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Technical
Instructor: GRIFFIN Name:
Results: Class:
Period:
Date:
1. At the mean sea level, the average pressure exerted on a body by the atmospheric
weight above it
a. 12.25 kg/m3
b. 14.7 kgs.
c. 14.7 lbs
d. 14.7 lbs/inch2
2. Two balls are hanging from a stand. A charged rod is rubbed against both the balls
at the same time. The charge on the balls will be.
a. Both the balls will be positively charge and will repel.
b. Both will be negatively charged.
c. Both A will be positively charged and Ball B will be negatively charged.
d. Both B will be positively charged and Ball A will be negatively charged.
3. What is the ampere hour capacity of a battery which supplies a current of 4.5 A for 25
hrs.
a. 1125 Amp. hour
b. 90 Amps
c. 112.5 Amps hour
d. 5 Amps hour
4. The pressure on the fuel in the tank at high attitude will be
a. High
b. Low
c. Same as sea level
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d. High and them low
5. When Handling a magnet, we should avoid excessive heating, hammering and
avoid dropping because
a. The magnetic poles of the magnet detach
b. The magnetic poles get interchanged
c. Magnetic properties of the magnet decrease.
d. None of the above.
6. The essential difference between AC and DC is
a. Inductive reactance
b. Capacitive reactance
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Resonance
7. If the centre of gravity of an aircraft is moved after the tail moment level arm
a. Increases and longitudinal stability increases
b. Decreases and longitudinal stability increases
c. Increases and longitudinal stability decreases
d. Decreases and longitudinal stability decreases
8. The magnetic compass deviation is due to
a. Northly and southly turning errors
b. Acceleration errors
c. Aircraft electric components
d. Earth's magnetic field
9. In a fixed pitch propeller, you observe a drop in RPM reading. This is followed by rough
running of the engine. The first thing that you suspect is
a. Fuel starvation
b. Spark plug fouling
c. Carburetor Icing
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d. None of the above
10. In pressurization system, the air sent inside the cabin is
a. Ram air
b. Bleed air
c. Change air
d. Conditioned Air
11. Effective Pitch of the propeller is
a. Distance it actually travels forward in one revolution
b. Distance it should have travelled forward in standard atmosphere,
c. None of the above.
12. The angle between the relative airflow and the plane of rotation is
a. Pitch angle
b. Angle of advance
c. Helix angle
d. Any of the above
13. The point at which the boundary layer changes from laminar to turbulent is r as
a. Transition point
b. Separation point
c. Critical point
d. Reference point
14. Which of the following is/are true with respect to best rate of climb
a. This is the rate of climb will gain the most altitude in the least time
b. For every airplane there is airspeed at a given power setting, which will give
be rate of climb.
c. It is normally used on take off and is maintained until the airplane leaves the
traffic circuit
d. All the above are true
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15. The stalling speed of an airplane, when flying upwind as compared to downwind
a. Would differ by an amount equal to the speed of the wind
b. Is the same
c. is less when flying downwind
d. is less when flying up wind
16. If all the upward lift forces on the wing were concentrated in one place, there would be
established a center of lift, which is usually called
a. Center of pressure
b. Centre of gravity
c. Coefficient of lift
d. Lift / drag
17. If the center of the wing's lifting force(cp) is forward of the airplane's center of gravity
(CG) - the airplane would always have tendency of
a. Nose down
b. Nose up
c. Yaw to right
d. Yaw to left
18. When starting a turbojet engine
a. A hot start is indicated if the exhaust gas temperature exceeds
specified limits
b. An excessively lean mixture is likely to cause a hot start
c. The engine should start between 60 to 80 second after the fuel shut off lever
is opened
d. Release the starter switch as soon as indication of the lift of occurs.
19. What are the two functional elements in a centrifugal compressor?
a. Turbine and compressor
b. Compressor and manifold
c. Bucket and expender
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d. Impeller and diffuser
20. What is the first engine instrument indication of a successful start of a Turbine engine
a. A decrease in the exhaust gas temperature.
b. A rise in the engine fuel flow
c. A decrease in the engine pressure ratio
d. A rise in the exhaust gas temperature
21. What is the purpose of the diffuser section in a turbine engine
a. Increase pressure and reduce velocity
b. To speed up the airflow in the turbine section
c. To convert pressure to velocity
d. To reduce pressure and increase velocity
22. Wing loading is
a. The ratio of the lift to the aircraft weight
b. The ratio of the weight of the wing to the area of the wing
c. The ratio of the total aircraft weight to the wing area
d. wing area divided by wing span
23. What performance is characteristic of flight at maximum L/D in a propeller-driven
airplane?
a. Maximum endurance
b. Best angle of climb
c. Maximum coefficient of lift and minimum coefficient of drag.
d. Maximum range and maximum distance glide.
24. When airplane is said to be in a state of "equilibrium", it means that
a. It is at a state of rest
b. It is at a steady motion
c. Both thrust and drag are equal and opposite and it will continue move forward
at the same uniform rate of speed
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d. All are applicable
25. A kite may be considered as an inclined plane, the weight of which is supported in the
air
a. By the means of string, which is tied to its center
b. By the reaction of wind flowing past it
c. By the reaction of wind flowing against it
d. By the means of tail, suspended at the lower comer of it
26. The lift and drag of an airfoil depend not only on the angle of attack but also upon:
a. The density of the air and the shape of the airfoil
b. The plan area of the airfoil.
c. The square of the velocity (or true air speed)
d. All the above
27. Refer the graph given for a particular wing section when docs the lift curve I
reaches its maximum value?
a. At 0 degree angle of attack
b. At or around 18 degrees angle of attack
c. At 28 degrees angle of attack
d. The graph does not show any lift curve.
28. During engine operation, if carburetor heat is applied, it will
a. increase air to fuel ratio
b. decrease carburetor air temperature
c. increase engine RPM
d. Decrease the air density to the carburetor
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29. What is used to drive an externally driven supercharger
a. Engine oil pressure
b. Gear driven directly from the engine crankshaft
c. Exhaust gases driving a turbine
d. Belt driven through a pulley arrangement
30. Which of the following has the greatest effect on the viscosity of lubricating oil
a. Temperature
b. Oil ness
c. Pressure
d. Volatility
31. Engine oil temperature gauges indicate the temperature of the oil
a. Entering the oil cooler
b. Entering the engine
c. In the oil storage tank.
d. In the return lines to the oil storage tank
32. Oil dilution is resorted
a. For ease of starting piston engine under ail conditions
b. To reduce viscosity of oil in cold weather, or to facilitate, starting
engine in winter
c. To reduce gumming effect of engine oil
d. To achieve opt-rating temperature quickly
33. What is the primary purpose of a hydraulic actuator?
a. Transmit hydraulic fluid
b. Transform fluid pressure into mechanical force
c. Transfer fluid from the pressure side to the return side of a hydraulic system
34. The purpose of a hydraulic pressure regulator is to
a. Direct the entire pump output to the essential units in case of emergency
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b. Boost the pressure in the portions of the system that require higher pressure.
c. Relieve the pump of its load when no actuating unit arc being
operating
35. Most airplane are designed to have their CG located slightly forward of the CP. to
a. Create a nose down tendency
b. As in (1), so that the airplane will have a natural tendency to pitch downward
c. As in (2), there by avoiding stalling condition
d. None of the above
36. The performance of an airplane is greatly affected by the wing loading. This is a value
which is
a. Total load the wing will carry
b. Ratio of the wing area to horse power
c. Gross weight of the airplane divided by the wing area
d. Gross weight divided by the span
37. At high speed an aircraft will produce
a. More induced drag than profile drag
b. About the same profile drag as induced drag
c. More profile drag than induced drag
d. Either of the above depending on TAS.
38. The center of gravity of an aircraft can be determine by
a. Multiplying total weight by total moments
b. Dividing total arms by total moments
c. Multiplying total arms by total weight
d. Diving total moments by total weight
39. Which of the following factors influence longitudinal stability
a. The size of the horizontal stabilizer
b. Position of the center of gravity
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c. Position of the horizontal stabilizer
d. All the above
40. An airplane which, following a disturbance oscillate with increasing up and down
movements until it eventually stall or enters a dangerous dive would be said to have
a. Negative dynamic stability
b. Dynamic stability
c. Lateral stability
d. Longitudinal stability
41. What operational force tends to increase propeller angle
a. Centrifugal twisting force
b. Aerodynamic twisting force
c. Thrust bending force
d. Torque bending force
42. How does the aerodynamic twisting force affect operating propeller blades
a. It tends to bend the blades opposite the direction of rotation
b. It tends to turn the blades to a high blade angle
c. It tends to bend the blades forward
d. It tends to turn the blade to a low blade angle
43. If fuel / air ratio is proper and ignition timing is correct the combustion process should
a. Be completed 20 decrees to 30 degrees before up top center at the end of the
compression stroke
b. Be completed when the exhaust valve opens at the end of the power stroke
c. Continue until the end of the exhaust stroke
d. Be complete just after top center at the beginning of the power
stroke
44. When is the fuel/air mixture ignited in a conventional reciprocating engine
a. When the piston has reached top dead center of the intake stroke
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b. Just the piston begins the power stroke
c. Shortly before the piston, reaches the top of the compression stroke
d. When the piston reaches top dead center at the end of the compression
stroke
45. If the exhaust valve of a lour stroke cycle engine is closed and the intake valve is just
closing the piston is on the
a. Intake stroke
b. Power stroke
c. Exhaust stroke
d. Compression stroke
46. Excessive valve clearances will cause the duration of valve opening to
a. Increase for both intake and exhaust valves
b. Decrease for both intake and exhaust valves
c. Decrease for intake valves and increase for exhaust valves
d. Increase for intake valves and decrease for exhaust valves
47. A change in engine manifold, pressure has a direct effect on the
a. Piston displacement
b. Compression ratio
c. Valve overlap period
d. Mean effective cylinder pressure
48. Which of the following instrument makes use of both pitot and static corrections
instruments
a. Airspeed indicator
b. Altimeter
c. Vertical speed indicator
Answer
i. A and B
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ii. B and C
iii. A only
iv. C only
49. A sudden backward movement of the control column will cause the vertical speed
indicator pointer to indicate
a. A small rate of descent
b. As in (1) for few moments, thereafter indicate a correct reading
c. A small rate of climb
d. As in (3) for few moments, there after indicate a correct reading.
50. Assume during flight, the impact source of the pilot static system gets blocked now,
which of the following instruments will give an erroneous reading
a. The bank and turn indicator
b. The vertical speed indicator
c. The Altimeter
d. The air speed indicator
51. The normal operating errors to be found in any aircraft magnetic compass are
a. Acceleration, deceleration and turning errors
b. Latitude errors due to earths rate of ration
c. An erroneous indication when ever its gyro is running too fast or too slow
d. All the above are applicable
52. Figure shows a rotor, mounted in a gimbal, if a force is applied, in this case by rotating
the base, the applied force will act
a. At 90 deg. in the direction in which the rotor is spinning
b. Exactly at 45 deg. in the direction in which the rotor is spinning
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c. At 90 deg. in the direction opposite to which the rotor is spinning.
53. The figure shows a turn co- ordinator with in index aircraft in place of a needle. For
example, if the aircraft were placed in a banked attitude and opposite rudder is used lo
hold the aircraft heading constant
a. The index aircraft will remain with its wing level
b. As in (1) because there is no rate of turn occurring
c. The index aircraft will be titled
d. As in (3), there by showing a particulars rate of turn
54. The following shows a combination of instruments, which combination can be grouped
under pitch instruments
a. Altitude indicator, altimeter, airspeed indicator and vertical speed
indicator
b. Altimeter, airspeed indicator, RPM
c. Altitude indicator, altimeter and manifold pressure gauge
d. Attitude indicator, airspeed and manifold pressure or RPM
55. Rigidity of gyroscope is that property by which
a. It rotates evenly
b. Causes secondary precession
c. It moves at 90 deg. to an applied force
d. None of the above
56. The propeller governor controls the
a. Oil to and from the pitch changing mechanism
b. Relief valve in the accumulator assemblies
c. Spring tension on the boost pump speeder spring
d. Linkage and counterweights from moving in and out.
