IES OBJ Civil Engineering 2008 Paper II

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    1. The type of jump that forms when initialFroude number lies between 2-5 and 4-5 is

    a. Weak jumpb. Steady jumpc. undular jumpd. oscillating jump

    2. During the consolidation of a clay layer, ifinstead of double drainage, the drainage is

    allowed at single face only, the rate of

    compression will be

    a. 4 times slowerb. 4 times fasterc. 2 times slowerd. 2 times faster

    3. For a proposed building, raft foundationisolated footings and combined footings

    are being considered. These foundations

    are to be listed in the decreasing order of

    preference in terms of performance. Which

    one of the following is the correct order of

    listing?

    a. Raft foundation combined footings isolated footings

    b. Isolated footings Raft foundationcombined footings

    c. Combined footings Raft foundation isolation footings

    d. Combined footings isolated footings raft foundation

    4. Consider the following statements:foundation design in expansive soil can be

    done by

    1. Isolating the foundation from theswelling soil

    2. Taking measures to prevent theswelling

    3. Employing measures to make thestructure withstand the moment.

    Which of the above statements are correct?

    a. 1 and 2 onlyb. 2 and 3 onlyc. 1 and 3 only

    d. 1,2 and 35. Which one of the following is carried out

    by two the dilate method?

    a. Circular curve rangingb. Tachometric surveyc. Geodetic surveyd. Astronomical survey

    6. Electronic the odolites of various ranges inwhich measured angels are displayed

    originally on display board area based on

    which one of the following?a. Special optical technology

    b. Introduction of microprocessortechnology

    c. Electro-optical technologyd. Special gearing

    7. If the weight of an angle A (= 40 24 24say) is 2, then the weight of the angle A/3

    (= 1328 08) will be

    a. 4b. 3 c. 9d. 18

    8. Flam steed gave numbers to stats observedby him in each constellation according to

    their

    a. Brillianceb. Altitudesc. Co-declinationsd. Right ascensions

    9. If is the declination of a star and is thelatitude of the place of observation, then

    for a circumpolar star

    a. b. c. (90-2)d. (90-2)

    10. Which one of the following surveysemploys alidade?

    I.E.S (OBJ) 2008

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    a. Contour surveyb. Archeological surveyc. Plane table surveyd. Reconnaissance survey

    11. A particular runway measures 6 cm on avertical photograph, whereas the same

    runway measures 4 cm on a map plotted

    on a scale of 1/24000. The scale of thephotograph at the runway elevation is :

    a. 1/36000b. 1/24000c. 1/36000d. 1/16000

    12. Assertion (A): Rankines earth pressuretheory should not be used for concrete

    retaining walls and coulombs theory

    should not be used for estimating passive

    earth pressures.Reasons (R): Rankine assumed that the

    retaining wall has a vertical beck and

    coulomb assumed that the resultant

    reaction due to earth pressure acts at one-

    third the height of the wall.

    a. Both A and R are individually true andR is the correct explanation of A

    b. Both A and R are individually true butR is the correct expiation of A

    c. A is true but R is falsed. A is false but R is true

    13. Assertion (A): generally driven pilcs areadopted in granular soils and not in clays.

    Reason (R): Vibratory loading helps in

    densification of sands but it has adverse

    effects in clays.

    a. Both A and R are individually true andR is the correct explanation of A

    b. Both A and R are individually true butR is the correct expiation of A

    c. A is true but R is falsed. A is false but R is true

    14. Assertion (A): Under-reamed piles aresuitable for loose filled up sites and black

    cotton soils.

    Reasons (R): Black cotton soil have

    expansive montmorillonite clay minerals.

    a. Both A and R are individually true andR is the correct explanation of A

    b. Both A and R are individually true butR is the correct expiation of A

    c. A is true but R is falsed. A is false but R is true

    15. Assertion (A): foundation on expansivesoils must be designed for as high a

    bearing pressure as possible consistent

    with bearing capacity and settlement

    requirement.

    Reasons (R) : Lightly loaded single andtwo strayed buildings experience

    maximum damage when built on

    expansive soils.

    a. Both A and R are individually true andR is the correct explanation of A

    b. Both A and R are individually true butR is the correct expiation of A

    c. A is true but R is falsed. A is false but R is true

    16. Assertion (A): Triangulation networks areto be formed by well conditioned triangles.

    Reason (R): triangulation signals should

    be conspicuous and centered accurately

    over the stations.

    a. Both A and R are individually true andR is the correct explanation of A

    b. Both A and R are individually true butR is the correct expiation of A

    c. A is true but R is falsed. A is false but R is true

    17. Assertion (A): Road camber helps insurface drainage.Reason (R): In a curved road alignment,

    super elevation serves the purpose of

    camber.

    a. Both A and R are individually true andR is the correct explanation of A

    b. Both A and R are individually true butR is the correct expiation of A

    c. A is true but R is falsed. A is false but R is true

    18. Assertion (A): California bearing ratio testis carried out to evaluate the stability of

    soil sub grade and other flexible pavement

    materials over stressed.

