IBPS (CWE) PO/ MODEL TEST - III...IBPS (CWE) PO / ModelT est-III 2 (4) I, II and either III or IV follow (5) None 12. Statements : All flowers are trees. Some trees are stars. Some

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IBPS (CWE) PO / Model Test-III

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IBPS (CWE) PO/ MODEL TEST - III

REASONING1. In a certain code CONCISE is written as FTJBBNM. How is FISHERY written in

that code ?(1) ZSFIGJT (2) ZSFGIHR (3) ZSFGEHR (4) ZSFEHGR (5) None

2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which isthe one that does not belong to the group ?(1) Snake (2) Crocodile (3) Frog (4) Lizard (5) Fish

3. How many meaningful English words can be made from the letters ADER, usingeach letter only once in each word ?(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three

4. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word PRELIMINARY each ofwhich has as many letters between them in the word, as they have in the Englishalphabet ?(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three

5. How many such digits are there in the number 57683421 each of which is as faraway from the beginning of the number, as they will be when arranged indescending order within the number ?(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three

6. If in the word CALIBRE, the previous letter in the English alphabet replaces eachconsonant and each vowel is replaced by the next letter and then the order ofletters is reversed, which letter will be third from the right end ?(1) A (2) C (3) B (4) K (5) None

7. In a row of children facing North, Bharat is eleventh from the right end and isthird to the right of Samir who is fifteenth from the left end. Total how manychildren are there in the row ?(1) 29 (2) 28 (3) 30 (4) 27 (5) None

8. In a certain code READ is written as #5%6 and PAID is written as $%46. How isRIPE written in that code ?(1) #4$5 (2) #6$5 (3) $4#5 (4) $4#6 (5) None

9. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word from the first, the fourth, thefifth and the ninth letters of the word VERSATILE using each letter only once,second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can beformed your answer is M and if no such word can be formed your answer is N.(1) A (2) S (3) E (4) N (5) M

10. What will come next in the series given below ? 1 1 2 1 2 3 1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 6 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 1 2 3 4 5(1) 1 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 2 (5) NoneDirections (11-15): In each of the questions below are given four statementsfollowed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the givenstatements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly knownfacts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the-given conclusionslogically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

11. Statements : Some grapes are apples. Some apples are papayas.All papayas are mangoes. No mango is banana.

Conclusions: I. No banana is papaya. II. Some apples are mangoes.III. Some bananas are grapes. IV. No banana is grape.

(1) Only I and II follow (2) Only either III or IV follows(3) Only I and either III and IV follow

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(4) I, II and either III or IV follow (5) None12. Statements : All flowers are trees.

Some trees are stars.Some stars are clouds.No cloud is rock.

Conclusions: I. No rock is star.II. Some stars are flowers.III. Some rocks are flowers.IV. Some rocks are stars.

(1) None follows (2) Only either I or IV follows (3) Only I follows(4) Only III & IV follow (5) All follow

13. Statements : Some pens are stands.Some stands are containers.All containers are boxes.All boxes are drawers.

Conclusions : I. Some boxes are stands.II. Some drawers are stands.III. Some drawers are containers.IV. Some boxes are pens.

(1) Only I & II follow (2) Only II & III follow (3) Only I, II and III follow(4) All follow (5) None

14. Statements : All paints are colours.Some colours are brands.Some brands are certificates.All certificates are degrees.

Conclusions : I. Some brands are degrees.II. Some certificates are colours.III. Some colours are paints.IV. No paint is degree.

(1) None follows (2) Only I follows (3) Only III follows(4) Only either I or II follows (5) None

15. Statements : Some files are covers.All covers are keys.All keys are locks.Some lacks are doors.

Conclusions : I. Some doors are keys.II. Some doors are covers.III. All keys are covers.IV. Some doors are files.

(1) None follows (2) Only I follows (3) Only II follows(4) Only II & III follow (5) None Directions (16-20): In these questions the symbols @, #, *, $ and © are used withdifferent meanings as follows: 'A @ B’ means ‘A is not greater than B’. ‘A # B’ means ‘A is neither greater than nor equal to B’. 'A * B’ means ‘A is not smaller than B’. ‘A $ B’ means ‘A is neither smaller than nor equal to B’. ‘A © B’ means ‘A is neither greater than nor smaller than B’.Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true,out which of the conclusions I, II, III given below them is/are definitely true andmark your answer accordingly.

16. Statements : H $ K, K© R, R @ J, J # FConclusions : I. R # H II. F $ R III. H $ J(1) Only I & II are true (2) Only I is true (3) Only II is true



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(4) Only II & III are true (5) All are true17. Statements : L @ M, M * P, M # D, D $ F

Conclusions : I. L @ P II. P @ D III. M © F(1) Only I is true (2) Only III is true (3) Only either I or III is true(4) Only l & II are true (5) None is true

18. Statements : T @ V, V # Q, Q © L, L * MConclusions : I. M @ Q II. T @ L III. T # L(1) Only I is true (2) Only II is true (3) Only III is true(4) Only I & III are true (5) None

19. Statements: J * E, D @ E, E $ K, K © TConclusions : I. J $ D II. J * D III. E $ T(1) None is true (2) Only II & III are true(3) Only I & III are true (4) All are true (5) None

20. Statements : H @ I, I # L, L * A, A $ QConclusions : I. H # L II. H * L III. Q # H(1) Only I is true (2) Only I & II are true(3) Only III and either I or II are true(4) Only either I or II is true (5) None is true Directions (21-25): Study the following information carefully to answer thesequestions.J, K, H, R, F, L, N and Q are sitting around a circular table facing the centre, H isthird to the left of L who is to the immediate right of K. R is third to the left of Nbut is not a neighbour of H or L. J is second to the right of Q.

21. Who is second to the left of N ?(1) Q(2) K (3) J (4) F or J (5) None

22. Which of the following groups of persons has the first person sitting between thenext two?(1) LKN (2) QFL (3) JHR (4) JHF (5) None

23. Who is to the immediate left of R ?(1) Q (2) K (3) F (4) N (5) None

24. Which of the following is correct position of J with respect to K ?(1) Third to the left (2) Third to the right (3) Second to the left(4) Second to the right (5) Fourth to the right

25. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way on the basis of their seatingpositions and so form a group. Which.is the one that does not belong to the group?(1) RQ (2) LK (3) HJ (4) JR (5) FQDirections (26-28) : These questions are based on the following information :‘A + B’ means 'A is father of B’. ‘A x B’ means 'A is wife of B’. 'A - B’ means ‘A is sister of B’. ‘A B’ means ‘A is brother of B’.

