ICP Final Review

Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. A substance that tastes sour and turns blue litmus paper red is a(n)

a. acid. b. base. c. indicator. d. solvent.

____ 2. If a solution has a pH of 2, the solution is considered to be a. acidic. b. basic. c. neutral. d. saturated.

____ 3. What does a neutralization reaction produce? a. Acids b. Bases c. Water and a salt d. Salt and a sugar

____ 4. Oven cleaner is a strong base. Its pH must be a. less than 2 b. between 2 and 5 c. between 7 and 10 d. greater than 10

____ 5. When the pH of a solution is high, the concentration of a. hydrogen ions is high. b. hydrogen ions is low. c. hydronium ions is high. d. hydroxide ions is low.

____ 6. What is a characteristic property of bases? a. They turn blue litmus paper red. b. They turn red litmus paper blue. c. They turn phenolphthalein blue. d. They turn phenolphthalein green.

____ 7. In water acids break apart to form ___ a. hydroxide ions. b. oxide ions. c. hydrogen ions. d. hydronium ions.

____ 8. The pH scale measures a. the strength of an acid. b. the strength of hydrogen ions. c. the concentration of an acid. d. the concentration of hydrogen ions.

____ 9. You can measure the pH of a solution by using a. a calorimeter. b. a conductivity tester. c. an indicator. d. a thermometer.

____ 10. A chemist is measuring the pH levels of several different substances. The table below lists some common substances and their average pH values.

pH Readings Substance pH

Battery acid 1.5 Lemon juice 2.5

Apple 3.0 Milk 6.7

Seawater 8.5 Ammonia 12.0

The chemist measures a pH of 3.1 for an unknown substance. Using the table above, this unknown substance should be identified as

A. B. C.

a. apple. b. milk. c. seawater. d. ammonia.

____ 11. A piece of zinc was placed into a colorless solution. Bubbles were observed and the test tube got hot. Which of the following formulas represents the formula of an acid that would cause this reaction? a. Na2SO4 b. H2SO4 c. Na2CO3 d. K3PO4

____ 12. A chemist is measuring the pH levels of several different substances. The table below lists some common substances and their average pH values.

pH Readings Substance pH

Battery acid 1.5 Lemon juice 2.5

Apple 3.0 Milk 6.7

Seawater 8.5 Ammonia 12.0

Which substances listed in the table has a pH value that is closest to being neutral?

a. Apple b. Seawater c. Milk d. Ammonia

____ 13. All elements are composed of extremely small particles called a. molecules. b. mixtures. c. compounds. d. atoms.

____ 14. Mendeleev created the first periodic table by arranging elements in order of a. decreasing atomic mass. b. increasing atomic mass. c. decreasing atomic number. d. increasing melting points and densities.

____ 15. Elements in the same family or column of the periodic table have a. similar properties. b. different properties. c. the same atomic number. d. the same atomic mass.

____ 16. Which subatomic particle has the smallest mass? a. Electron b. Neutron c. Nucleus d. Proton

____ 17. Which elements have one valence electron in their outer shell? a. Alkali metals b. Alkaline earth metals c. Halogens d. Noble gases

____ 18. Where are metals located in the periodic table? a. To the left of the zigzag line b. To the right of the zigzag line c. On either side of the zigzag line d. In group 18

____ 19. Where in an atom are the valence electrons located? a. Throughout the entire atom b. Inside the nucleus c. Closest to the nucleus d. Farthest from the nucleus

____ 20. The elements in a column of the periodic table a. are in the same family. b. are in the same period. c. have the same atomic mass. d. have very similar chemical symbols.

____ 21. The atomic number of an element is based on the

a. mass of its nucleus. b. number of electrons around its core. c. number of protons in its nucleus. d. number of neutrons in its nucleus.

____ 22. Which of the following would be classified as a metalloid? a. Sulfur, which is brittle and yellow b. Tin, which is malleable and shiny c. Silicon, which conducts electricity and is brittle d. Magnesium, which conducts electricity and is malleable

____ 23. Which family of elements does not usually bond to form compounds? a. Noble gases b. Nitrogen family c. Alkali metals d. Halogens

____ 24. Identify which element is a halogen. a. Argon b. Silver c. Oxygen d. Chlorine

____ 25. Use the chart to answer the question.

Atoms of Some Common Elements

Substance Atomic Number

Mass Number

Protons Neutrons Electrons

Sodium 11 ? ? 12 ?

Magnesium 12 24 ? ? ?

Aluminum ? 27 13 ? ?

