GATE paper for . Both these sections are compulsory. The

North Delhi : 33-35, Mall Road, G.T.B. Nagar (Opp. Metro Gate No. 3), Delhi-09, Ph: 011-65462244, 65662255

South Delhi : 28-A/11, Jia Sarai, Near-IIT Hauz Khas, New Delhi-16, Ph : 011-26851008, 26861009

1

2. This question paper consists of , General Aptitude (GA) for and the subject specific

GATE paper for . Both these sections are compulsory. The GA section consists of questions.

Question numbers 1 to 5 are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 6 to 10 are of 2-mark each.

The subject specific GATE paper section consists of questions, out of which question numbers 11 to 35

are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 36 to 65 are of 2-mark each.

3.

2 sections 15 marks

85 marks 10

55

The question paper may consist of questions of (MCQ) and .

4. Multiple choice type questions will have four choices against (a), (b), (c), (d), out of which only is the correct

answer.

5. For numerical answer type questions, each question will have a numerical answer and there will not be any choices

All questions that are not attempted will result in zero marks. However, wrong answers for multiple choice type

questions (MCQ) will result in marks. For all MCQ questions a wrong answer will result in

deduction of marks for a question and marks for a question.

7. There is for questions of .

8. Non-programmable type Calculator is allowed

multiple choice type numerical answer type

ONE

.

6.

NEGATIVE

1-mark 2-mark

NO NEGATIVE MARKING NUMERICAL ANSWER TYPE

⅓ ⅔



2

Q.1-Q. 5 carry ONE mark each.1. If the sum of five consecutive integers is S, what is the largest of those integers in terms of S?

(a) 10

5S

(b) 10

4S

(c) 10

5S

(d) 10

10S

2. If the product of 4 consecutive integers is equal to one of them, what is the largest possible value of one of theintegers?(a) 0 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 6

3. Fill in the blank with appropriate word. He is ______ opponent, you must respect and fear him at all times.(a) A redoubtable (b) A disingenuous(c) C raven (d) An insignificant

4. (0.55)150 is closest to(a) 0.1 (b) 0 (c) 10 (d) 100

5. What is the Missing term in sequence ABC, A2BC, A2B2C, _______, A3B2C2.(a) A3B2C (b) A2B2C2 (c) A3B3C2 (d) A3BCQ.6-Q. 10 carry TWO marks each.

6.

Race 58%

Religion

16%

O

Multiplebias (0.2%)

Disability (0.3%)

Ethnicity 10%

Sexualorientation (15.6%)

Percent– distribution of Bias – Motivated offenses in 1998 in USA.If in 1998, there were 10, 000 bias motivated offenses based on ethnicity, how many more offenses werebased on religion than on sexual orientation?(a) 4 (b) 40 (c) 400 (d) 4000

7. A person moves 8 km west, 6 km north, 3 km east, and 6 more km north. How far is this person from hisstarting place(a) 13 (b) 17 (c) 19 (d) 21

8. Fill in the blank by appropriate words?The new computer system ____ next month.(a) Is being installed by people (b) Is be installed(c) Is being installed (d) Is been installed

9. Fill in the blank by appropriate words it’s ______ disappointing.(a) Very much (b) Very (c) Much (d) Much very

10. If Rout is related to Defeat then which pair is correctly matched(a) Grief : Loss (b) Pathway : Ruin(c) Memory : Oblivion (d) Ovation : Applause



3

Q.11-Q.35 carry one mark each.

11. The packing fraction of is

(a) 19.82 (b) 26.28 (c) 34.25 (d) 58.8712. The unit of Michaelis menton constant in enzyme catalyses

k1 k3k2

E S ES E P is

(a) sec–1 (b) ltr mole–1 s–1 (c) mole litr–1 s–1 (d) none of these13. The Hermitian operator is/are

(I) †A A (II) †i A A(a) Only I (b) only II (c) both I and II (d) neither I nor II

14. The orbital represented by3/2

Zr/2a Zr/2a0 0n

0 0

Z ZrR 2 e e2a 2a

is

(a) 1s (b) 2s (c) 2p (d) 3p15. The point group of

X

X is

(a) C2h (b) C2V (c) D2h (d) D2d

16. The emf of the cell

2 2| | | |Ag AgCl s KCl aq Hg Cl s Hg

is 0.0455V at 298K and the temperature coefficient is 4 13.38 10 VK . The enthalpy H at 298K is_____________ kJ mol–1.