26. Which of the following expressions represents ‘J is daughter of D’ ?(1) D x K + J H (2) D x K + H - J (3) D x K + J - H(4) D + K J (5) None

27. In M L + T x R, how is T related to M ?(1) Nephew (2) Niece (3) Nephew or Niece(4) Daughter (5) Cannot be determined

28. Which of the following expressions represents ‘V is mother of L’ ?



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(1) V F + J - L (2) F x V + J - L (3) F V + J - L(4) V x F + J - L (5) NoneDirections (29-30) : These questions are based on following set of numbers:349 483 766 598 674

29. If in each of the numbers the positions of the first two digits are interchangedand then the numbers are arranged in ascending order, which number will be atthe second position ?(1) 349 (2) 483 (3) 766 (4) 598 (5) 674

30. If in each of the numbers the positions of the first and the third digits areinterchanged and then the numbers are arranged in descending order, whichnumber will be at the fourth position ?(1) 349 (2) 483 (3) 766 (4) 598 (5) 674Directions (31-35) : In making decisions about important questions, it is desirableto be able to distinguish between “strong” arguments and “weak” arguments.“Strong” arguments must be both important and directly related to the question.“Weak” arguments may not be directly related to the question and may be ofminor importarice or may be related to the trivial aspects of the question.Each question below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have todecide which of the arguments is a “strong” argument and which is a “weak”argument.Give answer (1) : if only argument I is strong.Give answer (2) : if only argument II is strong.Give answer (3) : if either argument I or II is strong.Give answer (4) : if neither argument I nor II is strong.Give answer (5) : if both arguments I and II are strong.

31. Should all the Universities switch over to online admissions at all levels all overthe country with immediate effect ?I. No, all the students may not have easy access to internet.II. Yes, this will save the students and parents from all the hassles of visitingvarious colleges and standing in queue.

32. Should there be a ban on recruiting women employees in companies required towork in night shifts ?I. No, the companies should instead arrange for transport upto the doorsteps ofthe employees.II. Yes, it is necessary in view of the increasing number of cases of rape/molestationand cheating.

33. Should the retirement age for employees of Central/State Govt, be increased bytwo years ?I. Yes, this is required in view of the increasing longevity.II. Yes, experienced employees are more useful than the new recruits.

34. Should the Govt, make it compulsory for all the Private Medical Institutes to jointhe Common Admission Test conducted by the Govt. ?I. No, the private institutes should be allowed to decide their own admissionstrategy to make them more suitable for jobs.II. Yes, all the Medical Institutes, whether Private or Govt. should follow a commoncriteria for admission.

35. Should there be a complete ban on consumption of tobacco by youngsters till theage of 25 years ?



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I. Yes, this will be a good step as youngsters are fully matured by the age of 25years.II. No, it is not necessary as all the adults above 18 years of age can understandtheir responsibility.Directions (36-40) : Study the following information carefully to answer thesequestions.

Eight executives B, G, H, K, D, P, T & V are working in three departmentsEngineering, Systems and Marketing of the organization and are posted at differentplaces viz. Chennai, Kozikode, Kolkata, Ranchi, Patna, Bhopal, Nagpur andHyderabad not necessarily in the same order. At least two and not more thanthree executives work in any of the three departments.

G works in Engineering department at Chennai. H is posted in Ranchi butnot in Systems department. No one from Marketing department is posted inHyderabad. The only other person in same department as thait of G is posted inKolkata. D is posted in Hyderabad and P in Kozikode. V is not posted in Kolkataand works in the same department as that of D. B and T both work in Marketingdepartment. The one who works in Marketing is not posted in Bhopal: T is notposted in Nagpur.

36. T is posted at which place ?(1) Nagpur (2) Patna (3) Bhopal (4)Cannot be determined (5)None

37. Who is posted in Kolkata ?(1) K (2) T (3) V (4) K or T (5) None

38. Which department has only two Executives ?(1) Systems (2) Marketing (3) Engineering (4) Marketing or Systems(5) Cannot be determined

39. Which of the following group of persons work in Marketing department ?(1) KBT (2) BTF (3) BHD (4) BHT (5) None

40. Which of the following combinations.of department, person & place is correct ?(1) Marketing - B-Bhopal (2) Engineering -G-Kolkata(3) Systems - V-Chennai (4) Systems -T-Patna (5) NoneDirections (41 - 45) : A private firm has laid down following criteria for selectionof Executive Officers (Finance) : The candidate must —(i) Be a graduate in any discipline in first class with minimum 60% marks.(ii) Have obtained post-graduate management degree /diploma with specializationin finance with minimum 55% marks.(iii) Be willing to work anywhere in India.(iv) Be not less than 22 years and not more than 28 years of age as on 1.10.2006.(v) Have cleared the selection test with minimum 50% marks.However, if a candidate satisfies all the above mentioned criteria except—(a) At (ii) above but has done post-graduation in Economics with minimum 60%marks or has passed CA/ICWA exam, the case may be referred to the CEO of thefirm.(b) At (i) above but has a post-qualification experience of at least 2 years in financedepartment, the case may be referred to the board of directors.In each question below information about one candidate is given. You have tostudy the information provided with reference to the criteria and conditions givenabove and take one of the following courses of actions. You are not to assumeanything other than the information provided in each question. All these casesare given to you as on 1.10.2006.Mark Answers:



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1) If the case is to be referred to the CEO.2) If the case is to be referred to the board of directors.3) If the data provided is inadequate to take a decision.4) If the candidate is to be selected.5) If the candidate is not to be selected.

41. Harish Bellary is 24 years old Science graduate with 67% marks and first class.He has passed MBA in finance with 60% marks. He has obtained 58% marks inthe selection test.

42. Akhilesh Kapoor is a Commerce graduate with 66% marks and first class. He hascleared ICWA exam in November 2004. His date of birth is 17.9.1984, He is willingto work anywhere in the country. He has secured 63% marks in selection test.

43. Sangeeta Sharma is B.Sc (Agri.) with 72% marks and second class. She haspassed postgraduate management diploma in Finance with 65% marks and thereafter she has been working in finance department of a cooperative bank for last 3years. Her date of birth is 21.12.1979. She has no problem in working anywherein India. She has cleared the selection test with 58% marks.

44. Nikita Sahoo is an MBA with specialization in Finance, passed in June 2004 atthe age of 24 years with 57% marks. She has passed B.A. in first class with 64%marks. She has cleared the selection test with 60% marks. She is willing to workanywhere in the country.