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57. During the on speed condition on a propeller, the
a. Centrifugal force acting on the governor fly weight is greater than
the tension of the speeder spring.
b. Tension on the speeder spring is greater than the centrifugal force acting on
the governor flyweights.
c. Tension on the speeder spring is less than the centrifugal force acting on the
governor flyweights.
d. Centrifugal force of the governor flyweights is equal to the speeder spring
force.
58. What action takes place when the cockpit control lever for a hydromantic, constant
speed propeller is actuated
a. Tension of the speeder spring is changed.
b. The transfer valve changes position
c. The governor booster pump pressure is varied
d. The governor bypass valve is positioned to direct oil pressure to the propeller
dome
59. What will happen to the propeller blade angle and the engine RPM if the tension on the
propeller governor control spring (speeder spring) in increased
a. Blade angle will increase and RPM will increase
b. Blade angle will decrease and RPM will decrease
c. Blade angle will increase and RPM will decrease
d. Blade angle will decrease and RPM will increase
60. When the centrifugal force acting on the propeller governor counter weights overcomes
the tension on the speeder spring a propeller is in what speed condition
a. On speed
b. Under speed
c. In between condition
d. Over speed
61. What operational force causes the greatest stress on a propeller
a. Aerodynamic twisting force
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b. Centrifugal force
c. Thrust bending force
d. Torque bending force
62. The center of gravity of an aircraft can be determined by
a. Multiplying total weight by total moments
b. Dividing total arms by total moments
c. Dividing total moments by total weight.
63. The stalling speed of an aircraft will be highest when the aircraft is loaded with a
a. Low gross weight and forward CG
b. Low gross weight and aft CG
c. High gross weight and forward CG
64. Two batteries are placed in a/c
a. Both are connected in series
b. Both are connected in parallel
c. One used for normal operation & one for stand by
65. In a 24 V circuit, if current in 4 Amps, the resistance is
a. 6 ohms
b. 7 ohms
66. In a 24 V circuit, current is 70 Amps, the power will be
a. 1680 W
b. 1800
67. Force of Magnetism will be max at.
a. North pole
b. South pole
c. Centre of the magnet
d. North & south pole
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68. For pressurization air used is:
a. Charge Air
b. Ram Air
c. Fresh Air
d. S
69. The formation of ice between the carb & Butterfly where the expansion of air takes place
is known as.
a. Impact icing
b. Fuel Icing
c. Throttle ice
d. Refrigeration icing
70. The Gap between the ends of the piston rings is given for
a. The springiness of the ring so that it may be fined properly in the piston
b. As (a) & for higher working temp
c. Prevent the piston jam
d. Oil scavenging
71. The Shank is of connecting rod
a. The portion where small end is connected to the piston
b. The portion where big and of connecting rod is connected to the piston
c. Is fiat portion between big end & small end of connecting rod
d. Is the top portion of the piston
72. Lubricating Oil Provides
a. Lubrication
b. Flushing
c. Cooling & sealing
d. All of the above
73. The pressure of oil delivered in the engine is measured
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a. From the sump
b. From the pump
c. From the fitter
74. If low Octane rating fuel is used, it will cause.
a. Detonation
b. Shorten the life of engine
c. Damage various parts of engine
d. All of the above
75. The additive in the fuel namely Tetra Ethyi Lead (TEL) is used to
a. Provide colours
b. Prevent detonation
76. In a compression stroke, if temp starts increasing before piston reaches TDC, it will cause
to
a. Detonation
b. Pre Ignition
c. Back Firing
77. ………………………… may occur in one cylinder ………….. will normally occur in all
cylinder.
a. Pre ignition, Detonation
b. Detonation, Pre ignition
78. Suction Gape is for
a. Gyro
b. Pitot Static
c. Alternator
79. Doli’s eye appears when
a. Engine off
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b. Pump fails
c. Gives volumes of suction
d. Either a or b
80. Impact side of Pitot static blocked, which instrument will give erroneous reading.
a. ASI
b. VSI
c. Aliments
d. Turn & slip indication
81. Stability about Longitudinal axis
a. Wing dihedral
b. Ailerons
82. Lifting area for
a. A > B
b. B > A
c. B = A
83. Charge of speed & direction of wind effects
a. Speed of sound
b. G/s
c. TAS
d. IAS
84. Black Smoke in exhaust of jet
a. Improper combustion
b. As in (a) & formation & carbon
c. Improper mixing of grade
d. As in (c) & high flash point
85. If a/c has ability to fly hands off is mean that the a/c exhibits the property of
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a. Stability
b. Controllibity
c. Maneuverability
d. A and C both
86. Lubrication in Jet Engine
a. Synthetic oil
b. Vegetable oil
c. Mineral oil
87. Convert 20° to martinet & 20° F to Celsius
a. 68oF & 6.7oC
b. 6.7oC & 68oF
c. 6.8oF & 6.7oC
88. It the pilot observes high oil temperatures then the action take by the pilot is
a. Open the cowl flaps
b. Fully enrich the mixture
c. Inc. the a/c speed
d. Any of the above
89. Turbofan: mark the incorrect
a. The turbofan is in installed behind the engine
b. Is driven by the turbine shaft
c. The diameter of turbofan is less than proper diameters
d. All the above
90. If AR is infinite injured drafts
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
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d. None of the above
91. Four crank throw, crank shaft effect at
a. 2
b. 6
c. 8
d. None
92. Why a/c circuits are preferred in an aircrafts electrical systems
a. Are less complex
b. The total weight is less
c. Stepping up / down is easy
d. All above
93. The gas generator in a jet engine is
a. The burner
b. As in (a) and turbine
c. As (b) and compressor
d. As (c) and diffuser
94. Aviation oils are classified in numerical values. The nos indicated
a. Date /Month of manufacturing
b. Its viscosity
c. Its volatility
d. Its flash point
95. In a coarse pitch fixed propeller, coarse pitch is for
a. High cruise speed, low all.
b. Low cruise speed, low alt.
c. High cruise speed, high alt.
d. Low cruise speed, high alt.
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96. The movement, at the big end bearing and small end bearing, of the piston rod is
a. Rotatory, linear
b. Linear, Rotatory
c. Rotatory, Reciprocating
d. Reciprocating, Rotatory
97. The difference in the power produced by the engine and the power (total) available is
a. FHP
b. BHP
c. SHP
d. IHP
98. Which forces act on a propeller
a. Centrifugal
b. Twisting
c. Bending
d. All the above
99. Log books preserved for
a. Engine & Prop. - for 1 Year
b. A/c log book - Untied co R cancelled by DGCA
c. For 2 year after accident for a/c …………….
d. All the above
100. Manual associated with c of A and contains limitations of the pilot and maintenance
a. Operation manual
b. Flight manual
c. Maintenance manual
d. QC manual
101. Manual not required to be approved by DGCA but contents influence the DGCA’s
approval
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a. QC manual
b. Engineering organization manual
c. Flight Manual
d. Operation manual
102. Make the correct statement
a. The thrust produced by the prop. Of a piton engine is measured by the
mass of air pushed backwards per unit time and the velocity by which it is
pushed rearward
b. As in (a) and velocity of a/c is added
c. As in (a) and velocity of a/c subtracted
d. None of the above
103. In a piston engine a large mass of air is pushed…………. At a ……………… velocity.
a. Rear ward, high
b. Forward, high
c. Rearward, low
d. Forward, low
104. The cord of a propeller
a. Inc. from root to tip
b. Dec. from root to tip
c. Remains same
105. the airflow over a wing is re- energized to dealy the separation by
a. Vortex generator
b. Slots
c. Spoilers
d. Wing fences
106. The drag is
a. From drag
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b. Induced drag
c. Total drag
d. Interference drag
107. The strips in an altimeter is completely visible at
a. Sea level
b. Above 10000 ft
c. Above 20000 ft
d. Now of above
108. The datum setting knob in an altimeter varies the datum from
a. Sea Level
b. Ground level
c. Flight level
109. When propeller in max coarse pitch
a. Feathering
b. Reversal
c. Wind milling
110. The change in 1 mb pressure is
a. 30 ft.
b. 60 ft.
c. 100 ft.
d. None of the above
111. How does a importance efficiency of a turbojet engine
a. More turbine wheels can be used
b. Combustion chamber temperatures are reduce
c. Higher compression ratios can be obtained
d. The velocity of the air entering the combustion chamber is increased.
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112. Which of the following is the ultimate limiting 1'acior of turbojet engine operation?
a. Compressor inlet air temperature
b. Compressor outlet air temperature
c. Turbine inlet temperature
d. Burner can pressure
113. If any magnet is heated excessively cr hammered, it will result in
a. Equal spreading of magnetism
b. Increase of magnetism
c. Loss of a great deal of magnetism
d. No change of magnetism
114. To determine the direction of the magnetic field about a current carrying wire, use
a. Ohm's law
b. Left hand thumb rule
c. Right hand thumb rule
d. Wheatstone bridge.
115. A fully efficient 60 ampere hour battery will supply
a. 6 amperes for 6 hours
b. 6 amperes for 10 hours
c. 60 amperes for 01 hour
d. 6 amperes indefinitely
116. The basic relationship between voltage, current and resistance is exactly stated by:
a. Ohm’s law
b. Kickoff’s law
c. Newton law
d. Lenz’s law
117. If a charged glass rod and a charged comb are brought together they will:
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a. Experience no force
b. Experience attraction
c. Experience repulsion
d. Initially attraction, followed by repulsion
118. Which indication should you get from the turn – and slip indicator during taxiing?
a. The needle and ball should move freely in the direction of the turn
b. The ball moves freely opposite the turn, and needle deflects in the
direction of the turn
c. The needle deflects in the direction of the turn, but the ball remains centered
d. The ball deflects opposite the turn, but the needle remains centered
119. Which statement is true regarding the relationship of true airspeed and indicated
airspeed as altitude increases
a. For a given true airspeed, indicated airspeed remains same under IAS
conditions
b. For a given true airspeed indicated airspeed increases
c. For a given indicated airspeed, true airspeed, increases
d. For a given indicated airspeed, true airspeed remains unaffected
120. On the taxi check, the magnetic compass should
a. Be checked for proper deviation and fluid level
b. Swing opposite to the direction of turn when turning from north
c. Exhibit the same number of degrees of dip as the latitude
d. Swing freely and indicate known headings
121. Identify the function of the nozzle diaphragm in a turbojet engine.
a. To decrease the velocity of exhaust gases.
b. To direct the flow of gases to strike the turbine buckets at a desired
angle
c. To centre the fuel spray in the combustion chamber
122. When starting a turbine engine, a hung start in indicated if the engine,
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a. Exhaust gas turbine exceeds specified limits
b. Fails to reach idle RPM
c. RPM exceeds specified operation speed
d. Pressure ratio exceeds specified operation limits
123. What are the two basic elements of" the turbine section in a turbine engine?
a. Impeller and diffuser
b. Compressor and manifold.
c. Bucket and expander
d. Stator and rotor
124. Carburetor icing on an engine equipped with a constant speed propeller can be
detected by
a. A decrease in power output with no charge in manifold pressure or RPM
b. A-n increase in manifold pressure with a constant RPM
c. A decrease in manifold pressure with a constant RPM
d. A decrease in manifold pressure with a decrease in RPM.
125. Which of the following has the greatest effect on the viscosity of lubricating oil?
a. Temperature
b. Oiliness
c. Pressure
d. Volatility
126. What is the major single source of heat which is carried away by the lubricating oil in
a reciprocating aircraft engine?
a. The connecting rod bearings
b. The cylinder walls
c. The main bearings
d. The accessory section
127. A rise in oil temperature and a drop in oil pressure may be caused by
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a. The temperature regulator sticking shut
b. The pressure relief valve sticking shut
c. Foreign material under the relief vale
d. Improper starting procedure, engine not warmed up
128. Which instrument provides the mot pertinent information (primary) for bank control
in straight-and- level flight?
a. Turn-and-slip indicator
b. Attitude indicator
c. Heading indicator
d. Magnetic compass
129. Which are instruments are grouped as pitch instruments?
a. Altimeter, airspeed, and manifold pressure or RPM
b. Attitude indicator, airspeed indicator, and manifold pressure or RPM
c. Attitude indicator, altimeter, and manifold pressure gauge.
d. Attitude indicator, altimeter indicator, airspeed indicator, and
vertical – speed indicator
130. The greatest portion of heat generated by combustion in a typical aircraft
reciprocating engine is
a. Converted into useful power.
b. Removed by the oil system.
c. Carried out with the exhaust gases.
d. Dissipated through the cylinder walls and heads.
