INSIGHTS IAS REVISION QUESTIONS FOR UPSC PRELIMS€¦ · aspirants who would like to intensively revise everything that’s important ... include the heads of the financial sector

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INSIGHTS IAS REVISION QUESTIONS FOR UPSC PRELIMS – 2019

This document is the compilation of 100 questions that are part

of InsightsIAS’ famous REVISION initiative for UPSC Civil Services

Examination – 2019 (which has become most anticipated annual affair

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www.insightsonindia.com 1 PRELIMS 2019

Solutions – (Day 65)

1. Consider following statements about ‘Rani- ki- vav’

1. It is located on the banks of Saraswati River.

2. It is the 900- year-old structure is a major tourist attraction, a UNESCO World

Heritage site.

3. It was built by the Solanki dynasty’s Queen Udayamati in the 11th century as a

memorial to her deceased husband Bhimdev I.

4. Rani-ki-Vav was built in the complex Maru-Gurjara architectural style.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 3 and 4 only

c) 1, 2 and 4 only

d) none of the above

Solution: D

• All statements are correct

• Architectural significance: Rani-ki-Vav was built in the complex Maru-

Gurjara architectural style. It highlights the sanctity of water as it is designed as an

inverted temple under the earth’s surface. The central theme is the Dasavataras,

or ten incarnations of Vishnu, including Buddha. The avatars are accompanied

by sadhus, brahmins, and apsaras (celestial dancers).

2. This year marks the 100th year of the publication of the ‘Report on Indian

Constitutional Reforms’, commonly known as the Montagu-Chelmsford Report (MCR).

In this respect consider the following features,

1. It relaxed the central control over the provinces by demarcating and separating the

central and provincial subjects.

2. It further divided the provincial subjects into two parts—transferred and reserved.

3. It introduced, for the first time, bicameralism

4. It provided separate electorate to scheduled caste.


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 4 only





c) 3 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: B)

3. Which of the following committee gave the report on reforms in the criminal justice

system,

a) Justice Malimath Committee

b) Justice Verma committee

c) Usha Mehta Committee

d) Justice Puttaswamy committee

Solution: A

• Justice Malimath Committee report on reforms in the criminal justice system had

suggested making section 497 gender-neutral.

4. Consider the following statements about Financial Stability and Development Council

(FSDC),

1. The Chairman of the FSDC is the Finance Secretary.

2. The members include the heads of the financial sector regulatory authorities (i.e,

SEBI, IRDA, RBI, PFRDA and FMC).

3. Council would monitor macro prudential supervision of the economy.

4. It will also focus on financial literacy and financial inclusion.

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

a) 1, 2, 3

b) 1, 3, 4

c) 2, 3, 4

d) 1, 2, 3, 4

Solution: c)

Learning-

• The Chairman of the FSDC is the Finance Minister of India and its members

include the heads of the financial sector regulatory authorities (i.e, SEBI, IRDA,

RBI, PFRDA and FMC) , Finance Secretary and/or Secretary, Department of





Economic Affairs (Ministry of Finance), Secretary, (Department of Financial

Services, Ministry of Finance) and the Chief Economic Adviser.

• A sub-committee of FSDC has also been set up under the chairmanship of

Governor RBI. The Sub-Committee discusses and decides on a range of issues

relating to financial sector development and stability including substantive issues

relating to inter regulatory coordination.

• Council would monitor macro prudential supervision of the economy, including

the functioning of large financial conglomerates. It will address inter-regulatory

coordination issues and thus spur financial sector development. It will also focus

on financial literacy and financial inclusion. What distinguishes FSDC from other

such similarly situated organizations across the globe is the additional mandate

given for development of financial sector.

5. Consider the following statements.

1. The share of manufacturing sector in the GDP has been nearly stagnant for the last

two decades in India.

2. Among all the South Asian economies, India has the largest size of manufacturing

sector.

Which of the above is/are correct ?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) None

Solution: c)





The share has been around 15 per cent for the last two decades with a slight decline

recently.

6. Hayabusa-2 is an asteroid sample-return mission operated by

a) China National Space Administration (CNSA)

b) Korea Aerospace Research Institute (KARI)

c) Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA)

d) Australian Space Agency

Solution: c)

• Hayabusa2 is an asteroid sample-return mission operated by the Japanese space

agency, JAXA.

7. Which among the following are the members of Asia Pacific Economic Cooperation ?

1. People’s Republic of China

2. India

3. Japan

4. Russia

5. The United States

6. Republic of Korea

Select the correct code:

a) All except 1 and 2

b) All except 1 and 6

c) All except 2

d) All of the above

Solution: c)





• The Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC) is a regional economic forum

established in 1989 to leverage the growing interdependence of the Asia-Pacific.

8. United Nations General Assembly proclaimed 2019 as the International Year of

a) International Year of Sustainable Tourism for Development

b) International Year of Light and Light-based Technologies

c) International Year of Small Island Developing States

d) International Year of Indigenous Languages

Solution: d)

• On 19 December 2016 the United Nations General Assembly proclaimed

2019 as the International Year of Indigenous Languages based on a

resolution of the UN Permanent Forum on Indigenous Issues. The General

Assembly resolution requested the United Nations Educational, Scientific and

Cultural Organization (UNESCO) as the lead UN agency for coordination of the

year.

9. Astana Declaration, recently seen in news is related to

a) Intellectual Property Rights

b) Rights of Indigenous Peoples

c) Combat Trafficking in Persons

d) Primary Health Care

Solution: d)

• The Global Conference on Primary Health Care in Astana, Kazakhstan

in October 2018 endorsed a new declaration emphasizing the critical role of

primary health care around the world. The declaration aims to refocus efforts on

primary health care to ensure that everyone everywhere is able to enjoy the highest

possible attainable standard of health.

10. Consider the following statements regarding Private Member’s Bill,

1. Any MP who is not a Minister is referred to as a private member.

2. The admissibility of a private member’s Bill is decided by the Rajya Sabha

Chairman. In the case of Lok Sabha, it is the Speaker





3. The Member must give at least a two month’s notice before the Bill can be listed

for introduction.

