SUCCEED REVIEW CENTERFINAL COACHING - FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING

Vital Signs1. Mr. Jimenez, age 44, is undergoing antibiotic therapy for pneumonia. His rectal temperature reading is 101.6ºF. His oral temperature would be considered as:

A. 101.6º F B. 100.6ºF C. 99.6ºF D. 97.6ºF 2. Ms. Kintanar, age 30, develops a postpartum temperature that is elevated in the evening but returns to a normal reading in the morning. This has occurred for several days. This pattern of fever would be classified as:

A. ConstantB. Intermittent

C. RemittentD. Crisis

3. Mr. Salvador, age 66, has a 10-year history of coronary artery disease. He is presently recovering from a myocardial infarction. The most accurate assessment of pulse rate would be to obtain a (n):

A. Carotid pulseB. Radial pulse

C. Apical pulseD. Brachial pulse

4. Ms. Avila is 48-years-old. During a routine physical her blood pressure is noted a 180/90. She fears she is hypertensive. The nurse would explain that the diagnosis of hypertension is made when there is a sustained elevated blood pressure of over:

A. 160/100 B. 140/90 C. 130/70 D. 120/80

5. Mr. Pineda, age 65, has a history of emphysema resulting from 30 years of cigarette smoking. He frequently complains of dyspnea. Dyspnea is defined as:A. PallorB. Absence of retractions

C. CyanosisD. Difficult respirations

6. Ms. Gonzaga, age 52, complains of palpitations resulting from anxiety over her impending surgery. Her pulse rate is found to be 110 per minute. Ms. Gonzaga’s heart rate could be described as:

A. BradycardiaB. Tachycardia

C. TachypneaD. Hypertensive

Safety

7. The nurse is directed to obtain a type C fire extinguisher. A type C fire extinguisher is required for which type of the following types of fire?

A. PaperB. Cloth

C. GreaseD. Electrical

8. Vomiting would most likely to be induce poisoning is related to the ingestion of which of the following substance (s)?A. Lye

B. Petroleum products

C. Household cleanersD. Salicylates, such as aspirin

9. Mr. Gomez, age 63, is brought to the emergency department for treatment of an accidental poisoning. The first step in the treatment is to:

A. Induce vomitingB. Assess the patient

C. Place the patient in an upright positionD. Notify the poison control center

10.The nurse is placing the overbed table over the bed of 63-year-old Mr. Narvasa, who is on bed rest for pulmonary embolism. He accidentally knocks the emesis basin to the floor. When picking up the emesis basin, the proper body mechanics for the nurse would be to:

A. Lower the body by flexing the knees and bending the hipsB. Bend from the waist and hipsC. Flex the knees and bend at the waistD. Keep the legs straight and flex the waist

11.Ms. Gregorio is an 82-year-old patient who has had a right total hip replacement. On the first postoperative day, the nurse repositions Ms. Gregorio to her left side, placing a pillow between legs and another to her back. The nurse assesses the proper placement of Ms. Gregorio’s body to evaluate:

A. Base support

B. Body alignment

C. Head/chin tiltD. Gluteal pressure

12. It is the first night after an abdominal hysterectomy for Ms. Bermudez. She has not voided for 9 hours, and the nurse is to insert a #16 Foley catheter into her bladder. The preferred position to place Ms. Bermudez for the procedure is:

A. Dorsal recumbentB. Lithotomy

C. Sims’

D. Prone13.The nurse is assigned to care for 64-year-old Mr. Formoso, who was admitted for exacerbation of chronic obstructive

pulmonary disease and pneumonia. He has dyspnea (shortness of breath) and is unable to rest in a supine position. The nurse elevates the head of the bed to 90 degrees, places a pillow on the overbed table, and assists Mr. Formoso to lean forward, placing his head on the pillow. This position is called:

A. Semi-Fowler’sB. Dorsal

C. Sims’D. Orthopneic

Hygiene and Care of the Patient’s Environment

14.Ms. Ortega, a 64-year-old patient with terminal cancer, is too weak to perform her own perineal care. The student nurse knows she will include bathing which of the following areas for perineal care?