17. An aqueous solution of urea had freezing point of –0.52ºC. What is osmotic pressure of the same solutionat 37ºC. Assume that molar concentration and molality are numerically equal fK 1.86(a) 7.1 atm (b) 34.1 atm (c) 27.1 atm (d) 5.2 atm

18. What is the maximum work done when pressure on 10g of hydrogen is reduced from 20 atm to 1 atm atconstant temperature of 273 K.(a) –81.80 kcal (b) 81.80 kcal (c) 8180 kcal (d) –8180 kcal

19. The product (P) formed in the following reaction is :OMe

(i) Li, THF

t-BuOH, NH3(l)(ii) O3, MeOH, Me2S(iii) NaBH4

(P)



4

(a) CO2MeHO

(b)

CO2Me

HO

(c) HO CH2OH

(d)

CH2OH

HO

20. The major product (P) formed in the following reaction sequence isO

(i) i-Pr2NLi(ii) Tf2NPh

Me3SnSiMe3

Pd(PPh3)4, LiCl(P)

(a)

SiMe3

(b)

SnMe3

(c)

SiMe3

(d)

SnMe3

21. What is the configuration and stereochemical relationship between the compounds given below

(i)

NMe2

O

5 3 (ii)

NMe2

O

5 3

(a) (i) 3R, 5S (ii) 3S, 5S; and they are diastereomers of each other(b) (i) 3S, 5R, (ii) 3R, 5R; they are diastereomers of each other(c) (i) 3R, 5R, (ii) 3S, 5S and they are enantiomers of each other.(d) (i) 3S, 5S, (ii) 3R, 5R and they are enantiomers of each other.

22. The major product (P) and the rearrangement involved in the following reaction is

O

Br

D

D NaOHH2O

(P)

(a) D O

OH, Favroskii rearrangement (b)

D O

OH

D

, Favroskii rearrangement

(c) D O

OH

D

, Semibenzylic rearrangement (d) D O

OH, Semibenzylic rearrangement



5

23. The major product (P) and the rearrangment involved in the following reaction is

NOH

H2SO4 (P)

(a) NH

O, Beckmann rearrangement (b)

NH

O, Beckmann fragmentation

(c)

CH2 CN

, Beckmann rearrangement (d)

CH2 CN

, Beckmann fragmentation.

24. The major product (P) formed in the following reaction isO

(i) H2N–NHTs

(ii) NaBD4, AcOH(P)

(a)

D

(b)

D

(c)

D

(d)

D

25. How many alditols will be formed in the reduction of D-mannose and D-fructose with NaBH4.(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 2 (c) 1 and 1 (d) 2 and 1

26. The major product (P) formed in the following reaction is

O

hvpentane (P)

(a) O

(b) HO



6

(c) OH (d) HO

27. Treatment of a tri-peptide Arg-Val-Asp with hydrazine, then subjected to chromatography on a column of astrong cation-exchange resin (Dowex-50). The illution order will be(a) Arg > Val > Asp (b) Val > Arg > Asp (c) Asp > Val > Arg (d) Asp > Arg > Val

28. The number of isoprene units in the following terpene is/are ______________

29. The correct order of dipole moments of

Cl

(I)

Cl

(II)

Cl

Cl

(III)

ClCl

Cl

(IV)

Cl Cl

Cl

(a) III > II > I = IV (b) I > III > II > IV (c) III > IV > II > I (d) II > III > I = IV30. The basic unit for sheet silicates is:

(a) (SiO3)n2n– (b) (Si2O5)n

–2n (c) (Si2O7)n2n– (d) (SiO2)5

31. Which of the following trivalent lanthanide ions has a relatively stable bivalent oxidation state:(a) Nd3+ (b) Sm3+ (c) Eu3+ (d) Tm3+

