G1A: ­ General class control operator frequency privileges; primary and secondary allocations

G1A01A 60 meters, 20 meters, 17 meters, and 12 metersB 160 meters, 80 meters, 40 meters, and 10 metersC 160 meters, 60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, 12 meters, and 10 metersD 160 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, 15 meters, 12 meters, and 10 meters

On which HF/MF bands is a General class license holder granted all amateur frequency privileges?

G1A02A 160 metersB 30 metersC 17 metersD 12 meters

On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

G1A03A 160 metersB 30 metersC 20 metersD 12 meters

On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?

G1A04

A 11 metersB 12 metersC 30 metersD 60 meters

Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication only on specific channels, rather thanfrequency ranges?

G1A05A 7.250 MHzB 7.500 MHzC 40.200 MHzD 40.500 MHz

Which of the following frequencies is in the General class portion of the 40­meter band (in ITU Region 2)?

G1A06A 1875 kHzB 3750 kHzC 3900 kHzD 4005 kHz

Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 75­meter phone band?

G1A07A 14005 kHzB 14105 kHzC 14305 kHzD 14405 kHz

Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 20­meter phone band?

G1A08A 1855 kHzB 2560 kHzC 3560 kHzD 3650 kHz

Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 80­meter band?

G1A09A 14250 kHzB 18155 kHzC 21300 kHzD 24900 kHz

Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15­meter band?

G1A10A 28.020 MHzB 28.350 MHzC 28.550 MHzD All these choices are correct

Which of the following frequencies is available to a control operator holding a General class license?

General Class Question Pool

G1: COMMISSION'S RULES

G1A11

A The lower frequency endB The upper frequency endC The lower frequency end on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the upper end on frequencies above 14.150 MHzD The upper frequency end on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the lower end on frequencies above 14.150 MHz

When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of thevoice segment is generally available to them?

G1A12A Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency

assigned to that stationB Amateur stations can use the band only during emergenciesC Amateur stations can use the band only if they do not cause harmful interference to primary usersD Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24­

hour use of the band

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the Amateur Service as a secondary user on a band?

G1A13

A Notify the FCCs regional Engineer in Charge of the interferenceB Increase your transmitter's power to overcome the interferenceC Attempt to contact the station and request that it stop the interferenceD Move to a clear frequency or stop transmitting

What is the appropriate action if, when operating on either the 30­meter or 60­meter bands, a station in theprimary service interferes with your contact?

G1A14A Station identification may have to be in a language other than EnglishB Morse code may not be permittedC Digital transmission may not be permittedD Frequency allocations may differ

Which of the following may apply in areas under FCC jurisdiction outside of ITU Region 2?

G1A15A The entire bandB The portion between 28.1 MHz and 28.2 MHzC The portion between 28.3 MHz and 28.5 MHzD The portion above 29.5 MHz

What portion of the 10­meter band is available for repeater use?

G1B: ­ Antenna structure limitations; good engineering and good amateur practice; beacon operation; prohibited transmissions;retransmitting radio signals

G1B01

A 50 feetB 100 feetC 200 feetD 300 feet

What is the maximum height above ground to which an antenna structure may be erected without requiringnotification to the FAA and registration with the FCC, provided it is not at or near a public use airport?

G1B02A A beacon station may not use automatic controlB The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon OrganizationC The frequency must be posted on the internet or published in a national periodicalD There must be no more than one beacon signal transmitting in the same band from the same

station location

With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

G1B03A Observation of propagation and receptionB Automatic identification of repeatersC Transmission of bulletins of general interest to Amateur Radio licenseesD Identifying net frequencies

Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?

G1B04A Unidentified transmissions for test purposes onlyB Retransmission of other amateur station signals by any amateur stationC Occasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from U.S. government

stationsD Coded messages of any kind, if not intended to facilitate a criminal act

Which of the following transmissions is permitted?

G1B05A Unidentified test transmissions of less than one minute in durationB Transmissions necessary to assist learning the International Morse codeC Regular transmissions offering equipment for sale, if intended for Amateur Radio useD All these choices are correct

Which of the following one­way transmissions are permitted?

G1B06A Under no circumstances, FCC rules takes priorityB At any time and to any extent necessary to accomplish a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity,

provided that proper filings are made with the FCCC Only when such structures exceed 50 feet in height and are clearly visible 1000 feet from the structureD Amateur Service communications must be reasonably accommodated, and regulations must

constitute the minimum practical to accommodate a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity

Under what conditions are state and local governments permitted to regulate Amateur Radio antenna structures?

G1B07A Only "Q" signals are permittedB They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a messageC They are not permittedD Only "10 codes" are permitted

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the Amateur Service?

G1B08A Ensure that the frequency and mode selected are within your license class privilegesB Follow generally accepted band plans agreed to by the Amateur Radio communityC Monitor the frequency before transmittingD All these choices are correct

When choosing a transmitting frequency, what should you do to comply with good amateur practice?

G1B09A On any frequency if power is less than 1 wattB On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse codeC 21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHzD 28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz

On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?

G1B10A 10 watts PEP outputB 20 watts PEP outputC 100 watts PEP outputD 200 watts PEP output

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

G1B11

A The FCCB The control operatorC The IEEED The ITU

Who or what determines "good engineering and good amateur practice," as applied to the operation of anamateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

G1B12

A Only when the foreign country has a formal third­party agreement filed with the FCCB When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have

notified the ITU that they object to such communicationsC When the contact is with amateurs in any country as long as the communication is conducted in EnglishD Only when the foreign country is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union

When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by theFederal Communications Commission?

G1C: ­ Transmitter power regulations; data emission standards; 60­meter operation requirements

G1C01A 200 watts PEP outputB 1000 watts PEP outputC 1500 watts PEP outputD 2000 watts PEP output

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

G1C02A 50 watts PEP outputB 200 watts PEP outputC 1500 watts PEP outputD An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half­wave dipole

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on the 12­meter band?

G1C03

A 2.8 kHzB 5.6 kHzC 1.8 kHzD 3 kHz

What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for Amateur Radio stations transmitting on USBfrequencies in the 60­meter band?

G1C04A Only the minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications should be usedB Power must be limited to 200 watts when using data transmissionsC Power should be limited as necessary to avoid interference to another radio service on the frequencyD Effective radiated power cannot exceed 1500 watts

Which of the following limitations apply to transmitter power on every amateur band?

G1C05A 100 watts PEP outputB 1000 watts PEP outputC 1500 watts PEP outputD 2000 watts PEP output

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

G1C06A 200 watts PEP outputB 1000 watts PEP outputC 1200 watts PEP outputD 1500 watts PEP output

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

G1C07A 56 kilobaudB 19.6 kilobaudC 1200 baudD 300 baud

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmission on the 20­meter band?

G1C08A 56 kilobaudB 19.6 kilobaudC 1200 baudD 300 baud

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

G1C09

A 56 kilobaudB 19.6 kilobaudC 1200 baudD 300 baud

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted on the 1.25­meter and 70­centimeter bands?

G1C10A 56 kilobaudB 19.6 kilobaudC 1200 baudD 300 baud

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10­meter band?

G1C11A 56 kilobaudB 19.6 kilobaudC 1200 baudD 300 baud

What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 2­meter band?

G1C12A If you are using an antenna other than a dipole, you must keep a record of the gain of your

antennaB You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level, and stations workedC You must keep a record of all third­party trafficD You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60­meter band?

G1C13A Type­certify equipment to FCC standardsB Obtain an experimental license from the FCCC Publicly document the technical characteristics of the protocolD Submit a rule­making proposal to the FCC describing the codes and methods of the technique

What must be done before using a new digital protocol on the air?

G1C14A 1500 watts PEPB 10 watts RMSC ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipoleD ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna

What is the maximum power limit on the 60­meter band?

G1C15A RMSB AverageC ForwardD PEP

What measurement is specified by FCC rules that regulate maximum power output?

G1D: ­ Volunteer Examiners and Volunteer Examiner Coordinators; temporary identification; element credit

G1D01A Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC­issued General, Advanced, or

Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCCB Anyone who held an FCC­issued Amateur Radio license that has been expired for not less than 5 years and

not more than 15 yearsC Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a

current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCCD Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license

Who may receive partial credit for the elements represented by an expired Amateur Radio license?

G1D02

A General and TechnicianB General onlyC Technician onlyD Amateur Extra, General, and Technician

What license examinations may you administer when you are an accredited VE holding a General class operatorlicense?

G1D03

A Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC databaseB Only on the Technician band segments until your license arrives in the mailC On any General or Technician class band segmentD On any General or Technician class band segment except 30 meters and 60 meters

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have aCertificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges?

G1D04A At least three General class or higher VEs must observe the examinationB At least two General class or higher VEs must be presentC At least two General class or higher VEs must be present, but only one need be Amateur Extra classD At least three VEs of Technician class or higher must observe the examination

Which of the following is a requirement for administering a Technician class license examination?

G1D05

A Notification to the FCC that you want to give an examinationB Receipt of a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General classC Possession of a properly obtained telegraphy licenseD An FCC General class or higher license and VEC accreditation

Which of the following must a person have before they can be an administering VE for a Technician class licenseexamination?

G1D06

A Whenever you operate using General class frequency privilegesB Whenever you operate on any amateur frequencyC Whenever you operate using Technician frequency privilegesD A special identifier is not required if your General class license application has been filed with the FCC

When must you add the special identifier "AG" after your call sign if you are a Technician class licensee and havea Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class operator privileges, but the FCChas not yet posted your upgrade on its website?

G1D07A The Federal Communications CommissionB The Universal Licensing SystemC A Volunteer Examiner CoordinatorD The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau

Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

G1D08A The person must be a resident of the U.S. for a minimum of 5 yearsB The person must hold an FCC granted Amateur Radio license of General class or aboveC The person's home citizenship must be in ITU region 2D None of these choices is correct; a non­U.S. citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner

Which of the following criteria must be met for a non­U.S. citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

G1D09A 30 daysB 180 daysC 365 daysD For as long as your current license is valid

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

G1D10A 12 yearsB 18 yearsC 21 yearsD There is no age limit

What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

G1D11

A They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial licenseB There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired licenseC The applicant must be able to produce a copy of a page from a call book published in the U.S. showing his or

her name and addressD The applicant must pass the current Element 2 exam

If a person has an expired FCC issued Amateur Radio license of General class or higher, what is required beforethey can receive a new license?

