IBPS Clerk 2015 Preliminary Examination- Model Question Paper-I

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IBPS Clerk 2015 Preliminary Examination

Model Question Paper-I

English Language

Directions (Questions.1-10): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given

below it. Certain words/phrases have been given in bold to help you locate them while

answering some of the questions.

Over the next five years, India faces one of the world’s biggest financing challenges:

bringing clean, affordable, reliable, water and energy to all, building the infrastructure for smart

cities to thrive and investing in enterprises that will provide livelihoods for an extra 10 million

jobseekers each year. Through all of this and beyond, a sustainable financial system is both a

necessity and an opportunity.

For too long, a myth has been allowed to take root in India that sustainability and finance

are at odds – that taking account of environmental, social and governance (ESG) factors raises

costs, reduces returns and impedes development. Actual practice suggests the reverse. The

Small Industries Development Bank of India has found, for example, that loans to energy –

efficient companies have a much better loan recovery rate than the norm. At IDFC, the

business case for sustainable finance is real and multifaceted: reduced risk, increased market

share, access to international finance, reduced reputational risks and enhanced brand value.

Sustainable finance is fundamentally about channeling capital to India’s real economy

needs. Take renewable. The fivefold increase in the country’s solar target to 100 GW of

installed capacity by 2022 will require unprecedented volumes of investment, perhaps as much

as $ 100 billion as per some estimates. Even though solar is approaching grid parity and offers

attractive long-term cash flows with zero fuel risk, many obstacles remain, not lease off take

risk. But bottlenecks in the financial system also exist. The inclusion of renewable in banks’

power sector exposure limits means that credit capacity is often capped out.

The time is ripe for India to move the needle on sustainable finance both domestically and

internally. Together, Ficci and the UN Environment Programme (UNEP) Inquiry have formed

an Indian advisory committee to generate practical policy options for a sustainable financial

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system. Harnessing the positive power of financial innovation is key, and this includes

mobilizing India’s debt and equity capital markets.

The demand for ‘green bonds’ among the world’s institutional investors is soaring – with

$34 billion being issued this year itself. Certification of what is ‘green’ and awareness creation

on the benefit from green bonds for individual investors are needed. A Green Bond Market

Development Committee for India will soon be set up. On the equity side, the new

Infrastructure Investment Trusts offer thepotential to create India’s own ‘yield co’ segment of

low-risk income-bearing clean energy securities.

Incentives will also be needed to overcome residual investment risks. But subsidies cannot

be the basis for sustainable finance in India. Key instruments could include guarantee and

credit enhancement mechanisms from national and international development banks to ‘crowd

in’ private capital to, for instance, underpin payments to energy service companies, unlocking

the crucial efficiency market in India. Tax incentives could also be used to encourage

investment flows – already used for the country’s de facto ‘green bond’ leader, the Indian

Renewable Energy Development Authority (IREDA).

1).What are the challenges India faces over the next five years? Answer in the context of the

passage.

A. Building the infrastructure for smart cities

B. Investing in enterprises

C. Regular availability of water and energy to all

a) Only (A) and (B)

b) Only (B) and (C)

c) Only (A) and (C)

d) All (A), (B) and (C)

e) Only (C)

2).What is the myth about the impact of ESG factors?

a) That these factor reduce cost, return and accelerate development

b) That these factors have no impact on a sustainable financial system

c) That these factors raise costs, reduce returns and impede development

d) That these factors facililate smooth functioning of sustainable financial system



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e) Other than those given in the options

3).Which of the following statements is not correct in the context of the given passage?

A. Sustainable finance means channeling capital to India’s real economy needs.

B. Loans to energy – efficient companies have a much better loan recovery rate.

C. There has been very little demand for ‘green bonds’ among the world’s institutional

investors.