    Reason: It is essential at no time are the

    soil sub grade as well as other flexible

    pavement materials over stressed.

    a. Both A and R are individually true andR is the correct explanation of A

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    b. Both A and R are individually true butR is the correct expiation of A

    c. A is true but R is falsed. A is false but R is true

    19. Assertion (A): wind rose diagrams,showing wind direction duration and

    intensity are an essential requirement for

    planning the best direction of main runwayof the airport.

    Reason (R): corrections for elevation,

    temperature and gradient have to be

    applied to determine the length of the main

    runway of an airport, as per ICAO

    recommendations.

    a. Both A and R are individually true andR is the correct explanation of A

    b. Both A and R are individually true butR is the correct expiation of A

    c. A is true but R is falsed. A is false but R is true

    20. Assertion (A): runway capacity will bemore in airport operating under VFR than

    IFR.

    Reason (R): VFR gives more clear visual

    reference of airport during good weather

    conditions.

    a. Both A and R are individually true andR is the correct explanation of A

    b. Both A and R are individually true butR is the correct expiation of A

    c. A is true but R is falsed. A is false but R is true

    21. Which of the following statements is/arecorrect?

    Lining of irrigation canals has necessarily

    to be carried out in the reaches where the

    channel passes through

    1. Sandy soil2. Coarse aggregate soil3. Clay soil4. Fine silt and claySelect the correct answer using the code

    given below:

    a. 1 and 3b. 3 onlyc. 1 and 2d. 3 and 4

    22. A 4 hr storm had 4 cm of rainfall and theresulting direct runoff was 20 cm. if the -

    index remains at the same value,

    the runoff due to 10 cm of rainfall in 8 hrs

    in the catchment is:

    a. 6.0 cmb. 7.5 cmc. 2.3 cmd. 2.8 cm

    23. While using darcy-weisbach equation forestimating head loss in a pipe flow the

    friction factor was misjudged by +20%.

    For this case, the error in estimating

    discharge is:

    a. + 10%b. + 40%c. 40%d. 10%

    24. Consider the following statements:Due to aging of pipes in a pipe network1. The roughness increases linearly with

    time.

    2. The pipes get rusted and bent.3. The pipes become smoother with time.Which of the statements given above is/are

    correct?

    a. 1 and 3b. 2 and 3c. 3 onlyd. 1 only

    25. The shape number in the case of pumpsrefers to which one of the following?

    a. Ratio of sizes of suction pipe anddelivery pipe

    b. Ratio of diameter and thickness ofimpeller

    c. Non dimensional form of specificspeed

    d. Ratio of blade angle at the inlet to theblade angle at the exit

    26. Consider the following statements:1. Hydraulically most efficient channel

    section for an open channel flow will

    carry maximum discharge for a given

    area of cross section.

    2. For a given cross sectional areahydraulic radius maximum when the

    wetted perimeter is minimum.

    Which of the statements given above is/are

    correct?

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    a. 1 onlyb. 2 onlyc. Both 1 and 2d. Neither 1 nor 2

    27. Consider the following statements:1. Fluids of low viscosity are all

    irrigational.

    2. Rotation of the fluid is alwaysassociated with shear stress.

    Which of the statements given above

    is/are correct?

    a. 1 onlyb. 2 onlyc. Both 1 and 2d. Neither 1 nor 2

    28. Match list-I with list-II and select thecorrect answer using the code given below

    the lists:

    List I

    (component)

    A. TaxiwaysB. Control towerC. HangerD. ApronList II

    (Design Feature)

    1. Large span structure2. Visibility all round and sound-proof3. Turning radius4. Waiting capacity for aircraftCode:

    A B C D

    a. 1 4 3 2b. 3 2 1 4c. 1 2 3 4d. 3 4 1 2

    29. The size of hangar in an airport is guidedby which of the following?a. Speed and direction of wind and

    visibility

    b. Weight of aircraft and turning needsc. The fuelling capacity and storage spaced. The length, wingspan and height of

    aircraft

    30. The orientation of runway is decided bywhich factors?

    1. Maximum wind coverage andleast cross winds

    2. Landing characteristics of aircrafts3. Scope for future expansion4. Obstruction-free approachesSelect the correct answer using the code

    given below:

    a. 1 and 2 onlyb. 1,2 and 3c. 1,2 and 4d. 2,3 and 4

    31. Mean sea level at Indian ports andharbours has generally been established

    based on the analysis of tidal sea water

    level fluctuations over which period?