G1E: ­ Control categories; repeater regulations; third­party rules; ITU regions; automatically controlled digital station

G1E01

A The third party's amateur license has been revoked and not reinstatedB The third party is not a U.S. citizenC The third party is a licensed amateurD The third party is speaking in a language other than English

Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in stating a message over an amateurstation?

G1E02

A Under no circumstancesB Only if the station on 10­meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such

retransmissionC Only during an FCC­declared general state of communications emergencyD Only if the 10­meter repeater control operator holds at least a General class license

When may a 10­meter repeater retransmit the 2­meter signal from a station that has a Technician class controloperator?

G1E03

A The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote controlB The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled stationC No third­party traffic maybe be transmittedD The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra Class license

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside theautomatic control band segments?

G1E04

A When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring StationB When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondaryC When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissionsD All these choices are correct

Which of the following conditions require a licensed Amateur Radio operator to take specific steps to avoidharmful interference to other users or facilities?

G1E05A Any message, as long as the amateur operator is not paidB Only messages for other licensed amateursC Only messages relating to Amateur Radio or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating

to emergencies or disaster reliefD Any messages, as long as the text of the message is recorded in the station log

What types of messages for a third party in another country may be transmitted by an amateur station?

G1E06A Region 4B Region 3C Region 2D Region 1

The frequency allocations of which ITU region apply to radio amateurs operating in North and South America?

G1E07A Anywhere in the bandB Channels 1 through 4C Channels 42 through 45D No part

In what part of the 13­centimeter band may an amateur station communicate with non­licensed Wi­Fi stations?

G1E08

A 100 milliwattsB 10 wattsC 100 wattsD 1500 watts

When using modified commercial Wi­Fi equipment to construct an Amateur Radio Emergency Data Network(AREDN), what is the maximum allowed PEP transmitter output power?

G1E09

A Under no circumstancesB When messages are encryptedC When messages are not encryptedD When under automatic control

Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third­party rulesthat apply to other modes of communication?

G1E10

A A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequenciesB A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequenciesC These frequencies are set aside for emergency operationsD These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24. 930 and 28.200MHz?

G1E11A 100 HzB 500 HzC 1 kHzD 2 kHz

What is the Part 97 limit on the maximum bandwidth occupied by an automatically controlled digital station?

G2A: ­ Phone operating procedures; USB/LSB conventions; breaking into a contact; VOX operation

G2A01A Upper sidebandB Lower sidebandC Vestigial sidebandD Double sideband

Which sideband is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

G2A02

A Upper sidebandB Lower sidebandC Vestigial sidebandD Double sideband

Which of the following modes is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160­meter, 75­meter, and40­meter bands?

G2A03A Upper sidebandB Lower sidebandC Vestigial sidebandD Double sideband

Which of the following is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

G2A04A Upper sidebandB Lower sidebandC Vestigial sidebandD Double sideband

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17­meter and 12­meter bands?

G2A05A Frequency modulationB Double sidebandC Single sidebandD Phase modulation

Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?

G2A06

A Very high fidelity voice modulationB Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashesC Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noiseD Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency

Which of the following is an advantage when using single sideband, as compared to other analog voice modes onthe HF amateur bands?

G2A07A Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressedB Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressedC SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 20­meter, 15­meter, and 10­meter amateur bandsD SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 160­meter, 75­meter, and 40­meter amateur bands

Which of the following statements is true of the single sideband voice mode?

G2A08A Say "QRZ" several times, followed by your call signB Say your call sign onceC Say "Breaker Breaker"D Say "CQ" followed by the call sign of either station

What is the recommended way to break in to a phone contact?

G2A09A Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequenciesB Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bandsC Because it is fully compatible with an AM detectorD It is good amateur practice

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160­meter, 75­meter, and 40­meter bands?

G2A10A The received signal is more natural soundingB It allows "hands free" operationC It occupies less bandwidthD It provides more power output

Which of the following statements is true of voice VOX operation versus PTT operation?

G2: OPERATING PROCEDURES

G2A11A Any caller is welcome to respondB Only stations in GermanyC Any stations outside the lower 48 statesD Only contest stations

Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states who calls "CQ DX"?

G2A12A The RF clipping levelB Transmit audio or microphone gainC Antenna inductance or capacitanceD Attenuator level

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on an amateur single sideband transceiver?

G2B: ­ Operating courtesy; band plans; emergencies, including drills and emergency communications

G2B01A Nets always have priorityB QSOs in progress always have priorityC Except during FCC­declared emergencies, no one has priority access to frequenciesD Contest operations must always yield to non­contest use of frequencies

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies in non­emergency situations?

G2B02

A Continue your communication because you were on the frequency firstB Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be neededC Change to a different frequencyD Immediately cease all transmissions

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station indistress break in?

G2B03

A Tell the interfering stations to change frequencyB Report the interference to your local Amateur Auxiliary CoordinatorC Attempt to resolve the interference problem with the other stations in a mutually acceptable

mannerD Increase power to overcome interference

What is good amateur practice if propagation changes during a contact and you notice interference from otherstations on the frequency?

G2B04

A 5 to 50 HzB 150 to 500 HzC 1 to 3 kHzD 3 to 6 kHz

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interferenceto stations on adjacent frequencies?

G2B05

A 5 to 50 HzB 150 to 500 HzC Approximately 3 kHzD Approximately 6 kHz

When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimizeinterference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

G2B06

A Send "QRL?" on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use,followed by your call sign

B Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQC Send the letter "V" in Morse code several times and listen for a response, or say "test" several times and

listen for a responseD Send "QSY" on CW or if using phone, announce "the frequency is in use," then give your call sign and listen

for a response

What is a practical way to avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CWor phone?

G2B07

A Check to see if the channel is assigned to another stationB Identify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 timesC Follow the voluntary band plan for the operating mode you intend to useD All these choices are correct

Which of the following complies with good amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate acall?

G2B08

A Only contacts with stations not within the 48 contiguous statesB Only contacts with other stations within the 48 contiguous statesC Only digital contactsD Only SSTV contacts

What is the voluntary band plan restriction for U.S. station transmitting within the 48 contiguous states in the50.1 to 50.125 MHz band segment?

G2B09

A Only a person holding an FCC­issued amateur operator licenseB Only a RACES net control operatorC A person holding an FCC­issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government officialD Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during adisaster?

G2B10A Only when transmitting in RACESB At any time when transmitting in an organized netC At any time during an actual emergencyD Only on authorized HF frequencies

When is an amateur station allowed to use any means at its disposal to assist another station in distress?

G2B11A Whichever frequency has the best chance of communicating the distress messageB Only frequencies authorized for RACES or ARES stationsC Only frequencies that are within your operating privilegesD Only frequencies used by police, fire, or emergency medical services

What frequency should be used to send a distress call?

G2C: ­ CW operating procedures and procedural signals; Q signals and common abbreviations: full break­in

G2C01A Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign "BK"B Automatic keyers, instead of hand keys, are used to send Morse codeC An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmissionD Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements

Which of the following describes full break­in telegraphy (QSK)?

G2C02A Send slowerB Change frequencyC Increase your powerD Repeat everything twice

What should you do if a CW station sends "QRS?"

G2C03A Listening for novice stationsB Operating full break­inC Listening only for a specific station or stationsD Closing station now

What does it mean when a CW operator sends "KN" at the end of a transmission?

G2C04A "Will you keep the frequency clear?"B "Are you operating full break­in" or "Can you operate full break­in?"C "Are you listening only for a specific station?"D "Are you busy?" or "Is this frequency in use?"

What does the Q signal "QRL?" mean?

G2C05A The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQB The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQC At the standard calling speed of 10 wpmD At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

G2C06A Matching the speed of the transmitting stationB Operating split to avoid interference on frequencyC Sending without errorD Matching the transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal

What does the term "zero beat" mean in CW operation?

G2C07A Chirpy or unstable signalB Report was read from an S meter rather than estimatedC 100 percent copyD Key clicks

When sending CW, what does a "C" mean when added to the RST report?

G2C08A SKB BKC ARD KN

What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

G2C09A Send slowerB We have already confirmed by cardC I acknowledge receiptD We have worked before

What does the Q signal "QSL" mean?

G2C10A Send more slowlyB Stop sendingC Zero beat my signalD I am troubled by static

What does the Q signal "QRN" mean?

G2C11A You are sending too fastB There is interference on the frequencyC I am quitting for the dayD I am ready to receive messages

What does the Q signal "QRV" mean?

G2D: ­ Volunteer Monitoring Program; HF operations

G2D01A Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violationsB Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinationsC Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeatersD Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of

emergency

What is the Volunteer Monitoring Program?

G2D02A To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinationsB To encourage amateur radio operators to self­regulate and comply with the rulesC To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usageD To provide emergency and public safety communications

Which of the following are objectives of the Volunteer Monitoring Program?

G2D03A Identification of out­of­band operationB Direction finding used to locate stations violating FCC rulesC Identification of different call signsD Hunters have an opportunity to transmit on non­amateur frequencies

What skills learned during hidden transmitter hunts are of help to the Volunteer Monitoring Program?

G2D04A A map that shows accurate land massesB A map that shows true bearings and distances from a particular locationC A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equatorD A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at

the equator with each orbit

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

G2D05

A Sign your call sign once, followed by the words "listening for a call" ­­ if no answer, change frequency andrepeat

B Say "QTC" followed by "this is" and your call sign ­­ if no answer, change frequency and repeatC Repeat "CQ" a few times, followed by "this is," then your call sign a few times, then pause to

listen, repeat as necessaryD Transmit an unmodulated carried for approximately 10 seconds, followed by "this is" and your call sign, and

pause to listen ­­ repeat as necessary

Which of the following is a good way to indicate on a clear frequency in the HF phone bands that you are lookingfor a contact with any station?

G2D06A Toward the rising sunB Along the graylineC 180 degrees from the station's short­path headingD Toward the north

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a "long­path" contact with another station?

G2D07A Able, Baker, Charlie, DogB Adam, Boy, Charles, DavidC America, Boston, Canada, DenmarkD Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta

Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?

G2D08A The ITU requires a log of all international contactsB The ITU requires a log of all international third­party trafficC The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retestD To help with a reply if the FCC requests information

What is a reason why many amateurs keep a station log?

G2D09A Submit a log to the contest sponsorB Send a QSL card to the stations worked, or QSL via Logbook of The WorldC Identify your station per normal FCC regulationsD All these choices are correct

Which of the following is required when participating in a contest on HF frequencies?

