GATE Solved Question Papers for Metallurgical Engineering [MT] by AglaSem.Com

SOLVED PAPERS

GATEMETALLURGICAL ENGINEERING (MT)

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CONTENTS

Introduction Question Paper Pattern Design of Questions Marking Scheme Syllabus Previous Year Solved Papers

o Solved Question Paper 2014o Answer Key 2014o Solved Question Paper 2013o Answer Key 2013o Solved Question Paper 2012o Answer Key 2012

IntroductionThe Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering (GATE) is the all India level examinationconducted by the Indian Institute of Science and seven Indian Institutes of Technology(IITs).

A crucial part of GATE preparation is to solve and practice using previous year GATEpapers. Solving previous year GATE papers help the candidate in understanding the exampattern, knowing the level of difficulty of questions, and analyzing preparation.

While attempting to solve any previous year GATE paper, it is advisable that it is done in asimulated test environment. This means, that the candidate sets a timer to countdown totest time, makes sure there is no other distraction, and then sits down to take the test as ifhe / she is in the exam hall. After attempting the paper, check how many questions youcould get right in the first attempt. Analyse the strong and weak areas of preparation, andaccordingly devise a study schedule or revision pattern. After going through those areaswhere in the first attempt could not do well, try the next paper.

Almost all of the engineering colleges in India take admission in M.Tech courses on thebasis of GATE scores. Apart from that, PSUs also recruit students directly on this basis.

To score high in this elite examination is tough, but quite achievable.

GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by_________________________________________________________

Question Paper PatternIn all the papers, there will be a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks, out of which 10questions carrying a total of 15 marks are in General Aptitude (GA).

In the papers bearing the codes AE, AG, BT, CE, CH, CS, EC, EE, IN, ME, MN, MT, PI, TF andXE, the Engineering Mathematics will carry around 13% of the total marks, the GeneralAptitude section will carry 15% of the total marks and the remaining percentage of thetotal marks is devoted to the subject of the paper.

In the papers bearing the codes AR, CY, EY, GG, MA, PH and XL, the General Aptitudesection will carry 15% of the total marks and the remaining 85% of the total marks isdevoted to the subject of the paper.

GATE would contain questions of two different types in various papers:

(i) Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) carrying 1 or 2 marks each in all papers andsections. These questions are objective in nature, and each will have a choice of fouranswers, out of which the candidate has to mark the correct answer(s).

(ii) Numerical Answer Questions of 1 or 2 marks each in all papers and sections. Forthese questions the answer is a real number, to be entered by the candidate using thevirtual keypad. No choices will be shown for this type of questions.

GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by________________________________________________________

Design of QuestionsThe questions in a paper may be designed to test the following abilities:

(i) Recall: These are based on facts, principles, formulae or laws of the discipline of thepaper. The candidate is expected to be able to obtain the answer either from his/hermemory of the subject or at most from a one-line computation.

(ii) Comprehension: These questions will test the candidate's understanding of thebasics of his/her field, by requiring him/her to draw simple conclusions from fundamentalideas.

(iii) Application: In these questions, the candidate is expected to apply his/herknowledge either through computation or by logical reasoning.

(iv) Analysis and Synthesis: In these questions, the candidate is presented with data,diagrams, images etc. that require analysis before a question can be answered. A Synthesisquestion might require the candidate to compare two or more pieces of information.Questions in this category could, for example, involve candidates in recognising unstatedassumptions, or separating useful information from irrelevant information.

GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by__________________________________________________________

Marking SchemeFor 1-mark multiple-choice questions, 1/3 marks will be deducted for a wrong answer.Likewise, for2-marks multiple-choice questions, 2/3 marks will be deducted for a wronganswer. There is no negative marking for numerical answer type questions.

General Aptitude (GA) Questions

In all papers, GA questions carry a total of 15 marks. The GA section includes 5 questionscarrying 1 mark each (sub-total 5 marks) and 5 questions carrying 2 marks each (sub-total10 marks).

Question Papers other than GG, XE and XL

These papers would contain 25 questions carrying 1 mark each (sub-total 25 marks) and30 questions carrying 2 marks each (sub-total 60 marks). The question paper will consist ofquestions of multiple choice and numerical answer type. For numerical answer questions,choices will not be given. Candidates have to enter the answer (which will be a realnumber, signed or unsigned, e.g. 25.06, -25.06, 25, -25 etc.) using a virtual keypad. Anappropriate range will be considered while evaluating the numerical answer typequestions so that the candidate is not penalized due to the usual round-off errors.

GG (Geology and Geophysics) Paper

Apart from the General Aptitude (GA) section, the GG question paper consists of two parts:Part A and Part B. Part A is common for all candidates. Part B contains two sections: Section1 (Geology) and Section 2 (Geo-physics). Candidates will have to attempt questions in PartA and either Section 1 or Section 2 in Part B.

Part A consists of 25 multiple-choice questions carrying 1-mark each (sub-total 25 marksand some of these may be numerical answer type questions). Each section in Part B(Section 1 and Section 2) consists of 30 multiple choice questions carrying 2 marks each(sub-total 60 marks and some of these may be numerical answer type questions).

XE Paper (Engineering Sciences)


In XE paper, Engineering Mathematics section (Section A) is compulsory. This sectioncontains 11 questions carrying a total of 15 marks: 7 questions carrying 1 mark each (sub-total 7 marks), and 4 questions carrying 2 marks each (sub-total 8 marks). Some questionsmay be of numerical answer type questions.

Each of the other sections of the XE paper (Sections B through G) contains 22 questionscarrying a total of 35 marks: 9 questions carrying 1 mark each (sub-total 9 marks) and 13questions carrying 2 marks each (sub-total 26 marks). Some questions may be ofnumerical answer type.

XL Paper (Life Sciences)

In XL paper, Chemistry section (Section H) is compulsory. This section contains 15questions carrying a total of 25 marks: 5 questions carrying 1 mark each (sub-total 5 marks)and 10 questions carrying 2-marks each (sub-total 20 marks). Some questions may be ofnumerical answer type.

Each of the other sections of the XL paper (Sections I through M) contains 20 questionscarrying a total of 30 marks: 10 questions carrying 1 mark each (sub-total 10 marks) and 10questions carrying 2 marks each (sub-total 20 marks). Some questions may be ofnumerical answer type.

Note on Negative Marking for Wrong Answers

For a wrong answer chosen for the multiple choice questions, there would be negativemarking. For1-mark multiple choice questions, 1/3 mark will be deducted for a wronganswer. Likewise, for 2-mark multiple choice questions, 2/3 mark will be deducted for awrong answer. However, there is no negative marking for a wrong answer in numericalanswer type questions.


Syllabus for General Aptitude (GA)Verbal Ability: English grammar, sentence completion, verbal analogies, word groups,instructions, critical reasoning and verbal deduction.

Numerical Ability: Numerical computation, numerical estimation, numerical reasoningand data interpretation.

Syllabus for Metallurgical Engineering (MT)ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS

Linear Algebra:Matrices and Determinants, Systems of linear equations, Eigen values andEigen vectors.

Calculus: Limit, continuity and differentiability; Partial Derivatives; Maxima and minima;Sequences and series; Test for convergence; Fourier series.

Vector Calculus: Gradient; Divergence and Curl; Line; surface and volume integrals;Stokes, Gauss and Greens theorems.

Diferential Equations: Linear and non-linear first order ODEs; Higher order linear ODEswith constant coefficients; Cauchys and Eulers equations; Laplace transforms; PDEs Laplace, heat and wave equations.

Probability and Statistics: Mean, median, mode and standard deviation; Randomvariables; Poisson, normal and binomial distributions; Correlation and regression analysis.

Numerical Methods: Solutions of linear and non-linear algebraic equations; integration oftrapezoidal and Simpsons rule; single and multi-step methods for differential equations.

METALLURGICAL ENGINEERING

Thermodynamics and Rate Processes: Laws of thermodynamics, activity, equilibriumconstant, applications to metallurgical systems, solutions, phase equilibria, Ellingham andphase stability diagrams, thermodynamics of surfaces, interfaces and defects, adsorptionand segregation; basic kinetic laws, order of reactions, rate constants and rate limiting

GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by______________________________________________________________

steps; principles of electro chemistry- single electrode potential, electro-chemical cells andpolarizations, aqueous corrosion and protection of metals, oxidation and hightemperature corrosion characterization and control; heat transfer conduction,convection and heat transfer coefficient relations, radiation, mass transfer diffusion andFicks laws, mass transfer coefficients; momentum transfer concepts of viscosity, shellbalances, Bernoullis equation, friction factors.