Phosphorus ? ? ? 16 15

According to the chart, how many neutrons are in an atom of magnesium? a. 2 b. 12 c. 24 d. 36

____ 26. Use the diagram to answer the question.

Which group of elements has atoms with six valence electrons? a. Group 2 b. Group 6 c. Group 12 d. Group 16

____ 27.

USE THE DIAGRAMS BELOW TO ANSWER THE QUESTION

Which of the atomic models above most closely represents an atom of oxygen? a. A b. B c. C d. D

____ 28. Which atomic particle is found in the nucleus, has 1 amu and a neutral charge? a. Proton b. Neutron c. Electron d. Quark

____ 29. Fluorine’s atomic number is 9 and it has a mass number of 19. How many protons, electrons and neutrons are in one atom of Fluorine? a. 19 protons, 19 electrons and 9 neutrons b. 9 protons, 9 electrons and 19 neutrons c. 9 protons, 10 electrons and 9 neutrons d. 9 protons, 9 electrons and 10 neutrons

____ 30. Which of the following descriptions best fits a neutron? a. negative charge, found in nucleus b. negative charge, found outside nucleus c. neutral charge, found in nucleus d. neutral charge, found outside nucleus

____ 31.

The atomic number of neon is 10. Its mass number is 20. Which of the models above correctly represents a neutral atom of Neon? a. A b. B c. C d. D

____ 32. Which of the following scientists started atomic theory by coining the term “atomos”? a. Democritus b. Dalton c. Thomson d. Bohr

____ 33. Who developed an atomic model where the atom contains negative particles scattered inside a positively charged sphere? a. Democritus b. Dalton c. Thomson d. Bohr

____ 34. What did the gold-foil experiment tell us about the structure of atoms? a. Every atom contains a small, positively charged nucleus. b. Most of the atom is solid continuous matter. c. Atoms are positively charged matter with negative particles. d. Electrons orbit the nucleus in circular orbits.

____ 35.

The total number of protons and neutrons in one atom of Argon is __. a. 18

b. 22 c. 40 d. 58

____ 36. How many neutrons are in one atom of Phosphorus?

a. 15 b. 16 c. 31 d. 36

____ 37. What is the atomic number of argon?

a. 18 b. 22 c. 40 d. 58

Bohr Model Lewis Dot Structure

____ 38. Use the Bohr Model to determine the net charge on an atom of Nitrogen.

a. Cannot tell from diagram b. Negative c. Positive d. Neutral

____ 39. Use the Bohr Model to determine what subatomic particles are located outside the nucleus of an atom? a. Protons and Neutrons b. Protons and Electrons c. Protons only d. Electrons only

____ 40. What subatomic particles are “missing” in the Lewis Dot Structure? a. Protons and Neutrons b. Protons only c. Neutrons only d. Valence Electrons

____ 41. Neon Fluorine Oxygen Noble gases are the most stable elements because they have full valence shells of electrons. Which atom represented above is a Noble gas? a. Neon b. Fluorine c. Oxygen d. None of them are Noble gases

____ 42. Where on the periodic table would you expect to find an element that is a dull, black, brittle solid that does not react with acid and is an insulator of heat and electricity? a. Upper right b. Upper left c. Lower right d. Lower left

____ 43. An element that is yellow, brittle, does not react with acid and is an insulator would fit best into what classification? a. Metal b. Nonmetal c. Metalloid d. Isotope

____ 44. Locate Hydrogen, Lithium, Sodium and Potassium on the periodic table. Which one has the lowest atomic mass? a. Hydrogen b. Lithium c. Sodium d. Potassium

____ 45. Locate Boron, Carbon, Nitrogen and Oxygen on the periodic table. Which one has an oxidation number of 2–? a. Boron b. Carbon c. Nitrogen d. Oxygen

____ 46. Which group on the periodic table has 2+ as the most common oxidation number? a. Alkali metals b. Alkaline Earth metals

c. Oxygen group d. Noble gases

____ 47. Freezing, boiling and evaporation are examples of a ______ change. a. chemical b. synthesis c. physical d. decomposition

____ 48. One example of changing a substance physically is a. blending a milkshake. b. baking cookies. c. burning wood. d. frying an egg.

____ 49. Substances that cannot be broken down chemically into other substances are a. solutions. b. compounds. c. mixtures. d. elements.