G2D10A Remote piloted model controlB Low­power transmit operationC Transmission using Quick Response ProtocolD Traffic relay procedure net operation

What is QRP operation?

G2D11A Poor propagation at any time of dayB World­wide propagation during the daylight hoursC Heavy distortion on signals due to photon absorptionD High levels of atmospheric noise or "static"

Which of the following is typical of the lower HF frequencies during the summer?

G2E: ­ Digital operating procedures

G2E01A USBB DSBC CWD LSB

Which mode is normally used when sending RTTY signals via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?

G2E02A Unplug the data connector temporarily and see if the channel­busy indication is turned offB Put the modem or controller in a mode which allows monitoring communications without a

connectionC Transmit UI packets several times and wait to see if there is a response from another PACTOR stationD Send the message, "Is this frequency in use?"

How can a PACTOR modem or controller be used to determine if the channel is in use by other PACTOR stations?

G2E03A Frequent retries or timeoutsB Long pauses in message transmissionC Failure to establish a connection between stationsD All these choices are correct

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or WINMOR transmission?

G2E04

A 14.000 ­ 14.050 MHzB 14.070 ­ 14.112 MHzC 14.150 ­ 14.225 MHzD 14.275 ­ 14.350 MHz

What segment of the 20­meter band is most often used for digital transmissions (avoiding the DX propagationbeacons)?

G2E05

A LSBB USBC DSBD SSB

What is the standard sideband used to generate a JT65, JT9, or FT8 digital signal when using AFSK in anyamateur band?

G2E06A 85 HzB 170 HzC 425 HzD 850 Hz

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

G2E07A 3570 ­ 3600 kHzB 3500 ­ 3525 kHzC 3700 ­ 3750 kHzD 3775 ­ 3825 kHz

What segment of the 80­meter band is most commonly used for digital transmissions?

G2E08A At the bottom of the slow­scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHzB At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHzC In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHzD Below the RTTY segment, near 14.070 MHz

In what segment of the 20­meter band are most PSK31 operations commonly found?

G2E09A Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR modeB Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnectsC Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stationsD Send a NAK response continuously so that the sending station must stand by

How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?

G2E10A Send an email to the system control operatorB Send QRL in Morse codeC Respond when the station broadcasts its SSIDD Transmit a connect message on the station's published frequency

Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

G2E11A It is a keyboard­to­keyboard chat modeB Each transmission takes exactly 60 secondsC It is limited to use on VHFD Typical exchanges are limited to call signs, grid locators, and signal reports

Which of the following is characteristic of the FT8 mode of the WSJT­X family?

G2E12A PL­259B Type NC Type SMAD DE­9

Which of the following connectors would be a good choice for a serial data port?

G2E13A WinlinkB RTTYC ARESD SKYWARN

Which communication system sometimes uses the internet to transfer messages?

G2E14

A The mark and space frequencies may be reversedB You may have selected the wrong baud rateC You may be listening on the wrong sidebandD All these choices are correct

What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned inproperly?

G2E15A A special hardware modemB Computer time accurate within approximately 1 secondC Receiver attenuator set to ­12 dBD A vertically polarized antenna

Which of the following is a requirement when using the FT8 digital mode?

G3A: ­ Sunspots and solar radiation; ionospheric disturbances; propagation forecasting and indices

G3A01A Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher

frequenciesB Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagationC A zero sunspot number indicates that radio propagation is not possible on any bandD A zero sunspot number indicates undisturbed conditions

What is the significance of the sunspot number about HF propagation?

G3A02

A It enhances propagation on all HF frequenciesB It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequenciesC It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communicationsD None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected

What effect does a Sudden Ionospheric Disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation of HF radiowaves?

G3A03

A 28 daysB 1 to 2 hoursC 8 minutesD 20 to 40 hours

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X­ray radiation from solar flares to affect radiopropagation on Earth?

G3A04A 80 meters and 160 metersB 60 meters and 40 metersC 30 meters and 20 metersD 15 meters, 12 meters, and 10 meters

Which of the following are least reliable for long­distance communications during periods of low solar activity?

G3A05A A measure of the highest frequency that is useful for ionospheric propagation between two points on EarthB A count of sunspots that is adjusted for solar emissionsC Another name for the American sunspot numberD A measure of solar radiation at 10.7 centimeters wavelength

What is the solar flux index?

G3A06A A sudden drop in the solar flux indexB A thunderstorm that affects radio propagationC Ripples in the ionosphereD A temporary disturbance in Earth's magnetosphere

What is a geomagnetic storm?

G3A07

A At the summer solsticeB Only at the maximum point of the solar cycleC Only at the minimum point of the solar cycleD At any point in the solar cycle

At what point in the solar cycle does the 20­meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylighthours?

G3A08A Improved high­latitude HF propagationB Degraded high­latitude HF propagationC Improved ground wave propagationD Degraded ground wave propagation

Which of the following effects can a geomagnetic storm have on radio propagation?

G3A09A Auroras that can reflect VHF signalsB Higher signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regionsC Improved HF long path propagationD Reduced long delayed echoes

What benefit can high geomagnetic activity have on radio communications?

G3A10A Long term oscillations in the upper atmosphereB Cyclic variation in Earth's radiation beltsC The sun's rotation on its axisD The position of the moon in its orbit

What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a roughly 28­day cycle?

G3: RADIO WAVE PROPAGATION

G3A11A 28 daysB 14 daysC 4 to 8 minutesD 20 to 40 hours

How long does it take charged particles from coronal mass ejections to affect radio propagation on Earth?

G3A12A The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the sunB The short­term stability of Earth's magnetic fieldC The stability of the sun's magnetic fieldD The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado

What does the K­index indicate?

G3A13A The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the sunB The amount of polarization of the sun's electric fieldC The long­term stability of Earth's geomagnetic fieldD The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado

What does the A­index indicate?

G3A14

A HF communications are improvedB HF communications are disturbedC VHF/UHF ducting is improvedD VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed

How are radio communications usually affected by the charged particles that reach Earth from solar coronalholes?

G3B: ­ Maximum Usable Frequency; Lowest Usable Frequency; propagation

G3B01

A Periodic fading approximately every 10 secondsB Signal strength increased by 3 dBC The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuationD A slightly delayed echo might be heard

What is a characteristic of skywave signals arriving at your location by both short­path and long­pathpropagation?

G3B02A Path distance and locationB Time of day and seasonC Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbancesD All these choices are correct

What factors affect the MUF?

G3B03A Select a frequency just below the MUFB Select a frequency just above the LUFC Select a frequency just below the critical frequencyD Select a frequency just above the critical frequency

Which of the following applies when selecting a frequency for lowest attenuation when transmitting on HF?

G3B04

A Listen for signals from an international beacon in the frequency range you plan to useB Send a series of dots on the band and listen for echoes from your signalC Check the strength of TV signals from western EuropeD Check the strength of signals in the MF AM broadcast band

What is a reliable way to determine if the MUF is high enough to support skip propagation between your stationand a distant location on frequencies between 14 and 30 MHz?

G3B05

A They are bent back to EarthB They pass through the ionosphereC They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphereD They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF when they are sent intothe ionosphere?

G3B06A They are bent back to EarthB They pass through the ionosphereC They are completely absorbed by the ionosphereD They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

G3B07A The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two pointsB The Longest Universal Function for communications between two pointsC The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24­hour periodD The Longest Universal Function during a 24­hour period

What does LUF stand for?

G3B08A The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two pointsB The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two pointsC The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24­hour periodD The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24­hour period

What does MUF stand for?

G3B09

A 180 milesB 1,200 milesC 2,500 milesD 12,000 miles

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop usingthe F2 region?

G3B10

A 180 milesB 1,200 milesC 2,500 milesD 12,000 miles

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop usingthe E region?

G3B11A No HF radio frequency will support ordinary skywave communications over the pathB HF communications over the path are enhancedC Double hop propagation along the path is more commonD Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced

What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?

G3C: ­ Ionospheric layers; critical angle and frequency; HF scatter; Near Vertical Incidence Skywave

G3C01A The D layerB The E layerC The F1 layerD The F2 layer

Which ionospheric layer is closest to the surface of Earth?

G3C02A Where the sun is overheadB Where the sun is on the opposite side of EarthC Where the sun is risingD Where the sun has just set

Where on Earth do ionospheric layers reach their maximum height?

G3C03A Because it is the densest ionospheric layerB Because of the Doppler effectC Because it is the highest ionospheric regionD Because of meteor trails at that level

Why is the F2 region mainly responsible for the longest distance radio wave propagation?

G3C04A The long path azimuth of a distant stationB The short path azimuth of a distant stationC The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditionsD The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric

conditions

What does the term "critical angle" mean, as used in radio wave propagation?

G3C05

A The F layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hoursB The F layer is unstable during daylight hoursC The D layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hoursD The E layer is unstable during daylight hours

Why is long­distance communication on the 40­meter, 60­meter, 80­meter, and 160­meter bands more difficultduring the day?

G3C06A Phone signals have high intelligibilityB Signals have a fluttering soundC There are very large, sudden swings in signal strengthD Scatter propagation occurs only at night

What is a characteristic of HF scatter?

G3C07A The ionospheric layer involved is unstableB Ground waves are absorbing much of the signalC The E­region is not presentD Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several different radio wave paths

What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?

G3C08A Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zoneB Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere, which is not a good reflectorC Propagation is through ground waves, which absorb most of the signal energyD Propagations is through ducts in F region, which absorb most of the energy

Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

G3C09A Faraday rotationB ScatterC Chordal hopD Short­path

What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station's skip zone?

G3C10A Propagation near the MUFB Short distance MF or HF propagation using high elevation anglesC Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunsetD Double hop propagation near the LUF

What is Near Vertical Incidence Skywave (NVIS) propagation?

G3C11

A The F2 layerB The F1 layerC The E layerD The D layer

Which ionospheric layer is the most absorbent of long skip signals during daylight hours on frequencies below 10MHz?

G4A: ­ Station operation and setup

G4A01A To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidthB To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passbandC To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sourcesD To enhance the reception of a specific frequency on a crowded band

What is the purpose of the "notch filter" found on many HF transceivers?

G4A02

A Interference from impulse noise will be eliminatedB More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passbandC It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signalsD Accidental out­of­band operation can be prevented

What is one advantage of selecting the opposite, or "reverse," sideband when receiving CW signals on a typicalHF transceiver?

G4A03A The radio is operating at half powerB The transceiver is operating from an external power sourceC The transceiver is set to different transmit and receive frequenciesD The transmitter is emitting an SSB signal, as opposed to DSB operation

What is normally meant by operating a transceiver in "split" mode?