32. Which of below sentence is NOT true?(a) EPR is technique for studying chemical species that have one or more unpaired electrons(b) In EPR atomic nuclei spins are excited(c) Every electron has a magnetic moment and spin quantum moment of ½(d) An unpaired electron can move between two energy levels by either absorbing or emitting electromagnetic

radiation of energy

33. Co + 4CO + 1/2 H21.

2. C2F4P

The major product ‘P’ in the above reaction is:(a) 4

HCo CO (b) 3HCo CO (c) 2 54

CO Co C HF (d) 2 53CO Co C HF

34. The lowest energy visible spectra band of an octahedral nickel (II) complex is due to the transition

(a) 3T2g 3T1g (b) 3A2g 3T1g (c) 3T2g 3A2g (d) 3T1g 3A2g

35. Which of the following is the least powerful oxidizing agent?(a) 4HClO (b) 3HClO (c) 2HClO (d) HOCl



7

Q.36-Q.65 carry TWO marks each.

36. Select the correct statemensts from following?

(A) In haemocyanin, 1O O 750 cm

(B) Haemerythrin contain two different Fe atom(C) Vitamin B12 is naturally occuring organometallic compounds

(D) Oxyhaemoglobin contain low spin Fe3+ and 2O

(a) A and B only (b) C and D only (c) B, C and D only (d) All of these37. Select the correct statements regarding the transition metal.

(A) TiO VO CrO MnO (order of lattice energy)

(B) 6 6 6PtF OsF WF (oxidising power)

(C) 2 2 24 4 4FeO MnO CrO (oxidising power)

(D) MnO FeO CoO NiO (increasing order of heat temperature)(a) B, C and D only (b) B and C only (c) C and A only (d) B and D only

38. The equilibrium constant for the successive reaction of ethylene diammine with Co2+, Ni2+ and Cu2+ are asfollows

2 21

2 2 2 16 4M H O en M en H O 2H O k

2 22 2 2 24 2 2M en H O en M en H O 2H O k

22

2 2 34 3M en H O en M en 2H O k

Select the correct statement from following regarding above reaction:

(A) 1 1 1Cu Ni Cok k k (B) 3 2 1Cu CuCuk k k

(C) 3 3 3Ni Co Cuk k k (D) 2 2 2Cu Co Nik k k

(a) A, B, C only (b) A and C only (c) A, C, D (d) all of the above39. Activation energy graph are represented regarding transeffect, select the correct set of graph corresponding

to nature of ligands.

E

(I)

E

(II)

( )Ea

( )Ea

E

(III)

( )Ea

(1) I and II corresponds to weak -donor and stronger -donor respectively..(2) II and III corresponds to weak donor and strong -acceptor respectively(3) I and II corresponds to strong and weak weak donor respectively(4) I and III corresponds to weak donor and strong -acceptor(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 4 (c) 2 and 3 (d) none of these

40. The number of atoms per unit cell of diamond cubic crystal are _____________



8

41. Consider a reaction, A P with rate law, koverall = 1 2

3

k k32 k

and 1 1 11 2 3E 100 kJ mole , E 50 kJ mole , E 20 kJ mole

The overall activation energy is(a) 195 kJ mole–1 (b) 180 kJ mole–1 (c) 150 kJ mole–1 (d) 130 kJ mole–1

42. Consider langmuir adsorption of a gas onto a solid surface with slope = 2.5 Pa cm–3, and k = 1Pa–1. The value of monolayer formation volume is _____________ cm3.

43. The spherical harmonics regarding H-atom, 3P x is given by

(a) x (b) 21 3 12

x (c) 21 5 32

x x (d) 0

44. The angular momentum operator ˆxL is given by

(a) sin cot cos

i

(b)

i

(c) sin cot cos

i

(d) sin cot sini

45. The expectation value of 21r

regarding 1s orbital of H atom is (in units of 20

1a ) ______________

46. The molar conductivity of 0.05M solution of MgCl2 is 100 Scm2 mol–1 at 25ºC. A cell with electrodes thatare 2 cm2 in surface area and 1.0 cm apart is filled with 0.05M MgCl2 solution. How much current willflow when potential difference between the two electrodes is 5.0V?(a) 0.005A (b) 0.05A (c) 0.5A (d) 5A

47. At 25ºC, will precipitate of Mg(OH)2 from in a 0.0001M solution of Mg(NO3)2. If pH of the solution isadjusted to 9.0, [KS (Mg(OH)2) = 8.9×10–12 M3]. At what minimum value of pH will precipitation start?