____ 50. Which of the following is an example of a chemical property? a. Solubility b. Density c. Malleability d. Flammability

____ 51. How would you describe the process of silver tarnishing? a. Chemical change b. Chemical property c. Physical change d. Physical property

____ 52. Which type of matter consists of two or more substances that are physically combined? a. elements b. compounds c. mixtures d. ions

____ 53.

A B C D Each sphere in the diagrams above represents an atom of a given element. Which box best represents a mixture? a. A b. B c. C d. D

____ 54.

X A B C D Each sphere in the diagrams above represents an atom of a given element. Which box best represents box X after a chemical change? a. A b. B c. C d. D

____ 55. The ingredients for making most sports drinks include sugar, water, and flavored powder. After the drink is made, the properties of the ingredients are a. identical to the original ingredients. b. similar, but not identical to the original ingredients. c. different from the original ingredients. d. similar to its container.

____ 56. A pure substance made of two or more atoms chemically combined can best be described as a(n) a. element. b. compound. c. mixture. d. solution.

____ 57. A fruit drink carton states that you should “shake well for best taste.” This drink is best identified as a a. solution. b. colloid. c. homogeneous mixture. d. heterogeneous mixture.

____ 58. A new substance is formed as a result of a a. physical property. b. physical change. c. chemical property. d. chemical change.

____ 59. A liquid mixture in which particles can be seen and easily separated by settling or filtration is a a. solution. b. suspension. c. solvent. d. solute.

____ 60. A _____ is holding all the solute it can hold at a given temperature. a. super saturated solution b. saturated solution c. unsaturated solution d. suspension

____ 61. What is one way to increase the solubility of sugar in water? a. Heat the water. b. Chill the water.

c. Increase the amount of sugar. d. Decrease the amount of water.

____ 62. When a solute is added to a solvent, the freezing point of the solution is a. the same as the freezing point of the solute. b. the same as the freezing point of the solvent. c. higher than the freezing point of either substance alone. d. lower than the freezing point of either substance alone.

____ 63. When a few spoonfuls of sugar are mixed into a cup of water, sugar is the a. solute. b. solvent. c. acid. d. base.

____ 64. A measure of how well a solute can dissolve in a solvent at a given temperature is that substance’s a. saturation point. b. solubility. c. acidity. d. concentration.

____ 65. According to the graph, which compound is least soluble at 100°C?

a. NH3 b. KNO3 c. NaNO3

d. KI

____ 66. According to the graph, approximately how many grams of sodium nitrate (NaNO3) will settle out when a saturated solution containing 100 grams of water is cooled from 60°C to 10°C? a. 25 b. 45 c. 65 d. 85

____ 67. Which phase of matter has a definite volume and a definite shape? a. Solid b. Liquid c. Gas d. Plasma

A B C D

____ 68. Which of the following diagrams would best represent matter in the gas phase?

a. A b. B c. C d. D

____ 69. In which phase of matter do the particles move at the fastest speeds and are very far apart? a. Solid b. Liquid c. Gas d. Plasma

____ 70. Which phase of matter contains particles with very high potential energy and therefore fill the volume of their container? a. Plasma b. Gas c. Liquid d. Plasma

____ 71. Which phase of matter has the greatest amount of potential and kinetic energy? a. Plasma b. Gas c. Liquid d. Solid

____ 72. All matter is composed of particles in constant motion. The kinetic energy of the particles is dependent upon which of the following? a. Density b. Volume c. Temperature

d. Mass

____ 73. The graph above shows the results of an experiment in which a substance is heated at a

constant rate. What happens to the molecules during the time periods represented by line segments B and D? a. They are moving more slowly. b. They are losing energy. c. They are moving farther apart. d. They are forming bonds.

____ 74. The graph above shows the results of an experiment in which a substance is heated at a constant rate. Which line segments represent heat being converted into kinetic energy? a. A and C b. B and D c. A and B d. B and C

____ 75. The freezing point of this substance would be closest to which of the following? a. -80oC b. -60oC c. 80oC d. 120oC

____ 76. What phase of matter would the substance be at -20oC? a. Solid b. Liquid c. Gas d. Plasma

____ 77. Line segment D represents a phase change. What happens to temperature during a phase change? a. increases only b. decreases only c. stays the same d. increases then decreases

____ 78.

Heat energy is being added to the substance at a constant rate. What happens to the heat energy being added at line segment “A”? a. The heat energy is increasing the temperature. b. The heat energy is being destroyed. c. The heat energy is decreasing the temperature. d. The heat energy is causing a phase change.

____ 79. What conclusion could you draw from this graph? When heat is added to a substance… a. the temperature can increase or remain constant. b. the temperature can increase or decrease. c. the temperature will only increase. d. the temperature will remain constant.

____ 80. Use the graph to predict what will happen to the temperature of the substance if heating were to

continue. a. The temperature would eventually decrease. b. The temperature would eventually increase. c. The temperature would increase then decrease. d. The temperature would always stay the same.