A. Back and buttocksB. Eyes, ears, and nose

C. Upper torso and thighsD. Upper thighs, genitalia and anal area

15.Which of the following patients assigned to the nurse for A.M. care would be at greatest risk for skin impairment?A. Child on bed restB. Infant with cool skin temperature

C. Young man with diarrheaD. 60-year-old patient in a body cast

16.Tanya Jacinto is a 12-year-old patient with leg cast. The nurse bathing Tanya is aware that proper eye care would be:A. To wash from the outer canthus to inner canthusB. To cleanse dried exudate with hot waterC. To avoid drying circumorbital area after washingD. To use a different section of washcloth for each eye

17. Mr. Cruz is an 80-year-old uncircumcised man who is in the first postoperative day after a TURP. When administering perineal care, the nurse should:

A. Retract the foreskin, cleanse the penis, and allow the foreskin to return to former positionB. Sprinkle powder under the foreskin to facilitate retraction of the foreskinC. Leave the foreskin slightly damp to allow retraction to its former stateD. Retract the foreskin, cleanse the penis, and return the foreskin with a gentle forward motion

18.The nurse knows that which of the following patients is most at risk for complications of the feet?A. A young man in a career that requires standingB. A disoriented, elderly man

C. A 60-year-old person with diabetes mellitusD. A 62-year-old patient with total hip replacement

19.Mr. Javellana is an 82-year-old who is unconscious and requires meticulous oral hygiene. The optimal position for providing oral hygiene to Mr. Javellana is the:

A. High-Fowler’s positionB. High-Fowler’s position with head hyperextended

C. Supine with head loweredD. Side-lying position with head lowered

Specimen Collection of Diagnostic Examination

20.A sputum specimen has been ordered for Mr. Buenaventura, a 75-year-old patient admitted with possible pneumonia of the right lower lobe. Mr. Buenaventura is not able to cough. The nurse is aware that for patients who cannot expectorate sputum from deep in the bronchial tree, the specimen must be collected by:

A. Pharyngeal suctioningB. Tracheal suctioning

C. Oropharyngeal suctioningD. Percussion and vibration

21.The physician has ordered a stool specimen for blood that cannot be seen by the naked eye. This examination is for:A. Profuse bleedingB. Gross blood

C. MelenaD. Occult blood

22.Mr. Lagman, age 46, is seen by the physician for recurrent symptoms of cystitis. He is to have a urine culture and sensitivity determination and a 24- hour urine collection for laboratory analysis. Mr. Lagman should be informed that a urine culture study is required to:

A. Identify the causative organismB. Determine the presence of malignant cell

C. Analyze the elements present in the urineD. Localize the site of the inflammatory process

23.To obtain a 24-hour urine specimen, the patient should be given which of the following instructions?A. Collect each voiding in separate containers for the next 24 hoursB. Discard the first voided specimen and then collect the total volume of each voiding for 24 hoursC. For the next 24 hours, retain a 30ml specimen of each voiding after recording the amount voidedD. Keep a record of the time and amount of each voiding for 24 hours

24.Ms. Cristobal, age 72, has an indwelling urinary catheter. A sterile urine specimen has been ordered for a culture and sensitivity. The sterile specimen should be obtained by:

A. Obtaining 60 ml of urine from the collection bagB. Removing the present catheter, having the patient void, and then recatheterizingC. Disconnecting the tubing from the catheter and draining 2 ml of urineD. Aspirating 10 ml of urine with a sterile syringe from the tubing port

25.A patient performing a finger stick for blood glucose determination asks why the side of the fingertip is advised as the preferred site. The nurse is aware that it is because:

A. The blood supply is greater in this areaB. It is easier for the self-determination method

C. The side of the finger is less responsive to painD. It leaves more room for other site selection

26.A patient is scheduled for an upper GI series and a barium enema. The nurse explains that because of the procedure for an upper gastrointestinal study and barium enema, the patient can expect to:

A. Be NPO after midnight and have enemas until clearB. Have coffee and toast the morning of the test

C. Take radiographic dye tabletsD. Have a needle inserted into the liver area

27.The patient tells the nurse, “I have a very hard time getting a drop of blood from my finger for the blood sugar test.” The nurse:A. Asks the physician to order a different type of blood glucose monitoring systemB. Suggests that the patient use warm water on the finger just before using the blood lancetC. Instructs the patient to use the same puncture site several times in a row for best resultsD. Reminds the patient that it is acceptable to skip blood glucose monitoring once in a while

Selected Nursing Skills

28.The nurse would use which of the following methods to determine the correct distance to insert a nasogastric tube?A. Center of forehead to top of nose to end of sternumB. Tip of nose to tip of earlobe to end of sternumC. Lips to tip of ear to just below the umbilicusD. Tip of ear to midway between end of sternum and umbilicus

29.After inserting a nasogastric tube, the nurse can be certain it is in the proper place if:A. The patient no longer complains of pain or nausea B. 30 ml of normal saline can be injected with easeC. Bubbles occur when the tube is submerged into waterD. Gastric contents are aspirated with cone tipped syringe

30.Mr. Aragon, diagnosed with throat cancer, is a 2-day postoperative patient with a tracheostomy. Which part of the tracheostomy tube is removed by the nurse for cleaning?