D. Investing in enterprises will provide livelihood for additional ten million jobseekers each

year.

a) Only (A) and (B)

b) Only (B), (C) and (D)

c) Only (C)

d) Only (D)

e) Only (A) and (C)

4).What is the purpose of FICCI and UNEP forming an Indian advisory committee?

a) To woo world’s institutional investors to invest in green bonds

b) To mobilise Indian’s debt and equity capital market

c) To seek advice from successful financial institutions

d) To generate practical policy options for a sustainable financial system

e) All the above

5).What will be needed for setting up Green Bond Development Committee for India? Answer

in the context of passage

A. Guarantee and credit enhancement mechanisms from national and international

development banks

B. Incentives to overcome residual investment risks

C. Tax incentives to encourage investment flows

a) Only (A)

b) Only (B)

c) Only (C)

d) All (A), (B) and (C)

e) None of these



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6).What is the meaning of the expression ‘de facto’ as used in the given passage?

a) In practice but not necessarily ordained by law

b) A written statement of facts

c) By the very nature of the deed

d) From the beginning

e) Concerning law

Directions (Questions-17 & 18): Choose the word/group of words which is MOST SIMILAR

in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

7).Bottlenecks

a) assistance

b) hindrance

c) push

d) aid

e) promotion

8).Potential

a) mechanism

b) solution

c) possibility

d) problem

e) lacking

Directions (Questions.19 &20): Choose the word/group of words which is MOST

OPPOSITE in meaning of the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

9).Unprecedented

a) freakish

b) unusual

c) remarkable

d) extraordinary



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e) unexceptional

10).Myth

a) tradition

b) imagination

c) fantasy

d) truth

e) extraordinary

Directions (Questions-11-15): Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) and

(F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions

given below:

A. The NEFT system also relieves the stress on the existing paper based funds transfer

and clearing system.

B. The RBI has introduced a system called the “Reserve Bank of India National Electronic

Funds Transfer System”.

C. The remitting branch prepares a structured financial messaging solution (SFMS)

message and sends it to its service centre from NEFT.

D. The RBI at the clearing centre sorts the transactions bank-wise and prepares the

accounting entries of net debit or credit for passing on to the banks participating in the

system.

E. The system facilitates an efficient, secure, economical, reliable and expeditious system

of funds transfer and clearing in the banking sector.

F. The transaction under this system may be made for amounts inclusive of paisa

component when there is no upper value limit for putting through an individual NEFT

transaction.

11).Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

a) F

b) D

c) B

d) C



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e) A

12).Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

a) C

b) F

c) E

d) B

e) A

13).Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

a) C

b) F

c) D

d) B

e) E

14).Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

a) A

b) B

c) F

d) D

e) E

15).Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement?

a) A

b) B

c) F

d) D

e) C

Directions (Questions 16-20): In the following passage, some of the words have been left out,

each of which is indicated by a number. Find the suitable word the options given against each

number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningfully

complete.



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By choosing Jean Tirole for the 2014 Nobel Prize in economics, the Noble Committee

tips its hat at regulation of economic activity. Tirole has made fundamental (16) to the branch

of economics called Industrial organization, which (17) insights into regulation, apart from other

things. (18) with degrees in engineering in 1981, Tirole was eminently (19) to display game

theory to model the incentives of the government, the regulator and the regulated (20) under

different conditions of information sharing to given a formal, unified basis for coherent

regulation.

16).

a) Opposition

b) Contributions

c) Regulation

d) Substitution

e) Convention

17).

a) Brings

b) Furnish

c) Comply

d) Yields

e) Supply

18).

a) Occupied

b) Strengthened

c) Armed

d) Having

e) Taking

19).



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a) Placed

b) Informed

c) Known

d) Famous

e) Kept

20).

a) Thing

b) Body

c) Authority

d) Scheme

e) Entity

Directions (Q.21-26): In each of the following sentences there are certain blank spaces.