____ 81. As time goes by, heat is constantly added to the substance. In which portion of the graph would you expect the particles of matter to have the least energy? a. A b. B c. C d. D

____ 82. Which of the following represents a physical change? a. Hydrogen and oxygen atoms combine to form liquid water. b. Water and calcium combine to form bubbles of hydrogen gas. c. Water and salt combine to form salt water. d. Carbon dioxide and water combine to form carbonic acid.

____ 83. Which of the following elements has a full outer energy level and is chemically unreactive? a. Argon b. Silicon c. Fluorine d. Potassium

____ 84. Which of the following explains why the magnesium ion has a 2+ charge? a. The magnesium atom gained two protons. b. The magnesium atom lost two protons. c. The magnesium atom gained two electrons. d. The magnesium atom lost two electrons.

____ 85. Sodium combines with oxygen to form Na2O. Predict the formula for the compound formed with potassium and oxygen. a. KO b. KO2 c. K2O2 d. K2O

____ 86. What type of bond forms from a sharing of electrons between atoms? a. Ionic bond b. Covalent bond c. Metallic bond d. Hydrogen bond

____ 87. Magnetic poles that are opposite a. attract each other. b. repel each other. c. do not react to each other. d. always point toward the north.

____ 88. A cluster of billions of atoms that all have magnetic fields lined up in the same direction is known as a a. magnetic field line. b. magnetic pole. c. magnetic domain. d. permanet magnet.

____ 89. An electric current produces a(an) a. magnetic domain. b. magnetic field. c. electrical resistance. d. permanent magnet.

____ 90. A complete path through which electric charges can flow is a(an) a. magnetic field line. b. electric circuit. c. open circuit. d. conductor.

____ 91. An example of a conductor is a. rubber. b. wood. c. silver. d. plastic.

____ 92. Materials that prevent or slow the flow of electric current are called a. insulators. b. conductors. c. diodes. d. magnets.

____ 93. You can increase the strength of an electromagnet’s field by a. decreasing the current in the wire. b. increasing the number of loops in the wire. c. decreasing the strength of the magnetic material for the core. d. increasing the thickness of the insulation on the wire.

____ 94. The Ohm is a unit of a. electric current. b. electric charge. c. electric resistance. d. electric power.

____ 95. What causes current to flow?

a. voltage b. energy c. electricity d. magnetism

____ 96. The buildup of charges on an object is called a. current electricity. b. static electricity. c. static discharge. d. electric power.

____ 97. One object can acquire a static charge by coming near another charged object though a process known as a. friction. b. diffraction. c. conduction. d. induction.

____ 98. Suppose you acquire a positive charge from walking across a carpet. You then touch a doorknob and receive a shock. This leaves you a. positively charged. b. negatively charged. c. supercharged. d. electrically neutral.

____ 99. After rubbing, the cloth in diagram B is a. positively charged. b. negatively charged. c. supercharged. d. electrically neutral.

____ 100.

Light bulb 1 burns out in each of the above circuits. Which of the following circuits will have lights that remain lit? a. Circuit A b. Circuit B c. Circuit C d. Circuit D

____ 101. Ohm’s Law is expressed mathematically as current = voltage divided by a. resistance. b. energy. c. amperes. d. watts.

____ 102. Martin rubs a balloon on the wall giving the balloon a static charge. The balloon sticks to the wall after rubbing because the a. wall is positively charged b. wall is negatively charged. c. wall and balloon have the same charges. d. wall and balloon have opposite charges.

____ 103. Energy is the ability to a. create movement. b. do work. c. increase speed. d. change distance.

____ 104. Which unit is used to measure energy? a. Horsepower b. Joules c. Meters d. Pounds

____ 105. Unlike kinetic energy, potential energy is a. energy of motion. b. stored energy. c. not conserved.

d. not measurable.

____ 106. What type of energy is found in food? a. Electrical b. Nuclear c. Chemical d. Mechanical

____ 107. When you rub your hands together on a cold day, you use friction to convert a. mechanical energy into thermal energy. b. thermal energy into nuclear energy. c. nuclear energy into electrical energy. d. electrical energy into electromagnetic energy.

____ 108. Gasoline powering an automobile is an example of what type of energy conversion? a. Nuclear energy into electrical energy b. Mechanical energy into thermal energy c. Chemical energy into mechanical energy d. Electrical energy into thermal energy

____ 109. The rate at which work is done is a. energy. b. power. c. velocity. d. force.

____ 110. A watt is a measure of a. energy b. time c. heat d. power

____ 111. The power of a light bulb that converts electrical energy at a rate of 100 joules per second is a. 50 watts. b. 200 watts. c. 100 watts. d. 40 watts.