G4A04

A A pronounced peakB A pronounced dipC No change will be observedD A slow, rhythmic oscillation

What reading on the plate current meter of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier indicates correct adjustment of theplate tuning control?

G4A05A To balance the transmitter audio frequency responseB To reduce harmonic radiationC To reduce distortion due to excessive driveD To increase overall efficiency

What is a reason to use Automatic Level Control (ALC) with an RF power amplifier?

G4A06A Balanced modulatorB SWR bridgeC Antenna coupler or antenna tunerD Q multiplier

What type of device is often used to match transmitter output impedance to an impedance not equal to 50 ohms?

G4A07A Insufficient drive powerB Low input SWRC Shorting the input signal to groundD Excessive drive power

What condition can lead to permanent damage to a solid­state RF power amplifier?

G4A08A Minimum SWR on the antennaB Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid currentC Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid currentD Maximum power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current

What is the correct adjustment for the load or coupling control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

G4A09A To prevent stations from interfering with one anotherB To allow the transmitter power regulators to charge properlyC To allow time for transmit­receive changeover operations to complete properly before RF output is

allowedD To allow time for a warning signal to be sent to other stations

Why is a time delay sometimes included in a transmitter keying circuit?

G4A10A Automatic transmit/receive switchingB Automatic generation of strings of dots and dashes for CW operationC VOX operationD Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation

What is the purpose of an electronic keyer?

G4: AMATEUR RADIO PRACTICES

G4A11A To avoid interference from stations very close to the receive frequencyB To change frequency rapidlyC To permit listening on a different frequency from that on which you are transmittingD To tune in stations that are slightly off frequency without changing your transmit frequency

Which of the following is a use for the IF shift control on a receiver?

G4A12A To allow transmitting on two frequencies at onceB To permit full duplex operation ­ that is, transmitting and receiving at the same timeC To permit monitoring of two different frequenciesD To facilitate computer interface

Which of the following is a common use for the dual­VFO feature on a transceiver?

G4A13A To reduce signal overload due to strong incoming signalsB To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifierC To reduce power consumption when operating from batteriesD To slow down received CW signals for better copy

What is one reason to use the attenuator function that is present on many HF transceivers?

G4A14

A ALC will invert the modulation of the AFSK modeB Improper action of ALC distorts the signal and can cause spurious emissionsC When using digital modes, too much ALC activity can cause the transmitter to overheatD All these choices are correct

What is likely to happen if a transceiver's ALC system is not set properly when transmitting AFSK signals with theradio using single sideband mode?

G4A15

A The VOX circuit does not un­key the transmitterB The transmitter signal is distortedC Frequent connection timeoutsD All these choices are correct

Which of the following can be a symptom of transmitted RF being picked up by an audio cable carrying AFSK datasignals between a computer and a transceiver?

G4A16A By temporarily increasing received bandwidthB By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitorC By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulseD By clipping noise peaks

How does a noise blanker work?

G4A17A Received signals may become distortedB Received frequency may become unstableC CW signals may become severely attenuatedD Received frequency may shift several kHz

What happens as the noise reduction control level in a receiver is increased?

G4B: ­ Test and monitoring equipment; two­tone test

G4B01A An ohmmeterB A signal generatorC An ammeterD An oscilloscope

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

G4B02A An oscilloscope uses less powerB Complex impedances can be easily measuredC Input impedance is much lowerD Complex waveforms can be measured

Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

G4B03A An oscilloscopeB A field strength meterC A sidetone monitorD A wavemeter

Which of the following is the best instrument to use when checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

G4B04

A The local oscillator of the transmitterB An external RF oscillatorC The transmitter balanced mixer outputD The attenuated RF output of the transmitter

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern ofa transmitted signal?

G4B05A It improves the frequency responseB It decreases battery consumption in the meterC It improves the resolution of the readingsD It decreases the loading on circuits being measured

Why is high input impedance desirable for a voltmeter?

G4B06A Better for measuring computer circuitsB Better for RF measurementsC Better precision for most usesD Faster response

What is an advantage of a digital voltmeter as compared to an analog voltmeter?

G4B07A Two audio signals of the same frequency shifted 90 degreesB Two non­harmonically related audio signalsC Two swept frequency tonesD Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude

What signals are used to conduct a two­tone test?

G4B08

A A field strength meterB An antenna noise bridgeC A multimeterD A Q meter

Which of the following instruments may be used to monitor relative RF output when making antenna andtransmitter adjustments?

G4B09A The radiation resistance of an antennaB The radiation pattern of an antennaC The presence and amount of phase distortion of a transmitterD The presence and amount of amplitude distortion of a transmitter

Which of the following can be determined with a field strength meter?

G4B10A Standing wave ratioB Antenna front­to­back ratioC RF interferenceD Radio wave propagation

Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?

G4B11A ReceiverB TransmitterC Antenna and feed lineD All these choices are correct

Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?

G4B12A Permanent damage to the analyzer may occur if it is operated into a high SWRB Strong signals from nearby transmitters can affect the accuracy of measurementsC The analyzer can be damaged if measurements outside the ham bands are attemptedD Connecting the analyzer to an antenna can cause it to absorb harmonics

What problem can occur when making measurements on an antenna system with an antenna analyzer?

G4B13A Measuring the front­to­back ratio of an antennaB Measuring the turns ratio of a power transformerC Determining the impedance of coaxial cableD Determining the gain of a directional antenna

What is a use for an antenna analyzer other than measuring the SWR of an antenna system?

G4B14

A When testing logic circuitsB When high precision is desiredC When measuring the frequency of an oscillatorD When adjusting tuned circuits

What is an instance in which the use of an instrument with analog readout may be preferred over an instrumentwith a digital readout?

G4B15A LinearityB Percentage of suppression of carrier and undesired sideband for SSBC Percentage of frequency modulationD Percentage of carrier phase shift

What type of transmitter performance does a two­tone test analyze?

G4C: ­ Interference to consumer electronics; grounding; DSP

G4C01A Bypass inductorB Bypass capacitorC Forward­biased diodeD Reverse­biased diode

Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency devices?

G4C02A Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennasB Lack of rectification of the transmitter's signal in power conductorsC Arcing at a poor electrical connectionD Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna

Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

G4C03

A A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the airB On­and­off humming or clickingC Distorted speechD Clearly audible speech

What sound is heard from an audio device or telephone if there is interference from a nearby single sidebandphone transmitter?

G4C04A On­and­off humming or clickingB A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequencyC A chirpy CW signalD Severely distorted audio

What is the effect on an audio device when there is interference from a nearby CW transmitter?

G4C05

A Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wireB Insulated wire has been used for the ground wireC The ground rod is resonantD The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency

What might be the problem if you receive an RF burn when touching your equipment while transmitting on an HFband, assuming the equipment is connected to a ground rod?

G4C06A Overheating of ground strapsB Corrosion of the ground rodC High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipmentD A ground loop

What effect can be caused by a resonant ground connection?

G4C07

A The resistance of solder is too highB Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connectionC Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protectionD A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike

Why should soldered joints not be used with the wires that connect the base of a tower to a system of groundrods?

G4C08A Placing a ferrite choke around the cableB Adding series capacitors to the conductorsC Adding shunt inductors to the conductorsD Adding an additional insulating jacket to the cable

Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common­mode current on an audio cable?

G4C09A Connect all ground conductors in seriesB Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wireC Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connectionsD Connect all ground conductors to a single point

How can a ground loop be avoided?

G4C10A You receive reports of "hum" on your station's transmitted signalB The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very highC An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of currentD You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station

What could be a symptom of a ground loop somewhere in your station?

G4C11A Building all equipment in a metal enclosureB Using surge suppressor power outletsC Bonding all equipment enclosures togetherD Low­pass filters on all feed lines

What technique helps to minimize RF "hot spots" in an amateur station?

G4C12A A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be createdB Fewer digital components are requiredC Mixing products are greatly reducedD The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies

Which of the following is an advantage of a receiver DSP IF filter as compared to an analog filter?

G4C13A It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuitB It prevents signal overloadC It ensures that the neutral wire is groundedD It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis

Why must the metal enclosure of every item of station equipment be grounded?

G4D: ­ Speech processors; S meters; sideband operation near band edges

G4D01A Increase the intelligibility of transmitted phone signals during poor conditionsB Increase transmitter bass response for more natural­sounding SSB signalsC Prevent distortion of voice signalsD Decrease high­frequency voice output to prevent out­of­band operation

What is the purpose of a speech processor as used in a modern transceiver?

G4D02A It increases peak powerB It increases average powerC It reduces harmonic distortionD It reduces intermodulation distortion

Which of the following describes how a speech processor affects a transmitted single sideband phone signal?

G4D03A Distorted speechB SplatterC Excessive background pickupD All these choices are correct

Which of the following can be the result of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

G4D04A ConductanceB ImpedanceC Received signal strengthD Transmitter power output

What does an S meter measure?

G4D05

A It is 10 times less powerfulB It is 20 times less powerfulC It is 20 times more powerfulD It is 100 times more powerful

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properlycalibrated S meter?

G4D06A In a receiverB In an SWR bridgeC In a transmitterD In a conductance bridge

Where is an S meter found?

G4D07

A Approximately 1.5 timesB Approximately 2 timesC Approximately 4 timesD Approximately 8 times

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiverfrom S8 to S9?

G4D08

A 7.178 to 7.181 MHzB 7.178 to 7.184 MHzC 7.175 to 7.178 MHzD 7.1765 to 7.1795 MHz

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178MHz?

G4D09A 14.347 to 14.647 MHzB 14.347 to 14.350 MHzC 14.344 to 14.347 MHzD 14.3455 to 14.3485 MHz

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?

G4D10

A At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segmentB At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segmentC At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segmentD At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment

How close to the lower edge of the phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHzwide LSB?

G4D11

A At least 3 kHz above the edge of the bandB At least 3 kHz below the edge of the bandC At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segmentD At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment

How close to the upper edge of the phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHzwide USB?

G4E: ­ HF mobile radio installations; alternative energy source operation

G4E01A To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antennaB To allow automatic band changingC To electrically lengthen a physically short antennaD To allow remote tuning

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

G4E02A To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antennaB To increase the "Q" of the antennaC To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an objectD To reduce RF voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna while transmitting

What is the purpose of a corona ball on an HF mobile antenna?