Below each sentence there are five options denoted by the number a), b), c), d), and e). Find

out which option can be used to fill up the blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to

make it meaningfully complete

21).Concerns relating to global mass ____________ and privacy of internet users are likely to

__________ discussions at the Internet Governance Forum.

a) Vigilance, lead

b) Scrutiny, influence

c) Inspection, control

d) Surveillance, dominate

e) Supervision, handle

22).A Manipur youth was allegedly killed by another from the same state after an argument

_____________ out between them over a ________ issue in North Delhi

a) Flared, minor



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b) Emerged, little

c) Brought, serious

d) Came, frivolous

e) Broke, petty

23).Several studies on maternal health show poorer nutrional ____________, higher levels of

morbidity and mortality, and lower _____________ of antenatal and postnatal services among

tribals.

a) Position, use

b) Status utilization

c) Quality, application

d) Condition, utility

e) Rating, usage

24).Rise in exports and a ___________ in imports helped _____________ narrow the country’s

current account deficit.

a) Decline, sharply

b) Slump, clearly

c) Fall, firmly

d) Downturn, strongly

e) Drop, distinctly

25).The Government has _____________ an additional penalty on Reliance industries for

____________ less than the targeted natural gas from its KG-D6 block

a) Enforced, purifying

b) Ordered, refining

c) Slapped, producing

d) Charged, digging

e) Imposed, excavating



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Directions (Q.26-30): In the following questions, a sentence has been given with some of its

part in bold. To make the sentence grammatically correct, you have to replace the bold part

with the correct alternative given below. If the sentence is correct as it is, given 5) as you

answer (i.e. No correction required).

26).Military helicopters are old but have not outlived their lives.

a) Outlived its life

b) Outlived their life

c) Outliving their lives

d) Outliving its life

e) No correction required

27).A discussion on ‘Make in India’ is not complete without talking stock of the workforce on

the ground

a) Not completed if not

b) Not completed from

c) Not completed until

d) Incomplete unless


28).If some of the state has best practice it is good to learn from them

a) States have best practises

b) State has best practise

c) States have best practices

d) States has best practice


29).Vishwanathan Anand and Sachin Tendulkar are icons who have helped us navigate from a

simple time to a more complicated world

a) Simple time to a more

b) Simple time to no



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c) Simpler time to a more

d) Simple time to mere


30).If we cocoon us from feedback, and then we will never be able to improve our capability

a) Ourself into

b) Ourselves through

c) Us by

d) Ourselves from


Answers:

1). d) 2). c) 3). c) 4). d) 5). e) 6). a) 7). b) 8). c) 9). e) 10). d) 11). c) 12). b) 13).

e) 14). a) 15). d) 16). b) 17). d) 18). c) 19). a) 20). e) 21). d) 22). e) 23). b) 24). a)

25). c) 26). b) 27). e) 28). c) 29). a) 30). d)

Reasoning Ability

Directions (31-35):Read the information given below and answer the questions that follow.

Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are participants from different teams, viz White, Blue, Green

and Black. They participate in different categories, viz Singing, Dancing, Painting, Hockey,

Tennis and Cooking in different days of a week from Monday to Saturday. There is no

competition on sunday.Two of then are the players of team white and two of them are the

players of team Black.

E participates in Tennis but he is neither from team Blue nor from White.

A is from team White but participates neither on Thursday nor on Wednesday.

Neither F nor B participates either in Painting or in Hockey.

Dancing competition is held on Tuesday.

Persons participating in Cooking and Painting are from team White and Green

respectively.

C participates in Singing on Friday and he is from team Blue but F does not participate

on Tuesday.



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31).Who among the following participates in Painting?

a) B

b) A

c) F

d) D

e) None of these

32).Who participates in Dancing?

a) A

b) F

c) B

d) D

e) Can’t be determined

33).D is from team

a) White

b) Black

c) Can’t be determined

d) Green

e) None of these

34).If E participates on Saturday then A must participate on which of the following days?

a) Monday

b) Tuesday

c) Can’t be determined

d) Thursday

e) None of these

35).A participates in which of the following categories?

a) Singing

b) Hockey

c) Cooking

d) Tennis




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Directions(36-40): Study the information carefully and answer the questions.

M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T are sitting around a circular area of equal distance between each

other, but not necessarily in the same order. Some of the people are facing the centre while

some face outside (i.e in a direction opposite the Centre). Note: Facing the same direction

means if one face the Centre then the other also faces the centre and vice versa. Facing

opposite direction means if one person face the center then the other faces outside and vice

versa.