131. High cylinder head temperature will result from
a. An increase in oil combustion
b. Fouled spark plugs.
c. An excessively rich mixture.
d. An excessively lean mixture.
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132. What could be a result of undetected exhaust system leaks in a reciprocating engine
powered airplane?
a. Pilot incapacitation resulting from carbon monoxide entering the
cabin.
b. A rough - running engine.
c. Desired power settings will not be attained.
d. Excessive engine operating temperatures.
133. When the ignition switch of a single engine aircraft is turned to the OFF position
a. The Primary circuits of both magnetos are grounded
b. The secondary circuits of both magnetos are opened
c. All circuits are automatically opened
d. The high tension lead from the battery is grounded.
134. What will cause an engine to have an increased tendency to detonate?
a. Using fuels with high combustion rate characteristics.
b. Retarding the spark advance.
c. Decreasing the density to the charge delivered to the cylinders
d. Using a rich mixture.
135. During engine operation, if carburetor heat is applied, it will
a. Increase air to fuel ratio.
b. Decrease carburetor air temperature.
c. Increase engine RPM
d. Decrease the air density to the carburetor.
136. The propeller blade angle is defined as the acute angle between the airfoil section
chord line (At the blade reference station) and which of the following?
a. The plane of rotation
b. The relative wind
c. The propeller thrust line
d. The axis of blade rotation during the pitch change.
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137. Why a constant speed counterweight propeller is normally placed in full HIGH PITCH
position before the engine is stopped?
a. To prevent exposure and corrosion of the pitch changing mechanism
b. To prevent hydraulic lock of the position when the oil cools.
c. To prevent overheating of the engine during the next start.
d. To reduce engine temperatures more rapidly.
138. The primary purpose of a propeller is to
a. Create lift on the fixed airfoils of an aircraft,
b. Build up enough slip streams to support the airfoils.
c. Change engine horsepower to thrust.
d. Provide static and dynamic stability of an aircraft in flight
139. If fuel/air ratio is proper and ignition timing is correct, the combustion process should
a. Be completed 20° to 30° before top center at the end of the compression
stroke
b. Be completed when the exhaust valve opens at the end of the power stroke
c. Continue until the end of the exhaust stroke.
d. Be completed just after top center at the beginning of the power
stroke.
140. When is the fuel/air mixture ignited, in a conventional reciprocating engine?
a. When the piston has reached top dead center of the intake stroke.
b. Just as the piston begins the power stroke.
c. Shortly before the piston reaches the top of the compression stroke
d. When the piston reaches top dead center at the end of the compression
stroke
141. On a servo tab operated elevator system if the pilot's control column is pushed
forward
a. The servo tabs will move down.
b. The servo tabs will not move until the elevator begins to move
c. The servo tabs will move up
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d. Both (I) and (2)
142. For a given angle of bank, the load factor imposed on both the airplane and pilot in a
coordinated constant attitude turn.
a. Is constant.
b. Is directly related to the airplane's gross weight
c. Increases at a very slow rate beyond 45 degree of bank.
d. Varies with the rate of turn.
143. What performance is characteristic of flight at maximum L/D in a propeller-driven
airplane?
a. Maximum endurance
b. Best angle of climb
c. Maximum coefficient of lift and minimum coefficient of drag
d. Maximum range and maximum distance glide
144. Normally the C of G movement is computed.
a. Laterally
b. Vertically
c. Fore and aft along the longitudinal axis
d. Along the horizontal axis
145. The centre of gravity of an aircraft can be determined by
a. Multiplying total weight by total moments
b. Dividing total arms by total moments.
c. Dividing total moments by total weight
d. Multiplying total arms by total weight.
146. When an aircraft's forward CG limit is exceeded; it will affect the flight characteristics
of the aircraft by producing
a. Very light elevator control forces which make it easy to inadvertently over
stress the aircraft
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b. Decreased stability and greater ease in establishing the proper landing and
take off attitude.
c. Improved performance since it reduces the induced drag.
d. Higher stalling speeds and more longitudinal stability.
147. Compression ratio is the ratio between the
a. Piston travel on the compression stroke and on the intake stroke
b. Combustion chamber pressure on the combustion stroke and on the exhaust
stroke
c. Cylinder volume with piston at bottom dead center and at top dead
center
d. Fuel and air in the combustion chamber
148. To maintain level cruising flight in an airplane which is loaded with the CG at the
forward limit, an additional down load must be imposed on the horizontal stabilizer.
This in turn produces.
a. As additional load which the wing must support
b. A lesser load that must be supported by the wing,
c. A decrease in drag and results in a faster airspeed.
d. A decrease in drag and reduces the stalling speed.
149. The propeller governor controls the
a. Oil to and from the pitch changing mechanism
b. Relief valve in the accumulator assemblies.
c. Spring tension on the boost pump speeder spring.
d. Linkage and counterweights from moving in and out.
150. During the on speed condition of a propeller the
a. Centrifugal force acting on the governor fly weight is greater than the
tension of the speeder spring- overspeed
b. Tension on the speeder spring is greater than the centrifugal force acting on
the governor flyweights-underspeed
c. Tension on the speeder spring is less than the centrifugal force acting on the
governor flyweights
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d. Centrifugal force of the governor flyweights is equal to the speeder
spring force
151. What operational force causes the greatest stress on a propeller
a. Aerodynamic twisting force-coarse pitch
b. Centrifugal Force- outwards
c. Thrust bending force-forward
d. Torque bending force-opposes rotation
152. How does the aerodynamic twisting force affect operating propeller blades?
a. It-tends to bend the blades opposite the direction of rotation.
b. It tends to turn the blades to a high blade angle.
c. It tends to .bend the blades forward.
d. It tends to turn the blades to a low blade angle.
153. In light airplane normal recovery from spins may become difficult if the
a. Airspeed becomes too great
b. CG is too far forward
c. Spin entered too rapidly
d. CG is too far rearward
154. An aircraft has a maximum rate of climb of 150fpm in still air. Flying directly into a
head wind of 20 M.P.H. the maximum rate of climb will be.
a. Increased in direct proportion of the wind speed to the air speed.
b. The same
c. Approximately 20% greater
d. Approximately 20% less
155. A wing whose tips were lower than the root would be described as having
a. Washout
b. Wash in
c. Anhedral
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d. Dihedral
156. If an aircraft maintains a constant radius of turn but the speed is increased.
a. The bank angle must be increased
b. The bank angle must be decreased
c. The bank angle will remain constant
d. None of the above.
157. An aircraft flying straight and level at a steady IAS begins a banked turn keeping the
IAS constant.
a. The drag will remain constant
b. The drag will increase
c. The drag will decrease
d. Only the induced drag will decrease
158. Stability about the longitudinal axis is given by
a. Wing dihedral
b. Elevators
c. Ailerons
d. Mass balancing of controls
159. The airflow over the top surface of an aerofoil produces
a. A smaller proportion of the total lift than the airflow past the lower surface.
b. An equal proportion of the total to that produced by the airflow past the lower
surface
c. A greater proportion of the total lift than the airflow past the lower
surface
d. Equal proportion of lift in symmetrical aerofoil at optimum angle of attack
160. The boundary layer of a body in a moving air stream is
a. A thin layer of air over the surface where the air is stationary
b. A layer of separated flow where the air is turbulent
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c. A layer of air over the surface where the airspeed is changing from
free stream speed to zero speed
d. The layer between transition and separation point
161. At high speed, an aircraft will produce
a. More induced drag than profile drag
b. About the same profile drag as induced drag.
c. More profile drag than induced drag.
d. Either of the above depending on TAS.
162. The type of flap which extends backwards from the trailing edge as it is lowered is
a. A split flap
b. A Krueger flap
c. A flower flap
d. A slotted flap
163. As airspeed is increased in level flight above maximum L/D speed, total drag of an
airplane
a. Decreased due to decreased induced drag
b. Increases due to increased induced drag.
c. Decreases due to decreased parasite drag.
d. Increases due to increased parasite drag
164. Which is true regarding the stalling speed of airplanes?
a. A low speed is necessary to produce a stall
b. The staling speed of a given airplane is not a fixed value.
c. The stall speed of a given airplane is the same regardless of the flight
maneuver
d. A given airplane's" stalling speed is the same regardless of the angle of attack
165. While feathering a propeller
a. Hub is at positive angle of attack and tips are at neutral angle of attack
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b. Hub is at neutral and tips are at positive AOA
c. Hub is at negative and tips are at neutral AOA
d. None of the above
166. Propeller blades push a parcel of air backward. This backward motion of air in turn
exerts a force on the propeller which carries it forward. This is based on
a. Newton's 1st Low
b. Newton's Ilnd Low
c. Newton's Illrd Low
d. None
167. The blade angle of a propeller is-
a. Sum of the angle of attack and Helix angle
b. Sum of helix angle and pitch
c. Sum of angle of attack and slip angle
d. None of the above.
168. The gas turbine engines are classified on the basis of
a. Turbine
b. compressor
c. Vanes
d. Combustor
169. The cambered section of the propeller blade is called :
a. Blade face
b. Blade back
c. Blade front
d. None
170. The flap shown in the diagram is
a. Fowler flap
b. Slotted flap
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c. Split flap
d. Kruger flap
171. The resultant aerodynamic force on a wing acts perpendicular to
a. Chord
b. Relative airflow
c. Flight path
d. B and C
172. The aerofoil shown in the diagram is
a. Straight flow Aerofoil
b. Laminar Aerofoil
c. Turbulent Aerofoil
d. Full flow Aerofoil
173. The aspect ratio of a wing is 12. The area of the wing is 108 Sq. feet The span of the
wing
a. 36
b. 42
c. 36 Squared
d. 12
174. Compression ratio is -
a. Ratio of pressure at the inlet and outlet of an engine.
b. Ratio of volumes
c. Ratio of pressures
d. None
175. If the wing loading of an aircraft is increased, stall speed of the aircraft will
a. Decrease
b. Increases
c. Remain the same
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d. Cannot be determined
176. When the slat is operated, it creates a slot by
a. Rearward movement of slat
b. Rightwards movement of slat.
c. Forward movement of slat.
d. None.
177. In straight and level flight, with increase in speed
a. Induced drag increases.
b. Induced drag remains same
c. Induced drag decreases.
d. It decreases to VMD and them increases
178. the drag created by component which do not contribute to lift is
a. Induced drag
b. Profile drag
c. Pressure drag
d. Parasite drag.
179. The point where weight of an a/c considered to be concentrated in maneuvers of
flight is
a. Centre of Gravity
b. Centre of pressure
c. Aerodynamic Weight centre
d. None
180. The streamline airflow over an aerofoil separates when.
a. Boundary layer becomes laminar to the burnt
b. Airflow encounters adverse pressure region
c. Leading edge of the aircraft
d. None
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181. The pitch of a propeller in CSU is controlled by
a. Flyweight
b. Throttle lever
c. Governor
d. None
182. In a constant speed propeller the mechanism which enables the pilot to change the
pitch from coarse to fine as called
a. ATM
b. CSU
c. Break Mechanism
d. CTM
183. The tree main section of a gas turbine engine are
a. Combustion, compression. Turbine
b. Compression, combustion, Turbine
c. Combustion, Turbine, compression
d. Combustion, Vane, Turbine
184. The angle of thrust is known as
a. Geometric Pitch
b. Effective Pitch
c. Experimental mean pitch
d. Slip.
185. The main sections of a gas turbine engine, turbine section are
a. Rotor and stator
b. Impeller and diffuser.
c. Bucket and expander
d. None
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186. The total power produced by an engine is , where N is:
a. Number of compression strokes per minute.
b. Number of exhaust strokes per minute.
c. Number of revolutions per minute.
d. Number of power strokes per minute.
187. The power available to the propeller to do work is
a. BHP
b. IHP
c. Frictional HP
d. Mean Frictional HP
188. In systematical Aerofoil.
a. Camber line is an imaginary straight line joining leading edge and
trailing edge.
b. Camber is curved line between leading edge and ii-ailing edge.