45. Rajani Sinha is first class Engineering graduate passed with 69% marks. Shehas done MBA with specialization in Marketing passed with 60% marks. Her dateof birth is 26.05.1981. She has cleared the selection test with. 62% marks.Directions (46—50) : Read the following information carefully and answer thegive questions : Apublic charitable trust desires to select ‘Medical Officers’ for its rural hospitalbased on the following criteria:(i) be holding MBBS degree with minimum 50% marks.(ii) have minimum 4 years of experience of full-time practice in rural areas.(iii) be ready to execute a bond of 3 years of service.(iv) have good knowledge of the local language.In case of the applicant who satisfies all other criteriaEXCEPT—(A) at (ii) above, but has 4 years of full-time experience of practice either in urbanor semi-urban area and spent at least 5 years in rural areas any time during hislife, be referred to Secretary of the Trust.(B) at (iv) above, but has working knowledge of Hindi, be referred to AssistantSecretary of the Trust.(C) at (i) above, but has minimum 45% marks at MBBS and has done M.S. or M.D.with minimum 50%, be referred to the Chief Medical Officer (C.M.O.).(D) at (iii) above, but is ready to give Rs. 25,000 as security money, be referred tothe President of the Trust.Based on these criteria and the information provided below, decide the course ofaction in each case. You are not to assume anything. If the data provided is notadequate to decide the given course of action, your answer will be ‘Data inadequate’.All cases given to you fulfil criterion of age and therefore no details of age areprovided. The cases are given to you as on the present day.

46. Gauri did her M.D. after doing her MBBS. She is ready to execute three years’bond of service. She has good command over local language as well as Hindi. She



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has practised for 512 years in remote village out of her love for social service. She

has obtained 77%, 88%, 47% and 56% at SSC, HSC, MBBS and M.D. respectively,(1) To be selected (2) Not to be selected(3) Refer to Assistant Secretary (4) Data inadequate(5) Refer to the C.M.O.

47. Raghav has studied in rural areas while doing his schooling. His father is afarmer. He completed his MBBS from Mumbai and has six years of practice in abig city. He has good knowledge of the local language and working knowledge ofHindi. He is ready to execute 3 years bond of service. He has done M.S. with 53%Marks.(1) Not to be selected (2) Refer to the Secretary(3) To be selected (4) Data inadequate (5) Refer to the C.M.O.

48. Payal, after obtaining her MBBS and M.S., decided to practice in her native villagefor five years. She knows very well the local language. Her dispensary and smallhospital were very popular in the nearby villages. She plans to go to U.S.A. andU.K. after spending 4 more years in India. She has secured more than 60%marks in all the examinations right from SSC to M.S. She is ready to execute abond of 3 years of service.(1) To be selected (2) Refer to C.M.O.(3) Not to be selected (4) Data inadequate (5) None

49. Dr. Arvind Swamy has stood first at MBBS after having obtained 78% marks. Hehas also completed M.S. with distinction. Dr. Swamy is fluent in the local language.He practised for three years in a rural hospital and for one year in a multi-speciality hospital in a big city.(1) To be selected (2) Not to be selected(3) Refer to the President (4) Data inadequate (5) None

50. Vivek has secured 47% marks at MBBS and has done his M.D. with 62% marks.He has 5 years experience of running a dispensary in a village and can read,write and speak the local language. He is ready to give a bond of only two years ofservice and is unable to give security money as he wants to start a rural hospitalafterwards in his native state.(1) Not to be selected (2) Data inadequate(3) Refer to the C.M.O. (4) To be selected(5) Refer to the President

ENGLISH LANGUAGEDirections(51-62) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questionsgiven below it. Certain words / phrases have been printed in BOLD to help youlocate them while answering some of the questions.

Our Current approach to solving global warming will not work. It is flawedeconomically, because carbon taxes will cost a fortune and do little, and it isflawed politically because negotiations to reduce carbon-di-oxide emissions willbecome ever more fraught and divisive. And even if you disagree on both counts,the current approach is also flawed technologically.

Many countries now setting ambitious carbon cutting goals ahead of globalnegotiations. Let us imagine that the world ultimately agrees on an ambitioustarget. Say, we decide to reduce carbon-di-oxide emissions by three-quarters bythe year 2100 while maintaining reasonable growth. Here in lies the technologicalproblem to meet this goal, non-carbon based sources of energy would have to beastounding 2.5 times greater in 2100 than that was in the year 2000.



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These figures were calculated by economists of a foreign university. Theirresearch shows that confronting global warming effectively requires nothing shortof a technological revolution. We are not taking this challenge seriously.

If we continue on our current path, technological development will be nowherenear significant enough to make non-carbon based energy sources competitivewith fossil fuels on price and effectiveness.

Sadly, during the international negotiations, the focus is on how much carbonto cut, rather than on how to do so. Little or no consideration will be given towhether the means of cutting emissions are sufficient to achieve the goals.Politicians, will base their decisions on global warming models that simply assumethat technological break throughs will happen by themselves. This faith is sadlyand dangerously misplaced.

Economists examine the state of non-carbon based energy today nuclear,wind, solar, and geothermal and find that, taken together, alternative energysources would get us less than halfway toward a path of stable carbon emissionsby 2050, and only a tiny fraction of the way toward stabilization by 2100. We needmany times more non-carbon based energy than is currently produced.Yet the needed technology will not be ready in terms of scalability or stability. Inmany cases, there is still a need for the most basic research and development.We are not even close to getting this revolution started.Current technology is so inefficient that to take just one example, if we wereserious about wind power, we would have to blanket most countries with windturbines to generate enough energy for everybody and we would still have themassive problem of storage. We don’t know'what to do when the wind does notblow.

Policy makers should abandon fraught carbon reduction negotiations andinstead make agreements to invest in research and development to get thistechnology to the level where it needs to be.