4. Private member’s Bills can be introduced and discussed only on Fridays.


a) 1, 2 and 3 only

b) 2, 3 and 4 only

c) 1, 2 and 4 only

d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Solution: c)

• The Member must give at least a one months notice before the Bill can be listed for

introduction.

11. Which among the following statement is/are incorrect about Office of Profit,

a) It has not been defined in Constitution but defined in Representation of the People

Act, 1951.

b) If an MLA or an MP holds a government office and receives benefits from it, then

that office is termed as an “office of profit”.

c) The objective was that an MP or MLA should be free to carry out her duties without

any kind of governmental pressure.

d) SC and HC have decided case by case basis what constitutes the office of profit.

Solution: A)

• It has not been defined in Constitution as well as in Representation of the People

Act, 1951.

12. Consider the following statements regarding No-Confidence Motion,

1. At least 50 MPs would need to stand up and support the move.

2. A no-confidence motion is a parliamentary motion which is moved in the Lok

Sabha only against the entire council of ministers

3. No prior reason needs to be stated for its adoption in the Lok Sabha.

4. Rule 198 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha lays

down the procedure for moving a Motion of No Confidence in the Council of

Ministers. There is no mention of a no-confidence motion in the constitution.






a) 1, 2 only

b) 3 and 4 only

c) 1, 2 and 4 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: D)

13. Which of the following High Court has declared the entire animal kingdom, including

birds and aquatic animals, as a legal entity having rights of a “living person”. The move

aims to ensure “greater welfare” of animals.

a) Madras HC

b) Delhi High Court

c) Uttarakhand High Court

d) Madhya Pradesh High Court

Solution: C)

Learning-

• The Uttarakhand high court has declared the entire animal kingdom,

including birds and aquatic animals, as a legal entity having rights of a “living

person”. The move aims to ensure “greater welfare” of animals.

• The entire animal kingdom, including avian and aquatic ones, are declared as legal

entities having a distinct persona with corresponding rights, duties and liabilities

of a living person. Uttarakhand high court had earlier accorded the status of “living

entity” to the Ganga and Yamuna rivers, a decision subsequently stayed by the

Supreme Court.

14. Consider the following statements regarding Zonal Councils,

1. They are established under Article 263 of the Indian constitution by the President

of India.

2. There are Five Zonal councils headed by the Prime Minister.

3. Objective of setting up of Zonal Councils is bringing out national integration and

arresting the growth of acute State consciousness, regionalism, linguism and

particularistic tendencies.





4. The Chief Ministers of the States included in each zone act as Vice-Chairman of the

Zonal Council for that zone by rotation, each holding office for a period of one year

at a time.

Which of the above is/are incorrect ?

a) 1, 2 only

b) 2 only

c) 1 and 4 only

d) 3 and 4 only

Solution: A)

Learning-

• Zonal councils have been established by the Parliament to promote interstate

cooperation and coordination. They are statutory bodies established under the

States Reorganisation Act 1956 and not constitutional bodies. They are only

deliberative and advisory bodies. There are five Zonal councils.

• The North Eastern States i.e. (i) Assam (ii) Arunachal Pradesh (iii) Manipur (iv)

Tripura (v) Mizoram (vi) Meghalaya (vii) Sikkim and (viii) Nagaland are not

included in the Zonal Councils and their special problems are looked after by the

North Eastern Council, set up under the North Eastern Council Act, 1971.

• Chairman – The Union Home Minister is the Chairman of each of these

Councils.

• Vice Chairman – The Chief Ministers of the States included in each zone act as

Vice-Chairman of the Zonal Council for that zone by rotation, each holding office

for a period of one year at a time.

• Members– Chief Minister and two other Ministers as nominated by the Governor

from each of the States and two members from Union Territories included in the

zone.

15. The Project “Millet Village” intended for rejuvenating the traditional tribal agriculture

is the initiative of which state ?

a) Sikkim

b) Telangana

c) Kerala

d) Karnataka





Solution: c)

• The Project “Millet Village” is intended for rejuvenating the traditional

tribal agriculture in selected hamlets in Attappady in Palakkad district, Kerala.

16. Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS) recently seen in news is

a) Counter-terrorism effort launched by ASEAN

b) Counter-terrorism effort launched by BIMSTEC

c) Setup by India to counter terrorism and extremism in the Indian sub-continent.

d) Permanent organ of the SCO which deals with terrorism, separatism and extremism.

Solution: d)

• The Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS), headquartered in

Tashkent, Uzbekistan, is a permanent organ of the SCO which serves to

promote cooperation of member states against the three evils of terrorism,

separatism and extremism. The Head of RATS is elected to a three-year term. Each

member state also sends a permanent representative to RATS.

17. Consider following statements about electoral bonds,

1. Electoral bonds will allow donors to pay political parties using RBI as an

intermediary.

2. The electoral bond, which will be a bearer instrument, will not carry the name of

the payee and can be bought for any value, in multiples of are 1000, Rs 10,000, Rs

1 lakh, Rs 10 lakh, Rs 1 crore or Rs 100 crore.

3. Donors can donate the bonds to their party of choice which can then be cashed in

via the party’s verified account within 45 days.

4. Electoral bonds may be purchased by a citizen of India, or entities incorporated or

established in India.


a) 1, 2 only

b) 2, 3 and 4 only

c) 2 and 4 only

d) 3 and 4 only

Solution: C)





Learning-

• Electoral bonds will allow donors to pay political parties using banks as an

intermediary.

• The electoral bond, which will be a bearer instrument, will not carry the name of

the payee and can be bought for any value, in multiples of Rs 1,000, Rs

10,000, Rs 1 lakh, Rs 10 lakh or Rs 1 crore and will be available at specified

branches of State Bank of India.

• Donors can donate the bonds to their party of choice which can then be cashed in

via the party’s verified account within 15 days.