S sits second to the right of P. P faces the centre. T sits second to the left of S. T is an

intermediate neighbour of both O and Q. R sits second to the left of Q. M sits second to the left

of R. T sits second to the left of N. M sits second to the left of O. T faces the same direction as

Q. N sits third to the right of M.

36). who sits exactly between S and T when counted from the left of S?

a) M

b) Q

c) P

d) O

e) N

37). How many people in the given arrangement face the centre?

a) one

b) Three

c) Five

d) Two

e) Four

38). who sits second to the right of N?

a) R

b) P

c) T

d) S

e) O



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39). Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given seating

arrangement and so form a group. Which the one that does not belong to the group?

a) R

b) S

c) Q

d) O

e) M

40). Which of the following is True regarding T as per the given seating arrangement.

a) T faces the centre.

b) Only two people sit between N and T

c) Only One person sit between N and P

d) S sit second to the left of T

e) Only one person sit between T and R.

Directions(Q.41-45): In each questions below are given two statements followed by two

conclusions numbered I and II.You have to take the given statements to be true even if they

seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide

which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding

commonly known facts.

41).Statements: All marks are scores.

Some marks are percentages.

Conclusions: I. All scores are marks.

II. At least some scores are percentages

a) Both conclusion I and II are true

b) Only conclusion I is true

c) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true

d) Only conclusion II is true

e) Either conclusion I or II is true

42). Statements: All chains are links



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No link is a bridge

Conclusions: I. No bridge is a chain

II. At least some chains are bridges.

a) Both conclusion I and II are true

b) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true

c) Either conclusion I or II is true

d) Only conclusion II is true

e) Only conclusion I is true

43).Statements: No leaf is a root.

All stems are leaves.

Conclusions: I. No root is a stem.

II. All leaves are stems.

a) Either conclusion I or II is true


c) Only conclusion I is true

d) Both conclusion I and II are true

e) Only conclusion II is true

44).Statements: All exams are tests.

All tests are projects.

Conclusions: I. No project is an exam.

II. All projects are tests

a) Only conclusion II is true


c) Only conclusion I is true

d) Both conclusion I and II is true

e) Either conclusion I or II is true

45).Statements: Some news are definitely not reports.

Some reports are cards.

Conclusions: I. Some news are definitely not reports

II. Some cards are definitely not news.



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a) Only conclusion II is true

b) Either conclusion I or II is true

c) Both conclusion I and II are true

d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true

e) Only conclusion I is true

Directions (questions. 46-49): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two

statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in

the statement are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer

a) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in

statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

b) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in

statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

c) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the

question.

d) If the data in both the statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the

question.

e) If the data in both statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

46). Who among V, W, X, Y and Z is the immediate neighbor of W and Y? All are sitting at a

circular table.

I. X, who is third to the left of W, is on the immediate right of Z and second to the left of V.

II. X is second to the left of V, who is third to the right of Z, who is second to the left of Y.

47). Among E, F, G, H, I and J, who is the tallest?

I. H and I are taller than J, E and F but none of them is the tallest.

II. I is taller than H but shorter than G.

48).What is Sonu’s rank from the top in a class of thirty students?

I. Sona’s rank is fifteenth from the top in the class and he is six ranks below Sonu.

II. Sonal is six ranks ahead of Monal and his rank is fifth from the top in the class.



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49).In a certain code 48 means ‘stop smoking’ and 62 means ‘injurious habit’. What do 6 and 8

mean respectively in that code?

I. 4 6 7 means ‘stop bad habit’.

II. 8 2 9 means ‘smoking is injurious’.

50).In a row of 45 students Ritesh is twelfth from the right end and three are thirteen students

between Meena and Ritesh. What is the Meena’s position from the left end?

a) 19th

b) 20th

c) 26th

d) 27th


Directions (Q.51-55): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions

given below:

Twelve persons are sitting in two parallel rows containing six persons each, in such a

way that there is an equal distance between the adjacent persons. IN row 1, G, K, L, M, N and

P are sitting and all of them are facing south. In row 2, A, D, E, C, B and O are sitting facing

north.