Extractive Metallurgy: Minerals of economic importance, comminution techniques, sizeclassification, Flotation, gravity and other methods of mineral processing; agglomeration,pyro- hydro- and electro-metallurgical processes; material and energy balances; principlesand processes for the extraction of non-ferrous metals aluminium, copper, zinc, lead,magnesium, nickel, titanium and other rare metals; iron and steel making principles, rolestructure and properties of slags, metallurgical coke, blast furnace, direct reductionprocesses, primary and secondary steel making, ladle metallurgy operations includingdeoxidation, desulphurization, sulphide shape control, inert gas rinsing and vacuumreactors; secondary refining processes including AOD, VAD, VOD, VAR and ESR; ingot andcontinuous casting; stainless steel making, furnaces and refractories.

Physical Metallurgy: Crystal structure and bonding characteristics of metals, alloys,ceramics and polymers, structure of surfaces and interfaces, nano-crystalline andamorphous structures; solid solutions; solidification; phase transformation and binaryphase diagrams; principles of heat treatment of steels, cast iron and aluminum alloys;surface treatments; recovery, recrystallization and grain growth; industrially importantferrous and non-ferrous alloys; elements of X-ray and electron diffraction; principles ofscanning and transmission electron microscopy; industrial ceramics, polymers andcomposites; electronic basis of thermal, optical, electrical and magnetic properties ofmaterials; electronic and opto-electronic materials.

Mechanical Metallurgy: Elasticity, yield criteria and plasticity; defects in crystals; elementsof dislocation theory types of dislocations, slip and twinning, source and multiplicationof dislocations, stress fields around dislocations, partial dislocations, dislocationinteractions and reactions; strengthening mechanisms; tensile, fatigue and creepbehaviour; super-plasticity; fracture Griffith theory, basic concepts of linear elastic andelasto-plastic fracture mechanics, ductile to brittle transition, fracture toughness; failure

GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by

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analysis; mechanical testing tension, compression, torsion, hardness, impact, creep,fatigue, fracture toughness and formability.

Manufacturing Processes: Metal casting patterns and moulds including mould designinvolving feeding, gating and risering, melting, casting practices in sand casting,permanent mould casting, investment casting and shell moulding, casting defects andrepair; hot, warm and cold working of metals, Metal forming fundamentals of metalforming processes of rolling, forging, extrusion, wire drawing and sheet metal forming,defects in forming; Metal joining soldering, brazing and welding, common weldingprocesses of shielded metal arc welding, gas metal arc welding, gas tungsten arc weldingand submerged arc welding; welding metallurgy, problems associated with welding ofsteels and aluminium alloys, defects in welded joints; powder metallurgy; NDT using dye-penetrant, ultrasonic, radiography, eddy current, acoustic emission and magnetic particlemethods.


GATEPrevious Year Solved Papers

Metallurgical Engineering - MT

2012 - 14


Duration: 180 minutes Maximum Marks: 100

Read the following instructions carefully.

1. To login, enter your Registration Number and password provided to you. Kindly go through the various symbols used in the test and understand their meaning before you start the examination.

2. Once you login and after the start of the examination, you can view all the questions in the question paper, by clicking on the View All Questions button in the screen.

3. This question paper consists of 2 sections, General Aptitude (GA) for 15 marks and the subject specific GATE paper for 85 marks. Both these sections are compulsory. The GA section consists of 10 questions. Question numbers 1 to 5 are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 6 to 10 are of 2-mark each. The subject specific GATE paper section consists of 55 questions, out of which question numbers 1 to 25 are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 26 to 55 are of 2-mark each.

4. Depending upon the GATE paper, there may be useful common data that may be required for answering the questions. If the paper has such useful data, the same can be viewed by clicking on the Useful Common Data button that appears at the top, right hand side of the screen.

5. The computer allotted to you at the examination center runs specialized software that permits only one answer to be selected for multiple-choice questions using a mouse and to enter a suitable number for the numerical answer type questions using the virtual keyboard and mouse.

6. Your answers shall be updated and saved on a server periodically and also at the end of the examination. The examination will stop automatically at the end of 180 minutes.

7. In each paper a candidate can answer a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. 8. The question paper may consist of questions of multiple choice type (MCQ) and numerical answer

type. 9. Multiple choice type questions will have four choices against A, B, C, D, out of which only ONE is the

correct answer. The candidate has to choose the correct answer by clicking on the bubble () placed before the choice.

10. For numerical answer type questions, each question will have a numerical answer and there will not be any choices. For these questions, the answer should be enteredby using the virtual keyboard that appears on the monitor and the mouse.

11. All questions that are not attempted will result in zero marks. However, wrong answers for multiple choice type questions (MCQ) will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all MCQ questions a wrong answer will result in deduction of marks for a 1-mark question and marks for a 2-mark question.

12. There is NO NEGATIVE MARKING for questions of NUMERICAL ANSWER TYPE.

13. Non-programmable type Calculator is allowed. Charts, graph sheets, and mathematical tables are NOT allowed in the Examination Hall. You must use the Scribble pad provided to you at the examination centre for all your rough work. The Scribble Pad has to be returned at the end of the examination.

Declaration by the candidate:

I have read and understood all the above instructions. I have also read and understood clearly the instructions given on the admit card and shall follow the same. I also understand that in case I am found to violate any of these instructions, my candidature is liable to be cancelled. I also confirm that at the start of the examination all the computer hardware allotted to me are in proper working condition.

GATE 2014 Solved Paper MT: Metallurgical Engineering

GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by________________________________________________________________

Q. 1 Q. 5 carry one mark each. Q.1 A student is required to demonstrate a high level of comprehension of the subject, especially in the

social sciences.

The word closest in meaning to comprehension is

(A) understanding (B) meaning (C) concentration (D) stability

Q.2 Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following sentence.

One of his biggest ______ was his ability to forgive.

(A) vice (B) virtues (C) choices (D) strength

Q.3 Rajan was not happy that Sajan decided to do the project on his own. On observing his unhappiness, Sajan explained to Rajan that he preferred to work independently.

Which one of the statements below is logically valid and can be inferred from the above sentences?

(A) Rajan has decided to work only in a group. (B) Rajan and Sajan were formed into a group against their wishes. (C) Sajan had decided to give in to Rajans request to work with him. (D) Rajan had believed that Sajan and he would be working together.

Q.4 If y = 5x2 + 3, then the tangent at x = 0, y = 3 (A) passes through x = 0, y = 0 (B) has a slope of +1 (C) is parallel to the x-axis (D) has a slope of 1

Q.5 A foundry has a fixed daily cost of Rs 50,000 whenever it operates and a variable cost of Rs 800Q, where Q is the daily production in tonnes. What is the cost of production in Rs per tonne for a daily production of 100 tonnes?

Q. 6 Q. 10 carry two marks each.

Q.6 Find the odd one in the following group: ALRVX, EPVZB, ITZDF, OYEIK (A) ALRVX (B) EPVZB (C) ITZDF (D) OYEIK

Q.7 Anuj, Bhola, Chandan, Dilip, Eswar and Faisal live on different floors in a six-storeyed building (the ground floor is numbered 1, the floor above it 2, and so on). Anuj lives on an even-numbered floor. Bhola does not live on an odd numbered floor. Chandan does not live on any of the floors below Faisals floor. Dilip does not live on floor number 2. Eswar does not live on a floor immediately above or immediately below Bhola. Faisal lives three floors above Dilip. Which of the following floor-person combinations is correct?

Anuj Bhola Chandan Dilip Eswar Faisal (A) 6 2 5 1 3 4 (B) 2 6 5 1 3 4 (C) 4 2 6 3 1 5 (D) 2 4 6 1 3 5


GATE 2014 General Aptitude - GA

Q.8 The smallest angle of a triangle is equal to two thirds of the smallest angle of a quadrilateral. The ratio between the angles of the quadrilateral is 3:4:5:6. The largest angle of the triangle is twice its smallest angle. What is the sum, in degrees, of the second largest angle of the triangle and the largest angle of the quadrilateral?

Q.9 One percent of the people of country X are taller than 6 ft. Two percent of the people of country Y are taller than 6 ft. There are thrice as many people in country X as in country Y. Taking both countries together, what is the percentage of people taller than 6 ft?