    a. 10 yearsb. 16 yearsc. 19 yearsd. 25 years

    32. Match list-I with List-II and select thecorrect answer using the code given below

    the lists:

    List I

    (Component)

    A. Keel and Bilge blocksB. Capstons and BolardsC. FendersD. ApronList II

    (Function)

    1. Impact absorbers of quay walls2. Floating indicators3. Supports for ships in dry docks4. Anchorage devices for shipsCode:

    A B C D

    a. 3 4 1 2b. 4 3 1 2c. 4 3 2 1d. 3 4 2 1

    33. Echo-sounding machine is used for whichof the following?

    1. Locating objects on sea shore2. Measuring sea-surface levels3. Determining depth of sea-bed below

    sea surface

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    4. Location sunken objects below seasurface

    Select the correct answer using the code

    given below:

    a. 1 and 3 onlyb. 1,2 and 3c. 2 and 4d. 3 and 4

    34. Which of the following pairs are correctlymatched?

    1. Vishakhapatnam Plymouth : Semi-natural harbor

    2. Para dip and Mangalore: Lagoonharbor

    3. New York : Natural harborSelect the correct answer using the code

    given below

    a. 1 and 2 onlyb. 2 and 3 onlyc. 1 and 3 onlyd. 1, 2 and 3

    35. Consider the following statements:1. Piles are provided in groups, which are

    connected together by a pile cap. The

    structure rests on top of the pile cap.

    The pile cap is situated below the

    ground level.

    2. For situations where pile is subjectedto upward pull, pedestal piles or under-

    reamed piles are more suitable type of

    foundations.

    Which of the statements given above is/are

    correct?

    a. 1 onlyb. 2 onlyc. Both 1 and 2d. Neither 1 nor 2

    36. In comparison to Atterberg limits ofnormal soil, the expansive soils havewhich of the following?

    1. More liquid limit2. Less plastic limit3. Less shrinkage limit4. More volumetric shrinkageSelect the correct answer using the code

    given below:

    a. 1, 2, 3 and 4b. 1,3 and 4 only

    c. 2 and 3 onlyd. 1, 2 and 4 only

    37. Consider the following statements:On addition of lime to swelling soils,

    1. Their liquid limit increases2. Their plastic limit increases3.

    Their shrinkage limit increases

    4. Their swelling potential decreasesWhich of the statements given above are

    correct?

    a. 1 and 3 onlyb. 1, 2 and 4 onlyc. 2, 3 and 4 onlyd. 1, 2, 3 and 4

    38. Consider the following statements aboutthe under-reamed pile in swelling soils:

    1.

    Its bulb provides anchor againstmovement due to volume changes of

    soil.

    2. It is a driven pile.3. Its bulb diameter is 2-5 times its shaft

    diameter.

    Which of the statements given above are

    correct?

    a. 1, 2 and 3b. 1 and 2 onlyc. 2 and 3 onlyd. 1 and 3 only

    39. A scale of 1 inch = 50 ft. is mentioned onan old map. What is the corresponding

    equivalent scale?

    a. 1 cm = 5 mb. 1cm = 6 mc. 1cm = 10 md. 1 cm = 12 m

    40. The whole circle bearings of lines AB andBC are 30 15 and 120 30. What is the

    included angle ABC between the lines ABand BC?

    a. 229 45b. 89 45c. 269 45d. 90 15

    41. What is ABC if FB of line AB is 40 andBB of line BC is 280?

    a. 90b. 120

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    c. 240d. 320

    42. Which one of the following statements isnot correct?

    a. Change point is a point denotingshifting of level

    b. For leveling work both centering andleveling of a dumpy level are

    prerequisite

    c. Bench mark is a point whose R.L. isalways known

    d. None of the above43. Consider the following statements about

    the characteristics of contours:

    1. Closed contour lines with highervalues inside show a lake.

    2. Contour is an imaginary line joiningpoints of equal elevations.

    3. Closely spaced contours indicate steepslop.

    4. Contour lines can cross each other incase an overhanging cliff.

    Which of the statements given above are

    correct?

    a. 2, 3 and 4b. 1 and 2 onlyc. 1 and 4d. 1,2 and 3

    44. Which of the following can be used as amap substitute?

    a. Terrestrial photographsb. Vertical aerial photographsc. Oblique aerial photographsd. Vertical aerial photo-mosaics