A. Outer cannulaB. Inner cannula

C. Single-lumen tubeD. Double-lumen tube

31.What safety precaution must be taken for Mr. Aragon because he has a tracheostomy tube?A. Keep a crash cart in the roomB. Be prepared to put him on a ventilator

C. Keep curved hemostat at the bedsideD. Be prepared to remove the tube

32. If, when suctioning Mr. Aragon, the nurse finds it necessary to repeat the interventions, it is recommended that the nurse wait at least 3 minutes. This is to allow for:

A. Overcoming fatigue

B. Numbing of mucous membranes

C. Replenishing oxygenD. Subsiding of pain

33.Preoperatively the physician orders “enemas until clear.” The maximum number of enemas the nurse should give is:A. Two

B. Three

C. FiveD. Unlimited

34.Ms. Javier has just returned from the Pac unit. During a report the nurse is told Ms. Javier has a Penrose drain in the LLQ. The purpose of a Penrose drain is:

A. To instill solution for wound irrigationB. To prevent blockage of a passageway

C. To drain the wound area by suctionD. To drain the wound area by gravity

35.Which of the following nursing interventions would be appropriate should Ms. Palma’s abdominal wound eviscerate?A. Place her in high Fowler’s positionB. Give her fluids to prevent shock

C. Replace dressings with sterile fluffy padsD. Apply warm, moist sterile dressings

36.Mr. Jocson has a condom catheter in place. The nurse knows that the most serious problem that could develop with the use of a condom catheter is:

A. Skin impairment resulting from accumulation of moistureB. Restriction of blood supply to the penisC. Patient may not be able to keep the catheter as clean as necessaryD. Urine leakage resulting from an ill-fitting catheter

37.Ms. Baltazar is receiving oxygen at a rate of 1.5 liters per minute via nasal cannula. Which of the following nursing interventions is indicated because the patient has a nasal cannula?

A. Assess nares for skin impairment every 6 hoursB. Assess patency of the cannula every 2 hours

C. Inspect the oral cavity every 6 hoursD. Check oxygen flow and orders every 24 hours

38.Ms. Asuncion has a feeding tube. You know that the tube feeding are administered for all the following reasons except:A. The patient is able to chew foodsB. The patient is not digesting foods

C. The patient does not have a gag reflexD. The patient is not able to ingest foods

39.The nurse should use cold applications with a patient who has which of the following conditions?A. Menstrual crampingB. An infected wound

C. Degenerative joint diseaseD. A fractured ankle

40.The nurse recognizes that which of the following statements is correct in regard to the use of an abdominal binder?A. It replaces the need for underlying dressingsB. It should be kept loose for patient comfortC. The patient should be sitting or standing when it is appliedD. The patient must have adequate ventilatory capacity

41.The unit manager is orienting a new staff nurse and evaluates which of the following as an appropriate technique for nasotracheal suctioning?

A. Placing the patient in a supine positionB. Preparing for a clean or nonsterile techniqueC. Suctioning the oropharyngeal area first, then the nasotracheal areaD. Applying intermittent suctioning for 10 seconds during catheter removal

42.Which of the following is important in the site selection for a new intravenous line?A. Starting with the most proximal siteB. Looking for hard, cordlike veins

C. Using sites away from a dialysis graftD. Selecting the dominant arm

43.A patient has intravenous therapy for the administration of antibiotics and states that the IV site hurts and is swollen. Which of the following data should confirm phlebitis, as opposed to infiltration?

A. Intensity of painB. Warmth of skin surrounding IV site

C. Amount of subcutaneous edemaD. Skin discoloration of a bruised nature

44.A patient complains of a headache and nausea and vomiting during blood transfusion. Which one of the following actions should the nurse take immediately?