(A) 3.0 (B) 2.5 (C) 1.5 (D) 1.25

Q.10 The monthly rainfall chart based on 50 years of rainfall in Agra is shown in the following figure. Which of the following are true? (k percentile is the value such that k percent of the data fall below that value)

(i) On average, it rains more in July than in December (ii) Every year, the amount of rainfall in August is more than that in January (iii) July rainfall can be estimated with better confidence than February rainfall (iv) In August, there is at least 500 mm of rainfall (A) (i) and (ii) (B) (i) and (iii) (C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (iii) and (iv)

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER


GATE 2014 General Aptitude - GA

Q. 1 Q. 25 carry one mark each.

Q.1 Which one of the following factors is NOT desirable for effective phosphorus removal in BOF steelmaking process?

(A) Higher FeO level in slag (B) Higher basicity (C) Higher temperature (D) Lower temperature

Q.2 Which one of the following microstructures of a Ni-base superalloy imparts the highest creep resistance?

(A) Fine grained equiaxed (B) Coarse grained equiaxed (C) Columnar (D) Single crystal

Q.3 Which one of the following plots relating shear stress with strain rate represents Newtonian behaviour of a fluid?

(A) P (B) Q (C) R (D) S

Q.4 The respective units for dislocation density and stress intensity factor are (A) m2 and MPa.m (B) m2 and MPa.m1/2 (C) m-2 and MPa.m1/2 (D) m-2 and MPa.m

Q.5 Which one of the following is NOT an intensive property? (A) Temperature (B) Pressure (C) Volume (D) Refractive index


GATE 2014 Metallurgical Engineering - MT

Q.6 Identify the wave equation among the following equations.

(A) 2 2 + 2 2 = 0 (B) 2 2 = (C) 2 2 = 2 2 2 (D) 2 2 + 2 + 2 2 = 0

Q.7 Which one of the following metal forming processes is the earing defect associated with? (A) Deep drawing (B) Rolling (C) Forging (D) Wire drawing

Q.8 The Pilling-Bedworth ratio is defined as (A) the molar weight of an oxide divided by the molar weight of the metal consumed in oxide

formation.

(B) the volume of the oxide divided by the volume of the metal consumed in oxide formation. (C) the density of the oxide divided by the density of the metal consumed in oxide formation. (D) the molar Gibbs energy of the oxide divided by the Gibbs energy of the metal consumed in

oxide formation.

Q.9 A tensile specimen was deformed at a constant crosshead speed of 6 mm/min. The strain rate at the start of the testing was 510-3 s-1. The initial gauge length of the specimen (in mm) was _______

Q.10 If all the elements of one row of a 3 3 matrix are multiplied by 3, the determinant of the matrix changes by a factor of _______

Q.11 As mercury is cooled from room temperature to 3 K, its electrical behaviour changes from that of (A) conductor to insulator (B) semiconductor to insulator (C) conductor to superconductor (D) semiconductor to superconductor

Q.12 Which one of the following refers to the ability of a material to absorb energy when deformed elastically?

(A) Toughness (B) Fracture toughness (C) Resilience (D) Hardness

Q.13 In the trapezoidal rule for numerical integration of a function, the nature of approximation used for the function in each interval is

(A) constant (B) linear (C) parabolic (D) cubic



Q.14 Which one of the following NDT techniques CANNOT be used to detect an internal crack in a steel shaft?

(A) Liquid penetrant inspection (B) Radiography (C) Ultrasonic testing (D) X-ray tomography

Q.15 Two identical engineering components are made from alloys X and Y. The KIC of alloy X is greater than that of alloy Y. If these components are subjected to the same stress during operation under Mode I loading, which one of the following statements is TRUE?

(A) Component made from alloy X can tolerate a larger flaw size compared to that made from Y (B) Component made from alloy Y can tolerate a larger flaw size compared to that made from X (C) Both can tolerate same flaw size (D) None of the above

Q.16 Which one of the following minerals is a source of titanium? (A) Haematite (B) Magnetite (C) Ilmenite (D) Pyrolusite

Q.17 A steel rod was subjected to a fluctuating stress cycle that varied between a maximum of 400 MPa in tension to a minimum of 300 MPa in compression. What is the stress amplitude, in MPa?______

Q.18 Which one of the following can avoid weld decay of austenitic stainless steels? (A) Reducing carbon content (B) Increasing carbon content (C) Eliminating strong carbide formers (D) Decreasing chromium content

Q.19 Identify the INCORRECT statement with respect to grain growth. (A) As the average grain size increases, the grain boundary energy per unit area decreases. (B) The driving force for grain growth is the decrease in grain boundary energy per unit volume of

the material.

(C) Higher the temperature, the faster is the grain growth. (D) Impurity atoms segregated at grain boundaries can retard grain growth.

Q.20 Identify the type of the following invariant reaction:

liquid 1 + solid 1 solid 2

(A) Eutectic (B) Eutectoid (C) Peritectic (D) Peritectoid

Q.21 What is the median value of the following set of numbers? ________ 1, 3, 5, 9, 6, 4, 8.



Q.22 Which one of the following welding processes uses a non-consumable electrode? (A) Gas tungsten arc welding (B) Gas metal arc welding (C) Submerged arc welding (D) Flux cored arc welding

Q.23 Which one of the following processes is performed for inclusion modification in ladle metallurgy of steelmaking?

(A) Aluminum wire injection (B) Calcium wire injection (C) Oxygen top blowing (D) Oxygen bottom blowing

Q.24 If a vector is defined as gradient of a scalar field such that = , then which one of the following is equal to the curl of ? (A) 2 (B) 0 (C) (D)

Q.25 Which one of the following signals from a specimen is used in a scanning electron microscope to get quantitative elemental analysis?

(A) Secondary electrons (B) Backscattered electrons (C) X-rays (D) Transmitted electrons

Q. 26 Q. 55 carry two marks each.

Q.26 A metal powder with an apparent density of 2.5 g/cm3 was compacted in a cylindrical die to a green density of 5.5 g/cm3. If the height of the green sample was 12 mm, then the fill height of powder (in mm) would have been _______

Q.27 A tensile specimen was deformed to a true strain of 0.405. The change in the gauge length was 5 mm. The final gauge length of the specimen, in mm, is

(A) 10 (B) 12 (C) 15 (D) 18

Q.28 If is a position vector relative to the origin in three dimensional space, then r is (A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3

Q.29 The activity coefficient of Q in a liquid Q-R alloy is represented by the following equation at a given temperature.

ln = 0.62 0.23

What is the activity of Q in an alloy of composition = 0.6 at the same temperature? _______



Q.30 Two Cu-Ni alloys, one with 47 wt.% Ni and the other with 53 wt.% Ni, are kept in separate crucibles and are allowed to equilibrate at the same temperature T1 between the liquidus and the solidus. The two alloys have

(A) the same weight fraction of the liquid but the liquid compositions are different. (B) the same composition of the liquid but the weight fractions of the liquid are different. (C) the same weight fractions of the liquid and the solid. (D) different compositions and weight fractions of the liquid.

Q.31 Dissociation of a dislocation into two partials in an FCC metal is given by the following equation.

2

[110] 6

[211] + 6

[121]

On which plane do these two partial dislocations lie?

(A) (111) (B) (111) (C) (111) (D) (111)

Q.32 Match the types of corrosion in Group I with their examples in Group II.

Group I Group II P. Galvanic corrosion 1. Season cracking in brass Q. Filiform corrosion 2. Nut-bolt assembly with gasket R. Stress corrosion cracking 3. Brass fittings joined with lead-tin solder S. Crevice corrosion 4. Painted food can

(A) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3 (B) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2 (C) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 (D) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1

Q.33 What is the theoretical requirement of air (in m3 at STP) for the complete combustion of 100 m3 (at STP) of a fuel consisting of pure CH4? Assume that air contains 21 vol.% of oxygen. _______

Q.34 An electrolytic refining cell for copper consists of an alloy with activity of copper aCu = 0.8 as the anode, and pure copper as the cathode. What is the absolute value of the cell potential (in millivolts) at 25C, given that copper is divalent? Faraday constant is 96500 C/mol and the universal gas constant is 8.314 J/(mol.K). _______

Q.35 Match the alloy names listed in Group I with the main elements present in them listed in Group II.