    45. Match ListI with ListII and select thecorrect answer using the code given below

    the list

    List I

    A. Visual interpretationB. Geographical information systemC.National remote sensing agencyD. Supervised image classificationList II

    1. Creation of data bank of multiinformation for a project area

    2. Visual identification of objects fromimage characteristics

    3. Computer classification ofdigital image data

    4. Supplier of aerial and satellite basedremote sensing data products in India

    Code:

    A B C D

    a. 2 1 3 4b. 2 1 4 3c. 1 3 2 4d. 1 4 2 3

    46. Which one of the following is not strictly amethod of remote sensing?

    a. Thermal and multi spectral scanningb. Microwave sensingc. Earth resource satellited. Stereoscopy

    47. Consider the following bituminoussurfacing:

    1. SDBM2. PMC3. A.C.4. S.D.5. Mastic asphalt (M.A.)Which one of the following is the correct

    sequence in increasing order with respect

    to their performance and wearing

    qualities?

    a. 4, 1, 2, 3, 5b. 2, 4, 1, 5, 3c. 4, 2, 1, 3, 5d. 1, 4, 3, 2, 5

    48. Consider the following statements withreference to water bound macadam

    (WBM) and wet mix macadam (WMM):

    1. WBM is a road mix and WMM is aplant mix.

    2. WBM usually has plastic filler, whileWBM has non-plastic filler.

    3. WBM is a modern road mix andWMM is a traditional road mix.

    Which of the statements given above is/are

    correct?

    a. 1 and 2b. 2 and 3c. 1 onlyd. 2 only

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    49. A line load of infinite length has anintensity q per unit length. What is the

    vertical stress zat a depth z below the

    earth at the centre of the load?

    a. 2z qzsp

    =

    b. 2

    z

    q

    zs

    p

    =

    c. 22z

    qzs

    p

    =

    d.2

    2z

    q

    zs

    p

    =

    50. IRC code No. 37-1985 deals with whichone of the following?

    a. Design of rigid pavements, takingESWL and CBR into account

    b. Design of rigid pavements, taking axleload and CBR into account

    c. Design of flexible pavement, takingESWL and CBR into account

    d. Design of flexible pavement takingcumulative axle loads and CBR intoaccount.

    51. Match list- I with list-II and select thecorrect answer using the code given belowthe lists:

    List I

    A.

    Traffic volumeB. Traffic densityC. Traffic RegulationsD. Rotary IntersectionList II

    1. Number of vehicles occupying a unitlength of road at a given instant oftime.

    2. Number of vehicles passing a givenpoint on road in a given unit of time ina given direction

    3. Where all converging vehicles areforced to move in one direction arounda large central traffic island

    4. Rules covering all aspects of control ofvehicles, drivers and all other roadusers

    Code:

    A B C D

    a. 2 4 1 3b. 3 1 4 2

    c. 2 1 4 3d. 3 4 1 2

    52. Which of the following factors are notstrictly related to design of traffic rotaryintersections?

    1. Radius of central island2. Weaving length3. Ramps and interchanges4. Acceleration lanesSelect the correct answer using the codegiven below:

    a. 1 and 2b. 1 and 4c. 2 and 3d. 3 and 4

    53. A pressure gauge reads 57.4k pa and 80kpa respectively at heights of 8m and 5m

    fitted on the side of a tank filled withliquid. What is the approximate density ofthe liquid in kg/m

    3?

    a. 393b. 768c. 1179d. 7530

    54. What is the momentum thickness for theboundary layer with velocity distribution

    ?u y

    U

    a. /6b. /2c. 3 /2d. 2

    55. In model similarity, if gravitational andinertial forces are the only importantforces, then what is the discharge ratio?

    a. L r3/2b. L r1/2c. L r5/2d. L r1/3Where L r

    =ratio of length dimension.