189. The spin axis of the rotor of the Attitude Indicator is
a. Vertical
b. Horizontal
c. Horizontal and aligned with fore and aft axis
d. None of the above
190. The energy stored in batten is in the form of:
a. Liquid
b. current
c. Chemical energy
191. Ohms law gives a relation between
a. I and V
b. V and R
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c. I,V,R
d. None
192. VSI works on the principle of
a. Difference in static pressure,
b. Difference in barometric pressure
c. Pilot pressure
d. None
193. Amount of charge is measured by
a. Volts
b. Amperes
c. Coulombs
d. Farads
194. In a constant level turn, the aircraft
a. Is in equilibrium
b. Speed remains same as it is not accelerating
c. Is accelerating and speed increases.
195. Viscosity of oil is high due to -
a. High engine temperature
b. High Bearing pressure
c. All the above
196. In a constant speed propeller, throttle kept constant forward velocity is decreased
There is a decrease in RPM because of-
a. Increase in propeller torque
b. Decrease in propeller torque
c. Propeller torque remains same.
d. None of the above
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197. Maximum pressure in a turbine engine is at:
a. Compressor outlet
b. Compressor inlet
c. Turbine outlet
d. Tail pipe
198. Heading indicator, attitude Indicator and turn indicator can be classified as
a. Gyro instruments
b. Engine instrument
c. Vacuum instruments
d. Pressure instruments
199. The voltage in the given circuit is
a. 2V
b. 12V
c. 24V
d. 36V
200. In a DC
a. The polarity remains same but magnitude changes
b. Polarity remains constant but increase or decreases with open or
close circuit
c. Null polarity
d. Polarity changes but magnitude remains the same.
201. If pressure attitude is 2000 ft, Temperature is + 25°C, the density attitude will be
a. 3200 ft
b. 2000 ft
c. 4000 ft
d. 5000 ft
202. In a straight & level flight, your flight path and relative airflow are
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a. Perpendicular and Opposite
b. Parallel and opposite.
c. Vertically upwards
d. None.
203. When air changes from laminar to turbulent.
a. Skin friction drag increases
b. Skin friction drag decreases
c. Skin friction drag remains the same.
204. CSD unit that is disconnected in flight due to malfunction such as over temp may be
reconnected.
a. Automatically the temp fails below in to the normal operating range.
b. By the flight crew when the temp comes to the operating range.
c. Only on the ground
d. Both 1 and 2 correct
205. A turn & slip indicator employs
a. Tied gyro
b. Earth gyro
c. Rate gyro
d. Ring lazer gyro
206. Turbojet engine having high exhaust gas temp at desired engine pressure ratio for
take ff indicates
207. Where is water injected into a turbojet engine for cooling purposes
208. When AC generator are operated in parallel the
a. Amperes & freq must both be equal
b. Freq & voltage must both be equal
c. Amperes & voltage must both be equal
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d. Only voltage must be equal
209. A CSD unit that is disconnected in flight due to malfunction such as over temp may
be reconnected.
a. During operation GPWS typically monitors the radio altimeter ADC
b. Landing gear & flap position.
c. The purpose of transformer rectifier unit in electrical system of an a/c is to
d. Only on ground
210. In ant icing system of an a/c which of the following is correct
a. Hot air is used to prevent ice formation at the inlet cowling of
the engine
b. The pneumatic rubber boots are used to remove ice formation
c. Hot air is used to remove the ice formation by heating
d. All the above are correct.
211. The, charging method used in ac battery during flying is
a. Constant current method
b. Constant voltage method
c. Kirchoffs law
d. All the above are correct
212. If altitude density ratio Ct, &, wing area are held constant stall speed (Vs.) of an aero
plane.
a. Increase with decrease of gross weight of the a/c
b. Decrease with the increase of gross weight of the a/c
c. Increase with increase of gross weight of the a/c
d. Decrease inversely proportional to the gross wt of aero plane.
213. The purpose of Cg movement envelopes is
a. To the a/c with in wt. & balance limit.
b. To by pas computation of Cg
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c. To give an expectable range of index no from any a/c wt from min to max.
d. All the above.
214. If an a/c electrical system automatic reset circuit breaker
a. Are useful where only temper over load arc normally incorrect
b. Must be used in all circuit different to safe operation of the a/c
c. Should not be used as circuit protective devices.
d. Always eliminate need of a switch.
215. The point at which steam following through a vapor cycle system gives up heat &
changes to a gas to liquid is the
a. Condenser
b. Evaporation
c. Expansion valve
d. Compressor
216. The primary function of cabin pressurization system out flow valve is to
a. Provide protection against over pressurization
b. Maintain the desire cabin pressure.
c. Maintain the same cabin air press we at the altitude at.
d. Operate safety valve
217. What will be the result if the instrument static pressure the become disconnected
inside a pressirced cabin during cruising flight.
a. Altimeter & ASI will both read low.
b. The altimeter & ASI will both read high.
c. The altimeter will read low & ASI will read high
d. The altimeter
218. Which channel of an autopilot defects changes in the pitch attitude of an a/c
a. Elevator
b. Adevon
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c. Rudder
d. Aeliron & supplier
219. During flight on a/c with a fixed pitch prop suffer a drop in RPM at a fixed throttle
setting. Following this the engine begins to run roughly in determines the cause, the
pilot should first suspect.
a. Fuel starvation
b. A faculty tacho meter
c. Foving of the spark plug
d. Carb icing
220. The entire horizontal surface of the empennage that can be adjusted from the cockpit
at the complete, unit for the purpose of controlling the pitch attitude or trim of the
airplane is referred to as
a. Slab tails
b. Flying tails
c. Stabilator
d. All the above are correct
221. Which of the full in term as seco flight control
a. Magnetic variation
b. Magnetic deviation
c. Magnetic fluctuation
d. All the above are correct
222. A wing has a aspect ratio of 12 & an area of 108 Sqft, then span.
a. 36’
b. 9’
c. 8.46’
d. 42’
223. Smoke detectors which use a measurement of tied trancbility in the air are
called,
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a. Electro mechanically devices
b. Photo electrical devices
c. Visual devices
d. Electro emission devices
224. The correct inflation pressure for an a/c tyre can be obtained
a. Tyre manufacture space
b. Operator manual
c. Information stamp on the wheel
d. Airplane air frame log book
225. Radar altimeter determines height by
Ans. transmitting a signal & receiving back a reflected signal.
226. Aircraft fuse capacity is rated in amperes
227. What wilt result if auxiliary ambient ventilation is selected during pressurization flight
while at cruising att.
Ans. Increase cabin attitude
228. Purpose of dump valve in a pressurized a/c is to relieve All positive pressure from
cabin
229. Primary function of cabin pressurization system outflow valve is to.
Ans. Maintain the desired cabin pressure.
230. Which of the following is ultimate limiting factor of turbojet engine operation
Ans. Turbine inlet temperature
231. In flight turbine engine flame out are usually caused by
a. High EGT
b. Interruption of inlet airflow
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c. Fouling of primary igniter plugs
d. Fuel nozzle clogging
232. Effect on a/c performance with forward cg location
Ans. A/c will stall at a higher speed
233. Disadvantage of turbo prop a/c
Ans. Can’t fly at high altitude
234. In an air conditioning system of an a/c
Ans. Temp selector is used to select the desired air in cabin
235. Hydraulic system of an a/c is activated by
Ans. Engine driven pump (EDP) or electric motor.
236. Purpose of APU is to provides
Ans. Pneumatic power as well as electrical power on ground
237. In flight if there is a pressurization failure, the pilots action is to
Ans. Descent the a/c at lower altitude (10000 Ft.)
238. For what purpose is the intake & exhaust valves of same engines designed to over
lap.
Ans. To improve the volumetric efficiency of engine.
239. If the airplane operated in stedy flight at (L/D) more the total drag is.
Ans. Minimum
240. An additional static vent is included in a static system to
a. Eliminate instrument error caused by differ in static press which may occur
when a/c yaw
b. Show ensure adequate static press under severe icing condition
c. Take into acceleration direction of winds
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d. None above is correct
241. Generating system to an a/c charges the battery using
a. Constant current & varying voltage
b. Constant volume & varying current
c. Constant volume & constant current
d. None of the above
242. The reciprocating engine power will decrease at all altitude
a. If the air density increase
b. If the humidity increase
c. Manifold press increase
d. All the above
243. In most reciprocating engine automatic propeller synchronization is accomplished
through the altitude
a. Throttle lever
b. Propeller control lever
c. Propeller governor
d. None of the above
244. For T/o of the constant speed prop is normally fitted in
a. High RPM
b. Low RPM
c. Low pitch high RPM
d. High pitch low RPM
245. A lift transducer is normally fitted
a. To the nose area of the a/c
b. On the elevator control system
c. On the wing leading edge
d. On the stabilizer.
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246. If the cabin rate of climb is too great, the control should be adjusted to cause the
a. outflow valve to close slower
b. cabin compressor speed to increase
c. Outflow valve to close faster
d. Cabin compressor speed to decrease
247. Stability about the longitudinal axis is given by wing
Ans. Dihedral
248. A/c generator that are driven by a constant speed drive mechanism are used to
regulate the alternator to a constant
a. Voltage out put
b. Hertz out put
c. Ampere out put
d. All above are correct
249. If altitude density ratio cxmic v/s wing area are held constant stall speed of an a/c
Ans. Increase with increase of gross weight of an a/c
250. When air becomes less dense at high altitude
Ans. It reduces the lift because thin air exerts less force on aerofoil.
251. Different Type of alerons are used as control on a/c
252. An airplane that has a tendency to gradually increase
Pitching movement that has been set into motion has
Poor longitudinal stability
253. Purpose of wing slats is to
Decrease Stalling speed.
254. What will be the result if the instrument static pressure line becomes disconnected
inside a pressurized cabin during cursing flight
The altimeter will read low & ASI will read low
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255. If an a/c accelerates to double of its speed in steady flight conditions.
Induced drag will be reduced to 1/4
256. The function of the auto propeller synchronizing piston of multi engine a/c is
a. To control the tip speed of all propeller
b. To Control engine RPM 65 reduce vibration
c. To control the power out put of all engine
d. All above are correct.
257. Extending the flaps causes
a. A small decrease in lift
b. A small increase in lift & greater proportion increase in drag i.e. L/D
ratio is decreased
c. L/D ratio increase
d. As in (1) 6s flight path shall be progressively steeper following the extension
of each stage.
258. The air speed indicator operates from the application of
a. Pilot pressure
b. Static pressure
c. Pitot & static pressure
d. Dynamic & static
259. The purpose of APU is to provide
a. Electric power to an a/c irrespective of flight level.
b. Pneumatic power as well as electrical power on ground.
c. Power boot during T/O along with engine power.
d. Pneumatic power to restart the failed engine in flight.
260. Which of the following is likely to cause thermal RWY in ni - ed battery.
a. High thermal resistance condition
b. Excessive current drawn from battery
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c. Constant current charging of the battery to more than 100% of its capacity.
d. Whenever charge with constant voltage beyond its rated capacity.
261. The purpose of transformer rectified unit in the electrical system of the a/c
a. Make alternating current to direct current.
b. Make DC to AC
c. Run all the transformer fitted to the a/c
d. All the above are wrong
262. The purpose of pressurization in the a/c is to
a. Provide current to the passenger of the a/c
b. Fly the a/c at high altitude
c. Release cabin air to out board3
d. All above are correct.
263. Which are the two basic element of the turbine section in a turbine engine
a. Impeller & diffuser
b. Stator & Rotor
c. Impeller & Rotor
d. Stator & Diffuser
e. Bucket and expander
264. What is the primary factors which controls the pressure by of an Axial flow
compressor
a. No of stages in compressor
b. Motor diameter
c. Compressor inlet pressure
d. Compressor inlet temp
265. Under standards condition at sea level pressure, pressure exerted on human body by
the it of the atmosphere around is approximately.
a. 28.8 kg/m
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b. 14.7 kg
c. 14.7 kg/M2
d. 14.7 IBS/Inch2
266. Static electricity constitute of fire hazard because
a. Metal component becomes very hot & ignite inflammable gases & material.
b. Spark occurs due to diff in potential & ignites inflammable gases.
c. A/c tyres become heavily charge & may burst on landing.
d. High potent ional build up.