Group I Group II P. Babbit 1. Fe-Ni Q. Muntz metal 2. Ni-Cr-Fe R. Invar 3. Cu-Zn S. Inconel 4. Sn-Sb-Cu




Q.36 What is the hydrostatic stress for the state of stress represented by ij given below? _______

= 100 50 5050 125 7550 75 75

Q.37 Assume that Sievert's law holds for solubility of hydrogen dissolved in a thin metal foil. If the partial pressure of hydrogen in contact with the foil is increased by a factor of 4, the solubility increases by a factor of _______

Q.38 A body starts yielding when it is subjected to a stress state with principal stresses of 250 MPa, 50 MPa and 50 MPa. What is the yield strength of the material, in MPa, if Tresca yield criterion is obeyed? _______

Q.39 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion(a) and Reason (r):

Assertion (a): Deoxidation and decarburisation of liquid steel are done by vacuum treatment process.

Reason (r): Decreased partial pressure of CO(g) promotes deoxidation and decarburisation. (A) a is false but r is true (B) a is true but r is false (C) a is true and r is also true, but r is not the reason for a (D) a is true and r is also true, and r is the reason for a

Q.40 In a sand casting of a rectangular slab, the thickness of the solidified layer after 2 minutes is known to be 3 cm. Based on Chvorinov's rule, the solidified thickness (in cm) after 4 minutes is _______

Q.41 A rod of a metal with Youngs modulus of 200 GPa is pulled in tension to a stress of 400 MPa. What is the elastic strain (in %) that is recovered, when the rod is completely unloaded? _______

Q.42 Match the following strengthening methods (Group I) in metallic alloys with typical mechanisms responsible (Group II) for them.

Group I Group II P. Grain size strengthening 1. Orowan looping Q. Work hardening 2. Suzuki interaction R. Dispersion strengthening 3. Lomer-Cottrell barrier S. Solid solution hardening 4. Dislocation pileup at grain boundaries




Q.43 Match the operations listed in Group I with the types of processes listed in Group II.

Group I Group II P. Blast Furnace Ironmaking 1. Refining Q. BOF Steelmaking 2. Electrolysis R. Hall-Heroult Process 3. Smelting S. Bayer Process 4. Leaching

(A) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4 (B) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4 (C) P-4,Q-2, R-3, S-1 (D) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2

Q.44 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion (a) and Reason (r).

Assertion (a): Peak aging time for an Al-4 wt.% Cu alloy is indicated by a maximum in the hardness.

Reason (r): The maximum volume fraction of the precipitates is formed at the peak aging time. (A) a is true but r is false (B) a is false but r is true (C) both a and r are true, and r is the reason for a (D) both a and r are true, but r is not the reason for a

Q.45 Consider a steady state heat flux across a rectangular slab composed of two layers of equal width as shown in the figure below. The thermal conductivities are in the ratio of 21 = 10. If the first layer experiences a temperature drop (1 2) of 50 K, what is the temperature drop (2 3), in K, across the second layer? _______


Assertion (a): During welding of aluminium alloys by the gas tungsten arc welding process, direct current reverse polarity (DCRP) mode is used.

Reason (r): DCRP facilitates breaking up of the oxide film on the workpiece surface. (A) a is true but r is false (B) a is false but r is true (C) both a and r are true, and r is the reason for a (D) both a and r are true, but r is not the reason for a



Q.47 Match the elements in Group I with their corresponding crystal structures in Group II.

Group I Group II P. Tungsten 1. HCP Q. Nickel 2. Simple cubic R. Magnesium 3. BCC S. Polonium 4. FCC


Q.48 The atomic radius of aluminium is 1.431 . The interplanar spacing of (111) planes in aluminium, in , is _______

Q.49 The flow curve of an annealed metal is expressed as = 2000.25 , where is in MPa. If a rod of this metal is subjected to a true strain of = 0.3 by extrusion, the ideal plastic work of deformation per unit volume (in MJ/m3) is _______

Q.50 Two phases and are in thermodynamic equilibrium. If and are the only components present in the phases and and if represents the chemical potential of component in phase j, then the condition for equilibrium is

(A) = and = (B) = and = (C) = and = (D) = and =

Q.51 The important factors for producing low silicon pig iron in a blast furnace are (A) higher temperature and higher basicity (B) lower temperature and lower basicity (C) lower temperature and higher basicity (D) higher temperature and lower basicity

Q.52 The following power series () will converge absolutely if || is less than: () = 4=0 (A) 0.25 (B) 0.5 (C) 2 (D) 4

Q.53 The specific heat (Cp) of pure iron expressed in J/(mol.K) as a function of temperature T (in K) is given as:

Cp = 17.49 + 24.77 10-3 T

What is the change in the enthalpy of pure iron (in J/mol) when it is heated from 25C to 700C? _______

Q.54 The magnitude of the gradient of the function (,) = 2 + 2 + + evaluated at (1, 1) is _______



Q.55 A glass fibre reinforced epoxy composite is made with 60 wt.% unidirectional continuous glass fibres. The elastic moduli of the glass fibre and the epoxy matrix are 72.5 and 2.4 GPa, respectively. What is the elastic modulus of this composite along the fibre direction, in GPa? The densities of glass fibre and epoxy are 2.58 g/cm3 and 1.14 g/cm3, respectively. _______




GATE 2014 - Answer KeysGeneral Aptitude - GAQ. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range1 A 5 1300 to 1300 9 D2 B 6 D 10 B3 D 7 B4 C 8 180 to 180

Metallurgical Engineering - MTQ. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range1 C 20 C 39 D2 D 21 5 to 5 40 4.2 to 4.33 B 22 A 41 0.2 to 0.24 C 23 B 42 C5 C 24 B 43 B6 C 25 C 44 A7 A 26 26.3 to 26.5 45 5 to 58 B 27 C 46 C9 19.95 to

20.0528 D 47 B

10 3 to 3 29 0.46 to 0.49 48 2.30 to 2.3811 C 30 B 49 35 to 3612 C 31 D 50 C13 B 32 C 51 C14 A 33 951 to 953 52 A15 A 34 2.8 to 2.9 53 22380 to

2248016 C 35 D 54 5 to 517 350 to 350 36 100 to 100 55 30.0 to 30.518 A 37 2 to 219 A 38 300 to 300


Paper specific instructions:

1. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. Questions are of multiple choice type or

numerical answer type. A multiple choice type question will have four choices for the answer with

only one correct choice. For numerical answer type questions, the answer is a number and no choices will be given. A number as the answer should be entered using the virtual keyboard on the monitor.

2. Questions Q.1 Q.25 carry 1mark each. Questions Q.26 Q.55 carry 2marks each. The 2marks

questions include two pairs of common data questions and two pairs of linked answer questions. The

answer to the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first

question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is not attempted,

then the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated.

3. Questions Q.56 Q.65 belong to General Aptitude (GA) section and carry a total of 15 marks.

Questions Q.56 Q.60 carry 1mark each, and questions Q.61 Q.65 carry 2marks each.

4. Questions not attempted will result in zero mark. Wrong answers for multiple choice type questions

will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all 1 mark questions, mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For all 2 marks questions, mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. However, in the case of the linked answer question pair, there will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the

first question and no negative marks for wrong answer to the second question. There is no negative

marking for questions of numerical answer type.

5. Calculator is allowed. Charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall.

6. Do the rough work in the Scribble Pad provided.

MT:METALLURGICAL ENGINEERING Duration: Three Hours Maximum Marks:100


GATE 2013 Solved Paper

USEFUL DATA Universal gas constant, R: 8.314 J/mol/K Acceleration due to gravity, g: 9.81 m/s2 Faraday constant, F: 96500 C/mol Bohr magneton, B: 9.273 10 24 Am2

Q. 1 Q. 25 carry one mark each.

Q.1 Degree and order of the differential equation , respectively, are

(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 1 (C) 1 and 1 (D) 2 and 2

Q.2 As the concentration of point defects in a crystal increases, its configurational entropy

(A) does not change (B) decreases

(C) increases (D) initially increases and then decreases

Q.3 In a binary system A-B, AA, BB and AB correspond to A-A, B-B and A-B bond energies respectively. The miscibility gap will occur if

(A) AB > (AA + BB) (B) AB < (AA + BB) (C) AB = (AA + BB) (D) AB < (AA + BB)

Q.4 Critical value of the Gibbs energy of nucleation at equilibrium temperature is

(A) zero (B) infinite (C) positive (D) negative

Q.5 With respect to the matrix of Al-Cu alloys, G-P zones are

(A) coherent (B) incoherent

(C) semi-coherent (D) chemically indistinguishable

Q.6 Which one of the following techniques does NOT require quenching to obtain final case hardness?