____ 112. Energy stored in the core of an atom is called a. electromagnetic energy b. nuclear energy c. mechanical energy d. chemical energy

____ 113. An example of potential energy would be a. a rolling bowling ball. b. a car speeding down the highway. c. a leaf falling from a tree. d. an archer’s bow that is drawn back.

____ 114. Gravitational potential energy is calculated by multiplying weight times a. height. b. density. c. volume.

d. mass.

____ 115. A radio wave is an example of a. chemical energy. b. electrical energy. c. electromagnetic energy. d. nuclear energy.

____ 116. The law of conservation of energy states that when one form of energy is converted into another, a. energy is destroyed in the process. b. energy remains constant in the process. c. energy is created in the process. d. some amount of energy cannot be accounted for.

____ 117. Absolute zero is shown as 0 on which scale? a. Fahrenheit b. Celsius c. Kelvin d. Centigrade

____ 118. The energy transfer of heat is measured in a. degrees. b. joules. c. kelvins. d. watts.

____ 119. Heat is transferred from one particle of matter to another without the movement of matter itself in a process called a. conduction. b. convection. c. radiation. d. insulation.

____ 120. Radiation is heat energy transferred through a. direct contact. b. movement of fluids. c. electromagnetic waves. d. movement of matter.

____ 121. Heat transfer occurs a. only from warm objects to colder ones. b. only from cold objects to warmer ones. c. both from warm objects to colder ones and from cold objects to warmer ones. d. in many directions.

____ 122. A material that transfers heat well is called a(n) a. conductor. b. insulator. c. metal. d. radiator.

____ 123. Specific heat is the amount of energy required to raise the ______________ of 1 kilogram of a substance by 1 kelvin. a. heat b. temperature c. thermal energy

d. motion

____ 124. During changes in state (phase), the arrangement of particles changes due to the addition or loss of a. motion. b. temperature. c. thermal energy. d. matter.

____ 125. Which of the following is true of the Celsius scale? a. 212 degrees is the boiling point of water. b. 0 degrees is absolute zero. c. 0 degrees is the freezing point of water. d. 32 degrees is the freezing point of water.

____ 126. An oven that cooks a turkey primarily through the motion of air transfers heat by

a. conduction. b. convection. c. insulation. d. radiation.

____ 127. A measure of the average kinetic energy of the individual particles in an object is called a. conduction. b. convection. c. temperature. d. thermal energy.

____ 128. What is the attraction that forms between atoms in a compound?

a. A chemical bond b. A chemical change c. Conservation of matter d. Heat

____ 129. Which of the following represents a chemical change? a. The formation of a gas due to change in state b. The formation of crystals c. The production of new materials d. The disappearance of a substance while dissolving

____ 130. A solid that forms from solution during a chemical reaction is called a(n) a. element. b. bond. c. mixture. d. precipitate.

____ 131. Chemical equations are used to symbolically represent a. chemical formulas. b. chemical properties. c. chemical reactions. d. chemical bonds.

____ 132. The substances listed on the right side of a chemical equation are the a. products. b. coefficients.

c. precipitates. d. reactants.

____ 133. In chemical reactions, what does the principle of conservation of mass mean? a. Matter is not changed. b. Matter is not created or destroyed. c. The total mass of the reactants is less than the total mass of the products. d. The total mass of the reactants is greater than the total mass of the products.

____ 134. Which of the following is a balanced chemical equation? a. 2 Fe2O3 + 3 C � 4 Fe + 3 CO2 b. H2O2 � H2O + O2 c. 2 Mg + HC1 � MgCl2 + H2 d. SO2 + O2 + 2 H2O � 4 H2SO4

____ 135. When two or more substances combine to make a more complex compound, the process is called a a. replacement reaction. b. precipitate reaction. c. synthesis reaction. d. decomposition reaction.

____ 136. A bottle of hydrogen peroxide eventually turns into a bottle of water and oxygen gas. This is an example of a a. precipitate reaction. b. synthesis reaction. c. decomposition reaction. d. replacement reaction.

____ 137. A chemical reaction that absorbs energy in the form of heat is described as a. unbalanced. b. exothermic. c. combustion. d. endothermic.

____ 138. A rapid reaction between oxygen and a fuel is known as a. heat. b. decomposition. c. combustion. d. activation.