51. Which of the following, is suggested in the passage by which global warming canbe reduced?(1) To make the approach towards global warming completely free from politicalintervention.(2) By making non-carbon based energy methods as efficient and cost effective asthe fossil fuels.(3) To force every country to confine to stricter terms of carbon emissions.(4) To avoid international negotiation on carbon cuts until the technologicalresearch comes out with a scalable and stable solution. (5) All of these

52. Which of the following is not true in the context of the given passage?(A) Non carbon fuels are too expensive so they should not be used.(B) Political ignorance is one of the main reasons behind the inappropriate approachto combat global warming.(C) The generation of energy from non-carbon sources has to be increased forsignificant reduction in global warming.(1) Only A (2) Only C (3) OnlyA&C (4) Only B & C (5) All A,B & C

53. Why, according to the author, are the international negotiations barely a solutionto the problem of global warming?(1) Many countries fail to confine to the carboncut norms as set in thesenegotiations.(2) These, negotiations emphasise on the amount of carbon to be cut and not onthe ways in which it can be done.(3) Recent research on the carbon-cut methods is overlooked by the politicians.(4) Such negotiations produce dominance of powerful countries over the others,thus hampering their industrial development. (5) None



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54. Which of the following is intended in the given passage?(1) To suggest the ways in which alternate forms of energy can reduce climatechange.(2) To explain that the current technological developments are flawed and thusfail to control the climate change.(3) To explain that the stable carbon emissions are impossible to achieve in thiscentury.(4) To suggest to the policy makers to invest in research rather than furtilenegotiations.(5) None

55. Which challenge according to the author is not being taken seriously in thephrase “we are not taking this challenge seriously” as used in the passage?(A) Cutting the carbon emissions to a scale of 2.5 times in the next decade.(B) The challenge of locating new fossil fuel reserves since the existing ones aredepleting at a fast rate.(C) To carry out technological innovationsfor developing non-carbon based energyresources.(1) Only C (2) Only A and C (3) Only B(4) Only A and B (5) None

56. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage?(1) Many countries are refraining from taking part in global negotiations to checkglobal warming.(2) There has been no improvement in carbon emissions world over.(3) Technological advancement through research is the need of the hour in orderto meet the directed goal of combating global warming.(4) Most countries in the world are well equipped to produce sufficient non-carbonbased energy sources.(5) All the above statements are true.Directions (57-59): Which of the following is most nearly the SAME in meaningas the word given in capitals as used in the passage.

57. COUNTS(1) Numbers (2) Matters (3) Calculations (4) Values (5) Attributes

58. CUTTING(1) Slicing (2) Breaking (3) Reducing (4) Tearing (5) Interrupting

59. BLANKET(1) Quilt (2) Surround (3) Sheet (4) Encompass (5) ProtectDirections (60-62) : Which of the following is most OPPOSITE in meaning of theword given in capitals as used in the passage.

60. REASONABLE(1) Fair (2) Illogical (3) Irrational (4) Inadequate (5) Considerable

61. MASSIVE(1) Light (2) Large (3) Insignificant (4) Short (5) Unreasonable

62. FRAUGHT(1) Distressful (2) Amicable (3) Disagreement (4) Desirable (5) AnxiousDirections (63-67): Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) & (4) given below shouldreplace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make it meaningfuland grammatically correct. If the sentence is meaningful and correct as it is andno correction is required, mark (5) as the answer

63. People discovered the alternate sources of energy when fossil fuel reserves startsto deplete.(1) start to deplete (2) starting to deplete (3) started to deplete(4) start with deplete (5) No correction required



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64. Despite its attractiveness, investing abroad is being risky owing to the shortageof regulations to protect investors.(1) might be risk (2) have been risky (3) can be as risky as(4) can be risky (5) No correction required

65. The new air fare allows both an adult and a child to fly for the price of one ticket,in order to encouraging travellers during summer.(1) encourage travellers during summer (2) encourages travellers is summer(3) encourage travellers on summer(4) enrouraged travellers during summer (5) No correction required

66. According to a court ruling, the owner of polluted land, is liable for the clean up ofthe property even if the owner did not have the responsibility of that pollution.(1) is not responsible for (2) responsibility is not there for(3) did have the responsibility of (4) has not been in charge of(5) No correction required

67. Some research studies indicate that among distinguished artists, the rate ofdepression is ten times as prevalent as in the population at large.(1) more than prevalent in the (2) more prevalent as comparing(3) as prevalent when comparative (4) more prevalent than the(5) No correction requiredDirections (68-72) : Each sentence below has two blanks, each blank indicatingthat something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank thatbest fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

68. Biological clocks are of..... adaptive value to animals since it ......... nervous and physiological functions of the body.(1) immense, assumes (2) great, regulates (3) ultimate, created(4) high, engulfs (5) no, governs

69. Each occupation has its own .....bankers, lawyers and computer professionals, for example all use among themselves ............. that outsiders find difficult to follow.(1) merits, incidents (2)disadvantages, methods (3)rewards, endearment(4) jargon, language (5) problems, fundamentals

70. Despite a growing..........that a lot needs to be done to help those without clean, water, a .....says that more than 34 million people die every year of water borne diseases.(1) interest, reason (2) recognition, report (3) fantasy, review(4) authority, legend (5) turbulence, logic

71. Water borne diseases are the most....... causes of infant deaths ...............the world.(1) rare, according (2) regular, at (3) related, across(4) common, throughout (5) large, around

72. If there is nothing to absorb the energy of sound waves, they travel on .........., but their intensity........as they travel further from their source.(1) everlasting, decreases (2) always, improves (3) forever, inclines(4) steadily, deflates (5) indefinitely, diminishesDirections (73-75) : Read each sentence to find out whether there is anygrammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part ofthe sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, theanswer is (5). (Ignore punctuation errors if any.)

73. Our country’s performance (1) / in the last few national and international games(2) I is fairly ordinary (3) I and below our stature. (4) /No error (5)

74. We have (1) / fairly standard accounting procedures (2) / that are on the line (3)/with the internationally accepted norms. (4) / No error (5)

75. The company is negotiating (1) / new store launches (2) / at nearby (3)/ half therent. (4) / No error (5)



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Directions (76-80) Rearrange the following sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) & (F) tomake a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions which follow:(A) A group of media persons have now taken the responsibility of educating peopleregarding the reality shows.(B) This is because these shows are said to be staged, fabricated and directed toimprove TRPs.(C) The, reality shows on TV have been attracting a huge viewership recently.(D) Owing to their efforts, the public has now realized the truth behind realityshows and such shows are fast losing their hold.(E) Though the name infers ‘real’, viewers are being exposed to a lot of ‘unreal’content.(F) The public however is drawn to such contents of the reality shows unaware ofthis fabrication.

76. Which of the following sentence should be the FOURTH after rearrangement?(1) C (2) B (3) E (4) F (5) D

77. Which of the following sentence should be the SIXTH (LAST) after rearrangement?(1) B (2) D (3) C (4) E (5) A

78. Which of the following sentence should be the FIRST after rearrangement?(1) A (2) C (3) D (4) E (5) F

79. Which of the following sentence should be the SECOND after rearrangement?(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E

80. Which of the following sentence should be the THIRD after rearrangement?(1) B (2) C (3) F (4) D (5) ADirections (81-90) : In the following passage there are blanks, each of which isnumbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each fivewords/phrases are suggested, one of which fits the blanks appropriately. Find outthe appropriate word/phrase in each case.