• As per provisions of the Scheme, electoral bonds may be purchased by a citizen of

India, or entities incorporated or established in India. A person being an

individual can buy electoral bonds, either singly or jointly with other

individuals.

• Every party that is registered under section 29A of the Representation of the

Peoples Act, 1951 and has secured at least one per cent of the votes polled in

the most recent Lok Sabha or State election will be allotted a verified account by

the Election Commission of India. Electoral bond transactions can be made only

via this account.

18. Recently The Jiban Sampark Project was in news, consider the following statements

in this regard,

1. The Jiban Sampark Project undertaken in association with UNICEF aims to

generate awareness among Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTG) in

Odisha.

2. The focus areas of Jiban Sampark Project are skill development, empowering

communities, cooperation and innovation among the groups.

3. Under this every household will be provided with 5000 rupees per month for next

5 years.


a) 1, 2 only

b) 1 only

c) 1, 2 and 3

d) None of the above

Solution: a)

Learning-

• No such monetary provision for tribal households under this project.





19. Consider the following statements:

1. Each House of Parliament can punish its members as well as outsiders for breach

of its privileges by reprimand, admonition or imprisonment.

2. The Houses of Parliament as well as State legislatures have collective privileges.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C)

20. Sometimes in the news, Jawaharlal Nehru’s tribal Panchsheel does not call for

a) People should develop along lines of their own genius and we should avoid imposing

anything on them.

b) Tribal right in forests should be respected.

c) We should not introduce any outsiders into tribal territory.

d) We should not over-administer these areas or overwhelm them with multiplicity of

schemes.

Solution: c

The goal of tribal development in India were best summarised in Nehru’s forward to

Verrier Elwin’s Book on NEFA . It is otherwise known as “Tribal Panchsheel.”” The

Nehru’s Panchsheel (five point) are:

(i) People should develop along lines of their own genius and we should avoid

imposing anything on them. We should try to encourage in every – way their own

traditional art and culture.

(ii) Tribal right in land and forests should be respected.

(iii) We should try to train and build up a team of their own people to do the work of

administration and development. Some technical people from outside will no

doubt be needed, especially in the beginning. But we should avoid introducing too

many outsiders into tribal territory.

(iv) We should not over-administer these areas or overwhelm them with multiplicity

of schemes. We should rather work through and not in rivalry to their own social

and cultural instructions, and

(v) we should guide results not by statistics or the amount of money spend but by the

quality of human character that is involved.






1. The Jallianwala Bagh atrocities were a part of the efforts of the government to

repress the first all-India struggle against the British government.

2. Satyagraha Sabhas were set up to launch the Rowlatt Satyagraha.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) both 1 and 2

d) neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c.

22. Which one of the following tribal groups is restricted to the islands of Nicobar ?

a) Onge

b) Jarawa

c) Shompen

d) Sentinelese

Solution: c

• The Jarawa, the Onge, and the Sentinelese are the indigenous people of the

Andamans. The indigenous peoples of the Nicobars are the Nicobarese, or

Nicobari, and the Shompen.

23. The government of India recently amended the Indian Forest Act, 1927, and the new

changes can transform the bamboo sector. Consider the following statements in this

regard,

1. bamboo is no longer a tree and felled bamboo too is not timber

2. any bamboo grown in private or homestead land by millions of farmers does not

require a felling permission or transit permission from any state forest department

3. The Act still has legal provisions, which prohibits unauthorised extraction of

bamboo from the forests and empowers forest departments to prosecute any

person or agency found to be doing so.


a) 1 only





b) 1 and 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution– D)

https://www.google.co.in/amp/s/www.downtoearth.org.in/news/forests/amp/the-

indian-forest-act-1927-amendment-will-create-new-markets-generate-millions-of-jobs-

for-poor-communities-59712

24. Consider the following statements regarding the Constitution (103 Amendment) Act,

2019,

1. The 10% reservation will be in addition to the existing cap of 50% reservation for

the Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and the Other Backward Classes, taking

the total reservation to 60%.

2. 103rd Constitutional Amendment amended two fundamental rights Article 14 and

Article 15

3. It also makes a note of the Article 48, which asks the government to promote the

educational and economic interests of the weaker sections of the society.


a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution– C)

103rd Constitutional Amendment– This amended two fundamental rights:

(i) Article 15, which prohibits discrimination on the grounds of race, religion,

caste, sex or place of birth.

(ii) Article 16 which prohibits discrimination in employment in government

office.

It also makes a note of the Article 46, which asks the government to promote the

educational and economic interests of the weaker sections of the society.

It provides reservation for:

(i) People who have an annual income of less than Rs.8 lakhs.

(ii) People who own less than five acres of farm land.

(iii) People who have a house lesser than 1,000 sq feet in a town (or 100 sq yard

in a notified municipal area).



https://www.google.co.in/amp/s/www.downtoearth.org.in/news/forests/amp/the-indian-forest-act-1927-amendment-will-create-new-markets-generate-millions-of-jobs-for-poor-communities-59712





25. Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) work towards

1. Making agriculture more productive

2. Help to eliminate malnutrition

3. Reduce rural poverty

4. Increase the resilience of livelihoods to threats and crises

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 2, 3

b) 2, 3, 4

c) 1, 2, 4

d) 1, 2, 3, 4

Solution: d)

FAO work towards:

• Help eliminate hunger, food insecurity and malnutrition

• Make agriculture, forestry and fisheries more productive and sustainable

• Reduce rural poverty

• Enable inclusive and efficient agricultural and food systems

• Increase the resilience of livelihoods to threats and crises

(Day 66)

26. Consider the following statements regarding the Election of the President ?

1. All doubts and disputes in connection with election of the President are inquired

into and decided by the Election Commission of India whose decision is final.

2. Voting for president is conducted through secret ballot.

3. A candidate, in order to be declared elected to the office of President, must secure

a fixed quota of votes


(a) 2 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: C





• All doubts and disputes in connection with election of the President are

inquired into and decided by the Supreme Court whose decision is final.