A. Check the vital signsB. Stop the blood transfusion

C. Slow down the rate of blood flow D. Notify the physician and blood bank personnel

45.The nursing instructor is supervising a student during the catheterization of a female patient. Which of the following is determined to be an appropriate part of the technique?

A. Keeping both hands sterile throughout the procedureB. Reinserting the catheter if it was misplaced initially in the vaginaC. Inflating the balloon to test it before catheter insertionD. Advancing the catheter 7 to 8 inches

46.A bladder retraining program for patient in an extended care facility should include:A. Providing negative reinforcement when the patient is incontinentB. Having the patient wear adult diapers as a preventive measureC. Putting the patient on a q2h toilet schedule during the dayD. Promoting the intake of caffeine to stimulate voiding

47.The most accurate method for the nurse to use in determining water balance in the body is to:A. Weigh the patient daily at the same time each dayB. Record an accurate 24-hour I&OC. Ask the patient to document on a form left at his or her bedsideD. Have the same nurse care for the patient each day

ANSWER:48.The major route of excretion of all electrolytes from the body is via the

A. SkinB. Lungs

C. Kidney

D. Feces 49.Fluid movement in the cells equalizes the ions or molecules on each side of the semipermeable membrane. The movement of water from an area of lower concentration to an area of higher concentration occurs through:

A. DiffusionB. Filtration

C. Active transportD. Osmosis

50.The largest fluid compartment in the body is the:A. IntracellularB. Extracellular

C. Interstitial D. Intravascular

51. Cone receptors are mainly responsible for sensing:A. LightB. Color

C. ShapesD. Black or white

52. To determine a patient’s visual acuity, you would use the:A. Snellen chartB. Cover-uncover test

C. Corneal light reflex testD. Cardinal positions of gaze

53. The red reflex seen during an ophthal - moscope examination is the result of:A. An increase in intraocular pressureB. Incorrect adjustment of the diopter C. Light from the scope reflecting back from the choroids

D. Anterior narrowing54. Compared with the size of a child’s pupils, the size of an adult’s pupils is:

A. SmallerB. Larger

C. The same throughout lifeD. Wider

55. Before inserting the otoscope into the patient’s ear, the nurse should palpate the;A. HelixB. Earlobe

C. Lymph nodesD. Tragus

56. During an otoscopic examination, the nurse should pull the superior posterior auricle of an adult patient’s ear:A. Up and backB. Up and forward

C. Down and backD. Straight back

57. Your patients complains of lower abdominal pressure, and you note a firm mass extending above the symphysis pubis. You suspect:

A. A distended bladderB. An enlarge kidney

C. A UTID. An inflamed ovary

58. Your patient reports a 32-day menstrual cycle. You know this cycle is probably:A. A normal variationB. A sign of metrorrhagia

C. A precursor to uterine cancerD. A precursor to menopause

59. Your 76-year-old patient is diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. What would you expect to find when assessing her nails?A. Dark, yellowish nailsB. Transverse bands of white covering the nails

C. White patches on the nailsD. Spoon-shaped nails

60. You assess a child’s visual acuity using the Snellen chart. The result is 20/50 in both eyes. Which explanation should you give to her parent?

A. “What normal eyes see at a distance of 50 feet, your child’s eyes see at a distance of 20 feet.”B. “What normal eyes see at a distance of 20 feet, your child’s eyes see at a distance of 50 feet.”C. “To see what the normal eye sees at a distance of 20 feet, your child’s eyes need a 50% magnification increase.”D. “Your child’s eyes see 20% of what children with normal vision see at 50 feet”

61. Electrocardiogarphy (ECG) is a diagnostic tool used to evaluate the electrical activity of the heart. Which of the following ECG results would reveal that there is myocardial ischemia?

a. ST segment elevation and peaked T waveb. ST segment elevation and inverted T wave

c. ST segment depression and peaked T waved. ST segment depression and abnormal Q wave

62. A client received digoxin (Lanoxin) therapy o treat the irregular beating of his heart. The nurse knows that the therapy has been effective when the client with atrial fibrillation has an ECG tracing showing:

a. A heart rate of 50 beats per minuteb. Mobitz II heart block

c. A heart rate of 105 beats per minuted. A heart rate of 70 beats per minute

63. Valsalva maneuver can result in bradycardia. Which of the following activities will not stimulate Valsalva’s maneuver?a. Use of stool softeners. b. Enema administration 

c. Gagging while toothbrushing. d. Lifting heavy objects

64. The nurse knows the client understands the teaching concerning a low-fat, low cholesterol diet when the client selects which meal?a. Fried fish, garlic mashed potatoes, and iced tea.b. Ham and cheese on white bread and whole milk.

c. Baked chicken, baked potato, and skim milk.d. A hamburger, French fries, and carbonated beverage.