    56. When discussing most efficient section offlow into open channels, what is theperimeter P as a proportion of depth offlow h (ie., P/h) fir (i) a triangular section,and (ii) a trapezoidal section, respectively?

    a. 2.25, 2.83b. 2.25, 3.15

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    8 of 15c. 2.83, 3.15d. 2.83, 3.46

    57. What is the energy loss through a length ofpipe form which all the discharge is takenout unifo5rmly along its length, withrespect to the case when all the dischargeis delivered to the end?

    a. 2/3b. 1/3c. 3/2d. 1/2

    58. Match List I with List II and select thecorrect answer using the code given belowthe lists:

    List I

    (Principle)

    A. Hele Shaw flowB. Strokes lawC. Hagen-Poiseuille flowD. Pascals lawList II

    (Effect)

    1. Surface of equal pressure2. Settling of fine particles3. Laminar flow between parallel plates4. Laminar flow in tubesCode:

    A B C D

    a. 2 3 4 1b. 3 2 4 1c. 2 3 1 4d. 3 2 1 4

    59. A fast centrifugal pump impeller haswhich of the following?

    a. Forward facing bladesb. Radial bladesc. Backward facing bladesd. Propeller type blades

    60. Consider the following statements:An air vessel is fitted on the suction side ofa reciprocating pump to

    1. Achieve higher speed withoutseparation

    2. Reduce work in overcoming frictionalresistance

    3. Avoid excessive vibration

    4. Have uniform dischargeWhich of the statements given above arecorrect?

    a. 1, 2 and 4b. 1 and 2 onlyc. 3 and 4 onlyd. 2, 3 and 4

    61. Water is supplied form a height of 2.8 m atthe rate of 35 lps to a hydraulic ram whichdelivers 2 lps to a height of 28 m above theram. What is the Rankines efficiency?

    a. 58%b. 55%c. 52%d. 44%

    62. Match List-I with List-II and select thecorrect answer using the code given below

    the lists:List I

    (Type of Power House)

    A. Tidal PlantB. Storage PlantC. Pumped Stored PlantD. Run-of-river PlantList II

    (Feature)

    1. Utilizes reversible turbines andimproves utilization factor

    2. Utilizes current flow in stream, andhas pond age to improve load factor

    3. Utilizes current flow in stream, and haspond age to improve load factor

    4. Utilizes annually average flow withstorage

    Code

    A B C D

    a. 3 4 1 2b. 3 2 1 4c. 1 2 3 4d. 1 4 3 2

    63. Kilpich equation is used to determinewhich one of the following?

    a. Run-off form a given rainfallb. Base time of a unit hydrographc. Time of concentration in run-off

    hydrograph

    d. None of the above

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    9 of 1564. Form the analysis of rainfall data at a

    particular station, it was found that arainfall of 400 mm had a return period of20 years.

    a. (0.95)10b. 1-(0.95)10c. 1-(0.05)10d. (0.05)10

    65. Inconsistency of rainfall data can bechecked by which one of the following?

    a. Normal ratio methodb. Mass curve methodc. Double-mass curve methodd. Depth duration frequency curve

    66. What is the chemical symbol for ice as perUNESCO terminology?

    a. H8 O4b. H2 Oc. H6 O3d. H4 O2

    67. What is the depth of water seal in thetraps?

    a. < 2.5 cmb. 2.5 7.5 cmc. 7.5 12.5 cmd. Not less than 15 cm

    68. Bangalore and Indore process ofcomposting are which of the following?

    a. Both anaerobic processesb. Both aerobic processesc. Anaerobic process and aerobic process,

    respectively

    d. Aerobic process and anaerobic process,respectively

    69. A solid waste sample has been segregatedand one of the components has beensubjected to elemental analysis. The resultof analysis in percent by mass revealed C(40%), H (6.0%), O (44%), N (0.3%).What is the likely waste component?

    a. Food wasteb. Paper and cardboard wastec. Plastic wasted. Leather waste

    70. Pneumoconiosis is caused due toinhalation of which one of the following?

    a. Silica

    b. NOxc. Leadd. Cadmium

    71. Which one of the following conditions ofautomobile gives maximum unburnedhydrocarbons?

    a. Idlingb. Cruisec. Accelerationd. Deceleration

    72. Electrostatic precipitator is most useful forwhich one of the following industries?

    a. Tanneryb. Hydroelectric power generationc. Thermal power generationd. Textile factory

    73. What will be the resultant decibel levelwhen two sources make noise of equaldecibels?

    a. Decibel level will be the sameb. Decibel level will increase by 3

    decibels

    c. Decibel level will decrease by 3decibel

    d. Decibels of the two sources74. Match List I with List-II and select the

    correct answer using the cod3e given

    below the lists:List I

    (Air pollutant)

    A. COB. CO2C. SO2D.NOxList II

    (Effect)

    1. Acid rain2. Acute toxicity3. Ozone liberation4. Greenhouse effectCode

    A B C D

    a. 4 3 1 2b. 4 3 2 1c. 2 4 1 3d. 3 4 1 2

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    10 of 1575. Biological magnification of pesticides

    takes place through which of thefollowing?

    a. Population pyramidsb. Hydrologic cyclec. Food chainsd. Air cycle

    76. Match ListI with ListII and select thecorrect answer using the code given belowthe lists:

    List I

    (Soil Classification Symbol)

    A. GWB. SWC. MLD. CLList II

    (Soil Property)

    1. Soil having uniformity coefficient > 62. Soil having uniformity coefficient > 43. Soil having law plasticity4. Soil having low compressibilityCode:

    A B C D

    a. 1 2 4 3b. 2 1 3 4c.