____ 139. Each element is represented by a one-letter or two-letter a. coefficient. b. equation. c. formula. d. symbol.

____ 140. Every chemical reaction involves a change in a. state. b. mass. c. energy. d. concentration.

____ 141. The formula for speed is _______________ divided by time. a. motion

b. velocity c. acceleration d. distance

____ 142. On a distance vs. time graph, the steepness of the slope depends on a. how quickly or slowly the object is moving. b. how far the object has moved. c. when the object began moving. d. the direction the object is moving.

____ 143. To determine the acceleration rate of an object, you must calculate the change in velocity during each unit of a. speed. b. time. c. motion. d. deceleration.

____ 144. If a bicyclist travels 30 kilometers in two hours, her average speed is a. 30 km/h. b. 60 km/h. c. 15 km/h. d. 2 km/h.

____ 145. In an acceleration graph showing velocity versus time, a straight line shows the acceleration is a. decreasing. b. increasing. c. changing. d. constant.

____ 146. To increase or decrease acceleration, you must change one of two properties. Identify those two properties. a. Time and motion b. Speed and direction c. Size and velocity d. Distance and shape

____ 147. A train moved in the same direction and at a constant speed for 4 hours. Which of the following is true? a. The velocity changed b. The velocity remained constant c. The train accelerated d. The train decelerated

____ 148. What is the force that one surface exerts on another when the two rub against each other? a. acceleration b. friction c. gravity d. inertia

____ 149. Which is an example of sliding friction? a. Moving a book across a table top b. Skateboard wheels on the road as you ride c. A boat on the water as it sails d. Your shoes on a sidewalk as you walk

____ 150. A skydiver falling through the air experiences air resistance. Air resistance is a type of

a. acceleration b. friction c. motion d. velocity

____ 151. James tries to push a refrigerator that weighs 2000 N across the floor. He exerts a force of 500 N. His friend Jason comes by and offers to help move the refrigerator. If Jason exerts a force of 350 N on the same side as James, what net horizontal force is acting on the refrigerator? a. 150 N b. 850 N c. 1150 N d. 2850 N

____ 152. What is the relationship of the forces acting on an object falling at terminal velocity? a. Gravity is the only force acting b. Air resistance is the only force acting c. Gravity and air resistance are balanced d. Gravity, air resistance and momentum are acting

____ 153. In physical science, a push or a pull is called a(n) a. acceleration. b. force. c. motion. d. inertia.

____ 154. What force are you attempting to increase by throwing sand on an icy driveway? a. air resistance b. momentum c. friction d. gravity

____ 155. What is the force that pulls objects toward Earth? a. momentum b. magnetism c. gravity d. friction

____ 156. What is the force that causes an object to move in a circle? a. balanced force b. centripetal force c. gravitational force d. centrifugal force

____ 157. As you travel from the earth to the moon, how does it your mass change? a. Mass remains the same b. Mass doubles c. Mass is reduced to 1/6 d. Mass becomes zero

____ 158. The tendency of an object to resist change in its motion is known as a. balance. b. mass. c. inertia. d. force.

____ 159. What happens when two equal forces act in the same direction?

a. They cancel each other out b. The stronger one prevails c. They add together d. Their sum divided by two is the total force

____ 160. The greater the mass the greater the a. volume. b. mass. c. density. d. inertia.

____ 161. You tend to move forward when your car is hit from behind primarily due to a. Newton’s First Law of Motion. b. Newton’s Second Law of Motion. c. Newton’s Third Law of Motion. d. the law of gravitational attraction.

____ 162. Force equals mass times a. inertia. b. speed. c. mass. d. acceleration.

____ 163. If you double the force applied to a given mass the acceleration a. doubles. b. is reduced by half. c. is reduced by one-forth. d. is quadrupled.

____ 164. The law of universal gravitation states that any two objects in the universe, without exception, a. create friction. b. repel each other. c. combine to provide a balanced force. d. attract each other.

____ 165. A rocket’s liftoff is an example of a. Newton’s first law. b. Newton’s second law. c. Newton’s third law. d. the law of conservation of momentum.

____ 166. According to Newton’s third law of motion, when a hammer strikes and exerts force on a nail, the nail a. disappears into the wood. b. moves at a contstant speed. c. creates a friction with the hammer. d. exerts an equal force back on the hammer.

____ 167. According to Newton’s second law of motion, a. force = distance x time. b. force = mass x velocity. c. force = mass x acceleration. d. force = distance x velocity.

____ 168. A person traveling in a car that stops suddenly keeps moving forward due to

a. velocity. b. mass. c. weight. d. inertia.

____ 169. A small car gets better gas mileage than a large truck. This is best explained by a. Newton’s First Law of Motion. b. Newton’s Second Law of Motion. c. Newton’s Third Law of Motion. d. the law of universal gravitational attraction.