65. Cardiac magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is prescribed for a client. The nurse identifies that which of the following is a contraindication for performance of this diagnostic study?

a. Client has a pacemaker.b. Client is allergic to iodine.

c. Client has diabetes mellitus.d. Client has a biological porcine valve.

66. A client with angina has a 12-lead electrocardiogram taken during an episode of chest pain. A nurse examines the tracing for which electrocardiographic change caused by myocardial ischemia?

a. Tall peaked T wavesb. Prolonged PR interval

c. Widened QRS complexd. ST segment elevation or depression

67. An adult patient is scheduled for an upper GI series that will use a barium swallow. What teaching should the nurse include when the patient has completed the test?

A. Stool will be yellow for the first 24 hours post-procedure.B. The barium may cause diarrhea.C. Fluids must be increased to facilitate the evacuation of the stool.D. This series includes analysis of gastric secretions.

68. The most common adverse effects f long-term, high dose aspirin use are:A. Nausea and skin rashB. Excessive thirst and vomiting

C. Tinnitus and gastrointestinal bleedingD. Dizziness and sedation

69. The correct sequence for an abdominal assessment is:A. Inspection, percussion, palpation, and auscultationB. Percussion, auscultation, inspection, and palpationC. Inspection, auscultation, percussion, and palpationD. Auscultation, inspection, palpation and percussion

70. Hyperactive bowel sounds may be a sign of:A. Ileus or bowel obstructionB. Peritonitis or opioid analgesic use

C. Constipation, diarrhea or laxative useD. Diminished peristalsis

71. When administering a bolus gastrostomy feeding, the receptacle should be held no higher thanA. 9 inches. B. 18 inches. C. 27 inches. D. 38 inches.

72. A client with colostomy refuses to allow his wife to see the incision or stoma and ignores most of his dietary instructions. The nurse on assessing this data, can assume that the client is experiencing:

A. A reaction formation to his recent altered body image. B. A difficult time accepting reality and is in a state of denial. C. Impotency due to the surgery and needs sexual counseling D. Suicide thoughts and should be seen by psychiatrist

73. The nurse teaches the patient whose surgery will result in a sigmoid colostomy that the feces expelled through the colostomy will be A. solid B. mushy C. semi-mushy D. fluid74. When doing colostomy irrigation at home, a client with colostomy should be instructed to report to his physician :

A. Abdominal cramps during fluid inflow B. Difficulty in inserting the irrigating tube 

C. Passage of flatus during expulsion of feces D. Inability to complete the procedure in half an hour

75. A problem unique to the patient with an ileostomy is thatA. regular bowel habits cannot be established.B. sexual activity is restricted.

C. skin excoriation can occur.D. the collecting appliance is bulky and large.

76.What is the maximum length of time the nurse allows an IV bag of solution to infuse into the client?A. 6 hours C. 18 hours

B.12 hours D. 24 hours77. What clinical indicator will the nurse most likely identify when assessing a client with pyrexia?

A. Dyspnea C. Increased pulse rateB. Precordial pain D. Elevated blood pressure

78.Poor oxygenation of the blood ordinarily will affect the pulse rate and cause it to become:A. Bounding C. Faster than normalB. Irregular D. Slower than normal

79.During the enema the client begins to complain of pain. The nurse notes blood in the return fluid and rectal bleeding. The nurse’s actions are to:

A. Stop the installation

B. Slow down the rate of installation

C. Stop the installation and obtain vital signsD. Tell the client to breath slowly and relax

80.The nurse is assessing a 55-year-old client who is in the clinic for a routine physical. The nurse instructs the client to obtain fecal occult blood testing (FOBT):

A. When there is a family history of polypsB. If client reports rectal bleedingC. If a palpable mass is detected on digital examinationsD. As part of a routine examination for colon cancer

81.For a hearing-impaired client to hear a spoken conversation, the nurse should:A. Approach a client quietly from behindB. Face the client when speaking, use a louder than normal tone of voiceC. Select a public area to have a spoken conversationD. Face the client when speaking; speak slower and in a normal volume