    2 1 4 3

    d. 1 2 3 477. Match ListI with List-II and select the

    correct answer using the code given belowthe lists:

    List-I

    (Soil)

    A. Fine sandB. SiltC. PeatList II(Type)

    1. Expansive oil2. Coarse grained soil3. Fine grained soil4. Organic soilCode:

    A B C

    a. 3 2 1b. 4 3 1

    c. 3 1 2d. 2 3 4

    78. Match ListI with List-II and select thecorrect answer using the code given belowthe lists:

    List-I

    (Symbol)

    A. MLB. SMC. PtD. MHList II

    (Soil)

    1. Silty sand2. Inorganic silt with large

    compressibility

    3. Inorganic silt with smallcompressibility

    4. Soil with high organic content withhigh compressibility

    Code:

    A B C D

    a. 3 2 4 1b. 4 1 3 2c. 3 1 4 2d. 4 2 3 1

    79. Maximum possible discharge form a smallcatchment corresponding to a particularrainfall intensity is independent of whichone of the following?

    a. Soil moisture conditionsb. Drainage characteristics of catchmentc. Area of the catchmentd. Duration of the rainstorm

    80. The permissible tractive force in anerodible channel depends upon which ofthe following?

    1. Angle of repose of the material2. Particle size3. Sediment content of water4. Wetted perimeter of channelSelect the correct answer using the codegiven below:

    a. 1, 2 and 4b. 1, 2 and 3c. 1 and 3 onlyd. 2 and 4 only

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    11 of 1581. Which one of the following is correct?

    Semi-module outlets are those outlets inwhich

    a. Discharge gets affected by the changein water level of field channel

    b. Discharge gets affected by the changein water level of the distributing

    channel but not with the change inwater level of field channel

    c. Discharge is independent of waterlevels in the distributing channel andthe field channel

    d. None of the above82. For calculating the maximum flood

    discharge in an alluvial stream, which isthe best suited relation?

    a. v R2/3 S1/3b. v R2/3 S1/2c. v R1/2 S1/2d. v D 0.64

    83. For water supply to a medium town, whatis the dailv variation factor?

    a. 1.5b. 2.5c. 3d. 3.5

    84. Which one of the following factors has themaximum effect on figure of per capitademand of water supply of a given town?

    a. Method of charging of theconsumption

    b. Quality of waterc. System of supply-intermittent or

    continuous

    d. Industrial demand85. Match List I with List-II and select the

    correct answer using the code given belowthe lists:

    List I(Predominance of Compounds)

    A. MonochloramineB. DicholoramineC.Nitrogen tricholorideList II

    (pH range)

    1. Below pH 4.42. Over pH 7.5

    3. Between pH 5 to 6.5Code:

    A B C

    a. 1 2 3b. 2 3 1c. 3 1 2d.

    3 2 1

    86. Which of the following are the advantagesof cast-iron pipe for its use in watersupply?

    1. Resistant to corrosion to a reasonableextent

    2. Very easy to join the pipes3. Easy to transport4. Longer lifeSelect the correct answer using the codegiven below:

    a. 1, 3 and 4b. 1, 2 and 3c. 1 and 4 onlyd. 2, 3 and 4

    87. Which one of the following valves isseldom used in water distribution systemsbecause of high head loss characteristics?

    a. Butterflyb. Globec. Plugd. Sluice

    88. Son scope is used for which one of thefollowing?

    a. Checking the accuracy of water metersb. Regulating the fire hydrantsc. As a replacement of venturimeter for

    discharge measurement

    d. Detection of leakage in undergroundwater mains

    89. In the design consideration of seweragesystem, the sewers must have which one ofthe following?

    a. Maximum velocity of flowb. Only 50 percent of maximum velocity

    of flow

    c. Minimum velocity of not less thancleansing velocity of flow

    d. High pressure at all times

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    12 of 1590. Which one of the following is considered

    as the thermophilic range of sludgedigestion?

    a. 60 C to 70Cb. 50C to 57Cc. 29 C to 40Cd. 20C to 30C

    91. Consider the following statements:In context of sludge volume index (SVI).

    1. The SVI is expressed as the volume (incu. Cm) of the activated sludge for onegram of dry weight of the sludge.

    2. A higher value of SVI indicates a lightand fluffy sludge which is not easilysettle able.

    Which of the statements given above is/arecorrect?