(A) Flame hardening (B) Induction hardening

(C) Nitriding (D) Carburizing

Q.7 Which one of the following elements is an austenite stabilizer?

(A) Nitrogen (B) Molybdenum

(C) Vanadium (D) Tungsten

Q.8 A 0.2 wt.% plain carbon steel sheet is heated and equilibrated in the inter-critical region followed

by instant water quenching. The microstructure of the quenched steel sheet consists of

(A) fully martensite (B) proeutectoid ferrite + martensite

(C) martensite + pearlite (D) martensite + austenite

Q.9 As compared to the engineering stress-engineering strain curve, the true stress-true strain curve for

a given material

(A) lies above and to the left

(B) lies below and to the right

(C) crosses the engineering stress-engineering strain curve

(D) is identical



Q.10 Which one of the following does NOT improve fatigue life of a steel component?

(A) Nitriding (B) Decarburization

(C) Improving surface finish (D) Shot-peening

Q.11 When two phases and in an alloy are in thermodynamic equilibrium, then (A) p pc c

(B) m mV V (C) m mG G (D) i iG G

Q.12 Isothermal compressibility of a material is given by

(A) 1

T

Vp p

(B) 1

T

Vp p

(C) 1

T

VV p

(D) 1

T

VV p

Q.13 In the Ellingham diagram for oxides, C-CO line cuts the M-MO line at temperature T1 and the M-MO line at a higher temperature T2. At a temperature greater than T1 and less than T2, carbon can reduce

(A) MO (B) both MO and MO (C) MO (D) neither MO nor MO

Q.14 Which one of the following can give information about the corrosion rate?

(A) Pourbaix diagram (B) Polarization technique

(C) EMF series (D) Galvanic series

Q.15 In a roasting process, the set of conditions that favour sulphate formation from metal sulphide

concentrates are

P. high temperature

Q. high partial pressure of oxygen

R. use of excess air

S. high partial pressure of SO3

(A) P, R and S (B) P, Q and R

(C) Q and S (D) R and S

Q.16 High top pressure in a blast furnace operation

(A) favours the solution-loss reaction

(B) suppresses the solution-loss reaction

(C) decreases gas-solid contact time

(D) increases coke rate

Q.17 In L-D steelmaking, the final slag can be best described as

(A) oxidizing (B) basic

(C) oxidizing and basic (D) reducing and basic

Q.18 The permeability of burden in an ironmaking blast furnace can be improved by using

(A) fine charge

(B) agglomerated charge

(C) oxygen enriched air blast

(D) pulverized coal injection through the tuyeres



Q.19 For a good quality brazing, the molten filler alloy should have

(A) low contact angle with the base metal (B) low density

(C) high surface tension (D) high viscosity

Q.20 Risers are NOT required for casting

(A) stainless steel (B) plain carbon steel

(C) grey cast iron (D) white cast iron

Q.21 For scalar fields and , the value of () is ______

Q.22 The atomic packing fraction of diamond cubic structure is __________

Q.23 The total number of possible heat transfer mode(s) is __________

Q.24 If and are true stress and true strain, respectively, the maximum true uniform strain that can be imparted to a material obeying = 10500.25 is _________

Q.25 Arc welding is done using current, voltage and welding speed of 200 A, 20 V and 0.01 m/s,

respectively. The heat input in kJ per unit length is _________

Q. 26 to Q. 55 carry two marks each. Q.26 Which one of the following series is divergent?

(A) 1

1

1

3nn

(B)

1

1

n n

(C)

0

1

2nn

(D)

1

1n

n n

Q.27 Taylor series expansion of the function around x = 0 will be (A) (B) (C) (D)

Q.28 Which one of the following attributes is NOT correct for the matrix?

cos sin 0

sin cos 0

0 0 1

, where = 60

(A) orthogonal (B) singular

(C) skew-symmetric (D) positive-definite

Q.29 A unit cell of an element has maximum linear density along the [110] direction. The packing

density of its (100) plane is

(A) 0.68 (B) 0.74 (C) 0.79 (D) 0.91

Q.30 For an FCC metal, the ratio of interplanar spacing obtained from the first two peaks of the X-ray

diffraction pattern is

(A) 1.91 (B) 1.63 (C) 1.41 (D) 1.15



Q.31 There are 150 gearwheels in a box, out of which 112 are within the required tolerance, 21 are below

and rest are above the required tolerance. If the selection is done without replacement, the

combined probability of randomly selecting a gearwheel below the tolerance and then a second one

above the tolerance is

(A) 0.016 (B) 0.032 (C) 0.492 (D) 0.984

Q.32 Match the metal in Group I with its corresponding ore in Group II

Group I Group II (P) Ni (1) Monazite

(Q) Th (2) Cassiterite

(R) Pb (3) Penlandite

(S) Sn (4) Galena

(A) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2

(B) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1

(C) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2

(D) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4

Q.33 The yield strength of a polycrystalline metal increases from 100 MPa to 145 MPa on decreasing the

grain size from 64 m to 25 m. The yield strength of this metal (in MPa) having a grain size of 36

m is

(A) 110 (B) 125 (C) 140 (D) 165

Q.34 In a brittle material, the maximum internal crack length is 8 m. If Youngs modulus is 400 GPa

and surface energy is 3.14 J/m2, the estimated theoretical fracture strength (in MPa) is

(A) 375 (B) 412 (C) 327 (D) 447

Q.35 Saturation magnetization of an FCC metal with lattice parameter 0.2 nm is 600 kA/m. The net

magnetic moment per atom is given by (in Bohr magneton)

(A) 8.08 1057 (B) 2.02 1057 (C) 0.517 (D) 0.129

Q.36 A 480 mm thick slab is hot-rolled using a roll of 720 mm diameter. For a coefficient of friction of

0.5, the maximum possible reduction (in mm) is

(A) 90 (B) 180 (C) 240 (D) 360

Q.37 Match the defects listed in Group I with the corresponding manufacturing process listed in Group II

Group I Group II (P) Orange-peel effect (1) Extrusion

(Q) Chevron cracking (2) Deep drawing

(R) Flash (3) Arc welding

(S) Undercut (4) Forging

(A) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3

(B) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4

(C) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1

(D) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3



Q.38 Match the powder production technique given in Group I with the corresponding shape listed in Group II

Group I Group II (P) Reduction (1) Flaky

(Q) Gas Atomization (2) Spongy

(R) Milling (3) Dendritic

(S) Electrolysis (4) Spherical

(A) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3

(B) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4

(C) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1

(D) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4

Q.39 Match the suitability of non-destructive testing method in Group I for the detection of defects listed in Group II

Group I Group II (P) Magnetic particle inspection (1) Surface crack in martensitic stainless steels

(Q) X-ray radiography (2) Surface crack in austenitic stainless steels

(R) Dye penetrant test (3) Hairline crack in aluminium

(S) Ultrasonic testing (4) Inclusions in steels

(A) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1

(B) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3

(C) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4

(D) P-1, Q-4, R-2, S-3

Q.40 For the following electrochemical reaction Sn + 2H+ = Sn2+ + H2, if the solution has Sn2+

concentration 102 M and pH 5 at 298 K, which of the following is true? Given: standard reduction potential for Sn2+ + 2e Sn is 0.136 V versus SHE;

2Hp = 1 atm

(A) Sn undergoes oxidation (B) H+ undergoes reduction

(C) Sn2+

undergoes reduction (D) No net reaction

Q.41 Match the unit operation in Group I with its corresponding principle in Group II:

Group I Group II (P) Jigging (1) Modification of surface tension

(Q) Tabling (2) Difference in density

(R) Heavy media separation (3) Differential initial acceleration

(S) Flotation (4) Differential lateral movement

(A) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1

(B) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4

(C) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1

(D) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4


Assertion: For the extraction of metal values from their sulphide concentrates by hydrometallurgical route, leaching with oxygen under high pressure is used.

Reason: Presence of oxygen under high pressure causes roasting of sulphides, which helps in leaching of the values.