267. An a/c with fixed pitch propeller if speed is decrease because
Ans. Prop torque has decreased
268. During flight an a/c with fixed pitch prop suffers" a drop in RPM at a fixed throttle
setting following this, the engines begins to run roughly In determining cause, the
pilot should first suspect.
Ans. Crab Icing
269. Diffuser vanes located in super charges section of radial engine are designed to
perform
Ans. Increase the pressure of fuel air change
270. For take off, a constant speed propeller is set in
a. High pitch low RPM position
b. High pitch position
c. Low pitch - high RPM position
d. Low pitch position
271. A Co2 hand held fire extinguisher may be used on electrical fire if
Ans. Handle is insulated
272. Static discharge help eliminate radio interferences by dissipating static electricity
into the atmosphere at
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Ans. Low voltage levels
273. An aero plane magnetic compass is swung at specific operating internal in order to
determine the
Ans. Compass deviation
274. The most likely condition to cause he landing gear warning signal to sound
Ans. Landing gear not locked down & throttle retracted.
275. Dutch roll is a combination yawing & rolling oscillation that affects many swept wing
aircraft is counteracted with
Ans. A yaw dampar, system
276. As air becomes less dense, it reduce
Ans. Lift because the thin air exerts less force on the aerofoil
277. What is the basic operational sequence for reducing the power out put of an engine
equipped with a constant speed propeller
a. Increase the manifold pressure then the RPM
b. Reduce the manifold pressure then the RPM
c. Increase the RPM then the manifold pressure
d. Decrease the RPM then the manifold pressure
278. What type of oxygen system uses the re-breather bay type mark
a. Diluter demand
b. Continuous flow
c. Demand flow
d. All the above
279. In the constant speed propeller system the function of governor is to
Ans. Maintain the selected engine speed by varying the pitch of the propeller blade
280. The purpose of flag on in HSI to indicate
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a. Receiver is not tuned to prop freq
b. As in (1) & signal being received is unreliable
c. As in (2) & to call attention to deviation from desired setting.
281. If the airplane is loaded to the rear of its CG it will tend to be
a. Unstable about its lateral axis
b. Sluggish in aeliron control
c. Unstable about it longitudinal axis
d. Sluggish in rudder controls.
282. To increase the rate of turn & decrease the radius at the same time a pilot should.
a. Steepen the bank & increase the air speed
b. Shallow the bank & increase the air speed
c. Shallow the bank & increase the air speed
d. Steepen the bank & decrease airspeed
283. What is the purpose of a fuel tank vent
To maintain atmosphere pressure.
284. A stick Shakar is activated
a. At stall
b. Both sensor indicates stall
c. At the predetermined speed above the stall
d. All the above are correct.
285. When an a/c forward CG limit is exceeded it will affect the flight characteristics of the
a/c by producing.
a. Very light elevator control forces which make it easy to inadvertently over
stress by a/c
b. Decrease stability & greater case in establishing proper landing & take of
attitude
c. Improve Performance since it reduces the induce drag
d. Higher stalling speed & more long stability
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286. If the oil quantity is below the min as seen on the dipstick if engine are run
a. There will not be any change in oil temp, but
b. The oil pressure will be to low
c. Oil temp will increase & oil press fluctuate
d. Both oil temp & oil press will be to low or placate.
e. None of the above in are correct.
287. What method is used to detect the thermal discharge of a built in fire extinguisher
system
A rapture of the red plastic disc in the method discharge line
288. The highest velocity of the gas flowing through gas turbine is found in the
a. Turbine
b. Compressor
c. Diffuser
d. Combuster
289. The horse power developed in the cylinder of the reciprocating engine is known as
a. Shaft horse power
b. Indicated horse power
c. Release cabin air out board
d. All the above
290. The stator vane in flow compressor
a. Convert velocity energy in to press energy
b. Convert pressure energy into velocity Energy
c. Direct air into- stage rotor vane at a proper angle
d. Pick Up& add energy of accelerate out word by centrifugal force
291. With which system is diff. control associates
a. Trim
b. Elevator
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c. Aileron
d. Flap
292. What will happen if flaps is operated beyond the more speed allow
a. Flaps operation will be disabled
b. Aero plane will, bank to the left.
c. Air frame satellite will be over stressed
d. Flaps indicator will be damaged.
293. Mark the correct statement relating to air flow over a wing of flying a/c
a. Static press on the upper surface of wing
b. Dynamic press on the upper surface of, wings
c. Static press on the lower surface is than upper
d. Dynamic press on the lower surface is than upper.
294. The actual lift generated by the wing of an a/c depends upon
a. Shape
b. Angle of attack
c. Shape & AOA
d. Air speed
295. Deflecting the control column forward
a. Elevator goes down causing an increase airflow beneath the tail plane
b. The tail plane moves up due to increase air flow over the tail
c. As in a & nose more down
296. An emergency locator transmitter '( ELI) battery must be capable of furnishing power
for signal transmission of at least 48 hours
297. Fries Type Aileron is used to
Reduce the Adverse yaw
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298. In Modern aircraft EICAS means
Engine indicating & crew Alerting system
299. When a landing gear safety switch on a main landing strut closes at lift off, which
system is are deactivated.
Ans. Antiskid system.
300. When stating ON turbine Engine
a. Hot start is indicated if the EGT exceeds specified limits
b. Excessively lean mix is likely to cause hot stat
c. Release the stator switch as soon as indication of light off occurs.
d. Both 1 & 3 are correct
301. Which off the following engine variable is most critical during turbine engine
operation
Ans. Turbine inlet Temperature
302. A cool of period to shut down of a turbine engine is accomplished in order to
a. Allow the turbine wheel to cool before the contract around it.
b. Prevent Vapour lock in the fuel control or fuel line
c. Prevent freezer of engine bearing
d. All the above are correct.
303. The function of the fire detection system is
a. To discharge the power plant fire exiting wing system at the origin of the fire
b. To activate the working device In the event of a power plant fire
c. To identify the location of the fire
d. All the above
304. The purpose of trimming devices in aero plane is
a. To alter the altitude of aero plane
b. To reduce steady press on the control column
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c. To change CG & CP
d. To assist long stability
305. The Aoa of an aerofoil in a given air flow is increased
a. Lift & drag
b. Lift will & drag will
c. Flaps indicator will be damaged
d. Lift & drag increase
306. As per bernollie principal
a. Static press plus dynamic press ( related to speed equal a const total
press)
b. Lift equals it of a/c
c. Thrust equals drag
d. Static press equals dynamic press (related to speed.)
307. A hydraulic motor converts fluid pressure to
a. Linear motion
b. Rotary motion
c. Angular motion
d. Vertical motion
308. What components of a pressurization system prevent the cabin altitude from
Becoming higher than airplane altitude
a. Cabin rate of descent control
b. Negative pressure relief valve
c. Supercharge over speed valve
d. Compression ratio limit switch
309. If the cabin rate of climb is too great, the control should be adjusted to cause the
a. Outflow valve to close slower
b. Cabin compressor speed to increase
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c. Outflow valve to close faster
d. cabin compressor speed to decrease
310. The air delivered to the cabin for pressurization is
a. All ram air
b. Recirculated air
c. Mixture of fresh air and recirculated air
d. Coolant air
311. The most common method by which cabin humidity is increased is
a. To inject water into the cabin blower
b. To use an atomised water supray in the cabin
c. To use a venture humidifier
d. Sprary by a jet pump
312. In gas turbine engine, combustion occurs at a constant
a. Volume
b. Pressure
c. Velocity
d. Density
313. In two parcels of air with the same temperature, the one which has greatest density.
a. Has the lower pressure
b. Has the higher pressure.
c. Has zero pressure.
d. Has the same pressure as that of the lowest density.
314. If the heated air is confined in a container and is unable to expand, its pressure
a. Will fall
b. Will rise even though its density will have remained constant
c. Will not have any effect
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d. Will rise resulting in increase of density
315. The altitude in the ISA which has the same air density as the actual altitude is
a. Pressure altitude
b. True altitude
c. Density altitude
d. True air altitude.
316. Atmospheric air density reduces at:
a. A steady rate up to the tropopause
b. At a rapid rate initially, and then at a reducing rate as altitude is
gained
c. At a rate which is solely dependent on pressure.
d. None of the above is applicable.
317. Air density, which is vital to aerodynamic and engine performance, is difficult to
measure directly. Fortunately, there are two other properties of air which give a good
indication of air density and are easy to measure. They are
a. Humidity and viscosity
b. Humidity and temperature
c. Pressure and viscosity
d. Pressure and temperature
318. In a symmetrical aerofoil section, the mean camber line is
a. Coincident with the chord.
b. Coincident with the upper surface of the section
c. A curve
d. None of the above
319. The wing loading is a value which is
a. Gross weight divided by span
b. The ratio of the wing area to the weight of the aircraft.
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c. The total load, the wine will carry
d. The gross weight of the airplane divided by the wing area.
320. The characteristics which tends to cause the aircraft to fly (hands oft) in a steady in a
steady altitude along a constant path is termed as
a. Stability
b. Maneuverability
c. Controllability
d. Both a & b.
321. In the following figure the aircraft is subjected to
a. Dynamic instability
b. Natural dynamic stability
c. Positive dynamic stability
d. Negative static stability
322. Which of the following speeds would be affected by a change in the speed and
direction of the wind
a. The speed of sound
b. The true air speed
c. The ground speed
d. The indicated airspeed
323. The ice which is caused by the sudden drop in temperature as the air expands when
passing in ventury and butterfly section of the carburettor passage is
a. Throttle ice
b. Fuel ice
c. Impact ice
d. Refrigeration icing
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324. Aviation oils are classified numerically and the numbers used indicate the
a. Year/month of manufacturer
b. Degree of viscosity
c. Flash point limits
d. Degree of volatility
325. The disadvantage (s) of a centrifugal flow compressor are
a. High pressure rise per stage
b. Large frontal area for a given airflow
c. As in (2) and more than two stages are not practical
d. As in (1) and low starting power requirements.
326. With in the combustion chambers the burned fuel/air mixture
a. Increase in volume
b. Reduces in volume
c. Maintains a constant volume
d. Slightly increase in velocity
327. With the increase in altitude, the compressor load would
a. Increase
b. Remains in volume
c. Decrease
d. None of the above
328. A free turbine is
a. Not connected to the compressor.
b. Connected to me LP compressor.
c. Connected to the HP compressor.
d. Connected to the HP compressor of a two spool engine.
329. In a gas turbine engine EOT is shown by EOT indicator, EOT is an engine operating
limit and is used to.
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a. Monitor the mechanical integrity of the turbines
b. Check Engine operating conditions
c. Both a & b
d. Monitor the mechanical integrity of the compressor blade
330. The instruments connected to the pitot static system includes
a. Air speed indicator
b. The altimeter
c. The vertical speed indicator
d. All of the above
331. The Calibrated airspeed corrected for air density error, is
a. True airspeed
b. Indicated airspeed
c. Equivalent airspeed
d. Total airspeed
332. In a four Stroke Engine, when the piston is .it the Top Dead Center.
a. There is a minimum, space in the cylinder
b. There is no space in the cylinder
c. There is a maximum space in the cylinder
d. It is known to be at its lowest point of travel
333. Compressor Ratio is
a. The Ratio of volumes
b. The measure of increase of pressure in the cylinder
c. The ratio of temp, difference
d. The ratio cylinder head temperature to cylinder volume
334. During power stroke as ihe piston is forced down the cylinder, the gas temperature
will
a. Reduce
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b. Increase
c. Remain same
d. Remain same and immediately during exhaust stroke, it increase
335. The basic principle on which the four stroke cycle engine operates, is based on
a. Kelvin cycle
b. Plank cycle
c. Clausius cycle
d. None of the above
336. Valve overlap is designed to aid in
a. Cooling the cylinder internally
b. Increasing the amount of the fuel/air mixture induced into the cylinder,
c. Scavenging the by products of combustion
d. All of the above
337. For a multi cylinder reciprocating engine, the total piston displacement may be
obtained by
a. Dividing the G.S. area of the cylinder by the piston distance the piston moves
in the cylinder.
b. As in (i) and it should be further multiplied by the number of, cylinder.
c. Multiplying the C.S. area of the cylinder by the total distance the
piston moves in the cylinder.
338. Friction Horse power is
a. The indicated horse power minus brake horse power
b. The indicated horse power plus the brake horse power friction of moving parts
c. Both are a & b.