9 53Given, H O 1 10 M and OH 1.0 10 M

(a) 7.46 (b) 10.46 (c) 8.46 (d) 9.46

48. The efficiency of the carnot engine is 16 . On decreasing the temperature of the sink by 65K, the efficiency

increases to 13 . The temperature of source is ________________K.

49. The state of a mole of an ideal gas changed from state A(2P, V) through four different processes andfinally returns to initial state A reversibly as shown below

2PA B

CDP

O V 2VFE

P

V

0

What is the total work done by the system(a) 2PV (b) –PV (c) –2PV (d) PV



9

50. The major product (P) formed in the following reaction sequence is

O

OTBDMSCO2Me

140ºC, 4 hours(i) H2SiF6

(ii) I2, NaHCO3MeCN, 0ºC

(P)

(a)

O

I

CO2MeH

H

O (b)

O

I

CO2MeH

H

O

(c)

O

I

CO2MeH

H

O (d)

O

I

CO2MeH

H

O

51. The major product (P) formed in the following reaction sequence is

F3C Br CuI, Bu3SnLi? +

ClOC(i) Pd(O), Cu(I)

(ii) Me3SiOTfDCM

(P)

(a)

F3C

O

(b)

F3C

O

(c)

F3C

O

(d)

F3C

O

52. The major product (P) formed in the following reaction sequence isO

(i) Me2CuLi

(ii) Me3SiCl

(i) m-CPBA

(ii) Et3NHF(iii) t-BuMe2SiCl

imidazole

Ph2P OMe

O

/LDA

(ii) HF, H2O, MeCN(P)

(i)

(a)

O

(b)

O

O (c)

CHO

(d)

CHO



10

53. The major product (P) formed in the following reaction sequence is :

O

hvH2C CH2

(i) H2N–NHTs(ii) BuLi/TMEDA(iii) DMF(iv) CeCl3 , NaBH4

(P)

(a)

OH

Me

H

(b)

OH

Me

H

(c)

Me

H

OH (d)

Me

H

OH

54. The products (A) and (B) formed in the following reaction sequence are

N

(i) NaNH2, NH3(ii) NaNO2, HCl(iii) H2O

(A)POCl3

Ph NH2(B)

(a) N

A =HO NH2 N

B =

NH

NH2Ph

(b) NH

A =

O

B =

NH

Cl

(c) NH

A =

O

B =

NH

NH

Ph

(d) NH

A =

O

B =

NH

NH

PhH2N H2N

55. The correct statements are following(1) 4 3 2 2 3CF CF H CF H CH F (increasing order of C-F bond length)

(2) 2 2 2T D H (order of boiling point)

(3) 2 2 2OCl OH OF (order of bond angle)

(4) 2 2 2H H H (stability order)

(a) 2 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) all of these56. In 1958, R.L. Mössbauer made the important discovery that:

(a) When the emitting and absorbing nuclei are bound in a solid, a certain fraction of gamma rays are emittedand absorbed with huge energy loss due to recoil.

(b) The nucleus can behave as if it is not rigidly bound to the solid such that the entire solid does not take up therecoil

(c) When the emitting and absorbing nuclei are bound in a solid, there is no recoil when gamma rays are emitted(d) When the emitting and absorbing nuclei are bound in a solid, a certain fraction of gamma rays are emitted

and absorbed with negligible energy loss due to recoil.



