Indiana Academic Super Bowl

A Program of the Indiana Association of School Principals

Science Round 2014 – Senior Division Coaches Practice

Students:

Throughout this competition, foreign

names and words will be used.

If there are any discrepancies

between how a word/phrase should

be pronounced and what you see

on the screen, the screen

supersedes what is spoken.

SD-CP-Sc-1

Approximately 70% of the biomass of a typical

prairie is found in the_________.

A. roots of the plants

B. stems and leaves of the plants

C. bodies of the vertebrate animals like bison,

antelopes, and rodents

D. bodies of the invertebrates, like insects

SD-CP-Sc-2

The main determining factor of the location of a

biome on the planet is the _________.

A. longitude

B. latitude

C. continent

D. presence of an ocean

SD-CP-Sc-3

Indiana falls predominantly in which biome?

A. temperate grassland

B. boreal forest

C. temperate deciduous forest

D. savanna grassland

SD-CP-Sc-4

Biomes are named primarily for what feature?

A. dominant animal types

B. dominant cultural or ethnic groups

C. local geographic features

D. dominant plant communities

SD-CP-Sc-5

“Anthropogenic” refers to _______.

A. originating from the action of humans

B. generated by insects and other jointed-leg

animals

C. the genes of various animals

D. blood-borne genetic materials

SD-CP-Sc-6

The regular, usually predictable, replacement of

one ecological community with another over

time is known as _________.

A. biogenesis

B. anthropogenesis

C. ecological succession

D. ecological destiny

SD-CP-Sc-7

One of the major actions of the homesteading and

settlement of the American prairie in this year’s time

period was the plowing of the native prairies and

conversion to monoculture cropland. A significant result

of this ecological impact resulted in _______.

A. extinction of the Plains bison

B. a great deal of soil erosion leading to the birth of the

Dust Bowl within a few decades

C. a population explosion of Americans and the building of

large cities on the Plains

D. an increase in destructive prairie fires that destroyed

many farms

SD-CP-Sc-8

The richest soils for growing crops were originally

found in which North American biome?

A. temperate deciduous forest

B. temperate grassland

C. tropical rainforest

D. boreal forest

SD-CP-Sc-9

A species that is designated as “endangered” is

___________.

A. a species that can no longer reproduce and will

definitely go extinct

B. a species in danger of extinction if current

conditions in its population dynamics are not

changed

C. an organism brought to a place where it has not

lived before

D. a species with a typically broad range of suitable

habitats

SD-CP-Sc-10

Which of the following is characteristic of

the eastern half of the United States?

A. temperate deciduous forests

B. grasslands

C. savanna

D. boreal forests

SD-CP-Sc-11

Ague is the name given by early American

frontier settlers for the disease we know as ____.

A. dysentery

B. cholera

C. tetanus

D. malaria

SD-CP-Sc-12

During the time of the westward expansion into

the frontier, malaria was thought to be caused

by ________.

A. mosquitoes

B. fleas

C. getting chilled after getting wet

D. bad vapors from freshly broken sod or soil

SD-CP-Sc-13

Since doctors were hard to find in the new territories,

people moving westward took medicinal items along

with them. Patent medicines were often purchased for

the treatment of various and sundry ailments. While

these elixirs, oils, and liniments usually did contain a

variety of herbal and other ingredients, many (if not

most) contained large proportions of ______,

which may explain their general popularity.

A. sassafras

B. licorice

C. ethyl alcohol

D. THC

SD-CP-Sc-14

The two major reasons for the dramatic decline in

populations or even the extinction of several species of

animals during this time period were

___________.

A. diseases spread to the animals from domestic

animals and unusually bad weather

B. market hunting and habitat destruction

C. capture for sale to the pet industry back

East and in Europe and sport hunting

D. low beginning populations and unusually

harsh winters during this period of time

SD-CP-Sc-15

Cholera is a disease caused by

__________.

A. a bacterium

B. a virus

C. miasmas

D. a protozoan

SD-CP-Sc-16

Settling and living in the western territories was

rife with many dangers. If a person were to be

seriously injured with a wound to the limb, the

wound could easily become infected and the

person could succumb to _________.

A. dysentery

B. malaria

C. cholera

D. gangrene

SD-CP-Sc-17

Toward the end of the time period for this year’s

competition, erosion became an increasing

problem in the Great Plains and prairies. We can

attribute the anthropogenic reasons for the

problem of erosion to _________.

A. extended drought

B. removal of deep-rooted grasses

C. use of bad farming practices, especially

inappropriate plowing practices

D. both B and C

SD-CP-Sc-18

Cholera was more likely to strike a small town

community rather than an individual homestead.

This is because __________.