C is sitting third to the left of A, B is facing L. G is sitting third to the right of N. K is

facing A and sitting at one end of the row. P is sitting second to the right of N. D is facing M

and he is not sitting in the middle position of the row. The person facing N is second to the

right of C. E is not facing N and he is not sitting on the immediate left of A.

51).In the row facing south, who is sitting at the ends of the row?

a) L and G

b) P and L

c) P and K

d) M and K

e) None of these



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52).Who are the immediate neighbours of B?

a) C and O

b) C and E

c) A and O

d) D and C

e) None of these

53).If the persons facing south are arranged in alphabetical order from right to left then who

among the following is facing K?

a) C

b) A

c) D

d) E

e) None of these

54).Who are the immediate neighbours of P?

a) G and L

b) G and K

c) L and N

d) N and M

e) None of these

55).If M interchanges his position with P, similarly G with L and N with K, then who among

them is facing p?

a) E

b) C

c) O

d) A

e) D

Directions (Questions.56-60): Study the following information carefully to answer the given

questions.



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In a certain code language, ‘business enterprises in India’ is written as ‘so jo no vo’, ‘the

business models of information’ is written as ‘do to ro jo co’, ‘enterprises resource planning’ is

written as ‘lo no to qo’ and ‘information implementation system’ is written as ’ko co wo’.

56).What is the code for ‘information’?

a) do

b) co

c) ko

d) ro

e) None of these

57).The code ‘lo’ is used for which of the following words?

a) India

b) models

c) providing

d) planning

e) None of these

58).Code ‘wo jo lo qo’ can be decoded as which of the following?

a) Models providing business system

b) Planning providing business system

c) Planning providing implementation business

d) Can’t be determined

e) None of these

59).Which of the following could be a code for ‘India business resource models’?

a) no jo so to

b) go no jo qo

c) go no jo to

d) Can’t say

e) None of these

60).What is the code for ‘of’’?

a) ro

b) do



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c) Either ‘do’ or ‘ro’

d) Can’t say

e) None of these

61).How many pairs of letters are there in the word VENGEANCE which has the same number

of letters between them as in English alphabet?

a) One

b) Two

c) Nil

d) Three

e) None of these

62).If it is possible to make a meaningful word with the first, the third, the sixth and the

eleventh letters of the word KILOCALORIE, using each letter only once, which of the following

will be the second letter of that word? If no such word can be formed give ‘X’ as the answer,

and if only two such words can be made give answer ‘Y’. And if more than two such words can

be made give ‘Z’ as the answer.

a) A

b) X

c) Y

d) Z

e) None of these

63).By following certain logic MTUXTRVN is written as NUVXTQUM. How is ASUMNJKL

written in that logic?

a) BTVMNIJK

b) BTVMNKLM

c) BTVNMIJK

d) ZRTMNIJK

e) None of these

64).Four of the following is similar in some respect. Find the odd one.

a) 73

b) 107

c) 47



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d) 97

e) 231

65).’Z’ started walking straight towards South. He walked a distance of 15 meters and then

took a left turn and walked a distance of 30 meters. Then he took a right turn and walked a

distance of 15 meters again. Z is facing which direction?

a) North East

b) South

c) North

d) South-West

e) None of these

Answers:

31). d) 32). c) 32). d) 34). a) 35). b) 36). d) 37). b) 38).b) 39).d) 40).c) 41). d) 42). e)

43). c) 44). b) 45). d) 46). c) 47). a) 48). a) 49). c) 50). b) 51). d) 52). a) 53). d) 54).

a) 55). e) 56). b) 57). c) 58). d) 59). c) 60). c) 61). e) 62). c) 63). a) 64). e) 65). b)

Quantitative Aptitude

66).Three pipes A, B and C can fill a tank in 4 hours. After working together for 2 hours, C is

closed, and A and B fill the tank in 10 hours. Then how much time will C alone will take to fill

the tank?