11

57. The reactions given below represent respectively:-

1. h* *4 32Cp Ir CO CH Cp Ir CO H CH

2. 622332232 HCPPhClRhHCHCHPPhClRhH

3. 2 2 5 3 2 3 2 4Cp Hf C H CH Cp Hf H CH C H

4. 334335 COCHPPhMnCOPPhCHMnCO

(a) Oxidative addition, Reductive elimination, Reductive elimination, Migration(b) Reductive elimination, Oxidative addition, H-elimination, Migratory insertion(c) Oxidative addition, -hydrogen, Elimination, Migration, Substitution(d) Oxidative addition, reductive elimination, -hydrogen elimination, Migratory insertion.

58. From Boltzmann distribution, the fraction of molecules in state i, is given by

/kTi

ieP

q

where q is molecular partition function and/kTi

ii

q g ewhere gi = degeneracy of state i.The molecular partion function for a molecule with an infinite number of equally spaced nondegenerate energylevels is – ( = energy separation between any two levels.)

(a) /1

1 kTe(b) /

11 kTe

(c) /1 kTe (d) /1 kTe

59. When eigen value problem for energy of a rigid rotor is solved, then it is found that its energy is quantized as,

1JE J J hcB where B is rotational constant, which is generally expressed in cm–1, and J can be 0, 1, 2, 3,............If rotational constant (B) for CO molecule is 1.92 cm–1, the bond length in CO is ___________Å.

60. An organic compound X (C8H8O) when treated with m-CPBA gives compound Y. Compound Y on acidhydroysis gives compound Z. The compound Z gives a abnormal product H (major) with PCl5. Compound Xwhen treated with I2 in basic medium then gives A and B. The compound H is(a) 3 4Ar PO (b) –Ar OCl (c) 2 4Ar PO (d) 2ArHPO

61. An organic compound (molecular formula C8H7Br) yields a primary alcohol on hydroboration and gives thefollowing spectral data :

max max: 282 450UV

1

max

1

: 3033 ,1646 ,1602 ,1582 , 870 ,770 , 710

: 5.14 5.70 6.70 7.26 7.38Integration 1 : 1 : 1 : 4

cmIR w m m w s s m

b c a

HNMR dd dd dd

(a)

HC

Br

CH2

(b)

HC CHBr



12

(c)

C C

Br

H H

H (d) C C

H H

HBr

62. Antimony pentafluoride SbF5 reacts with XeF4 and XeF6 to form ionic compounds 3 6XeF SbF and 5 6XeF SbF

respectively. The geometries of the cations and anions in these compounds are respectively.(a) Trigonal planar, square pyramidal and octahedral(b) T-shape, trigonal bipyramidal and octahedral.(c) Trigonal planar, trigonal bipyramidal and octahedral.(d) T-shape, square pyramidal and octahedral.

63. According to equipartition theory,

21 12 2x bmV k T

then 22

x xV V is

(a) 0 (b) bk Tm (c) bk T

m(d) none

64. The value of (M+2/M) for C2H4SO2 (Neglect the impacts of 1H and 13C) is

(a) 1: 15 (b) 1: 23 (c) 1: 29 (d) 1: 32

65. Among the following compounds?

(A) (B) 28 8C H (C) (D)

(E) N

N(F) (g) (h)

N N

N

(I) C3H3+ (J)

OH

(K) N

(L)

The number of antiaromatic compounds is/are ________________



13

Space for rough work



14

CHEMISTRY-CY

GATE TEST SERIES-II

ANSWER SHEET

1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (a)

8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (a)

11. (d) 12. (d) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (b) 16. (10.650) 17. (a)

18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (c) 21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (d) 24. (c)

25. (a) 26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (4) 29. (a) 30. (b) 31. (c)

32. (b) 33. (c) 34. (c) 35. (a) 36. (d) 37. (a) 38. (b)

39. (b) 40. (8) 41. (d) 42. (0.4) 43. (b) 44. (a) 45. (2)

46. (a) 47. (b) 48. (390) 49. (b) 50. (b) 51. (c) 52. (b)

53. (a) 54. (c) 55. (c) 56. (d) 57. (d) 58. (b) 59. (1.31)

60. (a) 61. (c) 62. (d) 63. (b) 64. (b) 65. (3)

Date: 13-01-2016

Documents

GATE paper for . Both these sections are compulsory. The