G4E03A To the battery using heavy­gauge wireB To the alternator or generator using heavy­gauge wireC To the battery using resistor wireD To the alternator or generator using resistor wire

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100 watt HF mobile installation?

G4E04A The socket is not wired with an RF­shielded power cableB The socket's wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiverC The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceiversD Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat

Why is it best NOT to draw the DC power for a 100 watt HF transceiver from a vehicle's auxiliary power socket?

G4E05A "Picket fencing"B The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiverC Efficiency of the electrically short antennaD FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75­meter band

Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?

G4E06A Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signalsB Short antennas can only receive circularly polarized signalsC Operating bandwidth may be very limitedD Harmonic radiation may increase

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full­size antenna?

G4E07A The battery charging systemB The fuel delivery systemC The vehicle control computerD All these choices are correct

Which of the following may cause receive interference in a radio installed in a vehicle?

G4E08A Photovoltaic conversionB Photon emissionC PhotosynthesisD Photon decomposition

What is the name of the process by which sunlight is changed directly into electricity?

G4E09A 0.02 VDCB 0.5 VDCC 0.2 VDCD 1.38 VDC

What is the approximate open­circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

G4E10

A The diode serves to regulate the charging voltage to prevent overchargeB The diode prevents self­discharge of the battery though the panel during times of low or no

illuminationC The diode limits the current flowing from the panel to a safe valueD The diode greatly increases the efficiency during times of high illumination

What is the reason that a series diode is connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is beingcharged by the panel?

G4E11A The conversion efficiency from mechanical energy to electrical energy is less than 2 percentB The voltage and current ratings of such systems are not compatible with amateur equipmentC A large energy storage system is needed to supply power when the wind is not blowingD All these choices are correct

Which of the following is a disadvantage of using wind as the primary source of power for an emergency station?

G5A: ­ Reactance; inductance; capacitance; impedance; impedance matching

G5A01A The electric charge stored by a capacitorB The inverse of resistanceC The opposition to the flow of current in an AC circuitD The force of repulsion between two similar electric fields

What is impedance?

G5A02A Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistanceB Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductanceC A property of ideal resistors in AC circuitsD A large spark produced at switch contacts when an inductor is de­energized

What is reactance?

G5A03A ConductanceB ReluctanceC AdmittanceD Reactance

Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

G5A04A ConductanceB ReluctanceC ReactanceD Admittance

Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

G5A05A As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreasesB As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increasesC As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreasesD As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

How does an inductor react to AC?

G5A06A As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreasesB As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increasesC As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increasesD As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

How does a capacitor react to AC?

G5A07

A The source delivers minimum power to the loadB The electrical load is shortedC No current can flow through the circuitD The source can deliver maximum power to the load

What happens when the impedance of an electrical load is equal to the output impedance of a power source,assuming both impedances are resistive?

G5A08A To minimize transmitter power outputB To maximize the transfer of powerC To reduce power supply rippleD To minimize radiation resistance

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer?

G5A09A FaradB OhmC AmpereD Siemens

What unit is used to measure reactance?

G5A10A A transformerB A Pi­networkC A length of transmission lineD All these choices are correct

Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

G5: ELECTRICAL PRINCIPLES

G5A11A Insert an LC network between the two circuitsB Reduce the power output of the first circuitC Increase the power output of the first circuitD Insert a circulator between the two circuits

Which of the following describes one method of impedance matching between two AC circuits?

G5B: ­ The decibel; current and voltage dividers; electrical power calculations; sine wave root­mean­square (RMS) values; PEPcalculations

G5B01A Approximately 2 dBB Approximately 3 dBC Approximately 6 dBD Approximately 12 dB

What dB change represents a factor of two increase or decrease in power?

G5B02A It equals the average of each branch currentB It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuitC It equals the sum of the currents through each branchD It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop

How does the total current relate to the individual currents in each branch of a purely resistive parallel circuit?

G5B03A 0.5 wattsB 200 wattsC 400 wattsD 3200 watts

How many watts of electrical power are used if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800 ohm load?

G5B04A 2.4 wattsB 24 wattsC 6 wattsD 60 watts

How many watts of electrical power are used by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

G5B05A Approximately 61 milliwattsB Approximately 61 wattsC Approximately 11 milliwattsD Approximately 11 watts

How many watts are dissipated when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through a 1250 ohm resistance?

G5B06

A 1.4 wattsB 100 wattsC 353.5 wattsD 400 watts

What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 200 volts peak­to­peak across a 50 ohmdummy load connected to the transmitter output?

G5B07A The peak­to­peak valueB The peak valueC The RMS valueD The reciprocal of the RMS value

What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value?

G5B08A 84.8 voltsB 169.7 voltsC 240.0 voltsD 339.4 volts

What is the peak­to­peak voltage of a sine wave with an RMS voltage of 120.0 volts?

G5B09A 8.5 voltsB 12 voltsC 24 voltsD 34 volts

What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?

G5B10A 10.9 percentB 12.2 percentC 20.6 percentD 25.9 percent

What percentage of power loss would result from a transmission line loss of 1 dB?

G5B11A 0.707B 1.00C 1.414D 2.00

What is the ratio of peak envelope power to average power for an unmodulated carrier?

G5B12A 173 voltsB 245 voltsC 346 voltsD 692 volts

What would be the RMS voltage across a 50 ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts?

G5B13

A 530 wattsB 1060 wattsC 1500 wattsD 2120 watts

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if an average reading wattmeter connected to the transmitteroutput indicates 1060 watts?

G5B14

A 8.75 wattsB 625 wattsC 2500 wattsD 5000 watts

What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 500 volts peak­to­peak across a 50 ohmresistive load connected to the transmitter output?

G5C: ­ Resistors, capacitors, and inductors in series and parallel; transformers

G5C01

A Capacitive couplingB Displacement current couplingC Mutual inductanceD Mutual capacitance

What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source isconnected across its primary winding?

G5C02

A The output voltage is multiplied by 4B The output voltage is divided by 4C Additional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overloadD Additional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload

What happens if a signal is applied to the secondary winding of a 4:1 voltage step­down transformer instead ofthe primary winding?

G5C03A A parallel resistorB A series resistorC A series capacitorD A parallel capacitor

Which of the following components increases the total resistance of a resistor?

G5C04A 0.30 ohmsB 0.33 ohmsC 33.3 ohmsD 300 ohms

What is the total resistance of three 100 ohm resistors in parallel?

G5C05A 1500 ohmsB 90 ohmsC 150 ohmsD 175 ohms

If three equal value resistors in series produce 450 ohms, what is the value of each resistor?

G5C06

A 2370 voltsB 540 voltsC 26.7 voltsD 5.9 volts

What is the RMS voltage across a 500­turn secondary winding in a transformer if the 2250­turn primary isconnected to 120 VAC?

G5C07

A 12.2 to 1B 24.4 to 1C 150 to 1D 300 to 1

What is the turns ratio of a transformer used to match an audio amplifier having 600 ohm output impedance to aspeaker having 4 ohm impedance?

G5C08

A 576.9 nanofaradsB 1733 picofaradsC 3583 picofaradsD 10.750 nanofarads

What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5.0 nanofarad capacitors and one 750 picofarad capacitor connected inparallel?

G5C09A 0.30 microfaradsB 0.33 microfaradsC 33.3 microfaradsD 300 microfarads

What is the capacitance of three 100 microfarad capacitors connected in series?

G5C10A 0.30 henriesB 3.3 henriesC 3.3 millihenriesD 30 millihenries

What is the inductance of three 10 millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

G5C11A 0.07 millihenriesB 14.3 millihenriesC 70 millihenriesD 1000 millihenries

What is the inductance of a 20 millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50 millihenry inductor?

G5C12A 0.07 microfaradsB 14.3 microfaradsC 70 microfaradsD 1000 microfarads

What is the capacitance of a 20 microfarad capacitor connected in series with a 50 microfarad capacitor?

G5C13A An inductor in seriesB A resistor in seriesC A capacitor in parallelD A capacitor in series

Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?

G5C14A A capacitor in seriesB A resistor in parallelC An inductor in parallelD An inductor in series

Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance?

G5C15A 5.9 ohmsB 0.17 ohmsC 10000 ohmsD 80 ohms

What is the total resistance of a 10 ohm, a 20 ohm, and a 50 ohm resistor connected in parallel?

G5C16

A To improve the coupling between the primary and secondaryB To accommodate the higher current of the primaryC To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primaryD To ensure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding

Why is the conductor of the primary winding of many voltage step­up transformers larger in diameter than theconductor of the secondary winding?

G5C17A 0.22B 2.2C 22D 220

What is the value in nanofarads (nF) of a 22,000 picofarad (pF) capacitor?

G5C18A 47B 0.47C 47,000D 4.7

What is the value in microfarads of a 4700 nanofarad (nF) capacitor?

G6A: ­ Resistors; capacitors; inductors; rectifiers; solid­state diodes and transistors; vacuum tubes; batteries

G6A01A 6 voltsB 8.5 voltsC 10.5 voltsD 12 volts

What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12 volt lead­acid battery?

G6A02A Long lifeB High discharge currentC High voltageD Rapid recharge

What is an advantage of the low internal resistance of nickel­cadmium batteries?

G6A03A 0.1 voltB 0.3 voltsC 0.7 voltsD 1.0 volts

What is the approximate junction threshold voltage of a germanium diode?

G6A04A Tight toleranceB Much less leakage than any other typeC High capacitance for a given volumeD Inexpensive RF capacitor

Which of the following is an advantage of an electrolytic capacitor?

G6A05A 0.1 voltB 0.3 voltsC 0.7 voltsD 1.0 volts

What is the approximate junction threshold voltage of a conventional silicon diode?

G6A06A The resistor's tolerance value would not be adequate for such a circuitB The resistor's inductance could make circuit performance unpredictableC The resistor could overheatD The resistor's internal capacitance would detune the circuit

Which of the following is a reason not to use wire­wound resistors in an RF circuit?

G6A07A Its saturation and cutoff regionsB Its active region (between the cutoff and saturation regions)C Its peak and valley current pointsD Its enhancement and depletion modes

What are the stable operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch in a logic circuit?

G6A08A Large values of inductance may be obtainedB The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequenciesC Most of the magnetic field is contained in the coreD All these choices are correct

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

G6A09A The gate is formed by a back­biased junctionB The gate is separated from the channel with a thin insulating layerC The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layerD The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon

Which of the following describes the construction of a MOSFET?