27. Who among the following became the Prime Minister of India without being earlier

the Chief Minister of a State ?

1. Morarji Desai

2. Charan Singh

3. V.P. Singh

4. Chandrashekhar

5. P.V. Narasimha Rao

Select the correct answer from the codes given below

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 2, 3 and 5 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 4 only

Solution: D

• Chandrashekar had not served as chief minister before becoming Prime Minister.

28. Which one of the following determines that the Indian Constitution is federal ?

(a) A written and rigid Constitution

(b) An integrated Judiciary

(c) Vesting of residuary powers with the Centre

(d) Distribution of powers between the Centre and the States

Solution: D

29. Consider the following statements

1. The President can hold office beyond his term of five years until his successor

assumes charge

2. He can resign from his office at any time by addressing the resignation letter to the

Chief Justice of India.

3. No demand for a grant can be made except on president’s recommendation.






(a) 2 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

Solution: D

• He can resign from his office at any time by addressing the resignation letter to the

Vice President.

30. The Speaker can ask a member of the House to stop speaking and let another member

speak. This phenomenon is known as

(a) Decorum

(b) Crossing the floor

(c) Interpellation

(d) Yielding the floor

Solution: D

• The speaker of the Lok sabha can ask a member of the house to stop speaking and

let another member speak.

• Crossing the floor: Passing between the member addressing the House and the

Chair which is considered breach of Parliamentary etiquette.

31. Which of the following are the limitations on the sovereignty of Indian Parliament ?

1. Fundamental Rights

2. Judicial Review

3. Federalism

4. Written Constitution

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: D






1. Each state is allotted a number of seats in the Lok Sabha in such a manner that the

ratio between that number and its population is the same for all states.

2. If a sitting member of one House is elected to the other House, his seat in the first

house becomes vacant.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

Solution: C

33. Which of the following Cabinet Committees is not chaired by the Prime Minister ?

(a) Political Affairs Committee

(b) Appointments Committee

(c) Committee on Parliamentary Affairs

(d) Economic Affairs Committee

Solution: C

• Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs (CCPA): It looks into the

matters related to the progress of government business in the Parliament of India.

• It is headed by Union Home Minister.


1. Whenever the office of the Speaker falls vacant, the President nominates another

member to fill the vacancy.

2. Whenever the Lok Sabha is dissolved, the Speaker does not vacate his office and

continues till the newly- elected Lok Sabha meets.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2





(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

• Whenever the office of the Speaker falls vacant, the Lok Sabha elects another

member to fill the vacancy.


1. The president from time to time summons each House of Parliament to meet.

2. The presiding officer of the house declares the House adjourned sine die.

3. A starred question requires a written answer and hence, supplementary questions

cannot follow.


(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: B

• An unstarred question requires a written answer and hence, supplementary

questions cannot follow.

36. Who was the Governor-General of India during the Sepoy Mutiny ?

(a) Lord Canning

(b) Lord Dalhousie

(c) Lord Hardinge

(d) Lord Lytton

Solution: A

• Charles Canning, the Governor-General of India during the rebellion.

• Lord Dalhousie, the Governor-General of India from 1848 to 1856, who devised

the Doctrine of Lapse.





37. Other than India and China, which of the following groups of countries border

Myanmar ?

(a) Bangladesh, Thailand and Vietnam

(b) Cambodia, Laos and Malaysia

(c) Thailand, Vietnam and Malaysia

(d) Thailand, Laos and Bangladesh

Solution: D

38. In which one of the following oceans is Diamantina Trench situated ?

(a) Pacific Ocean

(b) Atlantic Ocean

(c) Indian Ocean

(d) Arctic Ocean

Solution: C

• The Diamantina Deep is located in the Diamantina Trench southwest of

Perth, Western Australia. It is one of the deepest points (surpassed by the

Sunda Trench) in the Indian Ocean at 7,079 m (23,225 ft).






1. The Rajya Sabha alone has the power to declare that ¡t would be in national interest

for the Parliament to legislate with respect to a matter in the State List.

2. Resolution approving the Proclamation of Emergency are passed only by the Lok

Sabha.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

• Resolution approving the Proclamation of Emergency are passed both by Rajya

Sabha and Lok Sabha.


1. There is no provision in the Constitution of India to encourage equal pay for equal

work for both men and women.

2. The constitution of India does not define backward classes.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

• Article 39(d) in The Constitution of India – that there is equal pay for equal work

for both men and women.





41. Blue Helmets, which is often seen in news, is related to

(a) Human rights activists group in Northern Africa.

(b) Campaign for restoring democracy in war torn countries around the world.

(c) UN Peacekeepers who provide security and the political and peace building

support to countries in conflict.

(d) None of the above

Solution: C

https://peacekeeping.un.org/en/military

42. Consider the following statements regarding Electoral Bond Scheme

1. It was announced in Union Budget 2017-18.

2. The bonds were introduced by amendments to RBI Act, 1934, representation of

Peoples Act, 1951.

3. An amendment to the Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA) allow political

parties to receive funding from foreign companies.


(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D

43. Consider the following statements regarding India-Myanmar-Thailand Trilateral

Highway

1. It is a highway under construction under India’s Look East policy that will connect

Moreh, India with Mae Sot, Thailand via Myanmar.

2. The road is expected to boost trade and commerce in the ASEAN–India Free Trade

Area, as well as with the rest of Southeast Asia.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2



https://peacekeeping.un.org/en/military



Solution: C


1. Green Good Deeds is the societal movement launched by IUCN to sensitize people

and students, in particular about climate change and global warming.

2. ‘Samavesh’ is a programme launched by the NITI Aayog to link together various

lead Knowledge and Research Institutions to catalyse development processes,

enhance institutional capacity development.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B

• Green Good Deeds is the societal movement launched by Ministry of

Environment to sensitize people and students, in particular about climate

change and global warming.

