarding the CSIR 800 program:

1. It is a project by CSIR which aims to provide broadband facility to 800 villages in the country by 2016.

2. It is a World Bank funded program.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

a) 1 only.

b) 2 only. c) Both. d) None.

71. With reference to Cyclotrons, Consider the following statements:

1. It is a type of particle accelerator. 2. It makes use of the magnetic

force. 3. In Cyclotrons, charged particles

accelerate outwards from the center along a spiral path.



72. With reference to Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors (PHWR), consider the following statements:

1. It is a nuclear power reactor that uses heavy water (D2O) as its coolant and moderator.

2. All the nuclear reactor units of Rajasthan and Kaiga in India are based on PHWRs.

3. Compared to ordinary Light Water, Heavy Water creates greatly enhanced neutron economy, allowing the reactor to operate without fuel-enrichment facilities.


a) 2 only. b) 1 & 3 only. c) 2 & 3 only. d) All.

73. Consider the following statements regarding the Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle Mark III (GSLV Mk III):

1. It was developed by the Indian Space Research Organization in collaboration with the European Space Agency.


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2. It is designed to be a three stage vehicle and uses an indigenous cryogenic engine in the third stage.

3. GSLV Mk III will provide the capability to launch 4t class communication satellites into orbit.



74. With reference to Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), consider the following statements:

1. The IRNSS space segment consists of seven satellites, of which three satellites will be in geostationary orbit.

2. IRNSS-1D, the fourth satellite in the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), was launched by ISRO`s Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle, PSLV-C27.

3. IRNSS is being developed by ISRO with the assistance from France Space Agency.



75. Which of the following are correctly matched?

1. IRNSS: India. 2. GPS: The United States. 3. GLONASS: Russia. 4. Galileo positioning system:

European Union. 5. Doris: France.


a) Only 1, 2 & 4 b) Only 1, 2 & 3. c) Only 1, 2 & 5. d) All

76. With reference to the ‘Kayakalp’ council, consider the following statements:

1. It is an innovation council setup by the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways for the purpose of business re-engineering and introducing a spirit of innovation in the Indian Transport system.

2. Currently, the council is headed by Ratan Tata.

3. The council allocates funds to various state governments for the up gradation of State Highways to National Highways.


a) 2 only. b) 2 & 3 only. c) 1 & 3. d) All.

77. The Golden Quadrilateral, a highway network, connects which of the following metropolitan cities?

1. Delhi. 2. Mumbai. 3. Chennai. 4. Guwahati. 5. Kolkata.


a) 1, 2 & 3 only. b) 2, 4 & 5 only. c) 1, 2, 3 & 5 only. d) All.



78. Consider the following statements regarding the Central Road Fund:

1. The Fund was established by a Resolution of the Parliament passed in 1988.

2. Statutory status to the fund was given by the Central Road Fund Act, 2000.

3. The Fund is utilized for the development and maintenance of National Highways and State Highways only.


a) 1 & 2 only. b) 2 & 3 only. c) 1 & 3. d) All.

79. Which of the following National Waterways (NW) are correctly matched?

1. National Waterway 1: Allahabad–Haldia

2. National Waterway 2: Kottapuram-Kollam

3. National Waterway 5: Sadiya — Dhubri


a) 1 only. b) 2 & 3only. c) 1 & 3 only. d) All.

80. With reference to GPS Aided GEO Augmented Navigation (GAGAN) project, consider the following statements:

1. The project is being implemented by the Airport Authority of India with the help of the Indian Space Research Organization's (ISRO) technology and space support

2. The goal is to provide navigation system for all phases of flight

over the Indian airspace and in the adjoining area.

3. The first GAGAN navigation payload was flown on GSAT-8 in May, 2011.



81. Consider the following statements regarding the National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG):

1. It is the implementation wing of National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA).

2. It was originally formed by the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change(MoEFCC).

3. Union Minister for Water Resources is the chairman of the Governing Council of NMCG.



82. Which of the following are Constitutional Bodies in India?

1. National Commission for Scheduled Castes

2. National Commission for Scheduled Tribes

3. National Commission for Women 4. National Commission for

Backward Classes


a) 1 & 2 only. b) 2 & 4 only. c) 1, 2 & 3. Only. d) All.