G6A10A Control gridB HeaterC Screen gridD Trigger electrode

Which element of a triode vacuum tube is used to regulate the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

G6A11A Its reactance increasesB Harmonics are generatedC It becomes capacitiveD Catastrophic failure is likely

What happens when an inductor is operated above its self­resonant frequency?

G6: CIRCUIT COMPONENTS

G6A12A To reduce grid­to­plate capacitanceB To increase efficiencyC To increase the control grid resistanceD To decrease plate resistance

What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

G6A13A Incorrect polarity can cause the capacitor to short­circuitB Reverse voltages can destroy the dielectric layer of an electrolytic capacitorC The capacitor could overheat and explodeD All these choices are correct

Why is the polarity of applied voltages important for polarized capacitors?

G6A14A Tight toleranceB High stabilityC High capacitance for given volumeD Comparatively low cost

Which of the following is an advantage of ceramic capacitors as compared to other types of capacitors?

G6B: ­ Analog and digital integrated circuits (ICs); microprocessors; memory; I/O devices; microwave ICs (MMICs); display devices;connectors; ferrite cores

G6B01A Its conductivityB Its thicknessC The composition, or "mix," of materials usedD The ratio of outer diameter to inner diameter

What determines the performance of a ferrite core at different frequencies?

G6B02A Multi­Megabyte Integrated CircuitB Monolithic Microwave Integrated CircuitC Military Manufactured Integrated CircuitD Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit

What is meant by the term MMIC?

G6B03A Low power consumptionB High power handling capabilityC Better suited for RF amplificationD Better suited for power supply regulation

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

G6B04A Resistor Operated MemoryB Read Only MemoryC Random Operational MemoryD Resistant to Overload Memory

What is meant by the term ROM?

G6B05A It is resistant to radiation damageB It is resistant to high temperaturesC The stored information is maintained even if power is removedD The stored information cannot be changed once written

What is meant when memory is characterized as non­volatile?

G6B06A DigitalB MMICC Programmable LogicD Analog

What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

G6B07A A moisture­resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHzB A small bayonet connector used for data circuitsC A threaded connector used for hydraulic systemsD An audio connector used in surround­sound installations

Which of the following describes a type N connector?

G6B08A Beyond cutoffB At the Zener voltageC Reverse biasedD Forward biased

How is an LED biased when emitting light?

G6B09A It utilizes ambient or back lightingB It offers a wide dynamic rangeC It consumes relatively high powerD It has relatively short lifetime

Which of the following is a characteristic of a liquid crystal display?

G6B10A By creating an impedance in the current's pathB It converts common­mode current to differential modeC By creating an out­of­phase current to cancel the common­mode currentD Ferrites expel magnetic fields

How does a ferrite bead or core reduce common­mode RF current on the shield of a coaxial cable?

G6B11A A large bayonet connector usable at power levels more than 1 KWB A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHzC A connector designed for serial multiple access signalsD A type of push­on connector intended for high­voltage applications

What is a type SMA connector?

G6B12A PL­259B BNCC RCA PhonoD Type N

Which of these connector types is commonly used for audio signals in Amateur Radio stations?

G6B13A OctalB RJ­11C PL­259D DB­25

Which of these connector types is commonly used for RF connections at frequencies up to 150 MHz?

G7A: ­ Power supplies; schematic symbols

G7A01A It acts as a fuse for excess voltageB It ensures that the filter capacitors are discharged when power is removedC It removes shock hazards from the induction coilsD It eliminates ground loop current

What useful feature does a power supply bleeder resistor provide?

G7A02A DiodesB Transformers and transducersC Quartz crystalsD Capacitors and inductors

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

G7A03A Full­waveB Full­wave bridgeC Half­waveD Synchronous

Which type of rectifier circuit uses two diodes and a center­tapped transformer?

G7A04A Only one diode is requiredB The ripple frequency is twice that of a full­wave rectifierC More current can be drawn from the half­wave rectifierD The output voltage is two times the peak output voltage of the transformer

What is an advantage of a half­wave rectifier in a power supply?

G7A05A 90 degreesB 180 degreesC 270 degreesD 360 degrees

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half­wave rectifier?

G7A06A 90 degreesB 180 degreesC 270 degreesD 360 degrees

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full­wave rectifier?

G7A07A A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC inputB A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC inputC A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC inputD A steady DC voltage

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full­wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

G7A08A Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possibleB Fewer circuit components are requiredC High­frequency operation allows the use of smaller componentsD All these choices are correct

Which of the following is an advantage of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

G7A09A Symbol 2B Symbol 5C Symbol 1D Symbol 4

Which symbol in figure G7­1 represents a field effect transistor? (view image)

G7A10A Symbol 4B Symbol 1C Symbol 11D Symbol 5

Which symbol in figure G7­1 represents a Zener diode? (view image)

G7: PRACTICAL CIRCUITS

G7A11A Symbol 1B Symbol 2C Symbol 7D Symbol 11

Which symbol in figure G7­1 represents an NPN junction transistor? (view image)

G7A12A Symbol 4B Symbol 7C Symbol 6D Symbol 1

Which symbol in figure G7­1 represents a solid core transformer? (view image)

G7A13

A Symbol 7B Symbol 11C Symbol 6D Symbol 1

Which symbol in figure G7­1 represents a tapped inductor? (view image)

G7B: ­ Digital circuits; amplifiers and oscillators

G7B01A To limit the modulation indexB To eliminate self­oscillationsC To cut off the final amplifier during standby periodsD To keep the carrier on frequency

What is the reason for neutralizing the final amplifier stage of a transmitter?

G7B02A Class AB Class BC Class ABD Class C

Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

G7B03A Output is high when either or both inputs are lowB Output is high only when both inputs are highC Output is low when either or both inputs are highD Output is low only when both inputs are high

Which of the following describes the function of a two­input AND gate?

G7B04A Output is high when either or both inputs are lowB Output is high only when both inputs are highC Output is low when either or both inputs are highD Output is low only when both inputs are high

Which of the following describes the function of a two input NOR gate?

G7B05A 3B 6C 8D 16

How many states does a 3­bit binary counter have?

G7B06A A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the arrayB An array of operational amplifiers used for tri­state arithmetic operationsC A digital mixerD An analog mixer

What is a shift register?

G7B07A An amplifier and a dividerB A frequency multiplier and a mixerC A circulator and a filter operating in a feed­forward loopD A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop

Which of the following are basic components of a sine wave oscillator?

G7B08A Divide the DC input power by the DC output powerB Divide the RF output power by the DC input powerC Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output powerD Add the RF input power to the DC output power

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

G7B09A The number of stages in the counterB The number of stages in the dividerC The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuitD The time delay of the lag circuit

What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?

G7B10A Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiverB An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveformC A Class C high efficiency amplifierD An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

G7B11A SSBB FMC AMD All these choices are correct

For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?

G7C: ­ Receivers and transmitters; filters; oscillators

G7C01

A Carrier oscillatorB FilterC IF amplifierD RF amplifier

Which of the following is used to process signals from the balanced modulator then send them to the mixer insome single sideband phone transmitters?

G7C02

A DiscriminatorB DetectorC IF amplifierD Balanced modulator

Which circuit is used to combine signals from the carrier oscillator and speech amplifier then send the result tothe filter in some single sideband phone transmitters?

G7C03

A Balanced modulatorB IF amplifierC MixerD Detector

What circuit is used to process signals from the RF amplifier and local oscillator then send the result to the IFfilter in a superheterodyne receiver?

G7C04

A RF oscillatorB IF filterC Balanced modulatorD Product detector

What circuit is used to combine signals from the IF amplifier and BFO and send the result to the AF amplifier insome single sideband receivers?

G7C05A Wide tuning range and no need for band switchingB Relatively high­power outputC Relatively low power consumptionD Variable frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator

Which of the following is an advantage of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

G7C06

A Substantially higherB About the sameC Substantially lowerD Twice the transmission line impedance

What should be the impedance of a low­pass filter as compared to the impedance of the transmission line intowhich it is inserted?

G7C07A RF amplifier, detector, audio amplifierB RF amplifier, mixer, IF discriminatorC HF oscillator, mixer, detectorD HF oscillator, prescaler, audio amplifier

What is the simplest combination of stages that implement a superheterodyne receiver?

G7C08A Product detectorB Phase inverterC MixerD Discriminator

What circuit is used in analog FM receivers to convert IF output signals to audio?

G7C09

A ZeroB 90 degreesC 180 degreesD 45 degrees

What is the phase difference between the I and Q signals that software­defined radio (SDR) equipment uses formodulation and demodulation?

G7C10A The need for high resolution analog­to­digital converters is eliminatedB All types of modulation can be created with appropriate processing.C Minimum detectible signal level is reducedD Converting the signal from digital to analog creates mixing products

What is an advantage of using I and Q signals in software­defined radios (SDRs)?

G7C11A A radio in which most major signal processing functions are performed by softwareB A radio that provides computer interface for automatic logging of band and frequencyC A radio that uses crystal filters designed using softwareD A computer model that can simulate performance of a radio to aid in the design process

What is meant by the term "software­defined radio" (SDR)?

G7C12A Notch frequencyB Neper frequencyC Cutoff frequencyD Rolloff frequency

What is the frequency above which a low­pass filter's output power is less than half the input power?

G7C13A Notch depthB RolloffC Insertion lossD Ultimate rejection

What term specifies a filter's maximum ability to reject signals outside its passband?

G7C14A Upper and lower half­powerB Cutoff and rolloffC Pole and zeroD Image and harmonic

The bandwidth of a band­pass filter is measured between what two frequencies?

G7C15A Insertion lossB Return lossC QD Ultimate rejection

What term specifies a filter's attenuation inside its passband?

G7C16A A high­stability variable frequency oscillator in a transceiverB A digital voltmeterC A digital mode interface between a computer and a transceiverD A high­sensitivity radio direction finder

Which of the following is a typical application for a Direct Digital Synthesizer?

G8A: ­ Carriers and modulation: AM; FM; single sideband; modulation envelope; digital modulation; overmodulation

G8A01A By keying an FM transmitter with a sub­audible toneB By changing an oscillator's frequency directly with a digital control signalC By using a transceiver's computer data interface protocol to change frequenciesD By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator

How is an FSK signal generated?

G8A02A Phase convolutionB Phase modulationC Phase transformationD Phase inversion

What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF signal to convey information?