Since independence and from the beginning of our planned development, wehave (81) increased production as (82) to improved distribution of income. A highrate of growth of the gross national product by itself does not serve our purpose(83) it is more equitably shared, benefiting all sections of the population. To beeffective, increased production with better distribution depends largely (84) toassess the productivity of the small man, whether he is (85) in agriculture orindustry. In agriculture the most critical inputs are water and credit (86) withcultivable land. Our land reform legislation has aimed (87) land to small owners.There are sometimes political obstacles; but it is not known generally how manycases are (88) in courts.

We must atleast ensure that small owners have access to other essentialinputs. In industry, we have (89) small scale and cottage industries. Greateravailability of power along with assured market and credit arrangements canmake (90) difference to productivity.

81. (1) regarded (2) thought (3) observed (4) attained (5) ordered82. (1) supplementary (2) complementary (3) contradicting

(4) originally (5) compliment83. (1) if (2) until (3) till (4) either (5) unless84. (1) on our capacity (2) to be able (3) on our capability

(4) our capability on (5) our ability on85. (1) engaged (2) involved (3) buried (4) attracted to (5) busy86. (1) attached (2) agreed (3) together (4) alternate (5) also87. (1) at distributing (2) at getting (3) distribution

(4) in giving (5) in distributing88. (1) offered (2) pending (3) pendant (4) moving (5) penchant89. (1) discouraged (2) acquainted (3) encouraged

(4) ordered (5) pulled out90. (1) unbridgeable (2) mass (3) tremendous (4) target (5) colossal



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QUANTITATIVE APTITUDEDirections (91-95): Each of the questions below consists of a question and twostatements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the dataprovided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both thestatements and Give answer 1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the

question, while the data in statement n alone are not sufficient toanswer the question.

Give answer 2) if the data in statement n alone are sufficient to answer thequestion, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient toanswer the question.

Give answer 3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone aresufficient to answer the question.

Give answer 4) if the data even in both the statements I and II together are notsufficient to answer the question.

Give answer 5) if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessaryto answer the question.

91. A number is divisible by 3. Find the number.I. Square of the number is divided by 9.

II. 40% of the number is25 th of that number.

92. What is the ratio of investments of A, B and C?I. Total investment is Rs. 12000 in which A’s contribution is Rs. 6000.II. Ratio of investment of A to B is 3 :2 and that of B to C is 2:1.

93. The marked price of a TV set is Rs. 20,000. At what price a customer buys this TVset?I. The shopkeeper allows successive discounts of 25% and 5%.II. The shopkeeper allows successive discounts of 20% and Rs. 1750.

94. The average salary of 15 teachers of a school is Rs. 5000 p.m. A group of teacherswhose average salary is Rs. 6000 p.m. leave the school and a new teacher joins.What is the average salary of new group of teachers in the school?I. There are 4 teachers in the group which left the school.II. The salary of the new teacher is Rs. 3000 p.m.

95. A man invests equal amounts at 10% per annum for 3 years, one at simple interestand the other at compound interest. What is the difference in interests earned intwo cases?I. Total investment is Rs. 20,000.II. Ratio of the interests earned is 300 : 331.

96. On the Independence Day, sweets were to be equally distributed amongst 350children. But on that particular day, 25 children were absent. Thus, each childgot 5 extra sweets. How many Sweets did each child get 71) 55 2) 70 3) 50 4) 65 5) None

97. 24 men can complete a piece of work in 16 days. The same work can be completedby 8 women in 72 days, whereas 24 children take 32 days to complete it. If 10men, 15 women and 24 children work together, in how many days can the workbe completed1) 18 2) 8 3) 22 4) 12 5) None

98. How many seven-digit numbers can be made from the number 3428651, using each digitonly once ?1) 49 2) 180 3) 5040 4) 2520 5) None

99. If the difference between the simple interest and compound interest earned onan amount @ 15 p.c.p.a. at the end of 3 years is Rs. 59535, what is the amount ?1) Rs. 8,400 2) Rs. 9,200 3) Rs. 6,800 4) Cannot be determined 5) None



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100. The number obtained by interchanging the digits of a two-digit number is greaterthan the original number by 9. If the sum of the two digits of the number is 13,what is the original number ?1) 58 2) 76 3) 78 4) Cannot be determined 5) NoneDirections (101-105) : In each of the following questions a number series isgiven. A number is given after the series and then (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) aregiven. According to the given series you have to form a new series which beginswith the given number and then answer the question asked.

101. 6 3.0 4.5 2.25 40 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)Which of the following numbers will come in place of (c) ?1) 20.5 2) 21.5 3) 33.75 4) 69.5 5) 15

102. 5 9 26 90 13 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)Which of the following numbers will come in place of (e) ?1) 2880 2) 2292 3) 1716 4) 3432 5) None

103. 1 9 25 103 3 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)Which of the following numbers will come in place of (c) ?1) 391 2) 81 3) 91 4) 79 5) None

104. 6 10 32 126 2 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)Which of the following numbers will come in place of (a) ?1) 4 2) 6 3) 2 4) 3 5) None

105. 1260 628 312 154 788 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)Which of the following numbers will come in place of (d) ?1) 194 2) 45.5 3) 48 4) 72.5 5) NoneDirections (106-110): Study the table carefully to answer the questions thatfollow.Percentage of students passing out of six different colleges in five years

CollegeYear

A B C D E F

2001 76 63 88 92 78 1002002 72 64 90 100 76 932003 81 78 96 86 77 962004 85 72 86 84 82 852005 92 82 91 79 84 85

106. If the number of students studying in college B in the year 2005 was 3650, whatwas the number of students failing from that college in that year ?1) 594 2) 657 3) 583 4) 625 5) None

107. What is the ratio of the number of students passing to those failing from college Ein the year 2002 ?1) 6:5 2) 18:7 3) 19 : 6 4) Cannot be determined 5) None

108. If the numbers of students studying in Colleges E and F in the year 2003 were2800 and 2250 respectively, what was the ratio of the number of students passingout of College E to that out of F in that year ?1) 216:217 2) 327: 341 3) 423 : 485 4) 539 : 540 5) None

109. The average percentage of passing is highest for which college ?1) E 2) D 3) A 4) C 5) None



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110. What is the per cent increase in percentage of students passing out of college Ain the year 2005 from the previous year ? (rounded off to two digits after decimal)1) 7.61 2) 824 3) 6.36 4) 8.05 5) None

111. 15 men can do a piece of work in 6 days. How many men would be required to dothe same work in 7.5 days?1) 10 2) 16 3) 12 4) 20 5) None

112. The average age of a class of 65 boys was 14 years, the average age of 20 of themwas 14 years, and that of another 15 was 12 years. Find the average age of theremaining boys.1) 16 years 2) 13 years 3) 17 years 4) 15 years 5) None

113. The profit earned after selling an article for Rs 522 is the same as the lossincurred after selling the article for Rs 378. What is the cost price (in Rs) of thearticle?1) Rs460 2) Rs490 3) Rs520 4) Rs550 5) None

114. A sum of money is divided among A, B, C and D in the ratio 3 : 5: 7 : 11. If theshare of C is Rs. 1,668 more than the share of A, then what is the total amount ofmoney of B and D together?1) Rs6,762 2) Rs6,672 3) Rs7,506 4) Rs6,255 5) None

115. Which number should replace both the question marks in the following equation?

? 48867 ?