45. Which of the following indexes is/are released by NITI Ayog ?

1. School Education Quality Index

2. Digital Transformation Index

3. Composite Water Management Index

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D

Indexes launched by NITI Aayog

(i) District Hospital Index

(ii) Healthy States, Progressive India’ Report also known as the ‘ Health Index’

(iii) Composite Water Management Index

(iv) School Education Quality Index (SEQI)





(v) SDG India Index

(vi) Digital Transformation Index (DTI)

(vii) Agriculture Marketing and Farmer Friendly Reforms Index

46. Consider the following statements regarding North East Special Infrastructure

Development Scheme

1. It is restructured version of Non-Lapsable Central Pool of Resources scheme.

2. It aims to create infrastructure in the areas such as power, education and health.

3. It is partially funded by Union government.


(a) 1 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 2 only

(d) 1 and 2 only

Solution: D

• North East Special Infrastructure Development Scheme is fully funded by

Union government.

47. GAFA tax recently seen in news is related to

(a) Tax on new start-ups with annual turn-over of more than 1 crore

(b) Tax on Renewable energy products

(c) Tax on large technology and internet companies

(d) None of the above

Solution: C

• French finance minister Bruno Le Maire announced the introduction of a GAFA

tax—named after Google, Apple, Facebook, Amazon—on large technology and

internet companies in France from 1 January 2019. The French proposal is

set to target only those profitable companies that have heavy annual global

revenue.





48. Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Hope Spots’.

1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep islands are the first in India to

make it to the list of global hope spots.

2. A hope spot is an area of an ocean that needs special protection because of its

wildlife and significant underwater habitats.

3. They are declared by Intergovernmental Oceanographic Commission (IOC).


(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Solution: C

• Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep islands have recently

been named as the new “hope spots” by the International Union for Conservation

of Nature (IUCN) and Mission Blue, an organization involved in the study of

oceans.

• A hope spot is an area of an ocean that needs special protection because of its

wildlife and significant underwater habitats.

• The two group of islands, considered extremely rich in marine biodiversity, are the

first places in India to have been added in the list of global ‘hope spots’.

49. E-Samvad portal, sometimes seen in news, is related to

(a) A platform for NGOs and Civil Societies to interact with the Ministry of Health and

Family Welfare.

(b) India’s first Government-to-Business (G2B) portal which aims at transforming and

developing a conducive business environment in the country.

(c) It is a government services portal to inform the citizens about various government

services under various ministries and government entities.

(d) A platform for NGOs and Civil Societies to interact with the Ministry of Women &

Child Development.

Solution: D





• ESamvad is an initiative of the Ministry of Women and Child Development

to provide a platform for NGOs and civil society to interact with the Ministry on

relevant subjects.

50. Consider the following statements regarding EMISAT Satellite

1. It is India’s first electronic surveillance satellite.

2. It is fully developed by ISRO.

3. It is modelled after a famous Israeli spy satellite called SARAL.


(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: C

• The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has launched the country’s

first electronic surveillance satellite, EMISAT. It was launched on-board

PSLV-C45.

• EMISAT is an advanced electronic intelligence (ELINT) satellite jointly

developed by ISRO-DRDO.

• It is meant for electromagnetic spectrum measurements. It is modelled

after a famous Israeli spy satellite called SARAL (Satellite with ARgos and ALtika).

(Day 67)

51. Consider the following statements regarding ‘Capital account convertibility’.

1. India has full current account convertibility but not full capital account

convertibility.

2. Capital account convertibility beneficial for a country because inflow of foreign

3. investment increases.

4. Full Capital account convertibility brings stability in the economy.






(a) 2 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: B

• Full capital account convertibility may cause instability in the economy as it

leads to withdrawal of capital at any time.

52. Consider the following statements with reference to New Development Bank (NDB):

1. It is a multilateral development bank established by the BRICS and ASEAN

2. Headquarters of NDB is located at Beijing.

3. India holds present president ship of the Bank.

Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a) 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) None

Solution: B

• The New Development Bank (NDB), formerly referred to as the BRICS

Development Bank, is a multilateral development bank established by the

BRICS states (Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa).

• Headquarters of the bank in Shanghai, China.


1. Foreigner visit to Indian tourist place forms a component of import

2. Indian medical professional offering services through telemedicine forms a

component of export.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only





c) Both

d) None

Solution: B

• Foreigner visit to India forms the component of export, since he/she spends

money in India. That’s why every nation promotes tourism.

54. Consider the following statements regarding Asian Development Bank (ADB):

1. It is a regional development bank headquartered in Tokyo.

2. The bank admits members from the Asian Continent only.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: D

• It’s headquarter is located in Philippines. Non-Asian countries are also members

of it.

55. The term ‘Out of pocket Expenditure’ often seen news with reference to

(a) Travelling and Hospitality

(b) Food and civil supplies

(c) Health service

(d) Employment opportunities

Solution: C





56. Which one of the following groups of items is included in India’s foreign

exchange reserves ?

(a) Foreign currency assets, gold holdings of the RBI and loans from the World Bank.

(b) Foreign-currency assets, Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) and loans from foreign

countries.

(c) Foreign-currency assets, loans from the World Bank and SDRs.

(d) Foreign-currency assets, gold holdings of the RBI and SDRs.

Solution: D

57. Consider the following statements regarding ‘Electronic Development Fund’ ?

1. It is a “Fund of Funds” investing in “Daughter Funds” that invest in the equity of

companies developing new technologies in the area of electronics, nano-

electronics etc.

2. Formation of EDF was conceived in the National Policy on Electronics -2012


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

Solution: C

http://www.arthapedia.in/index.php?title=Electronic_Development_Fund_(EDF)

58. Consider the following statements regarding National Skill Development

Corporation:

1. It is a public private partnership company with the primary mandate of catalyzing

the skills landscape in India.