339. In any magnet, which of the following is more active magnetically
a. North pole
b. South pole
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c. Both north and south pole
d. Central part of the magnet
340. Assume the voltage across a fan is 12 volts and the current through it is 2 amperes.
What will be the fans resistance
a. 10 Ohms
b. 24 Ohms
c. 14 Ohms
d. 6 Ohms
341. Starter motor draws 70 amperes at a potential of 24 volts. Compute the wattage of
this electrical unit
a. 1680 watts
b. 94 watts
c. 46 watts
d. None of the above
342. What is the reason(s) for using alternative current in aircrafts
a. AC voltages can be increased very efficiently with transformers and they
operate more efficiently at high altitudes
b. AC devices are much simpler and consequently are fess prone to trouble than
are DC devices
c. AC units are much lighter
d. All the above
343. The aircraft flight manual for a specific aircraft
a. Forms part of the aircrafts C of A
b. Must be used to determine the pertinent operation regulations for the
particulars aircraft
c. Will include' information in respect of the aircrafts operating limitations
d. All the above statements are correct
344. The principle on which the vertical speed indicator works is. based on
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a. The change of barometric pressure
b. Echo reflection principle
c. Difference between - impact and static pressure
d. The difference between static and dynamic pressure.
345. Which of the following will limit the operation of directional Gyro 2
a. The gyro requires from 4 to 6 incites of mercury vacuum to operate
b. It should not be used for take off until it has run for 6 minutes
c. All the above
346. The gyrosyn compass
a. Combines the function of both the directional gyro and magnetic compass
b. As in (1) and provides a stable compass heading in rough air
c. As in (2) and in North seeking like a magnetic compass
d. As in (3) but is free from northerly turning error and oscillation.
347. Which of the following are true with respect to the True Air Speed
a. TAS is the actual speed of the aero plane relative to air.
b. True airspeed usually exceeds indicated airspeed
c. True airspeed is important for Navigation purposes.
d. All the above
348. Assume there's an ICE formation over the static vent, on a climb out. Now the
altimeter.
a. Will over read the actual altitude
b. Will under read the actual altitude.
c. Will read zero
d. Will read the maximum altitude, available on the indicator.
349. Effective pitch of a propeller is
a. The distance actually it advances in one revolution
b. The distance a propeller should advance in one revaluation
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c. The difference between the geometric pitch the theoretical pitch
d. All the above statements are not applicable
350. A fouled spark plug may show
a. Intermittent missing of the engine at all speeds.
b. Having small park gap
c. Either (I) and (2) or both
d. Disconnection of its magneto wire
351. Electric circuits are protected from overheating by means of
a. Thermocouples
b. Shunts
c. Fuses
d. Solenoids
352. Assume a body in motion or visualize the effect of moving a Oat plate at right angles
lo the airflow as shown in the following figure. The drag produced in this case is
a. From drag
b. Skin friction drag
c. Interference drag
d. Inducted drag
353. If it is possible to have an infinite aspect ratio, the induced drag will of course be
equal to
a. 1
b. 0
c. 2
d. None of the above
354. The following figure shows two different wings of an aircraft. The lifting area of wings
shown in
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a. Fig A is greater than Fig B
b. Fig A and Fig B are same
c. Fig A is lesser that Fig B
d. None of the above
355. ……….tends to prevent or delay the breakaway of the boundary layer by
regenerating it
a. Spoilers
b. Wing fences
c. Vortex generators
d. Slots
356. Constant speed propeller, during take off, ft is at a
a. Lower propeller blade angle
b. Higher propeller blade angle
c. Lower blade pitch
d. Either a or c
357. The time necessary to feather a propeller depends upon
a. The size of the oil passage from the propeller to engine
b. The force exerted by spring
c. As in (2) and counter weights
d. All the above
358. Coarse pitch in reference to a propeller
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a. Is used for take off
b. Also is known as increase rpm
c. Is used for cruise
d. Should be selected for landing
359. When the propeller is revolving at a constant rpm propeller torque and engine torque
will be
a. Equal
b. Equal & opposite
c. Opposite
d. Resulting in a tendency to roll the airplane in a direction opposite to the
rotation of the propeller.
360. Which of the following statements are true with respect to propeller
a. A coarse pitch propeller is best suited for high speed cruise and to high
altitude flight,
b. A fine pitch propeller gives the best performance during take off and climb.
c. Fine pitch is also sometimes know as low pitch and as increase rpm
d. All are true
361. A constant speed propeller that operates on counterweight principle should be
shifted to coarse pitch before the engine is being stopped. The reason
a. This protects the bearing surfaces which are oils from collecting foregoing
matter
b. This procedure empties the propeller cylinder of oil. which might otherwise
congeal in cold weather.
c. This action will allow the oil pressure 10 build up adequate
d. Both (1) and (2) are applicable.
362. If the heated air is confined in a container, and is unable to expand, its pressure will.
a. Fall
b. Rise
c. Remain same
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d. Fall, even through its density will have remained constant
363. In different masses of air with the same pressure, that with the lowest temperature
has the
a. Highest density
b. Lowest density
c. Same density as of the other
d. All the above statements are wrong
364. Atmospheric air density reduces at a
a. Rate which is solely dependent on pressure
b. Steady rate up to tropo - pause
c. Steady rate up to strato – pause
d. Rapid rate initially, and then at a reducing rate as altitude is gained
365. Two locations have the same atmospheric temperature and pressure. At, one
however, the air is very dry, while at the other, humidity, is high. The airplane
performance will be.
a. Better at the dry location
b. Same at both locations
c. Better at the humid location
d. Increased in humid and decreased in dry location
366. ………………is the altitude in the ISA which has the same air density as the actual
altitude
a. Pressure altitude
b. Actual altitude
c. Density altitude
d. Humidity altitude
367. With reference to the same above graph, what is the stalling angle? (If any)
a. There is no stalling angle, since the graph does not represent any list curve
b. 6
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c. 14
d. 18
368. Which of the following statement is true gas turbine engines?
a. At the lower engine speeds, thrust increases rapidly with small increases in
RPM
b. At the higher engine speeds, thrust increase rapidly with small
increases in RPM
c. Gas turbine engines operate less efficiently at high altitudes due to the lower
temperature encountered.
d. The thrust delivered per pound of air consumed is less at high altitude than at
low altitude.
369. What is the first engine instrument indication of a successful start of a turbine
engine?
a. EGT
370. The stalling speed of an aircraft will be highest when the aircraft is loaded with a
a. Higher gross weight and aft CG
b. Low gross weight and forward CG
c. Low gross weight and aft CG
d. High gross weight and forward CG
371. In airspeed indicators, airspeed is measured by comparing the difference between
a. Pitot and ram pressure
b. Still and static pressure
c. Pitot and static pressure
d. Still and duel pressure
372. What is adjusted in a magnet-c compass to correct for deviation
a. The strength of the compass magnets is varied.
b. The compass magnets are moved either closer together or further apart.
c. Compensating magnets are rotated to cancel the interfering magnetic field
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d. The compass card is moved relative to the magnet.
373. The altitude indicators displays the direct picture of:
a. Climbing altitude
b. Take off altitude
c. Descending altitude
d. Aircraft altitude
374. The construction and operation of the heading indicator is based upon the principle
of:
a. Gyroscopic rigidity
b. Gyroscopic precession
c. Both a & b
d. Differential pressure datum
375. Hydraulic Fuses operate on the principle(s) off
a. Direction of flow
b. Rate of flow
c. Volume of flow
d. Both b & c.
376. If the cabin rate of climb is too great, the cabin pressurization controls should be
adjusted to cause the
a. Outflow valve to close slower
b. Cabin compressor speed-to increase
c. Outflow valve to close faster
377. The location of ice formation is at (He 'pilot tubes', which of the following heat
method of control is best suited at this location
a. Electrical
b. Pneumatic
c. Thermal
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d. Alcohol
378. In order to reduce any tendency for the controls to flutter during flight it is usual to
a. Attach a fixed tab to the failing edge of the control surface
b. Incorporate some form of mass balance
c. Arrange the hinge line to be ahead of the C of G of the control surface
d. Design the control surface with a horn shaped tip.
379. Aerodynamic balance can be achieved by
a. Arranging for a portion of the control surface ahead of the hinge line.
b. Attaching metal strip at the trailing edge of the particular control surface
c. As in a & which result in protruding into the path of airflow, resulting
in balance.
d. AS in b and which results in protruding into the path of airflow, resulting in
balance.
380. Which of the following affect(s) the strength of a magnetic field produced by an
electro magnet?
a. The material used for the core of the coil
b. The number of turns in the coil
c. the amount of electron flow in the coil
d. All the above.
381. A flow rate of one coulomb per one second is
a. One ampere
b. One volt
c. One watt
d. Mill volt
382. One micro volt is equal to
a. 1000 volts
b. 181000 volts
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c. I/I 0000 volts
d. 1/100000 volts
383. A 1000 watt, 50 volt room heater would use…………..amps of current:
a. 20
b. 200
c. 5000
d. 950
384. Which of the following applies to secondary cells in batteries
a. Secondary cells are not producers of electricity. They are rather storage
facilities
b. Secondary cells arc normally used as a stand by and used in the absence of
primary cells
c. Secondary cells are a form of electrical generator in which a chemical
action takes place to produce a flow of cells
d. Secondary cells, during the process, losses one of its materials which cannot
be restored.
385. Which component of the constant speed propeller system is considered as RPM
sensing device?
a. Propeller governor
b. Propeller counterweights
c. Fly weights
d. Propeller shank
386. Feathering propeller systems have the ability to rotate the propeller blades to an
approximate blade angle of
a. 180o
b. 270o
c. 90o
d. 360o
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387. When a propeller goes into reverse
a. The blades rotate below the low blade angle and into a negative angle
b. It forces air forward to provide a negative thrust.
c. The engine does not rotate in the direction opposite to normal rotation
d. All the above statements are applicable
388. Reversing propellers have the advantage(s) of:
a. Decreasing the length of me landing roll
b. Reducing the brake wear
c. Increasing the ground maneuverability
d. All the above
389. The general principle of the engine is to
a. Convert more of the fuel energy into temperature
b. Convert more of the fuel energy into pressure
c. Deliver power through a shaft to operate something other than a propeller
d. Transmit increased power forward, through a shaft and gear train
390. With reference to propeller, pitch distribution is
a. The increase in blade angle from tip to hub
b. The decrease in blade angle from the hub to the tip
c. The area between the propeller plane of rotation and the chord line of the
propeller airfoil section
d. The flat side area of the blade facing the pilot.
391. The propeller blade angle is measured at each of the blade stations, the blade angle
near the center of the propeller will be
a. Highest
b. Lowest
c. Highest with a decrease in blade angle toward the tip
d. Lowest with a increase in blade angle toward the tip.
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392. Constant speed propellers uses a:
a. Fixed force to cause a decrease in blade angle
b. Variable force to cause a decrease in blade angle
c. Fixed force to cause a decrease or increase in blade angle
d. Variable force to cause a increase or decrease in blade angle
393. A stroke is represented by the total piston movement. This moment is equal to
a. 90° of crankshaft rotation
b. 45°of crankshaft rotation
c. 180° of crankshaft rotation
d. 360° of crankshaft rotation
394. Which type of oil is normally recommended for engine lubrication in case of piston
engines?
a. Petrol based oil.
b. Synthetic oil.
c. Straight mineral oil.
d. Phosphor based oil.
395. The function (s) of the fuel metering system in an aircraft engine is (are)
a. Weight the amount of air entering the engine.
b. Meter the proper amount of fuel as per the amount of air admitted
c. Mix the fuel & air and distribute the fuel-air mixture to cylinders
d. All the above
396. With respect to super charging, which of the following statement(s) is (are) true?
a. With a normally aspirated engine it is not possible to have a manifold pressure
higher than the existing atmospheric pressure.
b. With a super charged engine, the manifold pressure may be increased to any
amount the engine manufacturer will allow.
c. 40 to 45 inches of mercury, absolute, are common values for the take off
manifold pressure of some supercharged engines.
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d. All the above are true.