A. Cholera is predominantly a disease related to poor

water sanitation in communities

B. Cholera is more likely spread by horses than

by cattle

C. Cholera is spread from sneezes and people are

more concentrated in towns than on homesteads

D. People living in homesteads tended to be rugged

and healthy people and better resisted diseases

than town-folk

SD-CP-Sc-19

Prairie soils are far more rich in _______ than

are forest soils.

A. iron

B. calcium

C. clay

D. organic material

SD-CP-Sc-20

John James Audubon spent a great deal of time in southern Indiana

and northern Kentucky observing nature, collecting specimens, and

making sketches of wildlife. In his notes, he reported while

traveling near Louisville, once seeing birds in flight so numerous

that “the light of noon-day was obscured by an eclipse” and that he

saw the passing of these birds passing “in undiminished numbers,

and continued to do so for three days in succession.” The birds he

had been observing were _________.

A. Carolina parakeets

B. Eskimo curlews

C. passenger pigeons

D. American blackbirds

SD-CP-Sc-21

According to Ohm’s Law, when the applied

voltage across a fixed resistance is doubled, the

current is _________.

A. doubled

B. quadrupled

C. halved

D. quartered

SD-CP-Sc-22

A 2 ohm and a 4 ohm resistor are connected in

series with a 12 volt battery. What is the current

that flows through the 2 ohm resistor?

A. 9 amperes

B. 6 amperes

C. 3 amperes

D. 2 amperes

SD-CP-Sc-23

According to Ohm’s Law, if the resistance in a

circuit is doubled and the voltage is constant,

the current is __________.

A. doubled

B. quadrupled

C. halved

D. quartered

SD-CP-Sc-24

What is the resistance of the coil in an electric

motor that draws 10 amperes of current when

operated at 120 volts?

A. 0.083 ohms

B. 12 ohms

C. 20 ohms

D. 1200 ohms

SD-CP-Sc-25

Two light bulbs are connected in parallel to a

power supply, adding another light bulb in

parallel to the first two bulbs circuit will ____.

A. draw more current from the power supply

B. draw less current from the power supply

C. draw the same current from the power supply

D. not enough information given to answer the

question

SD-CP-Sc-26

What voltage is needed to supply 5 amperes of

current to an electric motor that has a resistance

of 10 ohms?

A. 0.5 volts

B. 2 volts

C. 5 volts

D. 50 volts

SD-CP-Sc-27

According to Faraday’s Law, an induced current

is present in a coil of wire if ________.

A. the coil is stationary and strength of the

field is changing

B. the coil is rotating in a uniform magnetic

field

C. the coil is moved into or out of the field

D. all of the above

SD-CP-Sc-28

The maximum emf induced in a 10 turn coil with

a cross sectional area of 0.1m2 rotating at

20 rad/s in a uniform 10 Tesla magnetic field is

________.

A. 200 volts

B. 628 volts

C. 20 volts

D. 2000 volts

SD-CP-Sc-29

A maximum emf of 100 volts is produced by a

square coil with an area of 0.25 m2 rotating at

50 rad/s in a 2 Tesla magnetic field. How many

turns are in the coil?

A. 2

B. 4

C. 8

D. 10

SD-CP-Sc-30

What is the maximum current flowing in a coil

that has a resistance of 10 ohms, if the maximum

induced emf is 50 volts?

A. 0.2 amps

B. 500 amps

C. 5 amps

D. 0.5 amps

SD-CP-Sc-31

If a gas expands while maintaining a constant

pressure, the process is called __________.

A. adiabatic

B. isobaric

C. isochoric

D. isothermal

SD-CP-Sc-32

If a gas is heated while maintaining a constant

volume, the process is called _________.

A. adiabatic

B. isobaric

C. isochoric

D. isothermal

SD-CP-Sc-33

If a gas expands while maintaining a constant

temperature, the process is called _________.

A. adiabatic

B. isobaric

C. isochoric

D. isothermal

SD-CP-Sc-34

In an adiabatic process, _________.

A. no heat is added or removed from the gas

B. the pressure of the gas is constant

C. the volume of the gas is constant

D. the temperature of the gas is constant

SD-CP-Sc-35

No work is done by a gas during which type of

process?

A. adiabatic

B. isobaric

C. isochoric

D. isothermal

SD-CP-Sc-36

Look at the Pressure-Volume diagram that shows

four different paths of gas going from State 1 to

State 2. Which path shows the most work done

by the gas?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

SD-CP-Sc-37

How much work is done by a gas in an isobaric

expansion from 1 cubic meter to 3 cubic meters if

the pressure of the gas is 100 Pascals?

A. 100 joules

B. 200 joules

C. 300 joules

D. 400 joules

SD-CP-Sc-38

What is the change in internal energy of a gas

when 1000 joules is added to the gas and 600

joules of work is done by the gas?