a) 4 hours

b) 5 hours

c) 8 hours

d) 10 hours

e) 12 hours

67).Rajeev alone can do a work in 45 days, but with the help of Kiran he can do the same work

in 20 days. If they get Rs.2925 for the work, then what will be the share of Kiran?

a) Rs.1225

b) Rs. 1300

c) Rs. 1475



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d) Rs. 1625

e) Rs. 1750

68).A student goes to school at a speed of 6 kmph and returns home at a speed of 4.5 kmph. If

takes 10.5 hours in all, then how far is the school from his home?

a) 18 km

b) 21 km

c) 24 km

d) 27 km

e) 36 km

69). Ramesh was six times older than Suresh 10 years ago. Ramesh would be two times

Suresh’s age 6 years from now. 4 years ago, what was the ratio of Suresh’s age to Ramesh’s?

a) 3:1

b) 1:3

c) 2:3

d) 3:2

e) 4:6

70).The incomes of three families P, Q and R are in the ratio of 6:8:11 and their expenditures

are in the ratio of 5:8:10. If family P saves ½ of his income, then the savings of families P, Q

and R are in the ratio of?

a) 2:15:20

b) 16:3:25

c) 15:16:25

d) 25:16:3

e) 45:12:5



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Directions (Q.71-75): Study the following pie-charts carefully and answer the questions below them.

The entire fund that an organization gets from different sources is equal to Rs. 18 crore.

71).What is the difference between the fund acquired by the organization from the NGOs and

that from the Government agencies?

a) Rs. 52860000

b) Rs. 38650000

c) Rs. 46800000

d) Rs. 432680000

e) None of these

72).If the organization managed Building Maintenance from the Ministry of Home Affairs fund

only, how much fund (in Rs) from the Ministry of Home Affairs would still be left for other use?

a) 5.20 crore



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b) 7.23 crore

c) 2.83 crore

d) 3.06 crore

e) 2.83 crore

73).If the Scholarship has to be paid out of the Government agencies fund what is the

approximate percentage of Government agencies fund used for this purpose?

a) 42%

b) 52%

c) 48%

d) 31%

e) 36%

74).What is the total amount (in Rs) used by the organization for payment?

a) 7.16 crore

b) 6.3 crore

c) 9.73 crore

d) 4.8 crore

e) None of these

75).What amount (in Rs) of the fund is acquired by the organization from Ministry of Home

Affairs?

a) 9.25 crore

b) 4.2 crore

c) 7.56 crore

d) 3.25 crore

e) None of these

Directions (Questions. 76-80): In each of the following question one number is missing in the

series. Find out the missing number that will come in place of question mark.

76).198 197 205 178 ? 117 333

a) 227

b) 196



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c) 235

d) 242

e) 129

77). 5 16 81 460 3297 ?

a) 29772

b) 20869

c) 27561

d) 24623

e) 30772

78). 15 22 100 584 4692 ?

a) 39825

b) 42833

c) 46896

d) 51369

e) 59074

79). 12 20 64 294 1772 ?

a) 11600

b) 13300

c) 15980

d) 13870

e) 12892

80). 292 144 74 35 19.5 ? 5.875

a) 11.25

b) 9.5

c) 7.75

d) 8.25

e) 6.135

81). A group consists of 5 couples, in which each of the 5 men has one wife each. In how

many different ways can they be arranged in a straight line so that the men and women occupy

alternate positions?

a) 25680



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b) 21900

c) 28800

d) 32860

e) None of these

82). In how many different ways can 8 unidentical balls be placed in 5 different boxes when

each box can have any number of balls?

a) 523

b) 495

c) 625

d) 763

e) 954

83). A bag contains 11 red and 5 green balls. Find the probability that four balls are red and

three balls are green when 7 balls are drawn at random.

a) 175/5834

b) 19/129

c) 71/4892

d) 15/52

e) None of these

84). From a group of 5 men and 2 women, 2 persons are selected at random. Find the

probability that at least one women is selected.

a) 5/17

b) 9/31

c) 7/13

d) 123/731

e) 11/21

85). A book consists of 45 pages, 35 lines on each page and 40 characters on each line. If this

content is written in another note book consisting of 45 lines per page and 28 characters per

line then the required no. of pages will be how much percent more than the previous no. of

pages?

a) 11.11%

b) 13.75%



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c) 9.3%

d) 15.33%

e) None of these

Directions (Questions- 86-90): What value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the

following questions?