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83. With reference to Rashtriya Mahila Kosh (RMK), consider the following statements:

1. It is an autonomous body under the aegis of the Ministry of Women and Child Development.

2. It provides loans to various state governments for setting up of skill training centres for women.



84. With reference to Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) Scheme, consider the following statements:

1. The scheme aims at holistic development of under-six children.

2. The Scheme aims at providing nutritional and health support to pregnant and lactating mothers.

3. The scheme is implemented through the States/UTs on a cost sharing basis in the ratio of 50:50 for all the states.



85. Stree Shakti Puraskar awards include: 1. Devi Ahilya Bai Holkar Award 2. Kannagi Award 3. Mata Jijabai Award 4. Rani Gaidinliu Zeliang Award 5. Rani Lakshmi Bai Award 6. Rani Rudramma Devi Award


a) 1, 2, 3 & 5 only.

b) 2, 3 & 6 only. c) 1, 3, 4, 5 & 6 only. d) All.

86. With reference to Sabla- ‘Rajiv Gandhi Scheme for Empowerment of Adolescent Girls (RGSEAG), consider the following statements:

1. It aims at all-round development of adolescent out of school girls of 11-18 years only.

2. Under this scheme, the central government provides funds to various states/UTs to set up a School in every district for out-of-school adolescent girls.



87. With reference to National Service Scheme (NSS), consider the following statements:

1. It is a central government-sponsored public service program conducted by the Department of Youth Affairs and Sports of the Government of India.

2. The scheme was launched in Gandhiji’s Centenary year, 1969.

3. Under the scheme, cheap loans are given to Micro Small and Medium Enterprises for technological up gradation.





88. Consider the following statements regarding the Youth to Edge Scheme:

1. The Scheme is aimed to promote adventure activities in the remote areas of North East Region (NER).

2. The Scheme was started by the Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region (DONER) in collaboration with the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.



89. Consider the following statements: 1. Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna awards

are given for the most spectacular and outstanding performance in the field of sports by an individual sportsperson or a team.

2. The Dronacharya Award honours eminent Coaches who have successfully trained sportspersons or teams and enabled them to achieve outstanding results in international competitions.

3. Dhyan Chand Award is India’s highest award for lifetime achievement in sports and games.


a) 2 only. b) 1 & 3 only. c) 2 & 3. d) All.

90. Consider the following statements with reference to the proposed Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT):

1. AMRUT is the new avatar of the National Urban Livelihoods Mission (NULM).

2. Under this mission, 50% of the budget allocation will be given to states and union territories as incentive based on the

achievement of reforms during the previous year.

3. Central assistance will be to the extent of 100% of project cost for North Eastern States and Sikkim.


a) 3 Only b) 1 Only c) 1 and 3 Only d) None

91. With reference to Jan Aushadhi Scheme, consider the following statements:

1. It seeks to make available quality medicines at affordable prices for the poor and the disadvantaged only.

2. Under this scheme, less priced quality unbranded generic medicines will be made available through Jan Aushadhi stores.

3. Under this Scheme, the State Government has to provide space in Government Hospital premises for the running of the outlets (JAS).


a) 1 & 2 Only. b) 2 & 3 Only. c) 1 & 3 Only. d) All.

92. With reference to the National youth Policy 2014, consider the following statements:

1. The National Youth Policy 2014 defines the age of youth as persons between the age 15-35 years.

2. The vision of NYP-2014 is to empower youth to achieve their full potential, and through them enable India to find its rightful place in the community of nations.



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93. Consider the following statements regarding the Rashtriya Swachhata Kosh:

1. It has been set up to facilitate and channelize individual philanthropic contributions and Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) funds to achieve the objective of Clean India (Swachh Bharat) by the year 2019.

2. Approval for the withdrawal of Fund has to come from the President of India.



94. Consider the following statements with reference to Saansad Gram Adarsh Yojana:

1. The Project was launched on the occasion of birth anniversary of Lok Nayak Jai Prakash Narayan.

2. Under the Scheme, a separate fund will be created at the state level and will be attached to the consolidated fund of the State.

3. The goal of the Yojana is to develop three Adarsh Grams or model villages by March 2019, of which one would be achieved by 2016.

Which of the above statements are Correct?

a) 1 & 2 Only. b) 2 & 3 Only. c) 1 & 3 Only. d) All.