(A) a is true but r is false (B) a is false but r is true (C) both a and r are true, and r is the reason for a (D) both a and r are true, but r is not the reason for a



Q.43 The aperture size (in m) of a 200 mesh sieve having a wire diameter of 53 m is __________

Q.44 From a 2 m 1.2 m sheet, squares are cut out from each of the four corners as shown in the figure

and then the sides are bent to form an open box. The maximum possible volume (in m3) of the box

is __________

Q.45 Applying the secant method, the first approximation to the root of ln , starting with function values at x = 0.3 and x = 0.4, is_______

Q.46 The critical internal crack length (in mm) in a steel having KIc of 45 MPam to support a Mode-I stress of 400 MPa is __________

Q.47 Ladle deoxidation of liquid steel is done at 1600C by adding ferro-aluminium. By assuming

Stokes law behaviour, time (in s) required for alumina particles of 50 m diameter to float to the surface from a depth of 2 m would be__________

[Given: density of steel = 7000 kg/m3, density of alumina = 3650 kg/m3,

viscosity of steel = 6103 kg/m/s]

Common Data Questions Common Data for Questions 48 and 49:

A steel specimen containing 0.2 wt.% C is carburized in an atmosphere that maintains a carbon content of

1.2 wt.% C at the surface of the specimen.

Given:

For carbon diffusion in austenite: D0=2.0105 m2/s Activation energy for diffusion, Q=142 kJ/mol

y erf(y)0.85 0.7707

0.90 0.7970

0.95 0.8209

Q.48 What is the depth (in m) from the surface of the specimen at which a composition of 0.4 wt.% C is obtained after carburizing at 870C for 10 h?

(A) 15 (B) 84 (C) 113 (D) 875

Q.49 How long (in h) will it take to double the depth at which 0.4 wt.% C is reached?

(A) 40 (B) 20 (C) 18 (D) 14



Common Data for Questions 50 and 51:

Integral enthalpy of mixing (in J/mol) of liquid (Cu, Zn) solution can be approximated by mix

mH = 19250xCuxZn

Q.50 The corresponding partial molar enthalpy of mixing (in J/mol) for Cu is

(A) 19250 (B) 19250 (C) 38500xZn19250 19250 (D) 19250

Q.51 Assuming regular solution behaviour, the solution parameter (in J/mol) is

(A) 19250 (B) 9625 (C) 13.75 (D) 2315.4

Linked Answer Questions Statement for Linked Answer Questions 52 and 53:

The density and associated crystallinity for two polypropylene samples are as follows:

density, g/cm3 crystallinity, %

1.20 50

1.44 80

Q.52 Density of totally amorphous polypropylene is

(A) 0.64 (B) 0.74 (C) 0.84 (D) 0.94

Q.53 The percent crystallinity of polypropylene sample having a density of 1.3 g/cm3 is

(A) 54 (B) 64 (C) 74 (D) 84

Statement for Linked Answer Questions 54 and 55:

An edge dislocation is present in -Fe. Atomic diameter of iron atom is 0.25 nm and its shear modulus is 70 GPa.

Q.54 Modulus of the Burgers vector (in nm) is

(A) 0.125 (B) 0.25 (C) 0.50 (D) 0.625

Q.55 Energy (in J/m) of the dislocation is

(A) 0.5 109 (B) 1.1 109 (C) 2.2 109 (D) 4.4 109



General Aptitude (GA) Questions Q. 56 Q. 60 carry one mark each. Q.56 A number is as much greater than 75 as it is smaller than 117. The number is:

(A) 91 (B) 93 (C) 89 (D) 96

Q.57 The professor ordered to the students to go out of the class.

I II III IV

Which of the above underlined parts of the sentence is grammatically incorrect?

(A) I (B) II (C) III (D) IV

Q.58 Which of the following options is the closest in meaning to the word given below:

Primeval

(A) Modern (B) Historic

(C) Primitive (D) Antique

Q.59 Friendship, no matter how _________it is, has its limitations.

(A) cordial

(B) intimate

(C) secret

(D) pleasant

Q.60 Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the pair:

Medicine: Health (A) Science: Experiment (B) Wealth: Peace

(C) Education: Knowledge (D) Money: Happiness

Q. 61 to Q. 65 carry two marks each. Q.61 X and Y are two positive real numbers such that and . For which of the

following values of , the function , will give maximum value? (A) (4/3, 10/3)

(B) (8/3, 20/3)

(C) (8/3, 10/3)

(D) (4/3, 20/3)

Q.62 If | | then the values of || | | is: (A) 2, 1/3 (B) 1/2, 3 (C) 3/2, 9 (D) 2/3, 9



Q.63 Following table provides figures (in rupees) on annual expenditure of a firm for two years - 2010

and 2011.

Category 2010 2011 Raw material 5200 6240

Power & fuel 7000 9450

Salary & wages 9000 12600

Plant & machinery 20000 25000

Advertising 15000 19500

Research & Development 22000 26400

In 2011, which of the following two categories have registered increase by same percentage?

(A) Raw material and Salary & wages

(B) Salary & wages and Advertising

(C) Power & fuel and Advertising

(D) Raw material and Research & Development

Q.64 A firm is selling its product at Rs. 60 per unit. The total cost of production is Rs. 100 and firm is

earning total profit of Rs. 500. Later, the total cost increased by 30%. By what percentage the price

should be increased to maintained the same profit level.

(A) 5 (B) 10 (C) 15 (D) 30

Q.65 Abhishek is elder to Savar.

Savar is younger to Anshul.

Which of the given conclusions is logically valid and is inferred from the above

statements?

(A) Abhishek is elder to Anshul

(B) Anshul is elder to Abhishek

(C) Abhishek and Anshul are of the same age

(D) No conclusion follows




GATE 2013 - Answer KeysMetallurgical Engineering - MTQ. No Key/Range Q. No Key/Range Q. No Key/Range1 A 23 3 45 0.314 to

0.3262 D 24 0.25 46 7.9 to 8.33 A 25 400 47 2626 to 26324 B 26 B 48 D5 A 27 D 49 A6 C 28 Marks to All 50 D7 A 29 C 51 A8 B 30 D 52 D9 A 31 A 53 B10 B 32 C 54 B11 D 33 B 55 C12 C 34 D 56 D13 A 35 D 57 B14 B 36 A 58 C15 C 37 D 59 B16 B 38 A 60 C17 C 39 D 61 A18 B 40 C 62 B19 A 41 A 63 D20 C 42 C 64 A21 0 43 73 to 75 65 D22 0.339 to

0.34144 0.257 to

0.263


MT : METALLURGICAL ENGINEERING

Duration: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 100

Read the following instructions carefully.

1. Do not open the seal of the Question Booklet until you are asked to do so by the invigilator.

2. Take out the Optical Response Sheet (ORS) from this Question Booklet without breaking the seal and read the instructions printed on the ORS carefully.

3. On the right half of the ORS, using ONLY a black ink ball point pen, (i) darken the bubble corresponding to your test paper code and the appropriate bubble under each digit of your registration number and (ii) write your registration number, your name and name of the examination centre and put your signature at the specified location.

4. This Question Booklet contains 16 pages including blank pages for rough work. After you are permitted to open the seal, please check all pages and report discrepancies, if any, to the invigilator.

5. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. All these questions are of objective type. Each question has only one correct answer. Questions must be answered on the left hand side of the ORS by darkening the appropriate bubble (marked A, B, C, D) using ONLY a black ink ball point pen against the question number. For each question darken the bubble of the correct answer. More than one answer bubbled against a question will be treated as an incorrect response.

6. Since bubbles darkened by the black ink ball point pen cannot be erased, candidates should darken the bubbles in the ORS very carefully.

7. Questions Q.1 Q.25 carry 1 mark each. Questions Q.26 Q.55 carry 2 marks each. The 2 marks questions include two pairs of common data questions and two pairs of linked answer questions. The answer to the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is unattempted, then the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated.

8. Questions Q.56 Q.65 belong to General Aptitude (GA) section and carry a total of 15 marks. Questions Q.56 Q.60 carry 1 mark each, and questions Q.61 Q.65 carry 2 marks each.

9. Unattempted questions will result in zero mark and wrong answers will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all 1 mark questions, mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For all 2 marks questions, mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. However, in the case of the linked answer question pair, there will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the first question and no negative marks for wrong answer to the second question.

10. Calculator is allowed whereas charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall.

11. Rough work can be done on the question paper itself. Blank pages are provided at the end of the question paper for rough work.

12. Before the start of the examination, write your name and registration number in the space provided below using a black ink ball point pen.