82.Sensory deficits happen when a problem with sensory reception or perception occurs. As a result clients may:A. withdraw socially to cope with the lossB. Rely solely on one sense

C. Respond normally to stimuliD. Function safety within their environment

83.The urine appears concentrated and cloudy because of the presence of white blood cells or:A. Bacteria C. Blot clotsB. Urinary drainage bags D. Poor perineal hygiene

84.Maintaining a Foley Catheter drainage bag in the dependent position prevents:A. Urinary reflux C. Reflex incontinenceB. Urinary retention D. Urinary incontinence

85.When applying a condom catheter, it is important to secure the catheter in the penile shaft in such a manner that the catheter is:A. Tight and draining wellB. Dependent and draining wellC. Secured with adhesive tape applied in a circular patternD. Snug and secure, but does not cause constriction to blood flow

86.During the nursing assessment the client reveals that he has diarrhea and cramping every time he has ice cream. He attributes this to the cold nature of the food. However, the nurse begins to suspect that these symptoms might be associated with:

A. Food allergy C. Lactose intoleranceB. Irritable bowel D. Increased peristalsis

87.A terminally ill client is visited frequently by her spouse, a 16-year-old daughter, and a 20-year-old son. In view of the client’s extreme weakness and dyspnea, the client’s nursing plan of care should include:

A. Allowing self-activity whenever possibleB. Encouraging family members to assist with caring for the clientC. Limiting family visiting hours to the evening before the client sleepsD. Planning necessary care at one time with long rest periods between care

88.A client who is in constant pain and undergoes frequent monitoring of vital signs is at risk for experiencing sensory:A. Deprivation C. OverloadB. Deficits D. Stimuli

89.A nurse educator is presenting information about the Nursing Process to a class of nursing students. The nurse educator states that the Nursing Process can best be defined as the:

A. Implementation of client care by the nurseB. Steps the nurse employs to meet client needsC. Activities a nurse employs to identify a client’s problemD. Process the nurse uses to determine nursing goals for the client

90.To utilize the Nursing Process, the nurse must first:A. Identify goals for nursing careB. State the client’s nursing needs

C. Obtain information about the clientD. Evaluate the effectiveness of nursing action

91.The main reason that auscultation proceeds palpation of the abdomen is to:A. Prevent distortion of vascular soundsB. Prevent distortion of bowel sounds

C. Determine any areas of tenderness or painD. Allow the client to relax and be comfortable

92.To correctly palpate the clients’ skin for temperature, the nurse will use the:A. Base of the hands C. Dorsal surface of the handsB. Fingertips of the hands D. Palmar surface of the hands

93.The nurse is teaching the client to inspect all skin surfaces and to report pigmented skin lesions that:A. are symmetrical C. are uniform in colorB. have irregular borders D. are less than 6 mm in diameter

94.During a nursing assessment an adult client is noted to have shallow respirations at a rate of 8 beats per minute. His heart rate is 46 beats per minute. His vital signs would be described as:

A. Bradycardia and apnea C. Bradycardia and bradypneaB. Tachycardia and apnea D. Tachycardia and bradypnea

95.A pulse deficit provides information about the heart’s ability to adequately perfuse the body. A pulse deficit is:A. The difference between the radial and apical pulse ratesB. The digital pressure felt when taking radial and ulnar pulsesC. The amount of pressure felt when taking radial and ulnar pulsesD. The difference between the systolic and diastolic blood pressure readings

96.The physiological changes that occur during the aging process increase the older client’s risk for:A. Falls and burns C. AlcoholismB. Poisoning D. Medication errors

97.An infant is to receive thyroxine sodium, 0.35 mg once a day orally. The medication is available in an elixir form, 0.25 mg/mL. How much elixir should the nurse administer?

A. 1 ml B. 1.2 ml C. 1.4 ml D. 2 ml

98.When inspecting the adult client’s thorax, the nurse observes:A. Presence of fremitusB. Presence of breath sounds

C. Movement of the diaphragmD. Symmetry of chest excursion

99.Nursing interventions such as removing excess blankets from the client and applying cool cloths to the axilla act to decrease body temperature through:

A. Conduction C. EvaporationB. Convection D. Radiation

100. When the nurse washes the hands before and after caring for a client, the nurse understands that the most important aspect of handwashing is:A. Time C. WaterB. Soap D. Friction