G8A03A Frequency convolutionB Frequency transformationC Frequency conversionD Frequency modulation

What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

G8A04A Multiplex modulationB Phase modulationC Amplitude modulationD Pulse modulation

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

G8A05A Frequency shift keyingB Phase modulationC Frequency modulationD Amplitude modulation

What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?

G8A06A It is sideband sensitiveB It has forward error correctionC The bandwidth is slightly higher than BPSK31D All these choices are correct

Which of the following is characteristic of QPSK31?

G8A07A Single sidebandB Double sidebandC Phase modulationD Frequency modulation

Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest bandwidth?

G8A08A Insufficient audioB Insufficient bandwidthC Frequency driftD Excessive bandwidth

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

G8A09A 8­tone frequency shift keyingB Vestigial sidebandC Amplitude compressed AMD Direct sequence spread spectrum

What type of modulation is used by the FT8 digital mode?

G8A10A Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector currentB The transmitter's automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjustedC Signal distortion caused by excessive driveD The transmitter's carrier is properly suppressed

What is meant by the term "flat­topping," when referring to a single sideband phone transmission?

G8A11A The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signalB The carrier frequency that contains the signalC Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequenciesD The bandwidth of the modulated signal

What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

G8: SIGNALS AND EMISSIONS

G8A12A MSK144B FT8C AMTORD MFSK32

Which of the following narrow­band digital modes can receive signals with very low signal­to­noise ratios?

G8B: ­ Frequency mixing; multiplication; bandwidths of various modes; deviation; duty cycle; intermodulation

G8B01

A Image frequencyB Local oscillatorC RF inputD Beat frequency oscillator

Which mixer input is varied or tuned to convert signals of different frequencies to an intermediate frequency(IF)?

G8B02

A Quadrature noiseB Image responseC Mixer interferenceD Intermediate interference

If a receiver mixes a 13.800 MHz VFO with a 14.255 MHz received signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediatefrequency (IF) signal, what type of interference will a 13.345 MHz signal produce in the receiver?

G8B03A HeterodyningB SynthesizingC CancellationD Phase inverting

What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?

G8B04

A MixerB Reactance modulatorC Pre­emphasis networkD Multiplier

What is the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that generates a harmonic of a lower frequency signal to reach thedesired operating frequency?

G8B05A 31.5 HzB 500 HzC 1800 HzD 2300 Hz

What is the approximate bandwidth of a PACTOR­III signal at maximum data rate?

G8B06

A 3 kHzB 5 kHzC 8 kHzD 16 kHz

What is the total bandwidth of an FM phone transmission having 5 kHz deviation and 3 kHz modulatingfrequency?

G8B07

A 101.75 HzB 416.7 HzC 5 kHzD 60 kHz

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHzFM phone transmitter?

G8B08A To aid in tuning your transmitterB Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter's average power ratingC To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmissionD The attenuator will have to be adjusted accordingly

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

G8B09A It is required by FCC rulesB It minimizes power consumption in the receiverC It improves impedance matching of the antennaD It results in the best signal­to­noise ratio

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

G8B10A Symbol rate and bandwidth are not relatedB Higher symbol rates require wider bandwidthC Lower symbol rates require wider bandwidthD Bandwidth is always half the symbol rate

What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?

G8B11A The ratioB The averageC The sum and differenceD The arithmetic product

What combination of a mixer's Local Oscillator (LO) and RF input frequencies is found in the output?

G8B12A IntermodulationB HeterodyningC DetectionD Rolloff

What process combines two signals in a non­linear circuit or connection to produce unwanted spurious outputs?

G8C: ­ Digital emission modes

G8C01A 432 MHzB 902 MHzC 2.4 GHzD 10.7 GHz

On what band do amateurs share channels with the unlicensed Wi­Fi service?

G8C02A WSPRB OliviaC PSK31D SSB­SC

Which digital mode is used as a low­power beacon for assessing HF propagation?

G8C03A DirectoryB PreambleC HeaderD Footer

What part of a packet radio frame contains the routing and handling information?

G8C04A A 7­bit code with start, stop, and parity bitsB A code using error detection and correctionC A 5­bit code with additional start and stop bitsD A code using SELCAL and LISTEN

Which of the following describes Baudot code?

G8C05A The receiver is requesting the packet be retransmittedB The receiver is reporting the packet was received without errorC The receiver is busy decoding the packetD The entire file has been received correctly

In the PACTOR protocol, what is meant by an NAK response to a transmitted packet?

G8C06

A The checksum overflowsB The connection is droppedC Packets will be routed incorrectlyD Encoding reverts to the default character set

What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when usingPACTOR or WINMOR?

G8C07A It terminates the contactB It requests the packet be retransmittedC It sends the packet back to the transmitting stationD It requests a change in transmitting protocol

How does the receiving station respond to an ARQ data mode packet containing errors?

G8C08A Upper case letters are sent with more powerB Upper case letters use longer Varicode symbols and thus slow down transmissionC Error correction is used to ensure accurate message receptionD Higher power is needed as compared to RTTY for similar error rates

Which of the following statements is true about PSK31?

G8C09A The approximate transmitted symbol rateB The version of the PSK protocolC The year in which PSK31 was inventedD The number of characters that can be represented by PSK31

What does the number 31 represent in "PSK31"?

G8C10A By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strengthB By using the Varicode character setC By transmitting redundant information with the dataD By using a parity bit with each character

How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct errors in received data packets?

G8C11A Dot and dashB On and offC High and lowD Mark and space

How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

G8C12A VaricodeB ViterbiC VolumetricD Binary

Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?

G8C13A Long path propagationB Backscatter propagationC Insufficient modulationD Overmodulation

What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines on either side of a digital signal?

G8C14A Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is vertical, time is intensityB Frequency is vertical, signal strength is intensity, time is horizontalC Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is intensity, time is verticalD Frequency is vertical, signal strength is horizontal, time is intensity

Which of the following describes a waterfall display?

G9A: ­ Antenna feed lines: characteristic impedance and attenuation; SWR calculation, measurement, and effects; matching networks

G9A01A The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductorsB The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the lineC The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signalD The frequency of the signal and the length of the line

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor antenna feed line?

G9A02A 25 and 30 ohmsB 50 and 75 ohmsC 80 and 100 ohmsD 500 and 750 ohms

What are the typical characteristic impedances of coaxial cables used for antenna feed lines at amateur stations?

G9A03A 50 ohmsB 75 ohmsC 100 ohmsD 450 ohms

What is the typical characteristic impedance of "window line" parallel transmission line?

G9A04A Operating an antenna at its resonant frequencyB Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handleC A difference between feed­line impedance and antenna feed­point impedanceD Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line

What might cause reflected power at the point where a feed line connects to an antenna?

G9A05A Attenuation is independent of frequencyB Attenuation increasesC Attenuation decreasesD Attenuation reaches a maximum at approximately 18 MHz

How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change as the frequency of the signal it is carrying increases?

G9A06A Ohms per 1000 feetB Decibels per 1000 feetC Ohms per 100 feetD Decibels per 100 feet

In what units is RF feed line loss usually expressed?

G9A07A The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potentialB The feed line must be cut to a length equal to an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengthsC The feed line must be cut to a length equal to an even number of physical half wavelengthsD The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed

line

What must be done to prevent standing waves on an antenna feed line?

G9A08

A 1 to 1B 5 to 1C Between 1 to 1 and 5 to 1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the lineD Between 1 to 1 and 5 to 1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5 to 1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line isadjusted to 1 to 1 SWR, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

G9A09

A 4:1B 1:4C 2:1D 1:2

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non­reactive load having 200 ohmimpedance?

G9A10

A 2:1B 50:1C 1:5D 5:1

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non­reactive load having 10 ohmimpedance?

G9: ANTENNAS AND FEED LINES

G9A11

A 2:1B 1:1C 50:50D 0:0

What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non­reactive load having 50 ohmimpedance?

G9A12A There is no interaction between transmission line loss and SWRB If a transmission line is lossy, high SWR will increase the lossC High SWR makes it difficult to measure transmission line lossD High SWR reduces the relative effect of transmission line loss

What is the interaction between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?

G9A13A The higher the transmission line loss, the more the SWR will read artificially lowB The higher the transmission line loss, the more the SWR will read artificially highC The higher the transmission line loss, the more accurate the SWR measurement will beD Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement

What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

G9B: ­ Basic antennas

G9B01A It must be longer than 1 wavelengthB You may experience RF burns when touching metal objects in your stationC It produces only vertically polarized radiationD It is more effective on the lower HF bands than on the higher bands

What is one disadvantage of a directly fed random­wire HF antenna?

G9B02

A Slope the radials upwardB Slope the radials downwardC Lengthen the radialsD Shorten the radials

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed­point impedance of a quarter wave ground­planevertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

G9B03A Bi­directional in azimuthB IsotropicC HemisphericalD Omnidirectional in azimuth

Which of the following best describes the radiation pattern of a quarter­wave, ground­plane vertical antenna?

G9B04A It is a figure­eight at right angles to the antennaB It is a figure­eight off both ends of the antennaC It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)D It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side

What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in a plane containing the conductor?

G9B05A If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictableB Antenna height has no effect on the patternC If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectionalD If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated

How does antenna height affect the horizontal (azimuthal) radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna?

G9B06A As high as possible above the groundB Parallel to the antenna elementC On the surface of the Earth or buried a few inches below the groundD At the center of the antenna

Where should the radial wires of a ground­mounted vertical antenna system be placed?

G9B07

A It steadily increasesB It steadily decreasesC It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above groundD It is unaffected by the height above ground

How does the feed­point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna is lowered below 1/4wave above ground?

G9B08

A It steadily increasesB It steadily decreasesC It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the endD It is unaffected by the location of the feed point

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the centertoward the ends?

G9B09

A Lower ground reflection lossesB Lower feed­point impedanceC Shorter radialsD Lower radiation resistance

Which of the following is an advantage of a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HFantenna?

G9B10A 8 feetB 16 feetC 24 feetD 32 feet

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

G9B11A 42 feetB 84 feetC 131 feetD 263 feet

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

G9B12A 8 feetB 11 feetC 16 feetD 21 feet

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave vertical antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

G9C: ­ Directional antennas

G9C01A Larger­diameter elementsB Closer element spacingC Loading coils in series with the elementD Tapered­diameter elements

Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

G9C02A 1/4 wavelengthB 1/2 wavelengthC 3/4 wavelengthD 1 wavelength

What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

G9C03A The reflector is longer, and the director is shorterB The reflector is shorter, and the director is longerC They are all the same lengthD Relative length depends on the frequency of operation

How do the lengths of a three­element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

G9C04A dBi gain figures are 2.15 dB lower than dBd gain figuresB dBi gain figures are 2.15 dB higher than dBd gain figuresC dBi gain figures are the same as the square root of dBd gain figures multiplied by 2.15D dBi gain figures are the reciprocal of dBd gain figures + 2.15 dB

How does antenna gain stated in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?