397. In case of turbo charger, the centrifugal compressor attached to it is driven by the
a. In take air
b. Exhaust gases drive turbine
c. Hydraulic motor connected to turbine.
d. Pneumatic starter
398. The greatest single factor influencing the construction features of any gas turbine
engine is the type of…………for which the engine is designed.
a. Combustion chamber
b. Turbine
c. Exhaust
d. Compressor
399. The amount of air passing through a gas turbine engine is dependent upon
a. The density of the ambient air.
b. The forward speed of the aircraft.
c. The compressor speed (RPM)
d. All the above
400. In every object there is one point at which a single force, equal in magnitude to the
weight of the object and directed upward, can keep the body at rest. This point is
a. Center of pressure
b. Specific gravity
c. Center of gravity
d. Loading point
401. The pressure is equal to
a. Pitot pressure + dynamic pressure
b. Dynamic Pressure - pitot pressure
c. Pitot pressure X dynamic pressure
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d. Pitot pressure - dynamic pressure
402. True air speed may be obtained by :
a. Correcting CAS for compressibility error
b. Correcting IAS for pressure error
c. Dividing CAS by IAS
d. Dividing the HAS by the -square root of the relative density
403. A disturbed, unpredictable flow of air with eddying is called:
a. Turbulent flow
b. Laminar flow
c. Interrupted flow
d. Disrupted flow
404. When an airfoil is at the angle of attack for best lift/drag ratio, the total reaction is:
a. At a right angle to the effective airflow
b. Parallel with the relative airflow
c. At a right angle to the relative airflow
d. As near to a right angle to the relative airflow as it can be
405. Wing tip and trailing edge vortices combine to induce an additional downwash behind
the wing. The downwash reduces the……………angle of attack.
a. Effective
b. Geometric
c. Mean
d. Relative
406. When trailing edge flaps are lowered :
a. CL & CD increases
b. The L/D ratio is reduced
c. The stalling angle of attack is reduced and CP moves rearward above are
applicable,
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d. All the above are applicable
407. The effects) of slat/slot are (is):
a. Separation is delayed and the pressure envelope over the upper surface
'flattened out.
b. The stall is delayed and will occur at a higher angle of attack
c. CL max is increased.
d. Points a, b & c are all applicable
408. Some wings are designed with washout in order to :
a. Improve lateral stability
b. Avoid wing tip stalling
c. Reduce the effects of adverse yaw
d. Prevent stalling from the wing roots first.
409. In different masses of air with the same temperature, that with the highest pressure
hasthe:
a. Lowest density
b. Highest density
c. Highest potential energy
d. Both a &c.
410. ISA conditions assume a pressure lapse rate of ………..hpa for every .......... ft. gain in
altitude from sea level upto about 5000 ft
a. 2,40
b. 1,60
c. 1,30
d. 1.32,40
411. Two locations have the same atmospheric temperature & pressure. At one, however,
the air is very dry, while at the other, humidity is high. Aircraft Performance will be better
at:
a. Dry location
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b. Humid location
c. Both the locations
d. Aircraft performance will have no effects
412. In the troposphere, of the atmosphere, out of pressure, density and temperature,
which of the following decreases with altitude?
a. Only temperature
b. Only pressure
c. Only density
d. All the above
413. The worst density (and therefore performance) conditions are those with a
……….pressure and …………temperature:
a. High, high
b. Low, high
c. High, low
d. Low, low
414. Assume that, if actual conditions art the same as ISA conditions, then density altitude
will be.
a. Same as actual altitude
b. Greater than actual altitude
c. Lower than actual altitude
d. None of the above is applicable
415. An aircraft is in motion. If the forces acting on the aircraft are in equilibrium, this
means that, it is :
a. At rest
b. Either at rest or moving with a constant velocity
c. Not accelerating
d. Accelerating
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416. The storage pressure range for a high pressure pneumatic system, normally ranges
from :
a. 2000 – 2000 PSI
b. 1000 – 3000 PSI
c. 100 – 150 PSI
d. 500 – 1000 PSI
417. The air conditioning systems which utilize air turbine refrigerating units to supply
cooled air are referred to as :
a. Water cycle systems
b. Vapour cycle systems
c. Air Cycle systems
d. Liquid Cycle system
418. When an aircraft is equipped with more than one engine :
a. A separate log book should be maintained for each engine
b. It is not mandatory to maintain two different log books.
c. Then, an additional sheet describing details of the no. 2 engine can be affixed
to the main log book.
d. Any of me above can be followed.
419. The allowable variation of center of gravity location is called
a. The CG maneuverability
b. The CG range
c. Stability of CG
d. CG limit
420. The plane or line in air plane, used as a reference, in order to show relative location
of objects is termed as:
a. Datum line
b. Datum
c. Reference datum
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d. Either a, b or c
421. Which of the following response are / is correct
a. The CG will remain at a constant fixed point on the aircraft during flight
b. The centre of lift (center of pressure) is arranged by the designer is that if the
aircraft is loaded correctly, it will always remain ahead of the CG
c. The couple formed by thrust and drag will balance out the couple formed by
lift & weight
d. All the above are wrong
422. If the CG of an aircraft is moved aft, the ‘tail leer arm’ will be:
a. Increased and the longitudinal stability is increased
b. Decreased and the longitudinal stability is increased
c. Decreased but this will not affect the degree of longitudinal stability
d. Decreased and aircraft’s longitudinal stability will decrease
423. The ‘EWCG’ is the CG of an aircraft in:
a. Extra weight condition
b. Empty weight condition
c. Excess weight position
d. None of the above
424. In a four stroke cycle engine, it produces one power stroke for
a. One complete revolutions of the crankshaft
b. Each two complete revolutions of the crankshaft
c. Four strokes of the piston
d. Either b or c
425. In air craft having more than one battery
a. The extra one is used as a standby and serves in the failure of other battery
b. The batteries are usually connected in series.
c. The batteries are usually connected in parallel.
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d. None of the above is applicable.
426. The manual associated with the C OF A containing limitations within which the
aircraft is to be considered airworthy and instruction and information’s necessary to the
flight crewmembers for the safe operation of the aircraft is
a. Operation manual
b. Maintenance manual
c. Quality control manual
d. Flight manual
427. The manual which is not required to be approved by DGCA but the contents of which
may influence DGCA decision concerning grant of approval is.
a. QC manual
b. Engineering organisation manual
c. Operation manual
d. Flight manual
428. A certificate of Airworthiness is issued in a particular 'category1'- In respect of light
aircraft, which of the following category may apply?
a. Transport category
b. Utility category
c. Permit to fly category
d. Normal category
429. Which of the following is/are true with respect to log books?
a. The engine and the propeller log book shall be preserved for I year after the
engine or propeller is withdrawn from service,
b. The aircraft log book shall be preserved until such a time as the aircraft is
withdrawn from service and is C of A is cancelled by DGCA
c. If the aircraft meets with an accident and gets damaged beyond economical
repairs, the aircraft logbook shall be preserved for 2 years after the accident.
d. All the above are true
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430. Convert 20 deg. C into Fahrenheit and 20 dcg. F in to Celcius.
a. 68 deg. F 6.7 deg. C
b. -6.7 deg. 68 deg. F
c. 68 deg. F -6.7 deg. C
d. 68 Deg. F 48 deg. C
431. For lubrication purpose the type of oil which is most widely used on turbojet engines
is.
a. Synthetic oil
b. Mineral based oil.
c. Phosphate ester based oil.
d. Methyl Ethyl based oil.
432. Why do some jet engines leave black smoke trails?
a. Due to poor combustion.
b. As in (3) and the particles of carbon are formed which are visible as
black smoke
c. Due to mixing of different grades of fuel.
d. As in (3) and having low flash point.
433. Which of the following is a false statement with respect to turbo fan engine?
a. The turbofan engine is a turbojet with a fan added at the front end ahead of
the compressor.
b. The diameter of the fan in case of turbofan engine is smaller than
that of the engine proper.
c. In some turbofan engines, the fan is mounted aft of the turbine blades instead
of ahead of the compressor.
d. As in (3) and is driven by the turbine wheel forms part of the fan assembly.
e. All the above
434. In 1C engines cooling systems are employed. The main reasons(s) my excessive heat
should be avoided is/are
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a. It affects the behaviour of the combustion of the fuel/air charge. It can cause
detonation to occur.
b. It reduces the efficiency of the lubrication system.
c. It weakens the engine components and so shortens engine life
d. All the above
435. The suction system can provide the source of power for the operation of
a. Gyroscopes.
b. Altimeter
c. Pilot-static indicators.
d. None of the above.
436. If you use gasoline to your aircraft with a lower Octane rating, it may cause.
a. Detonation
b. The spark plugs to foul
c. Pre-ignition increased output
d. Rough operation and lower manifold pressure
437. AV GAS normally incorporates a fuel additive known as Tetraethyl Lead. This is
a. Give colour to it
b. Give odour to AVGAS
c. Reduce detonation
d. Increase the flashpoint.
438. Which of the following is a true statement with respect to propeller
a. The magnitude of the propeller thrust created is equal to mass of air moved
per unit time, multiplied by the slipstream velocity.
b. As in (1) and speed of the aircraft has to be subtracted.
c. As in (1) and speed of the aircraft has to be added.
d. All the above are wrong
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439. A typical propeller blade is an aerofoil which is twisted along its length and has a
…………chord from root to the tip.
a. Same size
b. Decreasing
c. Increasing
d. Either (1) or (2)
440. Propeller blades are normally subjected to very high
a. Centrifugal forces
b. As in (1) and twisting forces.
c. Bending forces.
d. All the above
441. Which of the following is true with respect to electrical system?
a. Do not start a flight with a flat battery
b. Do not start the engine with radios and other unnecessary electrical
equipment switched on
c. Turn off ancillary- electrical equipment before shutting down engine
d. All the above are true
442. The function of the lubricating oil is to perform
a. Cooling and sealing
b. Lubrication
c. Flushing
d. All the above
443. Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR) is
a. Ratio of pressure at exit of the compressor drive turbine to the compressor
inlet
b. Ratio of pressure a£ the compressor inlet to that at the compressor
exit
c. Ratio of pressure at the turbine inlet to combustion chamber exit
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d. Ratio of pressure at the turbine exit to turbine inlet
444. Which of the folio wing section(s) constitute Gas - Generator?
a. The Burner
b. As in (I) and the turbine
c. As in (2) and the compressor
d. As in (3) and the diffuser
445. Due to decrease RPM. coarse pitch is also sometimes known as
a. High pitch
b. Low pitch
c. Effective pitch
d. None of the above
446. Turning the blades to the extreme coarse pitch position, where they are streamlined
and, cease to turn is referred to as.
a. Wind milling
b. Prop reversing
c. Feathering
d. Prop braking
447. During compression stroke, before the piston reaches TDC, if the rise in temperature
and pressure is too much that it is more than the flash point, the phenomenon
resulting is
a. Detonation
b. Back fire
c. Pre – ignition
d. Mis - firing
448. The viscosity of the fluid varies
a. From one fluid to another
b. With the temperature
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c. With the pressure
d. As in (1) and (2)
449. …………can occur in one cylinder only where a hot spot exists, where as…………will
normally appear in all cylinder.
a. Detonation, pre-ignition
b. Pre-ignition, detonation
c. Mis - firing, pre-ignition
d. Back fire, pre-ignition
450. Oil pressure gauge indicates the pressure at which oil enters the engine
a. From the sump
b. From the filter
c. From the pump
d. None of the above.
451. At a certain stage of flight the cylinder head temperature gauge shows excessively
high reading. Which of the following action should the pilot lake?
a. Ensure that cowl flaps are fully open
b. Enrich the mixture / reduce the power being used.
c. If possible, increase the airspeed
d. Any or all of the above actions
452. In the vacuum gauge, the appearance of 'dolls eye' indicates
a. A pump failure
b. The engine is shut down
c. The valve of vacuum created in the system
d. Either (I) or (2)
453. Which of the following references/ is/are provided by a simple pressure altimeter
through the use of datum setting knob?
a. Operation of the aircraft at specific flight levels.