Name

Registration Number MT


GATE 2012 Solved Paper

Useful Data

Universal gas constant R = 8.314 J/mol.K Plancks constant h = 6.6310-34 J.s Acceleration due to gravity g = 9.8 m/s2

Q. 1 Q. 25 carry one mark each. Q.1 A is a 2 2 matrix with det A = 2. The det (2A) is

(A) 4 (B) 8 (C) 32 (D) 16

Q.2 A is a 2 2 matrix given below: A =

1113

The eigenvalues of A are

(A) 2, 2 (B) 3, 1 (C) 2, 2 (D) 3, 1

Q.3 In a production facility, iron rods are made with a mean diameter of 6 cm and standard deviation of 0.02 cm. If a large number of rods are tested, the approximate percentage of rods whose sizes fall in the range of 5.98 cm to 6.02 cm is

(A) 68 (B) 75 (C) 90 (D) 99.7

Q.4 Which one of the following methods is NOT used for numerical integration? (A) Rectangular rule (B) Trapezoidal rule (C) Simpsons rule (D) Cramers rule

Q.5 How many boundary conditions are required to solve the following equation?

t

Tr

Trr

T

11

2

2

(A) Two in r-direction (B) One in r-direction and one for time (C) Two in r-direction and one for time (D) Three in r-direction and one for time

Q.6 When a zinc metal rod is immersed in dilute hydrochloric acid, it results in (A) Evolution of hydrogen (B) Evolution of chlorine (C) Evolution of oxygen (D) No evolution of any gas

Q.7 A fluid is flowing with a velocity of 0.5 m/s on a plate moving with a velocity of 0.01 m/s in the same direction. The velocity at the interface of the fluid and plate is

(A) 0.0 m/s (B) 0.01 m/s (C) 0.255 m/s (D) 0.50 m/s

Q.8 Hot metal at 1700 K is poured in a sand mould that is open at the top. Heat loss from the liquid metal takes place by

(A) Radiation only (B) Radiation and conduction only (C) Radiation and convection only (D) Radiation, conduction and convection

Q.9 Which one of the following is an equilibrium defect? (A) Vacancies (B) Dislocations (C) Stacking faults (D) Grain boundaries



Q.10 Floatation beneficiation is based on the principle of (A) Mineral surface hydrophobicity (B) Gravity difference (C) Chemical reactivity (D) Particle size difference

Q.11 Copper can be reduced from acidic copper sulphate solution by (A) Silver (B) Iron (C) Carbon (D) Lead

Q.12 Which one is NOT an agglomeration process? (A) Nodulizing (B) Briquetting (C) Roasting (D) Pelletizing

Q.13 During LD blow in steelmaking the impurity that gets removed first is (A) Carbon (B) Phosphorous (C) Manganese (D) Silicon

Q.14 During the solidification of a pure metal, it was found that dendrites are formed. Assuming that the liquid-solid interface is at the melting temperature, the temperature from the interface into the liquid

(A) Decreases (B) Increases (C) Remains constant (D) Increases and then decreases

Q.15 A peak in the X-ray diffraction pattern is observed at 2 = 78, corresponding to {311} planes of an fcc metal, when the incident beam has a wavelength of 0.154 nm. The lattice parameter of the metal is approximately

(A) 0.6 nm (B) 0.4 nm (C) 0.3 nm (D) 0.2 nm

Q.16 If d is the inter-planar spacing of the planes {h k l}, the inter-planar spacing of the planes {nh nk nl}, n being an integer, is (A) d (B) d/n (C) nd (D) d/n2

Q.17 As temperature increases, the electrical resistivities of pure metals (m) and intrinsic semiconductors (s) vary as follows (A) Both m and s increase (B) Both m and s decrease (C) m increases and s decreases (D) m decreases and s increases

Q.18 At equilibrium spacing in a crystalline solid, which of the following is true for net inter-atomic force (F) and potential energy (U) (A) F is zero and U is zero (B) F is zero and U is minimum (C) F is minimum and U is zero (D) F is minimum and U is minimum

Q.19 The property of a material that CANNOT be significantly changed by heat treatment is (A) Yield strength (B) Ultimate tensile strength (C) Ductility (D) Elastic modulus



Q.20 A unit dislocation splits into two partial dislocations. The correct combination of the Burgers vectors of the partial dislocations for a given unit dislocation having Burgers vector 011

2a

is

(A) 1126a

and 1216a

(B) 2116a

and 1216a

(C) 2116a

and 1126a

(D) 2116a

and 1126a

Q.21 A polymer matrix composite is reinforced with long continuous ceramic fibres aligned in one direction. The Youngs moduli of the matrix and fibres are Em and Ef respectively, and the volume fraction of the fibres is f. Assuming iso-stress condition, Youngs modulus of the composite EC in a direction perpendicular to the length of fibres, is given by the expression

(A) fmC Eff)E(1E (B) fmC f)E(1EfE (C)

fmC Ef

Ef)(1

E1 (D)

fmC Ef)(1

Ef

E1

Q.22 Which of the following is NOT a fusion welding process? (A) Arc welding (B) Gas welding (C) Resistance welding (D) Friction stir welding

Q.23 Tungsten filament used in electric bulb is processed by (A) Extrusion (B) Wire drawing (C) Casting (D) Powder metallurgy

Q.24 The riser is designed such that the melt in the riser solidifies (A) Before casting solidifies (B) At the same time as casting solidifies (C) After casting solidifies (D) Irrespective of the solidification of the casting

Q.25 Radiography technique of detecting defects is based on the principle of (A) Diffraction (B) Reflection (C) Interference (D) Absorption

Q. 26 to Q. 55 carry two marks each. Q.26 At x = 0.5, the polynomial x2(1-x)2 has

(A) No extrema (B) A saddle point (C) A minima (D) A maxima



Q.27 Given that v is a vector field and f is a scalar field, match the equations in Group I with their physical meaning in Group II

Group I Group II

P. 0(v)div 1. Irrotational Q. 0(grad(f))curl 2. Incompressible R. 0(grad(f))div 3. Potential S. grad(f)v 4. Laplace equation


Q.28 The temperature field of a slab is given by T = 400 50z exp (t x2 y2). The temperature gradient in y-direction is

(A) )yxt(expyz100 22 (B) )yxt(expyz100 22 (C) )yxt(expxz100 22 (D) )yxt(expxz100 22

Q.29 What does the solution of the following ordinary differential equation represent? 0x

dxdyy

(A) A parabola (B) A circle (C) An ellipse (D) A hyperbola

Q.30 A thin layer of material B (of total amount m) is plated on the end faces of two long rods of material A. These are then joined together on the plated side (see the figure below) and heated to a high temperature. Assuming the diffusion coefficient of B in A is D, the composition profile cB along the rod axis x after a time t is described by

BA A X

(A)

4Dtx

expDt2m

c2

B

(B)

4Dtx

erfDt2m

c2

B

(C)

4Dtx

erf1Dt2m

c2

B

(D) tDt2m

cB



Q.31 Match the principles given in Group I with corresponding corrosion terminology in Group II Group I Group II

P. Electrode polarization 1. Dezincification Q. Passivity 2. Intergranular attack R. Selective leaching 3. Over voltage S. Grain boundary precipitation 4. Surface oxide film


Q.32 Identify the correct combination of the following statements

P. Hydrogen electrode is a standard used to measure redox potentials Q. Activation polarization refers to electrochemical processes controlled by reaction sequence at

metal-solution interface R. Potential-pH diagrams can be used to predict corrosion rates of metals S. Cathodic protection can use sacrificial anodes such as magnesium

(A) P, Q and R (B) Q, R and S (C) P, Q and S (D) P, R and S

Q.33 Consider a reaction with activation energy of 8.314 kJ/mol that takes place at 300 K. If the reaction rate is to be tripled, the temperature of the reaction should be

(A) 174.5 K (B) 447.5 K (C) 600.5 K (D) 847.5 K

Q.34 Match the processes in Group I with the objectives in Group II Group I Group II

P. Vacuum Arc Degassing (VAD) 1. Primary iron making Q. LD 2. Secondary steel making R. COREX 3. Direct smelting S. Blast Furnace 4. Primary steel making


Q.35 The reduction of FeO with CO gas in co-current flow is given by the following equation: FeO + CO = Fe + CO2 Go = 8120 J at 1173 K

The ratio of pCO/pCO2 for this reaction at 1173 K is

(A) 0.0 (B) 0.25 (C) 0.44 (D) 2.3

Q.36 The sulphide capacity (CS) of liquid slag of composition 55 wt.% CaO, 20 wt.% SiO2, 15 wt.% Al2O3, and 10 wt.% MgO is given by the following equation

log CS = 3.44 ( CaOX + 0.1 MgOX 0.8 32OAlX 2SiOX ) (9894/T) + 2.05 where, X is mole fraction of the respective components. Atomic weights of Ca, Mg, Si, Al and O are 40, 24, 28, 27 and 16 respectively. The value of CS at 1900 K is