    a. 1 onlyb. 2 onlyc. Both 1 and 2d. Neither 1 nor 2

    92. Which one of the following can fixatmospheric nitrogen?

    a. Green algaeb. Blue green algaec. Red algaed. Brown algae

    93. An industry has a sewage treatment plantwhich produces sludge with a moisturecontent of 98%. With the solid contentremaining the same, the sludge isthickened so that the moisture content nowis 96%. If the original quantity of sludge isP, what is the quantity of the quantity ofthe thickened sludge?

    a. 0.98 Pb. 3 P/4c. 2 P/3d. P/2

    94. a well operating activated sludge processunit, what is the value of sludge volumeindex?

    a. < 50b. 100-150c. 200-300d. >300

    95. What does the presence of excess nitratesin river water indicate?

    a. Recent pollution of water withsewage

    b. Past pollution of water with sewagec. Intermittent pollution of water with

    sewage

    d. No pollution of water with sewage96. What is the minimum turning radius for a

    passenger ship?

    a. 2 ship lengthb. 3 ship lengthc. (1.5 ship length) + water depthd. (2 ship length) + (1.5 draft)

    97. Match List I with List-II and select thecorrect answer using the code given belowthe lists:

    List I

    (Harbour Structure)

    A. DolphinsB. GroynesC. FendersD. SlipwaysList II

    (Purpose)

    1. To protect the beach or retained earth2. To cushion to absorb shock of shine

    during loading the unloading

    3. Mooring structure in combination withloading platform

    4. Repairing and building shipCode:

    A B C D

    a. 2 4 3 1b. 3 1 2 4c. 2 1 3 4d. 3 4 2 1

    98. Which of the following are related tomaintenance of railway track?

    1. Jim crow and gauge bar2. Through packing and boxing3. Buffer stop and sand hump4. Creep adjustmentSelect the correct answer using the codegiven below:

    a. 1, 2 and 3b. 1, 3 and 4c. 1, 2 and 4

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    13 of 15d. 2, 3 and 4

    99. The vertical water on tongue rail shouldnot exceed which one of the following?

    a. 6 mmb. 10 mmc. 12 mmd. 15 mm

    100. What is the hauling capacity of a railwaylocomotive having 4 pairs of drivingwheels, carrying an axle load of 24 tonneseach? (Assume 0.166 as the coefficient offriction)

    a. 16.5 tonnesb. 16.0 tonnesc. 15.5 tonnesd. 17.0 tonnes

    101. Which of the following factors help inensuring track modulus, in a railway track?a. Gauge and formation widthb. Track materials and sleeper densityc. Degree of curvature and super

    elevation

    d. Length of rail and flange width102. The track modulus is an index of

    measure of which of the following?

    a. Resistance due to frictionb. Resistance due to shearc. Resistance due to deformationd. Resistance due to rolling

    103. How can additional access, quick removalof muck and natural ventilation in longtunnels be achieved?

    a. By providing jumbos and pumpsb. By providing scaffolding and liner

    plates

    c. By providing adits and shaftsd. By providing pilot tunnels and well

    points

    104. Weishbach triangle method may be usedfor which one of the following?

    a. To carry out surface alignment of atunnel

    b. To transfer levels underground tunnelsurveys

    c. To connect two ends of anunderground tunnel surveys

    d. To connect two ends of anunderground tunnel

    105. Which one of the followingmethods of tunneling is employed if thestrata is sub-aqueous?

    a. Shield tunnelingb. Drift systemc. Liner plate methodd. Pilot tunnel method

    106. In modal choice studies which one of thefollowing factors influences the shape ofdiversion curves?

    a. Trip purposeb. Trip lengthc. Incomed. Residential density

    107. In urban transportation planning, themodal split is the process of which one ofthe following?

    a. Staggering of working hoursb. Segregation of fast and slow modesc. Separation of traffic streams by

    flyovers

    d. Deciding the choice for a mode108. Which one of the following is correct?

    In laboratory compaction tests, theoptimum moisture content of soildecreases

    a. With increase of compaction energyand with decrease of coarse grains inthe soil

    b. With decrease of compaction energyand with increase of coarse grains inthe soil

    c. With increase of both compactionenergy and coarse grains in the soil

    d. With decrease of both compactionenergy and coarse grains in the soil

    109. Consider the following statements:1.

    Coefficient of consolidation normallyincreases with decreasing liquid limitof clay.