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b. Height above an aerodrome
c. Altitude above mean sea level
d. All the above
454. In case of piston engine, the difference between the total power developed in the
cylinder and the net power available from the engine is termed as :
a. Brake Horse Power
b. Friction Horse Power
c. Indicated Horse Power
d. Mean effective Pressure
455. Crank shaft is generally known by the number of throws it has. A Four throw
crankshaftmeans that the shaft is offset at.
a. Two places
b. Six places
c. Eight places
d. None of the above
456. The piston rings are provided with an end gap. The reason is
a. This maintains springiness when fitted inside they cylinder.
b. As in (1) and prevents jamming the cylinder when the piston is
working at high temperature
c. As in (2) and prevents gas leakage when the piston is fitted inside the cylinder
d. As in (3) and scraps the surplus oil from the cylinder wall.
457. SHANK is
a. The piston end of the connecting rod
b. The crankshaft end of the connecting rod.
c. The plain portion of the connecting rod between the small end and
big end
d. The top portion of the cylinder which provides the combustion space and the
valve mechanism and the ports for the inlet and exhaust gases.
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458. In a four stroke piston engine, at an engine speed of 2200 rpm the camshaft rotates
a. 2200 times
b. 1100 times
c. 550 times
d. 4400 times
459. The, brief period when both the inlet and the exhaust valves are open together is
called
a. Valve overlap
b. Valve timing
c. Valve lag
d. Valve lead
460. Stability about the longitudinal axis is given by :
a. Wing dihedral
b. Elevators
c. Ailerons
d. Mass balancing of controls
461. Air supplied to n aircraft cabin by a pressurizations system is referred to as
a. Fresh air
b. Charge air
c. Ram Air
d. Conditioned air
462. In a symmetrical aerofoil section the mean camber line is
a. A straight line co – incident with the chord
b. Co – incident with the appear surface of the section
c. A curve
d. None of the above
463. A jet engine runs smoothly because
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a. It runs at lower temperature
b. Its compression ratio is less
c. Of the effective lubrication
d. It has no reciprocating pens.
464. The 5 principal factors which affect the magnitude of lift and drag of an airplane are:-
a. Angle or attack shape of airfoil - Gross weight wind velocity – Lift coefficient -
b. Angle of attack airspeed - Shape of airfoil air density – Wing area -
c. Angle of attack coefficient of lift - Shape of airfoil gross weight – Aspect ratio –
d. Angle of attack air density – Thrust – Gross weight – Airspeed
465. In level flight at constant airspeed
a. Thrust exceeds drag
b. Lift exceeds weight of the airplane
c. Lift equals weight
d. Thrust exceeds gravity
466. If Your aircraft stalls at 50 kts in a 30° banked turn, in a 60° banked turn the stalling
speed would
a. Increased
b. Decreased
c. Be the same
d. Double
467. The longitudinal stability of an aircraft is determined by
a. The location of the e.g. with respect of the centre of pressure.
b. The effectiveness of the horizontal stability, ruddes and rudder trim tab
c. The relation ship of thrust and lift to weight and drag
d. The dihedral, sweepback angle and feel effect.
468. To incase the rate of turn and at the same time decrease turn radine the pilot should
a. Maintain the bank and decease airspeed
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b. Steepen the bank and increase airspeed
c. Steepen the bank and decrease the air speed
469. Which is true regarding the use of flap s in turn
a. The addition of flaps increase the stall speed
b. The addition of flaps decreases the stall speed
c. If any given degree of bank, the addition of flap has no effect on stall speed.
470. One cause of after firing in an aircraft engine is
a. Sticking intake valves
b. An excessively lean mixture
c. An excessively rich mixture
471. The camshaft of piston engine normally rotates
a. At twice the speed of the mark shaft
b. At half the speed of the mark shaft crank
c. At the same speed as the cranle shaft crank
472. A dry sump lubrication system
a. Maintains a reserve of oil in a separate tank
b. Maintains a reserve of oil in the sump
c. Requires no reserve of oil
473. The pressure filter in a dry sump lubrication system in
a. Located between the pressure pump and the tank
b. Located after the pressure pump
c. Located between the scavenge pump and the tank
474. In an aircraft ignition system, one of the fund ion of the capacitor is it
a. Regulate the flow of current between primary and secondary oil
b. Facilitate a more rapid collapse of the magnetic filed in the primary
oil
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c. Stop the flow of magnetic lines of force where the points open
475. Shielding is used on speck plug, and ignition wire
a. Protect the wire from short circuits as n result of chafing and rubbing
b. Prevent outside electromagnetic omissions from disrupting the operation
of the ignition system
c. Prevent interference with radio reception
476. The purpose of impulse coupling within a magneto is
a. To abort impulse vibration between the magneto and the engine
b. To compensate for back lash in the magneto and the engine gears
c. The produce a momentary high rotational speed of the magneto.
477. If an aircraft ignition switch is turned off and the engine continues to run normally,
the trouble is caused by
a. An open ground lead in the magneto
b. Arcing magneto breaker points
c. Primary lead grounding
478. Which statement is correct regarding the ignition system of a turbine ermine
a. The system in normally de- energized a soon as the engine starts
b. It is energies during the starting and the warm up periods on the
c. The system generally includes a polar inductor type magneto.
479. In a gas turbine engine, the compression ratio is the
a. Radio between the inlet to the engine and the exhaust outlet pressure
b. Ratio between the pressure at the inlet to the compressor and the
outlet of the compressor
c. Ratio between the entrance to the engine in intake and compressor outlet
pressure
480. Compressor surging may be indicated by
a. A reduction in engine gas temperature
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b. An increase in jet pipe temperatures
c. A rapid increase of power.
481. During engine starting variable inlet guide vanes will be
a. Fully closed
b. Fully open
c. Partially open
482. The most satisfactory extinguishing agent for a carburetor or intake fire is Intake fire
is
a. Carbon oxide
b. Dry chemical
c. Methyl bromide
483. How are most aircraft turbine extinguishing fire estranging systems activated
a. Electrical discharge carbide
b. Manual remote control valve
c. Push rod assembly
484. Proper back station numbers increases from blade
a. Hub to lip
b. Tip to hub
c. Leading edge to trailing edge
485. What control the constant speed range of a constant speed propeller
a. Engine R pm
b. Angle of climb and descent with accompanying changes in air speed.
c. The mechanical limits in the respect pitch range.
486. An aircrafts propeller system beta range
a. Is used to produce zero or negative thrust
b. Is used to achieve maximum thrust during value off use are given engine rpm
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c. Refers it the most fuel efficient pitch range to use are a given engine rpm
487. What operational force tends to bend propeller blades forward at the tip
a. Torque bending force
b. Centrifugal twisting force
c. Thrust bending force.
488. Counter weight on constant speed propeller are generally used to aid in
a. Increasing blade angle
b. Decreasing blade angle
c. Unfeathering the propeller.
489. The primary purpose of feathering a propeller is to
a. Prevent further engine damage-when an engine fails in flight
b. Prevent propeller damage when are engine fails in flight
c. Eliminate the drag heated by a wind milling propeller when an engine
fails in flight
490. In a centrifugal compressor, air enter 's
a. The center of the impellers
b. The outer rim of the impellers
c. The diffuser
491. Intermediated bleed values are fitted
a. Intermediately after the compressor
b. At the compressor inlet
c. At an intermediate stage within the compressor
492. Modem gas turbine engine turbine blades are from ally attracted
a. The fir tree method
b. The De lavel bulb root
c. The BMW. Hollow blade
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493. As the gas flow passes through the turbine assembly the velocity of the gas now will
a. Initially fall and then rise in the jet pipe
b. Remain relatively constant
c. Initially rise and then fall in the jet pipe
494. Kerosene is used as a turbine engine fuel because
a. Kerosene has a very high volatility which aids in ignition and lubrication
b. Kerosene has more heat energy per gallon and lubricates fuel system
components
c. Kerosene does not contain any water
495. Which part of an aircraft in flight will begin to accumulate ice before any other
a. Wing leading edge
b. Propeller spines or dome
c. Carburetor
496. The carburetor cut out if titled is normally
a. Attached to the diffuse
b. Located in the slow nursing jet line
c. Pursuer balance duct
497. You insure that no less than 100/130 octane gas online is used in filling your tanks.
Use of gasoline with low octane rating may cause.
a. Rough operation and lower manifold pressure
b. Detonation
c. Pre-ignition and increased output
d. The sparks plugs to foul.
498. Your are informed that only detergent type oil is available This mean, that
a. It can never be used in engines over 125 hp
b. It can be used only in engines with suitable filters and flexible oil lines
c. It is the latest type of oil and should be always used when available
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d. The oil contains additions and should be added to the same type of oil only
499. Resistance in a conductor
a. Increases with increase of temperature
b. Reduce with increase of temperature
c. Remains constant at all temperature
d. Varies in are irregular manner with temperature changes.
500. A one hundred ampere, hours battery will furnish 50 amps for
a. 1 hour
b. 30 meter
c. 2 hours
d. 50 hours
501. Ground power
a. Output must be the same as the aircraft output before it is connected
b. Output must be paralleled with aircraft out put before it is connected
c. Output must be on minimum before il is connected
d. Must be “off” before it is connected to the aircraft.
502. Static inverter's may be used to supply
a. Emergency constant frequency A.C.
b. Emergency constant frequency D.C.
c. Emergency frequency wild A.C.
d. Emergency frequency wild D.C.
503. What is the mot commonly recommend practice for Preventing Condensation in the
fuel tanks
a. Drain a pint of fuel from the tank sumps each flight
b. Strain all fuel as it Is put in the tanks
c. Fill each fuel tank after every flight
d. Install a quick drain gascolator
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504. The low pressure fuel pump (in a gas turbine fuel system)n
a. Is normally driven mechanically by the engine
b. Is normally electrically driven
c. Is driven hydraulically by the engine lubrication system.
505. The high pressure fuel pump is normally drive
a. Mechanically by the engine
b. Hydraulically
c. Electrically by the engine
506. A burst red disc at the atmospheric outlet of a Fixed fire extinguisher system
indicates:
a. The system has been used to integrity a five
b. The system is unserviceable
c. The extinguisher has over pressurized
507. When the aircraft cabin is pressurized, the pressure inside the cabin will be
a. Higher than outside atmospheric per some
b. However than outside atmospheric per some
c. Equal to outside atmospheric per some
d. As in (b)and temperature also will be comes than outside air temperature
508. Normally cabin pressurization is controlled by on automatic pressure controller. It
does this by modulating
a. Engine bleed values which supplies the air
b. Outflow values which discharges the air to the outside atmosphere
c. Dump values which dumps the cabin pressure after landing
d. Negative pressure relief values.
509. In a pressurized aircraft cabin attitude
a. Is lower than aircraft altitude
b. Is higher than aircraft altitude
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c. Is same as aircraft altitude
d. If 1013.2 mb is set both cabin and aircraft altitude will be indicating same
510. In a pressurized air conditioned aircraft, if cabin temperature is higher than the
selected cabin temperature it means
a. Pressurization system is malfunctions
b. Air-conditioning system is malfunctions
c. Engines are set to high power setting
d. Aircraft is coming for sanding and is depressurized, hence conditioned.
511. In a presscrized aircraft in level hight, cabin vertical speed indicator shows a climbing
indication this means
a. Aircraft altitude is increasing
b. Cabin altitude is increasing Pressure
c. A as in (b) and aircraft cabin pursuer is increasing
d. As in (b) and air craft cabin pressure is decreasing
512. Regarding pressurized aircraft, mark the correct statement
a. On ground before opening the doors the a/c should be pressurized
b. On ground before opening the doors the a/c should be depressurized
c. As in (a) and it is a safety requirement
d. As in (b) and it is a safety requirement
513. At high attitude, a pilot is susceptible to hypoxia which is
a. Excess carbon monoxide in the hemoglobin
b. Imbalance of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the body system
c. Spatial disorientation
d. Each of stuffiness oxygen in the body cells
514. To prevent hypoxia , a pilot should
a. Use oxygen above 5000 ft asl during daytime
b. Breathe in to a paper bag
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c. Use oxygen above 5000 it ASL at night
d. Open the window and air vents of the airplane
515. One Alcoholic drink taken of 5000ft compared to the same drink at sea level:-
a. Has a lesser effect
b. Has a greater effect
c. Has no appreciable difference in effect
d. Increases the chance of wriolis effect
516. Mark the correct statement in the event of smoke in the cockpit
a. Crew should use oxygen mask in the normal mode
b. Crew should use oxygen mask in the 100% mode
c. As in (a) and take corrective check list actions
d. As in (b) and take corrective check list actions
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