86) 17.5% of 624+1.8% of 155=?

a) 137.19

b) 103.71

c) 93.119

d) 111.99

e) 127.1

87) 62.56% of 82550=?

a) 5164.328

b) 5264.328

c) 51642.28

d) 51643.28

e) None of these

88). 3186.24+8267.18+5286.42-10826.42=?

a) 5910.342

b) 4913.42

c) 5913.42

d) 5823.42

e) 5906

89)42.5×1.2+3060+18=.?

a) 226

b) 221

c) 225

d) 175

e) 176



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90).305.2÷1.4+34.20÷1.5=?

a) 446

b) 240.08

c) 240.8

d) 44.6

e) None of these

Directions (Q. 91-95): Read the Following table carefully and answer the questions asked

below.

The table shows the number of bottles or cans (in lakh) of soft drinks manufactured by six

different companies over the years.

91).What is the average number of bottles or cans of soft drinks manufactured by

Company A for all the given years?

a) 3200000

b) 3259000

c) 3500000

d) 3450000

e) None of these

92).The number of bottles or cans of soft drinks manufactured by Company C in 2009 is

approximately what percentage of the total number of bottles or cans of soft drinks

manufactured by all the companies together in 2009?

Year Name of the Company

A B C D E F

2008 32 38 41 36 40 45

2009 35 40 45 38 42 48

2010 30 41 34 30 45 47

2011 37 33 50 39 33 49

2012 36 45 40 45 41 51

2013 40 37 51 42 49 55



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a) 18.15%

b) 19.69%

c) 16.28%

d) 21.8%

e) 20.38%

93).What is the ratio of the total number of bottles or cans of soft drinks manufactured by

Company Ato the number of bottles or cans of soft drinks manufactured by Company C over

the years?

a) 39:64

b) 70:87

c) 87:70

d) 64:39

e) 81:92

94).The total number of bottles or cans of soft drinks manufactured by Company D is

approximately what percentage of the total number of bottles or cans of soft drinks

manufactured by Company F for all the given years together?

a) 72%

b) 81%

c) 62%

d) 80%

e) 78%

95).The number of bottles of soft drinks manufactured by Company E in 2010 is what

percentage of the total number of bottles of soft drinks manufactured by Company E in all the

years together?

a) 15%

b) 16%

c) 14%

d) 18%

e) 21%



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Directions (Q.96-100): What approximate value should come in place of question mark (?) in

the following questions?

96). 68.003÷33.489=(?)2 -18.79=?

a) 10

b) 18

c) 3

d) 8

e) None of these

97).13.689×17.213+21.864×8.79=?

a) 400

b) 380

c) 440

d) 460

e) None of these

98).20440÷639.890=√(?)

a) 984

b) 1084

c) 980

d) 1184

e) 1050

99).279.04×12.546+65.37×47.08=?+126.589

a) 7250

b) 6350

c) 6550

d) 6850

e) 6450

100).In what time will the simple interest on a certain sum become 2.5 times the principal at

12.5% per annum?

a) 25 years



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b) 10 years

c) 20 years

d) 12 years

e) 15 years

Answers:

66). b) 67). d) 68). d) 69). b) 70). c) 71). c) 72). d) 73). a) 74). b) 75). c) 76). d) 77). a)

78). c) 79). b) 80). c) 81). c) 82). b) 83). d) 84). e) 85). a) 86). d) 87). d) 88). c)

89). b) 90). c) 91). c) 92). a) 93). b) 94). e) 95). d) 96). e) 97). c) 98). b) 99). c) 100). c)



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IBPS Clerk 2015 Preliminary Examination- Model Question Paper-I