____ 170. Study the table to answer the following question. Speed of a Falling Object on Earth

Time (s) Speed (m/s) 0 0 1 9.8 2 19.6 3 29.4 5 ?

If the table were extended, what would be the object’s speed after 14 seconds? a. 78.4 m/s b. 107.8 m/s c. 137.2 m/s d. 147.1 m/s

____ 171. Mass times velocity is equal to a. acceleration. b. force. c. inertia. d. momentum.

____ 172. The law of conservation of momentum states that when two objects collide in the absence of friction, a. velocity decreases. b. velocity increases. c. momentum is not lost or gained. d. momentum is gained.

____ 173. An object’s momentum is in the same direction as its a. acceleration. b. force. c. inertia. d. velocity.

____ 174. How can you increase the momentum of an object? a. By decreasing its velocity b. By increasing its mass c. By increasing its friction d. By decreasing its acceleration

____ 175. Which of the following has the greatest momentum? a. a dog sitting in the yard

b. a boy walking to school c. a bike rolling down a street d. a dump truck speeding down the highway

____ 176. Identify the piece of equipment that is used to measure the mass of a cube. a. Triple-beam balance b. Graduated cylinder c. Ruler d. Test tube

____ 177. Four students have accidents in the laboratory. Jose spills chemicals on his pants, Maria catches her lab table on fire, Amanda breaks a test tube, and Josh cuts his hand on the broken test tube. Which student should use the safety shower? a. Amanda b. Jose c. Josh d. Maria

____ 178. Mark takes two goldfish and places them in different tanks with different water temperatures. He collects data on breaths/minute for each fish for four days. After he analyzes the data, what is the next step he will need to take to complete his scientific experiment? a. Form a hypothesis b. Perform the experiment c. Draw conclusions d. Research goldfish

____ 179. What unit of measurement should Janet use to measure the length of a swimming pool? a. meter b. decimeter c. centimeter d. millimeter

____ 180. What is the correct formula for density? a. mass/length b. volume/mass c. mass/volume d. volume/length

____ 181. A ball falls from the top of a 125-m skyscraper in 5s. On a distance-time graph, which variable should be plotted on the y-axis? a. Mass of ball b. Distance fallen c. Weight of ball d. Time in seconds

____ 182. Which unit would be most appropriate to measure the mass of a pencil? a. Milligram b. Centrigram c. Gram d. Kilogram

____ 183. How many kilograms are in 9 grams? a. 0.009 g

b. 0.09 g c. 900 g d. 9000 g

____ 184. Density of common substances at 20oC Substance Density (g/mL) Styrofoam 0.30

Cork 0.70 Wood 0.95 Water 1.00

Aluminum 2.70 Lead 11.34

Mercury 13.6

A substance with a density less than 1.00 g/mL will float in water. Which substance will sink in water? a. Styrofoam b. Cork c. Wood d. Lead

____ 185. __________ is the amount of matter in an object.

a. Weight b. Mass c. Volume d. Density

____ 186. Matter that is less dense than water will ___________ a. Sink in the water b. Float in the water c. Change the color of the water d. Soak up the water

____ 187. The basic SI unit of length is the a. foot b. inch c. meter d. mile

____ 188. Waves carry which of the following? a. matter. b. energy. c. the medium. d. matter and energy.

____ 189. Waves are created when a source of energy causes a medium to a. move b. compress c. expand d. vibrate

____ 190. The lowest parts of transverse waves are called a. troughs. b. crests.

c. nodes. d. wavelengths.

____ 191. Waves that move the particles of the medium perpendicular to the direction in which the waves are traveling are called a. longitudinal waves. b. transverse waves. c. surface waves. d. combination waves.

____ 192. The distance between two corresponding parts of a wave is the wave’s a. amplitude b. wavelength c. frequency d. speed

____ 193. The speed of a wave is its wavelength multiplied by its a. refraction b. vibration c. reflection d. frequency

____ 194. Which of the following affects the speed of sound waves traveling through the air? a. The loudness of the sound b. The surrounding air temperature c. The amplitude of the waves d. The pitch of the wave

____ 195. Water waves bend around a pier because of a. refraction b. reflection c. diffraction d. elasticity

____ 196. The interaction between two waves that meet is called a. diffraction b. interference c. reflection d. refraction

____ 197. Waves combine to produce a smaller or zero amplitude wave in a process called a. destructive interference. b. constructive interference. c. reflection. d. refraction.