2. It is headed by Minister of State, Skill development and Entrepreneurship.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2



http://www.arthapedia.in/index.php?title=Electronic_Development_Fund_(EDF)



Solution: A

• It is not headed by Minister of State, Skill development and Entrepreneurship.

https://nsdcindia.org/about-us

59. World health statistics report is released by

(a) World Health Organization

(b) World Bank

(c) UNICEF

(d) Oxfam International

Solution: A

60. Consider the following statements regarding National Commission on Farmers

1. It is a statutory commission constituted under MS Swaminathan.

2. It had advised to establish a National Land Use Advisory Service.

3. It recommended to give farmers a minimum support price at 50% profit above the

cost of production.


(a) 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: A

• National Commission on Farmers is not a statutory commission.

61. Which of the following agency publishes India Wage Report ?

(a) Labor Bureau

(b) International Labour Organization

(c) National Sample Survey Office (NSSO)

(d) Central Statistics Office



https://nsdcindia.org/about-us



Solution: B

• The International Labour Organization has published India Wage Report.

62. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the formation of the

following as full states of Indian Union ?

(a) Sikkim – Arunachal Pradesh – Nagaland – Haryana

(b) Nagaland – Haryana – Sikkim – Arunachal Pradesh

(c) Sikkim – Haryana – Nagaland- Arunachal Pradesh

(d) Nagaland – Arunachal Pradesh – Sikkim – Haryana

Solution: B

• Nagaland - 1963

• Haryana - 1966

• Sikkim - 1975

• Arunachal Pradesh - 1987

63. Where is the famous Vijaya Vitala temple having its 56 carved pillars emitting musical

noted located ?

(a) Belur

(b) Bhadrachalam

(c) Hampi

(d) Srirangam

Solution: C

• The Vittala Temple or Vitthala Temple in Hampi is an ancient monument that

is well-known for its exceptional architecture and unmatched craftsmanship.

• It is considered to be one of the largest and the most famous structure in Hampi.

The temple is located in the north eastern part of Hampi, near the banks of the

Tungabhadra River.






1. The Chairman of the Committee on public Accounts is appointed by the Speaker

of the Lok Sabha.

2. The Committee on public Accounts comprises Members of Lok Sabha, Members

of Rajya Sabha and a few eminent persons of industry and trade.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

65. Who among the following wrote the book Babuvivah ?

(a) Raja Rammohan Roy

(b) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

(c) Pandita Rambai

(d) Rabindranath Tagore

Solution: B

66. Consider the following statements regarding social humanoid robot named Sophia.

1. Sophia became the first non-human to be given citizenship in Saudi Arabia.

2. Sophia was named the United Nations Development Programme’s first ever

Innovation Champion.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C





• Sophia is a social humanoid robot developed by Hong Kong based company

Hanson Robotics. In October 2017, Sophia became the first robot to receive

citizenship of any country.

• In November 2017, Sophia was named the United Nations Development

Programme’s first ever Innovation Champion, and is the first non-human to be

given any United Nations title.

67. Consider the following statements regarding India-Africa Institute of Agriculture and

Rural Development.

1. India has signed an agreement for setting up the India-Africa Institute of

Agriculture and Rural Development (IAIARD) in Malawi.

2. IAIARD will be a Pan-African Institute.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

• India has signed an agreement with the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural

Development Consultancy Service (NABCONS) for setting up the India-Africa

Institute of Agriculture and Rural Development (IAIARD) in Malawi, a

landlocked country in southeastern Africa.

• IAIARD will be a Pan-African Institute wherein trainees from Malawi and other

African countries will be trained to develop their human resources and build their

capacity. This will be the first of its kind institute developed in an African country

by India.

• This will further strengthen the bilateral relations between India and Malawi and

that of India’s relations with the African Union.





68. Consider the following statements regarding International Telecommunications

Union.

1. It is an agency of UN to coordinate telecommunication operations & services

throughout world.

2. It is the oldest among all the 15 specialised agencies of UN.

3. It is a member of the United Nations Development Group


(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D

https://www.itu.int/en/about/Pages/default.aspx

69. Consider the following statements regarding Himalayan State Regional Council

1. It is constituted by NITI Aayog.

2. It is constituted to review and prepare a roadmap for action to ensure sustainable

development of the Indian Himalayan region.

3. It is an agency for ensuring sustainable development of Himalayan states.


(a) 2 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: D

http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=184781



https://www.itu.int/en/about/Pages/default.aspx

http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=184781



70. Consider the following statements regarding UN Central Emergency Response Fund

1. It is an UN humanitarian fund launched in 2016.

2. The fund is replenished annually through contributions from governments, the

private sector, foundations and individuals.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

Solution: B

• It is an UN humanitarian fund launched in 2006.

https://cerf.un.org/about-us/who-we-are

71. Kunduz and Ghazni, often seen in news, is located in

(a) Afghanistan

(b) Pakistan

(c) Iran

(d) Turkmenistan

Solution: A

72. United Nations Security Council Resolution 2254, often seen in news, is related to

(a) It calls for a ceasefire and political settlement in Syria.

(b) Inclusion of Masood Azhar into global terrorist list.

(c) Political settlement in Afghanistan.

(d) None of the above.

Solution: A

• The resolution demands that all parties immediately cease any attacks against

civilian targets, it urges all Member States to support efforts to achieve a ceasefire

and requests the U.N. to convene the parties to engage in formal negotiations in

early January 2016.



https://cerf.un.org/about-us/who-we-are



73. Consider the following statements regarding Monitoring the Illegal Killing of

Elephants (MIKE) Programme

1. MIKE is a CITES site-based system designed to monitor trends in the illegal killing

of elephants.

2. This programme is entirely dependent on donor support.

3. In India, Project Elephant has been formally implementing the MIKE programme.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 3 only

Solution: C

https://www.cites.org/eng/prog/mike/index.php


1. Referendum 2020 is a campaign to liberate Punjab and establishes a link between

Pakistan and pro-Khalistan groups.