95. With reference to Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana (PMJDY), consider the following statements:

1. It provides Life insurance cover of Rs.30,000/-

2. Under the Scheme, No minimum balance required to open a bank account.

3. Under the Scheme, Accidental insurance cover of Rs.1.00 lac is provided.

4. After satisfactory operation of the account for 6 months, an overdraft facility will be permitted under the Scheme.


a) 1 & 2 Only. b) 1, 2 & 3 Only. c) 1, 2 & 4 Only. d) All.

96. Consider the following statements regarding the Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao programme:

1. The Ministry of Women and Child Development is the nodal Ministry for this initiative.

2. Under the Scheme, separate residential schools for girls will be set up in every district.



97. With reference to the Forty-second

Amendment of the Constitution of India, officially known as The Constitution (Forty-second Amendment) Act, 1976, consider the following statements? 1. It was passed in accordance with

the provisions of Article 368 of the Constitution, and was ratified by more than half of the State Legislatures, as required under Clause (2) of the said article.



2. The amendment inserted a new article 228A in the Constitution which gave High Courts the authority to "determine all questions as to the constitutional validity of any State law".

3. This Act amended Article 74 and it was explicitly stipulated that "the President shall act in accordance with the advice of the Council of Ministers".

4. This Amendment gave primacy to the Directive Principles, by stating that "no law implementing any of the Directive Principles could be declared unconstitutional on the grounds that it violated any of the Fundamental Rights".


a) 1, 2 & 3 only. b) 2, 3 & 4 only. c) 1, 3 & 4 only. d) All.

98. Consider the following statements regarding the Param Vir Chakra: 1. It is India's highest military

decoration awarded for the highest degree of valour or self-sacrifice in the presence of the enemy.

2. It is awarded only posthumously. 3. The award carries a cash allowance

for those under the rank of lieutenant or the appropriate service equivalent.



99. With reference to the National Science Day, consider the following statements:

1. It will be celebrated on February 28th every year.

2. The theme for 2015 is- Fostering Scientific Temper and Energy conservation.

3. It is celebrated to mark the discovery of the Raman Effect, for which a Nobel Prize winning research paper submitted by Sir C.V. Raman was accepted on that day.



100. Which of the following services are being offered by the National Voter Service Portal (NVSP), which was launched recently?

1. Search the name in Electoral List. 2. User can view details of his

Polling booth, Assembly Constituency and Parliamentary constituency.

3. Users can feed Aadhaar Number for attaching it with Election Photo Identity Card (EPIC) data.

4. Those on election duty can cast their votes through e-voting option available on the portal.


a) 1, 2 & 3 only. b) 2, 3 & 4 only. c) 1, 3 & 4 only. d) All.


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Few Extra Questions:

101. The Nobel laureates who were Indian citizens at the time they were awarded the honored Nobel Prize include:

1. Amartya Sen 2. Kailash Satyarthi 3. C V Raman 4. Rabindranath Tagore


a) 1, 2 & 3 only. b) 3 & 4 only. c) 1, 2 & 4 only. d) All.

102. With reference to the Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, disarmament and Development, consider the following statements:

1. It is awarded only to organizations in recognition of creative efforts towards enlarging the scope of freedom and enriching the human spirit.

2. The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has won the Prize for 2014.

3. Organizations who win this award are exempted from the payment of any tax for three consecutive years.



103. With reference to the re-launched Kisan Vikas Patra (KVP), consider the following statements:

1. It will be available to the investors only in the

denomination of Rs. 1000, 5000 and 10,000.

2. Under the Scheme, there is no upper ceiling on investment.

3. The KVP certificates can be issued in single or joint names and but cannot be transferred from one person to any other person.

4. The KVP certificate can be pledged as security to avail loans from the banks and in other case where security is required to be deposited.


a) 1, 2 & 3 only. b) 3 & 4 only. c) 2 & 4 only. d) All.

104. Consider the following statements with reference to the RuPay System:

1. RuPay is India’s own card payment gateway network and provides an alternative system for banks to provide a debit card service.

2. The RuPay prepaid card service was recently launched by the IRCTC in collaboration with Union Bank of India and the National Payment Corporation of India.

3. RuPay card holder will get free Rs.1 lakh accident insurance coverage as part of the benefits to customers.


a) 1 only. b) 2 & 3only. c) 1 & 3 only. d) All.

Documents

Insights Mock Extra Test 24 May 2015