    2. The larger the value of coefficient ofconsolidation, the longer it takes forfull consolidation to occur.

    Which of the statements given above is/arecorrect?

    a. 1 onlyb. 2 only

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    14 of 15c. Both 1 and 2d. Neither 1 nor 2

    110. Consider the following statements:1. Pore pressure parameter a is a constant

    for a soil.

    2. The shear strength of soil is a functionof the effective stress in the soil andnot of the total stress in the soil.

    Which of the statements given above is/arecorrect?

    a. 1 onlyb. 2 onlyc. Both 1 and 2d. Neither 1 nor 2

    111. Match List-I with list-II and select thecorrect answer using the code given belowthe lists:

    List I

    (Equipment)

    A. HydrometerB. Plate load test set upC. PycnometerD. Direct shear apparatusList II

    (Use)

    1. Determination of shear parameter2. Determination of bearing capacity ofspecific gravity3. Determination of bearing capacity of

    soils

    4. Grain size distribution tests for claysCode:

    A B C D

    a. 2 1 4 3b. 4 3 2 1c. 2 3 4 1d. 4 1 2 3

    112. A vertical cut is to be made in saturatedclay with C=15 kN/m

    2, = and Y= 20

    kN/m3. What is the theoretical depth to

    which the clay can be excavated withoutside collapse?

    a. 6 mb. 2 mc. 2.5 md. 3 m

    113. In seismic exploration method,velocities V1 and V2 were 600 m/s and4000 m/s the distance corresponding to thebreak point of velocities was 30 m. basedon this detail, what is the depth ofoverburden?

    a. 11.5 mb. 12.5 mc. 12.9 md. 13.2 m

    114. Consider the following statements inrespect of static cone penetration test:

    1. The cone used has an apex angle of60 and base area of 10 cm

    2.

    2. This test gives a continuous record ofcone resistance.

    Which of the statements given above is/are

    correct?a. 1 onlyb. 2 onlyc. Both 1 and 2d. Neither 1 nor 2

    115. Match List I with List-II and select thecorrect answer using the code given belowthe lists:

    List-I

    (Foundation)

    A. Under-reamed pilesB. Floating raftsC. Combined footingD. Strap footingList II

    (Demanding Situation)

    1. To restrict settlement of soft clays/silts2. To transfer the moment in between two

    adjacent footings

    3. To restrict damages due to volumechanges of swelling soils

    4. When columns are very close to theproperty line

    Code:

    A B C D

    a. 3 2 4 1b. 4 1 3 2c. 4 2 3 1d. 3 1 4 2

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    15 of 15116. A differential free swell test on a soil gives

    a value of differential free swell of 40%what is the degree of swelling?

    a. Lowb. Mediumc. Highd. Very high

    117. Which factors influence the bearingcapacity of a purely cohesion less soil?

    1. Relative density of soil2. Width and depth of footing3. Unit weight of soilSelect the correct answer using the codegiven below:

    a. 1 and 2 onlyb. 2 and 3 onlyc.

    1 and 3 only

    d. 1,2 and 3118. Match list I with list-II and select the

    correct answer using the code given belowthe lists:

    List II

    (Field Test)

    A. Plate load testB. Standard penetration testC. Vane shear testD. Dilatancy testList II

    (Suitability)

    1. To estimate bearing capacity ofgranular soil

    2. To estimate in situ strength of soft clay3. To identify silt from clay4. To estimate bearing capacity for

    permissible settlement, in clays

    Code:

    A B C D

    a. 4 3 2 1b. 2 1 4 3c. 4 1 2 3d. 2 3 4 1

    119. Match list-I with list-II and select thecorrect answer using the code given belowthe lists:

    List I

    (Test)

    A. Field Density testB. Plate load testC. C.B.R testList II

    (Utility)

    1. Stress deformation characteristics2. Compaction characteristics3. Design of pavement4. Safe load bearing capacity of soilCode:

    A B C

    a. 2 4 1b. 4 2 1c. 4 2 3d. 2 4 3

    120. Match listI with list-II and select thecorrect answer using the code given belowthe lists:

    List-I

    (Method)

    A. Static formulaeB. Dynamic formulaeC. Static pile load testD. Cyclic pile load testList-II(Suitability)

    1. To estimate allowable load forpermissible settlement for a pile

    2. To separate point bearing and frictionbearing capacities of a pile

    3. To estimate allowable load for drivenpiles in granular soils

    4. To estimate allowable load for boardpiles in clays

    Code:

    A B C D

    a. 4 2 1 3b. 1 3 4 2c. 4 3 1 2d. 1 2 4 3

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