1) 204 2) 214 3) 216 4) 224 5) NoneDirections (116-120): Study the following graph carefully and answer the questionsgiven below it.Distribution of candidates enrolled for MBA and the candidates who havesuccessfully completed the course from different institutes Candidates Enrolled = 2500 Candidates who have success-fully

completed the course = 1900

F 17%

E8%

D12%

C16%

B22%

A15%

G10%

G13%

F16%

E9% D

15%

C12%

B18%

A17%

116. Which institute has the highest percentage of students successful to enrolled?1) D 2) E 3) A 4) B 5) None

117. What percent of candidates from institute D have come out to to be successful outof the total candidates enrolled from this institute ?1) 115 2) 95 3) 80 4) 85 5) None

118. What is the approximate percentage of students successful to enrolled frominstitute A ?1) 92 2) 89 3) 86 4) 96 5) 88

119. What is ratio of candidates successful to enrolled from the institutes B and C together?1) 55:12 2) 5:7 3) 135:271 4) 3:5 5) None



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120. What is the percentage of students successful from institutes E and F together,over the students enrolled from these institutes together ?1) 76 2) 105 3) 80 4) 74 5) NoneDirections (121-125): In each of the following questions two equations are given.You have to solve them and Give answer 1) if p < q Give answer 2) if p > q Give answer 3) if p qGive answer 4) if p qGive answer 5) if p = q

121. I. p2 – 7p = –12 II. q2 – 3q + 2 = 0122. I. 12p2 –7p = –1 II. 6q2 – 7q + 2 = 0123. I. p2 + 12p + 35 = 0 II. 2q2 + 22q + 56 = 0124. I. p2 – 8p +15 = 0 II. q2 – 5q = – 6125. I. 2p2 + 20p + 50 = 0 II. q2 = 25 126. Two pens and three pencils cost Rs. 86. Four pens and a pencil cost Rs. 112. What

is the difference between the cost of pen and pencil?1) Rs.25 2) Rs.13 3) Rs. 194) Cannot be determined 5) None

127. Seven men and four boys can complete a work in 6 days. A man completes doublethe work as that of a boy In how many days will 5 men and 4 boys complete thework?1) 5 2) 4 3) 64) Cannot be determined 5) None

128. What will be the difference in Simple and Compound interest on Rs. 2000 afterthree years at the rate of 10 per cent per annum ?1) Rs. 160 2) Rs. 42 3) Rs.62 4) Rs.20 5) None

129. In a box there are 8 red, 7 blue and 6 green balls. One ball is picked up randomly. What is the probability that it is neither red nor green ?

1) 7

19 2) 23 3)

34 4)

921 5) None

130. The difference between a two-digited number and the number after interchangingthe position of two digits is 36. What is the difference betwee the two digits of thenumber ?1) 4 2) 6 3) 34) Cannot be determined 5) None Directions (131-135): Study the following graph carefully and answer the questionsgiven below it:

Production of Food grains by a State over the years (1000 tonnes)

25

40

60

45

65

50

7580

0

10

20

30

40

50

60

70

80

2000 2001 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006 2007



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131. The average production of 2001 and 2002 was exactly equal to the averageproduction of which of the following pairs of years ?1) 2002 and 2003 2) 2003 and 20053) 2004 and 20054) 2005 and 2006 5) None

132. What was the difference in the production of food grains between 2002 and 2005?1) 10,000 tons 2) 15,000 tons 3) 500 tons 4) 5,000 tons 5) None

133. In which of the following years was the percentage increase in production fromthe previous year the maximum among the given years ?1) 2002 2) 2004 3) 2006 4) 2001 5) None

134. In how many of the given years was the production of foodgrain more than theaverage production of the given years ?1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 1 5) None

135. What was the percentage drop in the production of food grain from 2002 to 2003?1) 15 2) 20 3) 25 4) 30 5) NoneDirections (136 –140) : The following paragraph gives a statistical account of asmall township in Gujarat on the basis of data collected in the year 1989. Studythe information provided and answer the questions given below.

Hamirpur in Gujarat is a small township with a population of 75,000.40% ofthe population belongs to the above 35 age category, the ratio of males to femalesis 1:1.5 Past records indicate that the population in Hamirpur grows at an annualrate of 7%. The total cultivable area in Hamirpur is about 2 lakh acres. Paddy isthe major crop of Hamirpur and has shown average productivity levels of 2.5tonnes per acre. Hamirpur receives about 10 inches of rainfall in a normal monsoonyear. The worsening drought situation, of late, has affected Hamirpur badly forcingthe government to invest a lot of funds. In 1989 the government has invested 20lakhs of rupees.

136. The number of people in Hamirpur below the age of 35 is1) 40,000 2) 54,000 3) 45,000 4) 50,000 5) None

137. The number of males in Hamirpur is____________than the number of females.1) Less by 10,000 2) Greater by 15,0003) Less by 15,000 4) Greater by 30,000 5) None

138. If the ratio of males to females in 1990 remains the same as in 1989, then thenumber of males in 1990 is1) 32,000 2) 32,100 3) 35,000 4) 22, 000 5) None

139. What is the population of Hamirpur in 1991 ?1) 87,850 2) 88,500 3) 83,900 4) 85,870 5) None

140. Assuming that each family has 6 members on an average, then what would bethe cultivable land available per family in 1989, assuming equal distribution ?1) 13 acres/family 2) 14 acres/family3) 15 acres/family 4) 16 acres/family 5) None

GENERAL AWARENESS141. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) keeps on modifying various rates/ratios to keep

the flow of liquidity in the market in a balanced situation. Which of the followingrate/ratios/indices is NOT directly controlled by the RBI?1) Cash Reserve Ratio(CRR) 2) Bank rate3) Repo Rate 4) Reserve Repo Rate5) Wholesale Price Index (WPI)

142. As we have noticed, many banks of Indian origin are opening offices/branches inforeign countries. Why is thisw trend emerging at a very fast pace?(A) These banks wish to provide banking facilities to foreigners as banking facilitiesare not plenty in many foreign countries. India wants to take an advantage of thesituation



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(B) These banks wish to help Indian firms, to acquire funds at internationallycompetitive rates(C) These Banks wish to promote trade and investment between India and othercountries1) Only A 2) Only B 3) Only C 4) Only A, B & C 5) Only B & C

143. Increased interest rates, as is existing in the economy at present will_______1) Lead to reduction in borrowings. 2) Lead to lower GDP growth.3) Mean higher cost of raw materials.4) Mean lower cost of raw materials. 5) Mean higher wage bill.