A. 1600 joules

B. 1000 joules

C. 600 joules

D. 400 joules

SD-CP-Sc-39

What is the efficiency of a heat engine that does

600 joules of work when 1000 joules of heat is

supplied to the engine?

A. 20%

B. 40%

C. 60%

D. 67%

SD-CP-Sc-40

What is the maximum efficiency of a heat

engine that gets its heat from a 400K

reservoir and dumps the waste heat into

a 300K reservoir?

A. 25%

B. 75%

C. 33%

D. 67%

SD-CP-Sc-41

Water is considered the universal solvent

because it ________.

A. is non-polar

B. it dissolves many non-polar substances

C. dissolves all substances

D. dissolves ionic and polar substances

SD-CP-Sc-42

Water is considered a polar because it

________.

A. has both a negative and a positive end

B. forms hydrogen bonds

C. dissolves ionic substances

D. separates from oil mixtures

SD-CP-Sc-43

The solvent in a solution is the substance

_________.

A. found in the greater amount

B. found in the lesser amount

C. which is liquid

D. which is solid

SD-CP-Sc-44

In an aqueous solution, water is the ______.

A. solute

B. solvent

C. substance found in the least amount

D. best coagulant

SD-CP-Sc-45

Which of the following solutions will show no

concentration dependence on temperature?

A. 1.0 molal glucose

B. 1.0 molar glucose

C. 10% weight/volume glucose

D. 1.0 molar sucrose

SD-CP-Sc-46

Which property of a solution does not

change with an increase in temperature?

A. molarity

B. density

C. molality

D. all of these properties show a

temperature dependence

SD-CP-Sc-47

Normally, the melting point and boiling point of a substance

increase with molar mass. Considering H2O, H2S, H2Te

series the boiling points are 100 C, -60 C, -41.5 C. The

reason for this anomaly is the _________.

A. water molecule is the largest molecule

B. formation of hydrogen bonds in water

C. electronegativity of Te is greater than that of O.

D. water molecule ionizes

SD-CP-Sc-48

In a solution, the substance present in the

greater amount is considered the

_________.

A. solute

B. most dense

C. concentrate

D. solvent

SD-CP-Sc-49

An aqueous solution is one that

__________.

A. is pale blue-green in color

B. does not leave a solid when evaporated

C. contains dissolved solids

D. has water as a solvent

SD-CP-Sc-50

Another name for a homogenous mixture is

a ___________.

A. suspension

B. solution

C. solvation

D. colligation

SD-CP-Sc-51

The change in boiling point of a solution of

a non-electrolyte depends on all of the

following EXCEPT ________.

A. the number of particles

B. the solution concentration

C. the solvent density

D. the solute identity

SD-CP-Sc-52

The vapor pressure of a solution ________.

A. is lower than that of pure solvent

B. is higher than that of pure solvent

C. depends on the osmotic pressure of the

solvent

D. depends on the boiling point of the

solute

SD-CP-Sc-53

The electron geometry of the electrons

on the central atom in a water molecule

is _________.

A. tetrahedral

B. square planar

C. bent

D. trigonal pyramidal

SD-CP-Sc-54

Use the following table to answer the question

below:

Which of the substances in the table can act as

either the solute or the solvent when mixed with

100g of water at 20 C?

A. NH3 B. C6H5COOH

C. MgCl2 D. CH3CH2OH

SOLUBILITY OF SUBSTANCES IN WATER @ 20°C

Substance Formula/State Solubility (g/100g water

Magnesium chloride MgCl2/solid 54.6

Ammonia NH3/gas 34.0

Ethanol CH3CH2OH/liquid Infinite

Benzoic acid C6H5COOH/solid 0.29

SD-CP-Sc-55

If the attractive forces among solid particles are

less than the attractive forces between the solid and

the liquid, the solid will __________.

A. probably form a new precipitate as its

crystal lattice is broken and reformed

B. be unaffected because attractive forces within

the crystal are too strong for dissolution to occur

C. dissolve as particles are pulled away from the

crystal lattice by the liquid molecules

D. begin the process of melting to form a liquid

SD-CP-Sc-56

A student prepared a solution by heating 100 mL of water while

adding KCl crystals until no more KCl would dissolve. She

capped the clear solution and set it aside on the lab bench. After

several hours she noticed the solution had become cloudy and some

solid had settled to the bottom of the flask. Which statement best

describes what happened?

A. As the solution cooled, evaporation of water increased the KCl concentration beyond its solubility

B. Water molecules trapped with the KCl crystals were released after heating

C. At lower temperatures, the solubility of the KCl decreased and recrystallization occurred

D. At increased temperatures, the solubility of the KCl increased and remained too high after cooling

SD-CP-Sc-57

If the solubility of NaCl at 25°C is 36.2/g/100g of water, what mass of NaC1 can be dissolved in 50.0 g of water at that temperature?