G9C05A Gain increasesB Beamwidth increasesC Front­to­back ratio decreasesD Front­to­side ratio decreases

How does increasing boom length and adding directors affect a Yagi antenna?

G9C06

A The driven element must be fed with a balun transformerB There must be an open circuit in the driven element at the point opposite the feed pointC The reflector element must be approximately 5 percent shorter than the driven elementD The reflector element must be approximately 5 percent longer than the driven element

What configuration of the loops of a two­element quad antenna must be used for the antenna to operate as abeam antenna, assuming one of the elements is used as a reflector?

G9C07A The number of directors versus the number of reflectorsB The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directorsC The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to that in the opposite directionD The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain

What does "front­to­back ratio" mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?

G9C08A The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiationB The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna elementC The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating elementD The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna

What is meant by the "main lobe" of a directive antenna?

G9C09

A Approximately 1.5 dB higherB Approximately 3 dB higherC Approximately 6 dB higherD Approximately 9 dB higher

How does the gain of two three­element, horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelengthapart typically compare to the gain of a single three­element Yagi?

G9C10

A The physical length of the boomB The number of elements on the boomC The spacing of each element along the boomD All these choices are correct

Which of the following can be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front­to­back ratio, or SWR bandwidth of a Yagiantenna?

G9C11A A quarter­wave vertical antennaB An isotropic antennaC A directional antennaD An omnidirectional antenna

Which HF antenna would be the best to use for minimizing interference?

G9C12A It does not require that the driven element be insulated from the boomB It does not require any inductors or capacitorsC It is useful for matching multiband antennasD All these choices are correct

Which of the following is an advantage of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?

G9C13A 1/4 wavelengthB 1/2 wavelengthC 3/4 wavelengthD 1 wavelength

Approximately how long is each side of the driven element of a quad antenna?

G9C14

A About the sameB About 2/3 as muchC About 1.5 times as muchD About twice as much

How does the forward gain of a two­element quad antenna compare to the forward gain of a three­element Yagiantenna?

G9C15A dBi refers to an isotropic antenna, dBd refers to a dipole antennaB dBi refers to an ionospheric reflecting antenna, dBd refers to a dissipative antennaC dBi refers to an inverted­vee antenna, dBd refers to a downward reflecting antennaD dBi refers to an isometric antenna, dBd refers to a discone antenna

What is meant by the terms dBi and dBd when referring to antenna gain?

G9C16A It is a shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide

impedance matchingB It is a 1/4 wavelength section of 75 ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance

matchingC It is a series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antennaD It is a section of 300 ohm twinlead used to match a folded dipole antenna

What is a beta or hairpin match?

G9D: ­ Specialized antennas

G9D01

A A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the groundB A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the groundC A left­hand circularly polarized antennaD A right­hand circularly polarized antenna

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a Near Vertical Incidence Skywave (NVIS) antennafor short­skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

G9D02A Very lowB Approximately 50 ohmsC Approximately 300 ohmsD Very high

What is the feed­point impedance of an end­fed half­wave antenna?

G9D03A Broadside to the plane of the haloB Opposite the feed pointC Omnidirectional in the plane of the haloD Toward the halo's supporting mast

In which direction is the maximum radiation from a portable VHF/UHF "halo" antenna?

G9D04A To permit multiband operationB To notch spurious frequenciesC To provide balanced feed­point impedanceD To prevent out­of­band operation

What is the primary purpose of antenna traps?

G9D05A It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarizationB It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarizationC It narrows the main lobe in azimuthD It narrows the main lobe in elevation

What is an advantage of vertical stacking of horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

G9D06A Wide bandwidthB Higher gain per element than a Yagi antennaC Harmonic suppressionD Polarization diversity

Which of the following is an advantage of a log periodic antenna?

G9D07A Element length and spacing vary logarithmically along the boomB Impedance varies periodically as a function of frequencyC Gain varies logarithmically as a function of frequencyD SWR varies periodically as a function of boom length

Which of the following describes a log periodic antenna?

G9D08A By varying its body capacitanceB By varying the base loading inductanceC By extending and retracting the whipD By deploying a capacitance hat

How does a "screwdriver" mobile antenna adjust its feed­point impedance?

G9D09A Directional receiving for low HF bandsB Directional transmitting for low HF bandsC Portable direction finding at higher HF frequenciesD Portable direction finding at lower HF frequencies

What is the primary use of a Beverage antenna?

G9D10

A In the plane of the loopB Broadside to the loopC Broadside and in the plane of the loopD Electrically small loops are omnidirectional

In which direction or directions does an electrically small loop (less than 1/3 wavelength in circumference) havenulls in its radiation pattern?

G9D11A They present low impedance on all design frequenciesB They must be used with an antenna tunerC They must be fed with open wire lineD They have poor harmonic rejection

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

G9D12A Inverted VB Inverted LC SloperD Lazy H

What is the common name of a dipole with a single central support?

G9D13A A figure­eight, similar to a dipoleB Four major loops with deep nullsC Virtually omnidirectional with a lower peak vertical radiation angle than a dipoleD Radiation maximum is straight up

What is the combined vertical and horizontal polarization pattern of a multi­wavelength, horizontal loop antenna?

G0A: ­ RF safety principles, rules and guidelines; routine station evaluation

G0A01A It heats body tissueB It causes radiation poisoningC It causes the blood count to reach a dangerously low levelD It cools body tissue

What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue?

G0A02

A Its duty cycleB Its frequencyC Its power densityD All these choices are correct

Which of the following properties is important in estimating whether an RF signal exceeds the maximumpermissible exposure (MPE)?

G0A03A By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65B By calculation based on computer modelingC By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipmentD All these choices are correct

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

G0A04A The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24­hour periodB The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long­term effect on the bodyC The total time of the exposureD The total RF exposure averaged over a certain time

What does "time averaging" mean in reference to RF radiation exposure?

G0A05

A Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fieldsB File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS­97) with the FCCC Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limitsD All these choices are correct

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows RF energy radiated from your station exceedspermissible limits?

G0A06A It should not be installed higher than you can reachB It should not be installed in a wet areaC It should be limited to 10 feet in heightD It should be installed such that it is protected against unauthorized access

What precaution should be taken when installing a ground­mounted antenna?

G0A07A A lower transmitter duty cycle permits greater short­term exposure levelsB A higher transmitter duty cycle permits greater short­term exposure levelsC Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirementsD High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements

What effect does transmitter duty cycle have when evaluating RF exposure?

G0A08

A Post a copy of FCC Part 97.13 in the stationB Post a copy of OET Bulletin 65 in the stationC Perform a routine RF exposure evaluationD Contact the FCC for a visit to conduct a station evaluation

Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulationswhen transmitter power exceeds levels specified in FCC Part 97.13?

G0A09A A receiver with an S meterB A calibrated field strength meter with a calibrated antennaC An SWR meter with a peak­reading functionD An oscilloscope with a high­stability crystal marker generator

What type of instrument can be used to accurately measure an RF field?

G0A10

A Change to a non­polarized antenna with higher gainB Post a warning sign that is clearly visible to the neighborC Use an antenna with a higher front­to­back ratioD Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction

What is one thing that can be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might receive more than the allowablelimit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?

G0: ELECTRICAL AND RF SAFETY

G0A11A Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed­line radiationB Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiationC Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areasD Make sure the antenna is properly shielded

What precaution should you take if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?

G0B: ­ Station safety: electrical shock, safety grounding, fusing, interlocks, wiring, antenna and tower safety

G0B01

A Only the two wires carrying voltageB Only the neutral wireC Only the ground wireD All wires

Which wire or wires in a four­conductor connection should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers in a deviceoperated from a 240 VAC single phase source?

G0B02

A AWG number 20B AWG number 16C AWG number 12D AWG number 8

According the National Electrical Code, what is the minimum wire size that may be used safely for wiring with a20 ampere circuit breaker?

G0B03A 100 amperesB 60 amperesC 30 amperesD 15 amperes

Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?

G0B04A Danger of carbon monoxide poisoningB Danger of engine over torqueC Lack of oxygen for adequate combustionD Lack of nitrogen for adequate combustion

Which of the following is a primary reason for not placing a gasoline­fueled generator inside an occupied area?

G0B05

A Current flowing from one or more of the voltage­carrying wires to the neutral wireB Current flowing from one or more of the voltage­carrying wires directly to groundC Overvoltage on the voltage­carrying wiresD All these choices are correct

Which of the following conditions will cause a Ground Fault Circuit Interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect the 120 or240 Volt AC line power to a device?

G0B06A Acceptable bandwidth limitsB Acceptable modulation limitsC Electrical safety inside the ham shackD RF exposure limits of the human body

Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?

G0B07A Never lean back and rely on the belt alone to support your weightB Confirm that the belt is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable

service lifeC Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the belt D­ringD All these choices are correct

Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety belt or harness?

G0B08A Notify the electric company that a person will be working on the towerB Make sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are locked out and taggedC Unground the base of the towerD All these choices are correct

What should be done by any person preparing to climb a tower that supports electrically powered devices?

G0B09A The generator should be located in a well­ventilated areaB The generator must be insulated from groundC Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergencyD All these choices are correct

Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

G0B10A Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solderB High voltages can cause lead­tin solder to disintegrate suddenlyC Tin in the solder can "cold flow," causing shorts in the circuitD RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas

Which of the following is a danger from lead­tin solder?

G0B11A They must be bonded to all buried water and gas linesB Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angleC Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiringD They must be bonded together with all other grounds

Which of the following is good practice for lightning protection grounds?

G0B12A To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer's warrantyB To shut down the unit if it becomes too hotC To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is openedD To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced

What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

G0B13A Disconnect the incoming utility power feedB Insure that the generator is not groundedC Insure that all lightning grounds are disconnectedD All these choices are correct

What must you do when powering your house from an emergency generator?

G0B14A Ensure that you and the antenna structure are groundedB Turn off the transmitter and disconnect the feed lineC Wear a radiation badgeD All these choices are correct ~~~end of question pool text~~~

What precaution should you take whenever you adjust or repair an antenna?