144. An account that can be opened by business organisations and also individuals isknown as a?1) Term deposit 2) Checking Account3) Saving Bank deposit 4) No Frills Accounts 5) Current deposit

145. SEBI was established in ___1) 1993 2) 1992 3) 1988 4) 1990 5) None

146. Which of the following is NOT required for opening a bank account?1) Identity Proof 2) Address Proof3) Recent Photographs 4) Domicile Certificate 5) None

147. A centralized databases with online connectivity to branches, internet as well asATM-network which has been adopted by almost all major banks of our country isknown as ___1) Investment Banking 2) Core Banking3) Mobile Banking 4) National Banking 5) Specialized Banking

148. Base Rate is the rate below which no Bank can lend their funds. Who sets up this'Base Rate' for Banks?1) Individuals Banks Board 2) Ministry of Commerce3) Ministry of Finance 4) RBI5) Interest Rate Commission of India

149. If the Reserve Bank of India wants to block/hinder capital outflows and containcurrency depreciation, which of the following would be the most possible action?1) Increase Interest Rate2) Decrease Interest Rate3) Purchase Government Bonds4) decrease Statutory Liquidity Ratio 5) None

150. Which one of the following is not 'Money Market Instrument'?1) Treasury Bills 2) Commercial Paper3) Fixed Deposit 4) Equity Shares 5) None

151. 'Beyond time' is the book written by1) Namita Gokhale 2) Ruskin Bond3) William Balrymple 4) Archana Bhargava 5) None

152. Mulk Raj Anand is the author of1) The Post Office 2) Gora3) India Wins Freedom 4) Coolie 5) None

153. As per the insurance bill, 2013, Foreign Investors can hold up to?1) 51% of the capital in an Indian insurance company2) 39% of the capital in an Indian insurance company3) 49% of the capital in an Indian insurance company4) 29% of the capital in an Indian insurance company 5) None



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154. Which country will host both the World Cup Football 2014 and Olympics 2016?1) Russia 2) USA 3) Brazil 4) Japan 5) Germany

155. Which of the following terms is used in the field of finance and banking?1) Metabolism 2) Genetic process3) Centrifugal force 4) Debt instrument5) Experimental error

156. Which of the following is a military alliance?1) ASEAN 2) SAARC 3) NATO 4) NAFTA 5) APEC

157. REPO rate means?1) Rate at which the RBI will borrow from the banks2) Rate at which banks will borrow from other banks3) Rate at which the RBI lends to banks4) Rate at which banks lend to customers 5) None

158. The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs approved the proposal of theDepartment of Health Research in the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare forthe setting up of Multi- Disciplinary Research Units in ............government medical colleges during the 12th Plan period.1) 40 2) 50 3) 60 4) 70 5) 80

159. Telecom sector is considered as?1) Priority sector 2) Core energy sector3) Infrastructural sector 4) Primary sector 5) None

160. The 10 non-permanent members of the United Nations Security Council (UNSC)are elected by the General Assembly for a term of?1) 1 year 2) 2 years 3) 3 years 4) 4 years 5) 5 years

161. What is the full form of CFSA?1) Corporation of Farmers and Subsidiary Allocation2) Committee on Financial Sector Assessment3) Committee on Farming Sector and Agronomy4) Commission to Float Scientific Agriculture 5) None

162. What is the minimum shareholding of the Central Government in the PublicSector Banks?1) 49% 2) 50% 3) 51% 4) 59% 5) 74%

163. In recognition of the notable contributions made by Late Prof. Prasanta ChandraMahalanobis in the fields of economic planning and statistical development, theGovernment of India has designated ..........June every year.1) 25th 2) 26th 3) 27th 4) 28th 5) 29th

164. Who has been appointed as the new Chairperson of the Central Board of DirectTaxes (CBDT)?1) Archana Bhargava 2) Sudha Sharma3) Chitra Ramakrishna 4) Poonam Saxena 5) None

165. What is the purpose of National Green Tribunal?1) It is a Save Earth campaign2) It promotes awareness towards climate changes3) It will hear cases related to environmental degradation4) It gives suggestions to protect forest cover 5) None

166. Which Indian Shooter has won a trap gold medal in the Singapore Open ShootingChampionships held in July 2013?1) Shagun Chowdhary 2) Abhinav Bindra



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3) Kynan Chenai 4) Samaresh Jung 5) None167. Fiscal Deficit Refers to?

1) The dif ference between the government's total expenditure and its total receipts(including borrowing)2) The dif ference between the government's total expenditure and its total receipts(excluding borrowing)3) The dif ference between the government's Tax collections and Salary payments4) The dif ference between the government's Tax collections and government'sBorrowings5) None

168. Who won the the Wimbledon men’s single title held in June 2013?1) Novak Djokovic 2) Andy Murray3) Roger Federer 4) Rafael Nadal 5) None

169. Which party won Bhutan’s second general election held in July 2013?1) Druk Phuensum Tshogpa 2) Peoples Democratic Party3) Bhutan Communist Party 4) Bhutan National Party 5) None

170. Who has been appointed as the new chairman and managing director (CMD) of IDBI Bank in July 2013?1) R K Malla 2) M S Raghavan3) Sudhir Kumar Jain 4) Sudha Sharma 5) None

171. “World Humanitarian Day” is observed on __________________.1) 21-August 2) 26-August 3) 19-August 4) 18-August 5) None

172. Ben Bernanke is the Chairman of Federal Reserve. What is Federal Reserve?1) Central Bank of UK 2) Financial wing of the World Bank3) Central Bank of USA 4) European Union Central Bank 5) None

173. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has released a discussion paper titled ‘BankingStructure in India The Way Forward’ in August 2013 in which it has suggested a_________ structure for the domestic banking industry.1) Three- tier 2) Four- tier 3) Two- tier 4) Both 1 and 2 5) None

174. Nearly 1500 people including women and children were killed in the toxic gasattack in which country in August 2013?1) Egypt 2) Syria 3) Iran 4) Afganisthan 5) None

175. Who will become the next Chairperson of the Central Electricity RegulatoryCommission (CERC) (announced in August 2013)?1) Pramod Deo 2) Gireesh B. Pradhan3) L C Goyal 4) Chitra Ramakrishna 5) None

176. Who was awarded with the Fifth Deutsche Bank Prize for Financial Economies2013 in Germany on September 27, 2013?1) Raghuram Rajan 2) D. SubbaRao3) YV Reddy 4) C. Rangarajan 5)KaushikBasu

177. Which conservationist and mountaineer was selected for the Sir Edmund HillaryMountain Legacy Medal in August 2013?1) Harshwanti Bisht 2) Ang Rita Sherpa3) Scott MacLennan 4) Alton C. Byers

178. The first wildlife skywalk of India will come up in Maenam Wildlife sanctuary in?1) Sikkim 2) Assam 3) Meghalaya



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4)West Bengal 5) Arunachal Pradesh179. 'The Test of My Life' is written by?