2. Palau becomes first country to ban sunscreen to save coral reefs


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/other-states/referendum-2020-rally-an-isi-

plot/article24682176.ece


List I List II

1. Koothankulam Bird Sanctuary : Tamil Nadu 2. Kanger Ghati National Park : Chattisgarh



https://www.cites.org/eng/prog/mike/index.php

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/other-states/referendum-2020-rally-an-isi-plot/article24682176.ece

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/other-states/referendum-2020-rally-an-isi-plot/article24682176.ece



3. Soor Sarovar Bird Sanctuary : Gujarat

Which of the pairs given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1 and 2 only

Solution: D

• Soor Sarovar Bird Sanctuary is in Agra.

(Day 68)

76. Both Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and Foreign Institutional Investor (FII) are

related to investment in a country. Which one of the following statements best represents

an important difference between the two ?

(a) FII helps bring better management skills and technology, while FDI only brings in

capital.

(b) FII helps in increasing capital availability in general, while FDI targets specific

sectors only.

(c) FDI flows only into the secondary market while FII targets primary market.

(d) FDI is considered to be more stable than FII.

Solution: D

77. India has large area of arable land under rain fed agriculture which is often subjected

to drought situation. In this context, consider the following statements:

1. State government is the final authority when it comes to declaring a region as a

drought effected.

2. Union Ministry of Agriculture and Farmer’s welfare holds complete responsibility

of managing drought prone areas


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2





(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

• Drought is managed by multiple authorities like NDMA etc.

78. With what purpose is the Government of India promoting the concept of “Mega Food

Parks” ?

1. To provide good infrastructure facilities for the food processing industry.

2. To increase the processing of perishable items and reduce wastage.

3. To provide emerging and eco-friendly food processing technologies to

entrepreneurs at free of cost.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: B

• There is no such provision to provide emerging and eco-friendly food processing

technologies to entrepreneurs at free of cost.

79. Asian Development Outlook is an annual publication produced by

(a) International Monetary Fund

(b) Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB)

(c) World Bank

(d) Asian Development Bank

Solution: D

• The Asian Development Outlook is an annual publication produced by the

Asian Development Bank (ADB). It offers economic analysis and forecasts, as

well as an examination of social development issues, for most countries in Asia.





80. Consider the following statements regarding Unified Payments Interface (UPI).

1. It enables multiple bank accounts to be operated with a single mobile application

of any participating bank, merging several banking features, seamless fund routing

& merchant payments under one head.

2. It was launched by RBI.

3. Money can be transferred through mobile devices round the clock 24*7 except on

public holidays.

4. It may also be used for Utility Bill Payments, Over the Counter Payments and

Barcode based payments.


(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 1 and 4 only

(c) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Solution: B

• Unified Payments Interface (UPI) is a payment system launched by

National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI). It facilitates the fund

transfer between two bank accounts through a smartphone.

• It converts multiple bank accounts into a single mobile application (of any

participating bank), merging several banking features, seamless fund routing &

merchant payments under one head.

• The unique feature of UPI is that it immediate money transfer through mobile

devices round the clock 24*7 and 365 days. Also, a single mobile application may

be used for accessing different bank accounts. It may also be used for Utility Bill

Payments, Over the Counter Payments and Barcode (Scan and Pay) based

payments.

81. The primary objective of the Global Initiative of Academic Networks (GIAN) is to

(a) develop a high speed digital library.

(b) develop a database of Indian teachers and research scholars across the world.

(c) develop a road-map for research to solve major engineering and technology

challenges.

(d) facilitate faculty from highly rated foreign institutions to deliver specialized courses

in India.





Solution: D

• Govt. of India approved a new program titled Global Initiative of Academic

Networks (GIAN) in Higher Education aimed at tapping the talent pool of

scientists and entrepreneurs, internationally to encourage their engagement with

the institutes of Higher Education in India so as to augment the country’s existing

academic resources, accelerate the pace of quality reform, and elevate India’s

scientific and technological capacity to global excellence.

http://www.gian.iitkgp.ac.in/

82. What is the objective of National Food Security Mission ?

(a) Provision of food grains at nominal rates for the BPL households.

(b) Enhancing the production of rice, wheat, and pulses in India.

(c) Increasing the production of millets in central and peninsular India

(d) Strategy to improve the varieties of wheat and rice crops.

Solution: B

• National Food Security Mission (NFSM) is a Central Scheme of GOI

launched in 2007 for 5 years to increase production and productivity of wheat, rice

and pulses on a sustainable basis so as to ensure food security of the country.

83. Consider the following statements regarding “National Career Service”:

1. It is a national web portal that brings job seekers, employers, career counsellors

and skill / training providers on a common platform.

2. It has provision of providing unemployment allowance to youth, if they fail to get

employment through portal


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

• It doesn’t provide unemployment allowance.



http://www.gian.iitkgp.ac.in/



84. Which of the following statements regarding National Commission on Population

(NCP) is/are correct ?

1. It monitors and give directions for the implementation of the National Population

Policy, 2000.

2. The Prime Minister is the chairperson of NCP.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 and 2

Solution: C

85. With reference to the Investment funds, consider the following statements

1. National Investment Fund (NIF) receives disinvestment proceeds of central Public

Sector Enterprises (PSE)

2. 75% Earning of NIF will be used for financing social welfare schemes

3. National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF) enhance the infrastructure

development solely in brownfield projects.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Solution: C

• The objective of NIIF would be to maximize economic impact mainly through

infrastructure development in commercially viable projects, both greenfield and

brownfield, including stalled projects. It could also consider other nationally

important projects, for example, in manufacturing, if commercially viable.





86. Who among the following gave a systematic critique of the moderate politics of the

Indian National Congress in a series of articles entitled new Lamps for Old ?

(a) Aurobindo Ghosh

(b) R.C.Dutt

(c) Syed Ahmad khan

(d) Viraraghavachari

Solution: A

87. Under which one of the following Constitution Amendments Acts, four languages

were added to the languages under the Eighth schedule of the Constitution of India,

thereby raising their number to 22 ?

(a) Constitution (Ninetieth Amendment) Act

(b) Constitution (Ninety-first Amendment) Act

(c) Constitution (Ninety-second Amendment) Act

(d) Constitution (Ninety-third Amendment) Act

Solution: C

• The Ninety-second Amendment of the Constitution of India, officially known

as The Constitution (Ninety-second Amendment) Act, 2003, amended the Eighth

Schedule to the Constitution so as to include Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali

languages, thereby raising the total number of languages listed in the schedule to

22.