(A) 0.0009 (B) 0.009 (C) 0.09 (D) 0.9



Q.37 Match the processes given in Group I with the corresponding metals in Group II Group I Group II

P. Matte smelting 1. Lead Q. Cyanide leaching 2. Copper R. Carbothermic reduction 3. Gold S. Fused salt electrolysis 4. Aluminium


Q.38 Identify the correct combination of the following statements

P. Bessemer converter can be used in copper smelting

Q. The Mond process for nickel involves reaction of metal with H2 gas R. Roasted ZnS concentrates can be smelted in a blast furnace S. Magnesium metal can be produced by electrolysis of sea water

(A) P, R and S (B) P, Q and R (C) P and Q (D) Q and S

Q.39 Match the phases of steel in Group I with the crystal structures in Group II Group I Group II

P. Martensite 1. bcc Q. Cementite 2. fcc R. Austenite 3. bct S. Ferrite 4. Orthorhombic


Q.40 Arrange the following in terms of increasing severity of quench P. Oil quenching Q. Water quenching R. Water quenching with agitation S. Brine quenching

(A) P

Q.42 A liquid droplet () is on a substrate () and is surrounded by air (), as shown below. The angle of contact () is determined using the following expression:

(A)

1

cos (B)

1

cos

(C)

1

cos (D)

1

cos

Q.43

Match the phenomena listed in Group I with the possible mechanisms in Group II

Group I Group II

P. Fatigue 1. Grain boundary sliding Q. Creep 2. Slip band extrusion and intrusion R. Strain hardening 3. Cottrell atmosphere S. Yield point phenomenon 4. Dislocation interaction


Q.44 Fracture stress for a brittle material having a crack length of 1 m is 200 MPa. Fracture stress for the same material having a crack length of 4 m is

(A) 200 MPa (B) 150 MPa (C) 100 MPa (D) 50 MPa

Q.45 The flow stress ( ) of an alloy varies with strain rate as = 100 1.0 MPa. When the alloy is hot extruded from 10 cm diameter to 5 cm diameter at a speed of 2 cm/s, the flow stress is



Assertion : During rolling, front tension and (or) back tension are (is) employed to decrease rolling load. Reason : Roll pressure decreases due to lowering of flow stress as a result of front tension/back tension.

(A) a is false but r is true (B) a is true and r is also true, but r is not the reason for a (C) a is true and r is also true, and r is the reason for a (D) a is true but r is false



Q.47 Match the defects listed in Group I with the processes listed in Group II Group I Group II

P. Cold shut 1. Rolling Q. Earing 2. Forging R. Alligatoring 3. Deep drawing S. Shrinkage porosity 4. Fusion welding


Common Data Questions Common Data for Questions 48 and 49:

A steel ball (density steel = 7200 kg/m3) is placed in an upward moving liquid Al (density Al = 2360 kg/m3, viscosity Al = 1103 Pa.s and Reynolds number = 5105). The force (F) exerted on the steel ball is expressed as

F = f R2 (Alv2/2) where, f is friction factor (=0.2), v is the velocity of liquid Al and R is the radius of steel ball.

Q.48 The force exerted on the steel ball is (A) 8.32 N (B) 6.70 N (C) 1.67 N (D) 0.52 N

Q.49 The terminal velocity of a fine spherical steel particle having diameter dp, in m range, if allowed to fall in a quiescent liquid Al bath, is

(A) 5.2106 dp2 m/s (B) 2.6106 dp2 m/s (C) 1.3106 dp2 m/s (D) 6.6105 dp2 m/s

Common Data for Questions 50 and 51:

50

-100

0

Str

ess

(M

Pa

)

cycle

For the above stress cycle

Q.50 Stress ratio is (A) 4 (B) 2 (C) -2 (D) -4

Q.51 Amplitude ratio is (A) 3 (B) 1/3 (C) -1/3 (D) -3



Linked Answer Questions Statement for Linked Answer Questions 52 and 53:

A material with grain size of ASTM No. 6 has a lattice frictional stress 100 MN/m2 and locking parameter (Hall-Petch constant) 0.10 MN/m3/2 Q.52 Grain size of the material is approximately

(A) 45 m (B) 35 m (C) 4.5 m (D) 3.5 m

Q.53 Yield strength of the material is approximately (A) 100 MPa (B) 115 MPa (C) 165 MPa (D) 215 MPa

Statement for Linked Answer Questions 54 and 55:

The strain hardening behaviour of an annealed rod during cold rolling is given by = 700 2.0 MPa, where is the flow stress at strain . Q.54 Flow stress after 50% reduction in area of the annealed rod on cold rolling is approximately


Q.55 If a wire of 5 mm diameter is drawn from the above cold rolled rod of 10 mm diameter, the drawing stress, neglecting the effect of friction and redundant work, is approximately




General Aptitude (GA) Questions (Compulsory) Q. 56 Q. 60 carry one mark each. Q.56 Which one of the following options is the closest in meaning to the word given below?

Latitude

(A) Eligibility (B) Freedom (C) Coercion (D) Meticulousness

Q.57 Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following sentence:

Given the seriousness of the situation that he had to face, his ___ was impressive.

(A) beggary (B) nomenclature (C) jealousy (D) nonchalance

Q.58 Choose the most appropriate alternative from the options given below to complete the following sentence:

If the tired soldier wanted to lie down, he ___ the mattress out on the balcony.

(A) should take (B) shall take (C) should have taken (D) will have taken

Q.59 If (1.001)1259 = 3.52 and (1.001)2062 = 7.85, then (1.001)3321 = (A) 2.23 (B) 4.33 (C) 11.37 (D) 27.64

Q.60 One of the parts (A, B, C, D) in the sentence given below contains an ERROR. Which one of the following is INCORRECT?

I requested that he should be given the driving test today instead of tomorrow.

(A) requested that (B) should be given (C) the driving test (D) instead of tomorrow

Q. 61 - Q. 65 carry two marks each. Q.61 The data given in the following table summarizes the monthly budget of an average household.

Category Amount (Rs.) Food 4000 Clothing 1200 Rent 2000 Savings 1500 Other expenses 1800

The approximate percentage of the monthly budget NOT spent on savings is

(A) 10% (B) 14% (C) 81% (D) 86%



Q.62 There are eight bags of rice looking alike, seven of which have equal weight and one is slightly heavier. The weighing balance is of unlimited capacity. Using this balance, the minimum number of weighings required to identify the heavier bag is

(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 8

Q.63 Raju has 14 currency notes in his pocket consisting of only Rs. 20 notes and Rs. 10 notes. The total money value of the notes is Rs. 230. The number of Rs. 10 notes that Raju has is (A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 9 (D) 10

Q.64 One of the legacies of the Roman legions was discipline. In the legions, military law prevailed and discipline was brutal. Discipline on the battlefield kept units obedient, intact and fighting, even when the odds and conditions were against them.

Which one of the following statements best sums up the meaning of the above passage?

(A) Thorough regimentation was the main reason for the efficiency of the Roman legions even in adverse circumstances.

(B) The legions were treated inhumanly as if the men were animals. (C) Discipline was the armies inheritance from their seniors. (D) The harsh discipline to which the legions were subjected to led to the odds and conditions being

against them.

Q.65 A and B are friends. They decide to meet between 1 PM and 2 PM on a given day. There is a condition that whoever arrives first will not wait for the other for more than 15 minutes. The probability that they will meet on that day is

(A) 1/4 (B) 1/16 (C) 7/16 (D) 9/16




GATE 2012 - Answer KeysMetallurgical Engineering - MTQ. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range1 B 23 Marks to All 45 B2 A 24 C 46 C3 A 25 D 47 C4 D 26 D 48 A5 C 27 B 49 B6 A 28 A 50 C7 B 29 B 51 D8 D 30 A 52 A9 A 31 A 53 B10 A 32 C 54 B11 B 33 B 55 Marks to All12 C 34 D 56 B13 D 35 D 57 D14 A 36 B 58 A15 B 37 Marks to All 59 D16 B 38 A 60 B17 C 39 C 61 018 B 40 A 62 A19 D 41 D 63 A20 A 42 A 64 A21 C 43 C 65 C22 D 44 C

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