1) Steve Waugh 2) Adam Gilchrist3) Yuvraj Singh 4) Lance Armstrong 5) Oscar Pistorius

180. Which of the following is the capital city of Argentina?1) Prague 2) Santo Domingo3) Montevideo 4) Bratislava 5) Buenos Aires

COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE

181. Which of the following is correct about an electronic -mail network?1) Co-operative processing system 2) Distributed system3) Centralised system 4) Both (1) & (2)5) None

182. __ are self replicating malicious code that bring down the speed of the process oron entering a network, and are not dependent on the action of the user1) Viruses 2) Worms 3) Trojan Horse 4) Spoofing 5) None

183. While booting from the hard disk the disk bootstrap program is loaded by1) Master boot program 2) Bootstrap loader program3) COMMAND.COM 4) 10.SYS 5) None

184. At a time how many operating system can be at work on a computer ?1) Only one 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four 5) None

185. If virus is to infect your disk, which is the possible place where it would lodgeitself ?1) Boot sector 2) File allocation table 3) Directory4) Data space 5) None

186. Maximum length of a volume lable entry is1) 8 bytes 2) 3 bytes 3) 11 bytes 4) 6 bytes 5) None

187. Which of the following operating systems are supported on IBM Compatiblemicrocomputers ?1) Unix 2) Xenix 3) MS-DOS4) Either (1) or (2) 5) All the above

188. OS/2 is a1) Single-user operating system 2) Multi-user operating system3) Multi-tasking operating system 4) Both (2) & (3)

5) None 189. Which of the following is false?

1) Like a hard disk, a floppy disk can also be partitioned.2) On a hard disk more than one operating system can be present.3) A hard disk must always be partitioned4) Number of sectors occupied by directory and file allocation5) None

190. A cluster represents1) A group of tracks2) A group of sectors



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3) Total number of tracks present on the disk4) Total number of sectors present on the disk5) None

191. Who was the originator of MS-DOS ?1) Tim Patterson 2) Gary Kildall 3) Dennis Ritchie4) Ken Thomson 5) None

192. MS-DOS is a1) Single-user operating system2) Multi-user operating system3) Multi-tasking operating system4) Both (1) & (2)5) None

193. Which micro-processor is used in PC/AT?1) 8088 2) 8086 3) 80286 4) 8085 5) None

194. Which of the following is true?1) If while executing a program the power goes off, all the instructions and datain the memory will be lost.2) A PC/XT uses a 80186 microprocessor whereas a PC/AT uses a 80286microprocessor.3) Both 4) Both (1) & (3) 5) None

195. MIME is:1) A transport agent for E-mail2) An interface between the mail client and the web server3) A compressor that packages different formats into SMTP compatible type4) Both (2) & (3)5) None

196. SONET is a standard for which of the following networks?1) Twisted -pair cable 2) Fiber-optic cable3) Coaxial cable 4) Ethernet 5) None

197. The component of Management Information System (MIS) that assists in planningand decision making in a organization is/are:1) Hardware 2) Software 3) Database4) Either (1) or (2) 5) All of the above

198. The software test objective of operating in different platforms is achieved byconducting:1) Recovery test 2) Regression test 3) Integration test4) Configuration test 5) None

199. When the account number is entered into an online banking system, the computerresponds with a message that reads: “Account number that you entered is notassigned to an active number.” This technique is1) Dependency check 2) Format check3) Check digit 4) Existence check 5) None

200. Which of the following elements is unique to a Smart Card?1) Magnetic stripe 2) Microchip 3) Signature4) Photograph 5) None



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***



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1.3 2.4 3.4 4.4 5.5 6.4 7.2 8.1 9.5 10.311.4 12.2 13.3 14.5 15.1 16.1 17.5 18.4 19.2 20.121.3 22.3 23.1 24.1 25.5 26.3 27.2 28.4 29.3 30.531.5 32.1 33.4 34.1 35.4 36.2 37.1 38.3 39.4 40.541.3 42.1 43.2 44.4 45.3 46.5 47.4 48.1 49.2 50.151.2 52.1 53.2 54.4 55.1 56.3 57.2 58.3 59.2 60.461.3 62.2 63.3 64.4 65.1 66.1 67.5 68.2 69.2 70.271.4 72.4 73.3 74.3 75.3 76.3 77.2 78.2 79.2 80.381.1 82.2 83.5 84.3 85.1 86.3 87.1 88.2 89.3 90.391.4 92.2 93.3 94.5 95.1 96.2 97.4 98.3 99.1 100.5101.5 102.5 103.4 104.2 105.2 106.2 107.3 108.4 109.5 110.2111.3 112.4 113.5 114.2 115.1 116.1 117.2 118.3 119.4 120.1121.2 122.3 123.3 124.4 125.3 126.2 127.5 128.3 129.5 130.1131.5 132.1 133.4 134.3 135.3 136.3 137.3 138.2 139.4 140.4141.5 142.5 143.3 144.1 145.2 146.4 147.2 148.1 149.1 150.3151.5 152.4 153.3 154.3 155.4 156.3 157.3 158.5 159.3 160.2161.2 162.3 163.5 164.2 165.3 166.3 167.2 168.2 169.2 170.2171.3 172.3 173.2 174.2 175.2 176.1 177.1 178.1 179.3 180.5181.4 182.2 183.2 184.1 185.1 186.3 187.4 188.3 189.3 190.2191.2 192.1 193.3 194.1 195.3 196.2 197.4 198.4 199.4 200.2



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IBPS (CWE) PO/ MODEL TEST - III...IBPS (CWE) PO / ModelT est-III 2 (4) I, II and either III or IV follow (5) None 12. Statements : All flowers are trees. Some trees are stars. Some