88. Consider the following statements regarding CENSUS 2011

1. Himachal Pradesh has the highest percentage of rural population among states.

2. Maharashtra has the highest percentage of urban population among states.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A





• Goa has the highest percentage of urban population among states (62%) whereas

Maharashtra has 45%.

Previous year question (present data)

89. During the Indian Freedom Struggle, who of the following raised an army called ‘Free

Indian Legion’ ?

(a) Lala Hardayal

(b) Rashbehari Bose

(c) Subhas Chandra Bose

(d) V.D.Savarkar

Solution: C

90. Consider the following statements regarding probiotic food

1. Probiotic food contains live bacteria which are considered beneficial to humans.

2. Probiotic food helps in maintaining gut flora.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 Only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C

Previous year question

91. Consider the following statements regarding Monetary Policy Committee

1. Monetary Policy Committee is constituted under Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.

2. MPC was set up consequent to the agreement reached between Government and

RBI with the responsibility of inflation targeting

3. RBI deputy governor is the chairman of Monetary Policy Committee


(a) 1 only





(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: B

• The Central Government constitutes the MPC through a notification in the Official

Gazette. Altogether, the MPC will have six members, – the RBI Governor

(Chairperson), the RBI Deputy Governor in charge of monetary policy, one official

nominated by the RBI Board and the remaining three members would represent

the Government of India.

• These Government of India nominees are appointed by the Central Government

based on the recommendations of a search cum selection committee consisting of

the cabinet secretary (Chairperson), the RBI Governor, the secretary of the

Department of Economic Affairs, Ministry of Finance, and three experts in the field

of economics or banking as nominated by the central government.

http://www.arthapedia.in/index.php?title=Monetary_Policy_Committee_(MPC)

92. Which of the following country recently launched a landmark visa amnesty

programme that will benefit hundreds of illegal foreign workers, including Indians ?

(a) United States of America

(b) Saudi Arabia

(c) UAE

(d) Australia

Solution: C

• The UAE launched a landmark three-month visa amnesty programme that will

benefit hundreds of illegal foreign workers, including Indians, who are overstaying

their permits. The programme allows the workers to leave the country without

paying penalty and also gives them six months to find a job.

https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/uae-launches-amnesty-scheme-for-

overstayers/article24574806.ece



http://www.arthapedia.in/index.php?title=Monetary_Policy_Committee_(MPC)

https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/uae-launches-amnesty-scheme-for-overstayers/article24574806.ece

https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/uae-launches-amnesty-scheme-for-overstayers/article24574806.ece



93. Consider the following pairs

List I List II

1. Malampuzha Dam - Kerala 2. Microcephaly - Ebola Virus 3. THAAD - Israel

Which of the pairs given above is/are matched correctly ?

(a) 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 only

(d) None

Solution: C

• Microcephaly – Zika Virus

• THAAD – USA.

94. Consider the following statements regarding Bio-Fuels

1. The first generation biofuels refer to the fuels that have been derived from sources

like starch, sugar, animal fats and vegetable oil.

2. Third generation biofuels are those biofuels produced from non food crops such as

cellulosic biofuels.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A

• Second (2nd)-generation biofuels are those biofuels produced from non

food crops such as cellulosic biofuels.

• The Third Generation of biofuels is based on improvements in the production

of biomass. It takes advantage of specially engineered energy crops such as algae

as its energy source.





95. New Southern Policy, often seen in news, is related to

(a) US policy to secure its strategic interests in South Asia

(b) UN policy to alleviate poverty in Third World Countries.

(c) South Korea’s policy of deepening ties with South East Asian nations as well as

India.

(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) are correct

Solution: C

https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/s-korea-wants-to-elevate-ties-with-

india/article24988305.ece

96. Which of the following country/grouping recently passed Clarifying Lawful Overseas

Use of Data Act (CLOUD Act) ?

(a) European Union

(b) United Kingdom

(c) G-20

(d) United States of America

Solution: D

https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/sharing-data-across-

borders/article23417587.ece


1. States’ Energy Efficiency Preparedness Index is released by the Bureau of Energy

Efficiency (BEE) and Alliance for an energy efficient economy(AEEE).

2. Global Monitoring Report was jointly report by IMF and World Bank.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C



https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/s-korea-wants-to-elevate-ties-with-india/article24988305.ece

https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/s-korea-wants-to-elevate-ties-with-india/article24988305.ece

https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/sharing-data-across-borders/article23417587.ece

https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/sharing-data-across-borders/article23417587.ece



98. ‘Zero Defect, Zero Effect (ZED)’, often seen in the news, is:

(a) A scheme that aims to improve the health of rural India by providing them with a

clean cooking fuel – LPG.

(b) A plan of action for sustainable economic growth in the Asia-Pacific Region, an

outcome of the deliberations of the Asia- Pacific Economic Forum.

(c) An agenda for women’s empowerment, an outcome of a World Conference

convened by the United Nations.

(d) A Scheme with an aims to rate and handhold all Micro, Small and Medium

Enterprises (MSME) to deliver top quality products using clean technology.

Solution: d)

Justification-

Zero Defect, Zero Effect-

• ZED Scheme aims to rate and handhold all MSMEs to deliver top quality products

using clean technology. It will have sector-specific parameters foreach industry.

99. Consider the following pairs

List I List II

1. Antigua - Caribbean Sea

2. Gili Islands - Indonesia

3. Dzongu Valley - Jammu and Kashmir

Which of the pairs given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) None

Solution: B

• Dzongu Valley is located in Sikkim.





100. Which of the following is/are invasive species in India ?

1. Common water hyacinth

2. Lantana Camara

3. Eucalyptus

4. Prosopis juliflora

Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a) 2 and 4 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4only

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: D

• All the species given above are invasive species



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