____ 198. The material through which a wave travels is called a a. trough. b. crest. c. medium. d. vibration.

____ 199. Sound waves are an example of a. longitudinal waves. b. transverse waves. c. surface waves. d. standing waves.

____ 200. Frequency is measured in units called a. meters/second. b. amps. c. Hertz. d. Ohms.

____ 201. When a wave hits a surface through which it CANNOT pass and bounces back, it undergoes a. refraction. b. reflection. c. constructive interference. d. destructive interference.

____ 202. Loudness, or sound level, is measured in units called a. Hertz. b. decibels. c. meters per second. d. watts per square meter.

____ 203. Which term refers to how high or low a sound seems to a person? a. pitch b. wavelength c. intensity d. loudness

____ 204. The pitch of a sound that you hear depends on the sound wave’s a. loudness. b. speed. c. intensity. d. frequency.

____ 205. As a police car’s siren moves toward you the pitch of the siren a. appears to increase. b. appears to decrease. c. stays the same. d. goes up and down repeatedly.

____ 206. Electromagnetic waves can transfer energy without a(n) a. electric field. b. magnetic field. c. medium. d. change in either a magnetic or an electric field.

____ 207. Light that is made to vibrate along a single plane is known as a. ultraviolet light. b. reflected light. c. diffracted light. d. polarized light.

____ 208. Light energy travels in tiny packets or particles known as a. electrons. b. neutrons. c. protons. d. photons.

____ 209. Radio waves and x-rays a. travel at the same speed. b. vibrate at the same rate.

c. carry the same amount of energy. d. travel with the same wavelength.

____ 210. An instrument used to view different colors of light produced by each type of light bulb is called a(n) a. Van de Graff generator. b. calorimeter. c. radar gun. d. spectroscope.

____ 211. Which of the following electromagnetic waves has the longest wavelength? a. X-ray b. gamma c. infrared d. radio

____ 212. What color of light do we perceive for the lowest of the visible frequencies? a. red b. orange c. green d. violet

____ 213. Which of the following electromagnetic waves has the lowest frequency? a. radio b. visible light c. X-ray d. gamma

____ 214. As the wavelength of an electromagnetic wave increases, what happens to the frequency? a. It decreases. b. It increases. c. It remains the same. d. It increases and then decreases.

____ 215. When a wave’s frequency increases the amplitude will a. increase. b. decrease. c. increase and then decrease. d. remain the same.

____ 216. The angle of reflection is best represented by a. M b. N c. 1 d. 2

____ 217. The light rays in the above diagram illustrate a. interference b. diffraction c. refraction d. reflection

ICP Final Review Answer Section

1. A 2. A 3. C 4. D 5. B 6. B 7. D 8. D 9. C 10. A 11. B 12. C 13. D 14. B 15. A 16. A 17. A 18. A 19. D 20. A 21. C 22. C 23. A 24. D 25. B 26. D 27. D 28. B 29. D 30. C 31. D 32. A 33. C 34. A 35. C 36. B 37. A 38. B 39. D 40. A 41. A 42. A 43. B 44. A

45. D 46. B 47. C 48. A 49. D 50. D 51. A 52. C 53. B 54. A 55. A 56. B 57. D 58. D 59. B 60. B 61. A 62. D 63. A 64. B 65. A 66. B 67. A 68. C 69. C 70. B 71. A 72. C 73. C 74. A 75. B 76. B 77. C 78. A 79. A 80. A 81. A 82. C 83. A 84. D 85. D 86. B 87. A 88. C

89. B 90. B 91. C 92. A 93. B 94. C 95. A 96. B 97. D 98. D 99. A 100. B 101. A 102. D 103. B 104. B 105. B 106. C 107. A 108. C 109. B 110. D 111. C 112. B 113. D 114. A 115. C 116. B 117. C 118. B 119. A 120. C 121. A 122. A 123. B 124. C 125. C 126. B 127. C 128. A 129. C 130. D 131. C 132. A

133. B 134. A 135. C 136. C 137. D 138. C 139. D 140. C 141. D 142. A 143. B 144. C 145. D 146. B 147. B 148. B 149. A 150. B 151. A 152. C 153. B 154. C 155. C 156. B 157. A 158. C 159. C 160. D 161. A 162. D 163. A 164. D 165. C 166. D 167. C 168. D 169. C 170. C 171. D 172. C 173. D 174. B 175. D 176. A

177. B 178. C 179. A 180. C 181. B 182. C 183. A 184. D 185. B 186. B 187. C 188. B 189. D 190. A 191. B 192. B 193. D 194. B 195. C 196. B 197. A 198. C 199. A 200. C 201. B 202. B 203. A 204. D 205. A 206. C 207. D 208. D 209. A 210. D 211. D 212. A 213. A 214. A 215. D 216. D 217. C