A. 18.1 g

B. 36.2 g

C. 72.4 g

D. 86.2 g

SD-CP-Sc-58

The Kbp for water is 0.52°C/molal. If

0.085 mol of NaCl is added to 180 g of

water, what is the new boiling point?

A. 99.5°C

B. 99.8°C

C. 100.2°C

D. 100.5°C

SD-CP-Sc-59

Why do road crews put salt in icy roads during

the winter?

A. to lower the freezing point of water

B. to provide traction for vehicles

C. to raise the melting point of ice

D. to make a solution of the sand

SD-CP-Sc-60

Which substance will be most effective in

removing ice from highways in the winter?

A. sand

B. sugar

C. NaCl

D. CaCl2

SD-CP-Sc-61

An ideal solution is formed by mixing 0.26

mol of pentane (vapor pressure = 511 torr)

with 0.34 mol of hexane (vapor pressure = 150

torr). What is the total vapor pressure of the

ideal solution?

A. 86 torr

B. 220 torr

C. 305 torr

D. 661 torr

SD-CP-Sc-62

Hydrogen bonding will not exist between

molecules of which substance below?

A. H2

B. H2O

C. HF

D. NH3

SD-CP-Sc-63

Which of the following would indicate the

strongest intermolecular forces in a liquid?

A. low boiling point

B. high boiling point

C. low electrical resistance

D. high electrical resistance

SD-CP-Sc-64

Compared to intramolecular forces, the

strength of intermolecular forces is

__________.

A. substantially greater

B. slightly greater

C. slightly less

D. substantially less

SD-CP-Sc-65

The strength of dipole-dipole attractions

___________.

A. increases with the size of molecules

B. is greater than other intermolecular

forces

C. is greater than intramolecular forces

D. is the same for all types of substances

SD-CP-Sc-66

Which of the following sulfides is soluble in

water?

A. Ammonium sulfide

B. Iron (II) sulfide

C. Vanadium sulfide

D. Silicon disulfide

SD-CP-Sc-67

The freezing point of an aqueous solution that

contains a nonelectrolyte is -8.0°C. What is the

molal concentration of the solution?

Kfp for water is 1.86°C/molal

A. 1.86 m

B. 4.3 m

C. 0.23 m

D. 14.8 m

SD-CP-Sc-68

Comparing the freezing point depression for a solution

of an electrolyte that dissociates into a 1+ and a 1- ion

with the freezing point depression for an equally

concentrated solution of an electrolyte that dissociates

into a 3+ and a 3- ion, the freezing point depression for

the 3+ ion and 3- ion solution will be _________.

A. the same

B. slightly less

C. much less

D. much greater

SD-CP-Sc-69

What is the molarity of a solution of NaOH

(MM = 40.0 g/mol) that contains 2.0 g of

NaOH in 250.0 mL of solution?

A. 0.08 M

B. 0.20 M

C. 0.32 M

D. 2.0 M

SD-CP-Sc-70

How many grams of solute are

contained in 35.0 g of a 4.0% solution

of sugar?

A. 0.14 g

B. 0.40 g

C. 1.4 g

D. not enough information given to solve the problem

SD-CP-Sc-71

If 2.9 g of HCl is dissolved in enough water

to make 350 mL of solution, what is the

molarity of the solution?

A. 0.23 M

B. 2.3 M

C. 3.3 M

D. 24.3 M

SD-CP-Sc-72

Sulfur dioxide is a contaminant in air which can

result from burning coal in power plants to

produce electricity. A level of SO2 of greater

than 100 ppm is considered life-threatening.

What is this amount expressed as a percentage?

A. 0.01%

B. 0.10%

C. 0.001%

D. 0.0001%

SD-CP-Sc-73

The graph below shows the vapor pressure of two

volatile liquids A and B that form an ideal solution.

Line A represents _________.

A. partial vapor pressure Pa

B. partial vapor pressure Pb

C. total vapor pressure Pt

D. none of the above

End of Science Round

2014 Senior Super Bowl Area Contest

April 22, 2014

SD Science Coaches Practice Answer Key

1. A

2. B

3. C

4. D

5. A

6. C

7. B

8. B

9. B

10. A

11. D

12. D

13. C

14. B

15. A

16. D

17. D

18. A

19. D

20. C

21. A

22. D

23. C

24. B

25. A

26. D

27. D

28. A

29. B

30. C

31. B

32. C

33. D

34. A

35. C

36. A

37. B

38. D

39. C

40. A

41. D

42. A

43. A

44. B

45. A

46. C

47. B

48. D

49. D

50. B

51. D

52. A

53. A

54. D

55. C

56. C

57. A

58. D

59. A

60. D

61. C

62. A

63. B

64. D

65. A

66. A

67. B

68. B

69. B

70. C

71. A

72. A

73. C